00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00 : 00 : 00
Session Time
00 : 00
Average Question Time ( Secs)
  • Question 1 - A 55-year-old woman visits her GP and mentions her diagnosis of heart failure....

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old woman visits her GP and mentions her diagnosis of heart failure. She expresses interest in learning about medications that can potentially decrease mortality in heart failure. Which drug has been proven to have this effect?

      Your Answer: Digoxin

      Correct Answer: Spironolactone

      Explanation:

      Common Medications for Heart Failure: Benefits and Limitations

      Heart failure is a chronic condition that affects millions of people worldwide. While there is no cure for heart failure, medications can help manage symptoms and improve quality of life. Here are some common medications used in the treatment of heart failure, along with their benefits and limitations.

      Spironolactone: Recent trials have shown that spironolactone can reduce mortality in severe heart failure. This drug works by antagonizing the deleterious effects of aldosterone on cardiac remodeling, rather than its diuretic effect.

      Simvastatin: While statins are effective in reducing morbidity and mortality in patients with coronary artery disease, their beneficial effects in heart failure remain inconclusive.

      Atenolol: Atenolol has not been shown to be effective in reducing mortality in heart failure and is not used as part of the condition’s management. However, certain beta-blockers like carvedilol, metoprolol, or bisoprolol are recommended in patients who have been stabilized on diuretic and angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE-I) therapy.

      Furosemide: Furosemide is a mainstay in the treatment of both acute and long-term heart failure, particularly for relieving symptoms of fluid overload. However, there is little data to prove that it improves long-term mortality in patients with chronic congestive cardiac failure (CCF).

      Digoxin: Digoxin does not decrease mortality in heart failure. Its use is reserved for patients in atrial fibrillation and those who cannot be controlled on an ACE-I, beta-blocker, and loop diuretic. Some studies suggest a decreased rate in CHF-related hospital admissions.

      In conclusion, while these medications can help manage symptoms and improve quality of life in heart failure patients, their limitations should also be considered. It is important to work closely with a healthcare provider to determine the best treatment plan for each individual.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      32.2
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 28-year-old man presents to his GP with complaints of abnormal sensations in...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old man presents to his GP with complaints of abnormal sensations in his right hand and forearm. He reports experiencing numbness and tingling in the back of his hand, particularly around his thumb, index, and middle finger. Additionally, he has noticed weakness in his elbow and wrist. Upon examination, the GP observes reduced power in elbow and wrist extension on the right side. The patient denies any history of trauma to the arm and does not engage in extreme sports. He works as a security agent and often sleeps in a chair during his night shifts. X-rays of the right wrist, elbow, and shoulder reveal no apparent fractures. What is the most probable diagnosis for this individual?

      Your Answer: Radial nerve palsy

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Radial Nerve Palsy from Other Upper Limb Pathologies

      Radial nerve palsy is a condition that affects the extensors of the wrist and forearms, as well as the sensation of the back of the hands at the thumb, index, middle, and radial side of the ring finger. It is often caused by compression or injury to the radial nerve, which can occur from sleeping in an awkward position or other trauma. This condition is commonly referred to as Saturday night palsy.

      It is important to differentiate radial nerve palsy from other upper limb pathologies, such as carpal tunnel syndrome, Erb’s palsy, cubital tunnel syndrome, and Klumpke’s palsy. Carpal tunnel syndrome involves compression of the median nerve at the wrist, causing tingling, numbness, and pain in the palmar side of the thumb, index, middle, and ring finger area. Erb’s palsy is an injury to the brachial plexus involving the upper roots, usually occurring during delivery and causing an adducted and internally rotated shoulder with elbow extension, pronation, and wrist flexion. Cubital tunnel syndrome involves impingement of the ulnar nerve at the elbow, causing numbness and tingling at the ulnar side of the ring finger and small finger, and potentially leading to an ulnar claw deformity. Klumpke’s palsy is an injury to the brachial plexus involving the lower roots, usually occurring during delivery and causing a claw hand and potentially Horner syndrome.

      By understanding the specific symptoms and causes of each condition, healthcare professionals can accurately diagnose and treat patients with upper limb pathologies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosurgery
      64.1
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 32-year-old woman presents to her GP with complaints of itchy, red, and...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman presents to her GP with complaints of itchy, red, and watery eyes. She reports that the symptoms started in her left eye four days ago and have since spread to her right eye. Upon examination, bilateral redness and watery discharge are observed in both eyes. The patient has a history of using reusable contact lenses and reports that her 4-year-old son had similar symptoms a week ago. What management advice should the GP provide for this likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Do not wear contact lenses until symptoms have resolved and use chloramphenicol eye drops every 3 hours

      Correct Answer: Do not wear contact lenses until symptoms have resolved. Clean the eyelids with a wet cloth and apply a cold compress as needed to relieve symptoms

      Explanation:

      It is not recommended to wear contact lenses during an episode of conjunctivitis. The patient should refrain from using contact lenses until their symptoms have completely resolved. They can clean their eyelids with a wet cloth and use a cold compress as needed to alleviate discomfort. This is likely a case of viral conjunctivitis, which can be managed conservatively with good eye hygiene and cold compresses. Wearing contact lenses during this time can worsen symptoms as they may act as an irritant or carry infections. Administering chloramphenicol eye drops every 3 hours and using a cold compress is not appropriate for viral conjunctivitis. Continuing to wear contact lenses while using a cold compress is also not recommended. The patient should discard their current lenses, wait until their symptoms have resolved, and start using new lenses again.

      Conjunctivitis is a common eye problem that is often seen in primary care. It is characterized by red, sore eyes with a sticky discharge. There are two types of infective conjunctivitis: bacterial and viral. Bacterial conjunctivitis is identified by a purulent discharge and eyes that may be stuck together in the morning. On the other hand, viral conjunctivitis is characterized by a serous discharge and recent upper respiratory tract infection, as well as preauricular lymph nodes.

      In most cases, infective conjunctivitis is a self-limiting condition that resolves without treatment within one to two weeks. However, topical antibiotic therapy is often offered to patients, such as Chloramphenicol drops given every two to three hours initially or Chloramphenicol ointment given four times a day initially. Alternatively, topical fusidic acid can be used, especially for pregnant women, and treatment is twice daily.

      For contact lens users, topical fluoresceins should be used to identify any corneal staining, and treatment should be the same as above. During an episode of conjunctivitis, contact lenses should not be worn, and patients should be advised not to share towels. School exclusion is not necessary.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      59.4
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 32-year-old woman is scheduled for a routine cervical smear. After the test,...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman is scheduled for a routine cervical smear. After the test, the practice contacts her to let her know that the laboratory has reported the sample as 'inadequate'. She is asked to come back for a repeat smear. However, the second sample is also reported as 'inadequate' by the laboratory.

      What is the recommended course of action now?

      Your Answer: Refer to gynaecology

      Correct Answer: Refer for colposcopy

      Explanation:

      If two consecutive samples are deemed inadequate during cervical cancer screening, the correct course of action is to refer the patient for colposcopy. Repeating the smear in 1 or 3 months is not appropriate as two inadequate samples have already been taken. Requesting hrHPV testing from the laboratory is also not useful if the sample is inadequate. Referring the patient to gynaecology is not necessary, and instead, a referral for colposcopy should be made.

      The cervical cancer screening program has evolved to include HPV testing, which allows for further risk stratification. A negative hrHPV result means a return to normal recall, while a positive result requires cytological examination. Abnormal cytology results lead to colposcopy, while normal cytology results require a repeat test at 12 months. Inadequate samples require a repeat within 3 months, and two consecutive inadequate samples lead to colposcopy. Treatment for CIN typically involves LLETZ or cryotherapy. Individuals who have been treated for CIN should be invited for a test of cure repeat cervical sample 6 months after treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      26.8
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 67-year-old man presented with fever and body ache for 6 months. His...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old man presented with fever and body ache for 6 months. His blood tests revealed a haemoglobin level of 110 g/l and erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) of 121 mm in the first hour. Serum protein electrophoresis revealed an M band in the gamma globulin region with a total IgG level of 70 g/l. Bone marrow biopsy shows plasma cells in the marrow of 11%. A skeletal survey reveals no abnormalities. Other blood tests revealed:
      Test Parameter Normal range
      Calcium 2.60 mmol/l 2.20–2.60 mmol/l
      Creatinine 119 μmol/l 50–120 μmol/l
      Phosphate 1.30 mmol/l 0.70–1.40 mmol/l
      Potassium (K+) 4.6 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
      Lactate dehydrogenase 399 IU/l 100–190 IU/l
      His body weight was 80 kg.
      What is his condition better known as?

      Your Answer: Plasma cell leukaemia

      Correct Answer: Smouldering myeloma

      Explanation:

      Smouldering myeloma is a stage between monoclonal gammopathy of unknown significance (MGUS) and myeloma. To diagnose this condition, the patient must have a monoclonal protein in the serum of at least 30 g/l and monoclonal plasma cells of at least 10% in bone marrow or tissue biopsy, but no evidence of end-organ damage. Patients with smouldering myeloma should be closely monitored as they are at high risk of developing symptomatic myeloma.

      Multiple myeloma is a malignant neoplasm where there is clonal proliferation of plasma cells in the bone marrow, leading to the secretion of a monoclonal antibody and light immunoglobulin chains that cause organ damage. Patients with multiple myeloma present with various symptoms, including lethargy, bone pain, pathological fractures, renal impairment, amyloidosis, and pancytopenia due to marrow infiltration. To diagnose multiple myeloma, the patient must have a monoclonal antibody in serum and/or urine, clonal plasma cells of at least 10% on bone marrow biopsy, and evidence of end-organ damage.

      MGUS is a condition where low levels of paraprotein are detected in the blood, but they are not causing clinically significant symptoms or end-organ damage. To diagnose MGUS, the patient must have a monoclonal protein in the serum of less than or equal to 30 g/l, monoclonal plasma cells of less than or equal to 10% in bone marrow or tissue biopsy, and no evidence of end-organ damage.

      Non-secretory myeloma is a rare variant of multiple myeloma where the bone marrow findings and end-organ damage are similar to myeloma, but there is no detectable monoclonal protein in the serum or urine. This makes it difficult to diagnose.

      Plasma cell leukemia is a rare and aggressive form of multiple myeloma characterized by high levels of plasma cells circulating in the peripheral blood. It can occur as a primary condition or a secondary leukaemic transformation of multiple myeloma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      4.5
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - Ms. Johnson, a 48-year-old woman, arrives at the emergency department complaining of acute...

    Incorrect

    • Ms. Johnson, a 48-year-old woman, arrives at the emergency department complaining of acute epigastric abdominal pain, nausea, and vomiting that started 24 hours ago. She reports that the pain worsens after eating and lying down, but improves when she leans forward. Although she has experienced colicky upper abdominal pain in the past, she claims that this has never happened before. Upon observation, she appears to be sweating profusely and has a large body habitus. Mild scleral icterus is also noted during examination. While waiting for the results of routine bloods and a serum amylase, what would be the immediate next investigation you would want to perform for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ultrasound abdomen

      Explanation:

      In cases of suspected acute pancreatitis, early ultrasound imaging is crucial in determining the underlying cause, which can impact treatment decisions. The patient’s symptoms and medical history suggest the presence of gallstones or biliary colic, making an ultrasound the appropriate initial investigation. This non-invasive test can quickly identify the presence of gallstones and guide management while waiting for blood test results. A CT scan may be necessary if blood tests are inconclusive or to assess the severity of the disease and potential complications. ERCP is not indicated at this stage, and MRI and abdominal x-rays are not typically used to diagnose acute pancreatitis.

      Understanding Acute Pancreatitis

      Acute pancreatitis is a condition that is commonly caused by alcohol or gallstones. It occurs when the pancreatic enzymes start to digest the pancreatic tissue, leading to necrosis. The main symptom of acute pancreatitis is severe epigastric pain that may radiate through to the back. Vomiting is also common, and examination may reveal epigastric tenderness, ileus, and low-grade fever. In rare cases, periumbilical discolouration (Cullen’s sign) and flank discolouration (Grey-Turner’s sign) may be present.

      To diagnose acute pancreatitis, doctors typically measure the levels of serum amylase and lipase in the blood. While amylase is raised in 75% of patients, it does not correlate with disease severity. Lipase, on the other hand, is more sensitive and specific than amylase and has a longer half-life. Imaging tests, such as ultrasound and contrast-enhanced CT, may also be used to assess the aetiology of the condition.

      Scoring systems, such as the Ranson score, Glasgow score, and APACHE II, are used to identify cases of severe pancreatitis that may require intensive care management. Factors that indicate severe pancreatitis include age over 55 years, hypocalcaemia, hyperglycaemia, hypoxia, neutrophilia, and elevated LDH and AST. It is important to note that the actual amylase level is not of prognostic value.

      In summary, acute pancreatitis is a condition that can cause severe pain and discomfort. It is typically caused by alcohol or gallstones and can be diagnosed through blood tests and imaging. Scoring systems are used to identify cases of severe pancreatitis that require intensive care management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A father brings his 10-month-old daughter to the emergency department due to a...

    Incorrect

    • A father brings his 10-month-old daughter to the emergency department due to a rash that has developed. Upon further inquiry, the father explains that the rash started behind her ears two days ago and has since spread. Prior to the rash, the baby had a fever and cough. Although she is up to date with her vaccinations, the father has not yet scheduled her next appointment. During the examination, the baby appears irritable, has white spots in her mouth, and inflamed eyes. What is the most likely diagnosis, and what is the potential risk for the baby?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Otitis media

      Explanation:

      Otitis media is the most frequent complication that arises from measles, which typically presents with an initial prodrome of cough, coryza, and the appearance of white spots on the buccal mucosa known as koplik spots. The rash usually emerges between day 3 and 5, starting behind the ears and spreading down the body.

      Measles: A Highly Infectious Viral Disease

      Measles is a viral disease caused by an RNA paramyxovirus. It is one of the most infectious known viruses and is spread through aerosol transmission. The disease has an incubation period of 10-14 days and is infective from the prodromal phase until four days after the rash starts. Measles is now rare in developed countries due to immunization programs, but outbreaks can occur when vaccination rates drop, such as during the MMR controversy of the early 2000s.

      The disease is characterized by a prodromal phase, which includes irritability, conjunctivitis, fever, and Koplik spots. The latter typically develop before the rash and are white spots on the buccal mucosa. The rash starts behind the ears and then spreads to the whole body, becoming a discrete maculopapular rash that may become blotchy and confluent. Desquamation may occur after a week, typically sparing the palms and soles. Diarrhea occurs in around 10% of patients.

      Measles is mainly managed through supportive care, and admission may be considered in immunosuppressed or pregnant patients. The disease is notifiable, and public health should be informed. Complications of measles include otitis media, pneumonia (the most common cause of death), encephalitis (typically occurring 1-2 weeks following the onset of the illness), subacute sclerosing panencephalitis (very rare, may present 5-10 years following the illness), febrile convulsions, keratoconjunctivitis, corneal ulceration, diarrhea, increased incidence of appendicitis, and myocarditis.

      If an unimmunized child comes into contact with measles, MMR should be offered within 72 hours. Vaccine-induced measles antibody develops more rapidly than that following natural infection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 68-year-old woman with known carcinoma of the breast is admitted to the...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old woman with known carcinoma of the breast is admitted to the Emergency Department with sudden onset of breathlessness. The patient also describes pleuritic-type chest pain which started just under one hour previously at the same time as the onset of the breathlessness, and she is now breathless at rest.
      On examination, the patient is cyanosed, has a tachycardia of 122 bpm and a blood pressure of 86/60 mmHg. An electrocardiogram (ECG) shows signs of right ventricular dysfunction.
      A diagnosis of pulmonary embolism is made, and the decision is taken to administer a thrombolytic.
      Which of the following agents is a thrombolytic?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Streptokinase

      Explanation:

      Common Anticoagulants and Thrombolytics: Mechanisms of Action

      Anticoagulants and thrombolytics are commonly used in the management of thrombotic disorders. Here are some of the most commonly used agents and their mechanisms of action:

      Streptokinase is a therapeutic fibrinolytic agent that breaks down fibrin, making it useful in the management of acute pulmonary embolus in the case of shock.

      Warfarin prevents the formation of a thrombus by decreasing the amount of vitamin K-dependent clotting factors, although it does not possess fibrinolytic activity.

      Aspirin is an anti-platelet agent that reduces the aggregation of platelets.

      Fibrinogen is a precursor of fibrin, which is involved in the formation of a thrombus.

      Heparin potentiates the action of antithrombin and also prevents the formation of a thrombus, but has no fibrinolytic activity.

      Understanding the mechanisms of action of these common anticoagulants and thrombolytics is important in their appropriate use in the management of thrombotic disorders.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 30-year-old woman visits her doctor, reporting a progressive weakness on the left...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old woman visits her doctor, reporting a progressive weakness on the left side of her face for the past 48 hours. What symptom would be indicative of Bell's palsy in this case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Loss of taste on the anterior two-thirds of the left-hand side of the tongue

      Explanation:

      Understanding Bell’s Palsy: Symptoms and their Causes

      Bell’s palsy is a condition that affects the facial nerve, causing weakness or paralysis on one side of the face. Here are some common symptoms of Bell’s palsy and their causes:

      1. Loss of taste on the anterior two-thirds of the left-hand side of the tongue: This is due to a unilateral lower motor neurone facial nerve lesion, which carries taste sensation from the anterior two-thirds of the tongue.

      2. Deviation of the tongue to the left on tongue protrusion: This is caused by a hypoglossal nerve (cranial nerve XII) lesion, which affects the movement of the tongue.

      3. Sparing of function of the forehead muscles and eye closure: This occurs with an upper motor neurone lesion, which affects the muscles of facial expression on the whole of one side of the face.

      4. Weakened voluntary facial movements but normal spontaneous movements: Bell’s palsy affects both voluntary and involuntary movements equally, but some stroke patients may show relative sparing of spontaneous movements.

      5. Inability to close both the right and the left eye: Bell’s palsy refers to a unilateral lower motor neurone facial nerve lesion, which affects the facial muscles on the side ipsilateral to the lesion only.

      Understanding these symptoms and their causes can help in the diagnosis and treatment of Bell’s palsy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - What was the life expectancy for a woman in the UK during the...

    Incorrect

    • What was the life expectancy for a woman in the UK during the second decade of the twenty-first century, given the significant increase in life expectancy due to reduced infant mortality, improved public health, modern medical advances, and the introduction of the welfare state over the past century?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 77–82 years

      Explanation:

      The Remarkable Increase in Life Expectancy for UK Men

      At the beginning of the twentieth century, the life expectancy for a man in the UK was only 55 years old. However, due to a combination of factors such as reduced infant mortality, improved public health, modern medical advances, and the introduction of the welfare state, UK men now have an average life expectancy of 79.5 years according to the World Health Organization. This increase in life expectancy is truly remarkable and highlights the progress made in healthcare and social welfare over the past century.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistics
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 10-year-old foster parent brings in her 7-year-old foster child to the GP....

    Incorrect

    • A 10-year-old foster parent brings in her 7-year-old foster child to the GP. He has been complaining of pain when going to the toilet. The foster mother explains that he often has pain when urinating and as a younger child often cried when passing urine. He has only recently developed pain while defecating, however, the foster mother is clearly concerned and consents to the GP examining the child.

      What clinical findings are most likely to indicate child sexual abuse in a 7-year-old child who complains of pain when going to the toilet and has a history of crying while passing urine?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Anal fissures and recurrent urinary tract infections

      Explanation:

      Childhood sexual abuse may be indicated by the presence of anal fissures and recurrent UTIs in children.

      Signs of childhood sexual abuse can include various symptoms such as pregnancy, sexually transmitted infections, sexually precocious behavior, anal fissure, bruising, reflex anal dilation, enuresis and encopresis, behavioral problems, self-harm, and recurrent symptoms such as headaches and abdominal pain. However, haemorrhoids and Candida infections are not specific clinical features that suggest a child may be at risk of sexual abuse.

      Understanding Sexual Abuse in Children

      Sexual abuse is a serious issue that affects many children, but unfortunately, adults often do not believe their allegations. Children with special educational needs are at a higher risk of being sexually abused. The abusers can be anyone, but statistics show that 30% of abusers are fathers, 15% are unrelated men, and 10% are older brothers.

      There are several features that may be present in a sexually abused child, including pregnancy, sexually transmitted infections, recurrent UTIs, sexually precocious behavior, anal fissure, bruising, reflex anal dilation, enuresis and encopresis, behavioral problems, self-harm, and recurrent symptoms such as headaches and abdominal pain.

      It is important to recognize these signs and take action to protect children from sexual abuse. By understanding the signs and symptoms, we can work towards preventing and addressing this issue.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 45-year-old man is admitted to the Surgical Unit with colicky central abdominal...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old man is admitted to the Surgical Unit with colicky central abdominal pain. He has been vomiting for 6 hours and has not passed any stools for over 24 hours. On examination, he is in obvious discomfort; his abdomen is distended, and his pulse is 90 bpm, respiratory rate 18 breaths per minute and blood pressure 90/55 mmHg. A supine radiograph film confirms small bowel obstruction.
      What is the most common cause of small bowel obstruction in the United Kingdom (UK)?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Adhesions

      Explanation:

      Causes and Management of Small Bowel Obstruction

      Small bowel obstruction is a common surgical condition that can be caused by various factors. The most common cause in the UK is adhesions, accounting for 50-70% of cases. Other causes include volvulus, hernia, malignancy, and foreign bodies. The obstruction can be classified based on its location, whether it is intraluminal, intramural, or extramural.

      The typical presentation of small bowel obstruction includes pain, vomiting, and failure to pass stool or gas. Abdominal distension and tinkling bowel sounds may also be observed, along with tachycardia and hypotension. Diagnosis is made through plain abdominal X-ray, which may show distended bowel loops in the center.

      Management of small bowel obstruction involves fluid resuscitation and prompt correction of the underlying cause. Conservative treatment, such as intravenous fluids and regular aspiration through a nasogastric tube, may be used initially. However, operative intervention is necessary for suspected strangulation, irreducible hernias, and cases that do not resolve with conservative management.

      In summary, small bowel obstruction can have various causes and presentations, but early diagnosis and appropriate management are crucial for successful outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Colorectal
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 68-year-old man presents to the emergency department with increasing pain in his...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old man presents to the emergency department with increasing pain in his right leg. He has had intermittent claudication for a few months but has had a sudden increase in pain since this morning. His past medical history is otherwise significant for 2 previous myocardial infarctions, for which he takes regular simvastatin, aspirin, ramipril and atenolol.

      On examination, his right dorsalis pedis and tibialis anterior pulses are weak, and his right leg is pale and cold below the knee.

      His pain is currently being managed with oramorph.

      What should be included in the initial management plan for this likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: IV heparin

      Explanation:

      Acute limb ischaemia requires immediate management including analgesia, IV heparin, and a vascular review. This patient is experiencing focal pain, pallor, loss of pulses, and coolness, which are indicative of acute limb ischaemia on a background of arterial disease. Oramorph has been administered for pain relief, and a vascular review is necessary to consider reperfusion therapies. IV heparin is urgently required to prevent the thrombus from propagating and causing further ischaemia.

      IV fondaparinux is not recommended for acute limb ischaemia as its efficacy has not been proven. Oral rivaroxaban is used for deep vein thrombosis, which presents differently from acute limb ischaemia. Oral ticagrelor is used for acute coronary syndrome, not acute limb ischaemia. Urgent fasciotomy is required for compartment syndrome, which presents differently from this patient’s symptoms.

      Peripheral arterial disease can present in three main ways: intermittent claudication, critical limb ischaemia, and acute limb-threatening ischaemia. The latter is characterized by one or more of the 6 P’s: pale, pulseless, painful, paralysed, paraesthetic, and perishing with cold. Initial investigations include a handheld arterial Doppler examination and an ankle-brachial pressure index (ABI) if Doppler signals are present. It is important to determine whether the ischaemia is due to a thrombus or embolus, as this will guide management. Thrombus is suggested by pre-existing claudication with sudden deterioration, reduced or absent pulses in the contralateral limb, and evidence of widespread vascular disease. Embolus is suggested by a sudden onset of painful leg (<24 hours), no history of claudication, clinically obvious source of embolus, and no evidence of peripheral vascular disease. Initial management includes an ABC approach, analgesia, intravenous unfractionated heparin, and vascular review. Definitive management options include intra-arterial thrombolysis, surgical embolectomy, angioplasty, bypass surgery, or amputation for irreversible ischaemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 9-year-old girl is brought by her mother to the clinic. She has...

    Incorrect

    • A 9-year-old girl is brought by her mother to the clinic. She has been experiencing gradual difficulty in eating. She complains that when she swallows, the food gets stuck behind her chest and it takes a while for it to pass. She frequently regurgitates undigested food. A follow-up barium study reveals a bird's beak appearance. Which mediator's loss may be contributing to her symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Nitric oxide

      Explanation:

      Understanding Achalasia: Causes, Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Treatment

      Achalasia is a condition where the lower esophageal sphincter fails to relax, causing difficulty in swallowing and regurgitation of undigested food. This is commonly due to the denervation of inhibitory neurons in the distal esophagus, leading to a progressive worsening of symptoms over time. Diagnosis is made through a barium study and manometry, which reveal a bird’s beak appearance of the lower esophagus and an abnormally high sphincter tone that fails to relax on swallowing. Nitric oxide, which increases smooth muscle relaxation and reduces sphincter tone, is reduced in achalasia. Treatment options include surgical intervention, botulinum toxin injection, and pharmacotherapy with drugs such as calcium channel blockers, long-acting nitrates, and sildenafil.

      Other gastrointestinal hormones such as cholecystokinin, motilin, somatostatin, and gastrin do not play a role in achalasia. Cholecystokinin stimulates pancreatic secretion and gallbladder contractions, while motilin is responsible for migrating motor complexes. Somatostatin decreases gastric acid and pancreatic secretion and gallbladder contractions. Gastrin promotes hydrochloric acid secretion in the stomach and can result in Zollinger-Ellison syndrome when produced in excess by a gastrinoma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 50-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with a 2-day history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with a 2-day history of an increasingly painful and swollen left eye. He complains of blurring of vision and pain, especially with eye movements.
      On examination, visual acuity is 6/18 in the left and 6/6 in the right. The periorbital area of the left eye is very swollen and erythematosus. The eye itself is red and proptosed. The conjunctiva is chemosed. Eye movements in the left eye are quite restricted in all directions. There is relative afferent pupillary defect on the left. Fundoscopy shows a swollen optic disc in the left eye. Computed tomography (CT) scan shows some opacities in the ethmoid sinuses.
      Vital observations are as follows:
      Blood pressure 120/70 mmHg
      Heart rate 75 bpm
      Respiratory rate 18 per minute
      Oxygen saturation 98% on air
      Temperature 37.9 °C
      What is the definitive treatment for this eye problem?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Drainage of the ethmoid sinuses

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Ethmoidal Sinusitis and Orbital Cellulitis

      Ethmoidal sinusitis is a common cause of orbital cellulitis, which requires prompt treatment to prevent complications. The most effective treatment for ethmoidal sinusitis is surgical drainage of the sinuses to remove the pus and debris. Antibiotics are also necessary to aid recovery, but they should be administered after the drainage procedure.

      While there are several antibiotics that can be used to treat orbital cellulitis, such as cefuroxime, metronidazole, co-amoxiclav, and Tazocin®, they are not sufficient to address the underlying cause of the condition. Therefore, drainage of the ethmoid sinuses is the definitive treatment for ethmoidal sinusitis and orbital cellulitis.

      In summary, the treatment options for ethmoidal sinusitis and orbital cellulitis include surgical drainage of the sinuses followed by antibiotics. Antibiotics alone are not enough to treat the condition, and the choice of antibiotic may vary depending on the patient’s age and other factors.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A retrospective analysis was conducted on 600 patients referred to the local Tuberculosis...

    Incorrect

    • A retrospective analysis was conducted on 600 patients referred to the local Tuberculosis (TB) Clinic over a 3-year period with suspected TB. Out of these patients, 40 were diagnosed with TB and underwent testing with an assay called ‘TB-RED-SPOT’, as well as chest radiography and sputum microbiology. Of the patients diagnosed with TB, 36 had a positive TB-RED-SPOT assay result. Additionally, 14 patients without TB had a positive ‘TB-RED-SPOT’ assay result. Based on this analysis, which of the following statements is true?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The sensitivity of the TB-RED-SPOT assay for TB is 90%

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Performance Metrics of the TB-RED-SPOT Assay for TB

      The TB-RED-SPOT assay is a diagnostic test used to detect tuberculosis (TB) in patients. Its performance is measured using several metrics, including sensitivity, specificity, positive predictive value (PPV), and negative predictive value (NPV).

      The sensitivity of the TB-RED-SPOT assay for TB is 90%, meaning that 90% of patients with TB will test positive for the disease using this test. On the other hand, the specificity of the test is 99%, indicating that 99% of patients without TB will test negative for the disease using this test.

      The PPV of the TB-RED-SPOT assay is less than 50%, which means that less than half of the patients who test positive for TB using this test actually have the disease. Specifically, the PPV is calculated as 72%, indicating that 72% of patients who test positive for TB using this test actually have the disease.

      The NPV of the TB-RED-SPOT assay is less than 90%, which means that less than 90% of patients who test negative for TB using this test actually do not have the disease. Specifically, the NPV is calculated as 99.2%, indicating that 99.2% of patients who test negative for TB using this test actually do not have the disease.

      Understanding these performance metrics is crucial for interpreting the results of the TB-RED-SPOT assay and making informed clinical decisions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistics
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - While working in psychiatry, you are taking a history from a patient with...

    Incorrect

    • While working in psychiatry, you are taking a history from a patient with a new diagnosis of generalised anxiety disorder (GAD). You take a thorough past medical history. Which of the following is a risk factor for GAD development?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Being divorced or separated

      Explanation:

      Generalised anxiety disorder is more likely to occur in individuals who are divorced or separated.

      There are several risk factors associated with the development of GAD, including being between the ages of 35 and 54, living alone, and being a lone parent. On the other hand, being between the ages of 16 and 24 and being married or cohabiting are protective factors against GAD.

      It is important to note that having a hyperthyroid disease or atrial fibrillation may cause symptoms similar to GAD, but they are not considered risk factors for developing the disorder.

      Anxiety is a common disorder that can manifest in various ways. According to NICE, the primary feature is excessive worry about multiple events associated with heightened tension. It is crucial to consider potential physical causes when diagnosing anxiety disorders, such as hyperthyroidism, cardiac disease, and medication-induced anxiety. Medications that may trigger anxiety include salbutamol, theophylline, corticosteroids, antidepressants, and caffeine.

      NICE recommends a step-wise approach for managing generalised anxiety disorder (GAD). This includes education about GAD and active monitoring, low-intensity psychological interventions, high-intensity psychological interventions or drug treatment, and highly specialist input. Sertraline is the first-line SSRI for drug treatment, and if it is ineffective, an alternative SSRI or a serotonin-noradrenaline reuptake inhibitor (SNRI) such as duloxetine or venlafaxine may be offered. If the patient cannot tolerate SSRIs or SNRIs, pregabalin may be considered. For patients under 30 years old, NICE recommends warning them of the increased risk of suicidal thinking and self-harm and weekly follow-up for the first month.

      The management of panic disorder also follows a stepwise approach, including recognition and diagnosis, treatment in primary care, review and consideration of alternative treatments, review and referral to specialist mental health services, and care in specialist mental health services. NICE recommends either cognitive behavioural therapy or drug treatment in primary care. SSRIs are the first-line drug treatment, and if contraindicated or no response after 12 weeks, imipramine or clomipramine should be offered.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 6-week-old infant is experiencing projectile vomiting after feeds and is always hungry...

    Incorrect

    • A 6-week-old infant is experiencing projectile vomiting after feeds and is always hungry despite vomiting. What is the most effective approach to managing this condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pyloromyotomy

      Explanation:

      Medical Procedures and Interventions for Infantile Hypertrophic Pyloric Stenosis

      Infantile hypertrophic pyloric stenosis is a condition that affects male infants more commonly than females, with an incidence of 1-4 per 1000 infants. It presents with projectile, non-bilious vomiting at 4-8 weeks of age, and a palpable pyloric mass in the right upper quadrant in up to 80% of patients. This condition occurs due to hypertrophy and hyperplasia of the pylorus, leading to gastric outlet obstruction and subsequent vomiting. Diagnosis is made via ultrasound, with a hypertrophied muscle having a target lesion appearance and muscle thickness of >3 mm considered abnormal.

      The standard treatment for infantile hypertrophic pyloric stenosis is a Ramstedt pyloromyotomy, where an incision is made into the pyloric muscle down to the mucosa, which is left intact. This procedure is safe, with a low rate of complications such as gastroenteritis, wound infection, peritonitis, mucosal perforation, and residual stenosis.

      Other interventions for related conditions include positioning the infant in the 30-degree head-up prone position after feeds to reduce gastro-oesophageal reflux symptoms, a Billroth-1 operation where the pylorus of the stomach is resected and an anastomosis is formed between the proximal stomach and duodenum, a Negus hydrostatic bag used in oesophageal achalasia to dilate the narrowed oesophagus and overcome the achalasia, and thickening of feeds to reduce symptoms related to gastro-oesophageal reflux.

      In conclusion, infantile hypertrophic pyloric stenosis and related conditions can be effectively treated with various medical procedures and interventions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 10-year-old boy comes to the GP clinic with his father for an...

    Incorrect

    • A 10-year-old boy comes to the GP clinic with his father for an asthma check-up. He is currently on Clenil® Modulite® (beclomethasone) 100 μg twice daily as a preventer inhaler, but still needs to use his salbutamol inhaler 2-3 times a day. During the examination, he is able to complete sentences, not using any accessory muscles of respiration, his oxygen saturation is 99%, his chest is clear, and PEFR is 85% of his predicted value. What is the recommended next step in managing this patient according to the latest BTS guidelines?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Add formoterol a long-acting beta agonist (LABA)

      Explanation:

      Managing Pediatric Asthma: Choosing the Next Step in Treatment

      When treating pediatric asthma, it is important to follow guidelines to ensure the best possible outcomes for the patient. According to the 2019 SIGN/BTS guidelines, the next step after low-dose inhaled corticosteroid (ICS) should be to add a long-acting beta agonist (LABA) or leukotriene receptor antagonist (LTRA) in addition to ICS. However, it is important to note that the NICE guidelines differ in that LTRA is recommended before LABA.

      If the patient does not respond adequately to LABA and a trial of LTRA does not yield benefit, referral to a pediatrician is advised. Increasing the dose of ICS should only be considered after the addition of LTRA or LABA.

      It is crucial to never stop ICS therapy, as adherence to therapy is a guiding principle in managing pediatric asthma. LABAs should never be used alone without ICS, as this has been linked to life-threatening asthma exacerbations. Always follow guidelines and consult with a pediatrician for the best possible treatment plan.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 65-year-old man complains of dysuria and haematuria. He has no significant medical...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man complains of dysuria and haematuria. He has no significant medical history, but reports working in a rubber manufacturing plant for 40 years where health and safety regulations were not always strictly enforced. A cystoscopy reveals a high-grade papillary carcinoma, specifically a transitional cell carcinoma of the bladder. What occupational exposure is a known risk factor for this type of bladder cancer?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Aniline dye

      Explanation:

      Risk Factors for Bladder Cancer

      Bladder cancer is a type of cancer that affects the bladder, and there are different types of bladder cancer. The most common type is urothelial (transitional cell) carcinoma, and the risk factors for this type of bladder cancer include smoking, exposure to aniline dyes, rubber manufacture, and cyclophosphamide. Smoking is the most important risk factor in western countries, with a hazard ratio of around 4. Exposure to aniline dyes, such as working in the printing and textile industry, can also increase the risk of bladder cancer. Rubber manufacture and cyclophosphamide are also risk factors for urothelial carcinoma.

      On the other hand, squamous cell carcinoma of the bladder has different risk factors. Schistosomiasis and smoking are the main risk factors for this type of bladder cancer. Schistosomiasis is a parasitic infection that can cause inflammation and damage to the bladder, which can increase the risk of developing squamous cell carcinoma. Smoking is also a risk factor for squamous cell carcinoma, as it can cause changes in the cells of the bladder lining that can lead to cancer.

      In summary, the risk factors for bladder cancer depend on the type of cancer. Urothelial carcinoma is mainly associated with smoking, exposure to aniline dyes, rubber manufacture, and cyclophosphamide, while squamous cell carcinoma is mainly associated with schistosomiasis and smoking. It is important to be aware of these risk factors and take steps to reduce your risk of developing bladder cancer.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 28-year-old woman is admitted with an overdose. She is currently taking Antidepressants...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman is admitted with an overdose. She is currently taking Antidepressants prescribed by her GP and painkillers for a chronic back complaint. Other past medical history of note includes hypertension. On examination she has a GCS of 7. Her pulse is 105/min regular and her BP is 85/60 mmHg. Her pupils are sluggish and dilated.
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Haemoglobin 131 g/l 115–155 g/l
      White cell count (WCC) 8.4 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
      Platelets 201 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
      Sodium (Na+) 141 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
      Potassium (K+) 4.9 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
      Creatinine 182 μmol/l 50–120 µmol/l
      pH 7.15 7.35–7.45
      pO2 8.1 kPa 10.5–13.5 kPa
      pCO2 5.9 kPa 4.6–6.0 kPa
      Bicarbonate 14 mmol/l 24–30 mmol/l
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Tricyclic antidepressant overdose

      Explanation:

      Drug Overdose: Symptoms and Treatment Options

      Tricyclic antidepressant overdose can cause mydriasis, tachycardia, and reduced conscious level, along with a history of overdose. It can also lead to significant acidosis, convulsions, hypothermia, and skin blisters. Cardiac monitoring is necessary as QT interval prolongation and arrhythmias are common. Airway protection, fluid resuscitation, and IV alkalisation are required to restore pH and reduce the risk of arrhythmias.

      Opiate overdose causes constricted pupils and respiratory depression. Naloxone can be used to reverse the effects of opiate toxicity.

      Diazepam overdose presents with drowsiness, confusion, hypotension, and impaired motor function. It does not cause significant acidosis. Flumazenil can be used as an antidote in extreme cases of respiratory depression.

      Serotonin reuptake inhibitor overdose requires very high doses to produce significant symptoms. Serotonin syndrome is a serious complication that can cause cognitive, autonomic, and somatic symptoms. Somatic symptoms are the most common.

      Noradrenaline reuptake inhibitor overdose is associated with vomiting, confusion, and tachycardia. It is unlikely that this drug would be prescribed for depression.

      Understanding the Symptoms and Treatment Options for Different Drug Overdoses

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A 28-year-old farmer has been admitted to the emergency department after being discovered...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old farmer has been admitted to the emergency department after being discovered unconscious in a barn. Upon initial assessment, the patient is displaying agitation and combativeness, along with excessive salivation and respiratory secretions. Additionally, there are indications of sweating, urinary and fecal incontinence, muscle fasciculations, and miosis. Based on the probable diagnosis, what observations are most likely to be present?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Bradycardia

      Explanation:

      Organophosphate insecticide poisoning is indicated by clinical examination, especially in a patient who is a farmer. The presence of bradycardia is a significant sign of severe organophosphate poisoning, which can progress to asystole. Organophosphate poisoning stimulates the vagus nerve, leading to parasympathetic symptoms such as bradycardia and hypotension. Administering atropine to block the vagus nerve can resolve bradycardia and hypotension by providing satisfactory muscarinic antagonism.
      Hypertension is a rare occurrence in organophosphate poisoning and is caused by nicotinic effects. Hypotension is a more common finding due to vagus nerve stimulation.
      Temperature is not a reliable indicator of organophosphate poisoning as it can vary depending on the environment and can present as hypothermia, normothermia, or hyperthermia.
      Although tachycardia can occur due to nicotinic stimulation, bradycardia is a more common finding in organophosphate poisoning.

      Understanding Organophosphate Insecticide Poisoning

      Organophosphate insecticide poisoning is a condition that occurs when there is an accumulation of acetylcholine in the body, leading to the inhibition of acetylcholinesterase. This, in turn, causes an upregulation of nicotinic and muscarinic cholinergic neurotransmission. In warfare, sarin gas is a highly toxic synthetic organophosphorus compound that has similar effects. The symptoms of organophosphate poisoning can be remembered using the mnemonic SLUD, which stands for salivation, lacrimation, urination, and defecation/diarrhea. Other symptoms include hypotension, bradycardia, small pupils, and muscle fasciculation.

      The management of organophosphate poisoning involves the use of atropine, which helps to counteract the effects of acetylcholine. However, the role of pralidoxime in the treatment of this condition is still unclear. Meta-analyses conducted to date have failed to show any clear benefit of pralidoxime in the management of organophosphate poisoning.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A 65-year-old man presents with sudden vision loss in his right eye and...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man presents with sudden vision loss in his right eye and dark floaters over the past few weeks. Fundoscopy is challenging due to patches of redness obscuring the fundus. He has a 20-year history of type 2 diabetes mellitus, hypercholesterolaemia, and proliferative diabetic retinopathy, and takes metformin, pioglitazone, atorvastatin, and dapagliflozin. He is concerned about having a stroke, as his father had one in the past. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Vitreous haemorrhage

      Explanation:

      Retinal detachment and vitreous haemorrhage are the two main causes of sight loss in proliferative diabetic retinopathy.

      Understanding Diabetic Retinopathy

      Diabetic retinopathy is a leading cause of blindness among adults aged 35-65 years old. The condition is caused by hyperglycemia, which leads to abnormal metabolism in the retinal vessel walls and damage to endothelial cells and pericytes. This damage causes increased vascular permeability, resulting in exudates seen on fundoscopy. Pericyte dysfunction predisposes to the formation of microaneurysms, while neovascularization is caused by the production of growth factors in response to retinal ischemia.

      Patients with diabetic retinopathy are classified into those with nonproliferative diabetic retinopathy (NPDR), proliferative retinopathy (PDR), and maculopathy. NPDR is further classified into mild, moderate, and severe, depending on the presence of microaneurysms, blot hemorrhages, hard exudates, cotton wool spots, venous beading/looping, and intraretinal microvascular abnormalities. PDR is characterized by retinal neovascularization, which may lead to vitreous hemorrhage, and fibrous tissue forming anterior to the retinal disc. Maculopathy is based on location rather than severity and is more common in Type II DM.

      Management of diabetic retinopathy involves optimizing glycaemic control, blood pressure, and hyperlipidemia, as well as regular review by ophthalmology. Treatment options include intravitreal vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF) inhibitors for maculopathy, regular observation for nonproliferative retinopathy, and panretinal laser photocoagulation and intravitreal VEGF inhibitors for proliferative retinopathy. Vitreoretinal surgery may be necessary in cases of severe or vitreous hemorrhage.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A 72-year-old pet shop owner comes in with a persistent cough and difficulty...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old pet shop owner comes in with a persistent cough and difficulty breathing during physical activity. A chest CT scan reveals a ground-glass appearance. What is the most frequently linked mechanism responsible for this reaction?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Type III hypersensitivity reaction

      Explanation:

      Hypersensitivity Reactions: Types and Examples

      Hypersensitivity reactions are immune responses that occur when the body reacts to a harmless substance as if it were harmful. There are four types of hypersensitivity reactions, each with different mechanisms and clinical presentations.

      Type I hypersensitivity reaction is an immediate reaction mediated by IgE in response to an environmental antigen. Mast cell and basophil degranulation result in the release of histamine, causing symptoms such as allergic rhinitis and systemic urticaria.

      Type II hypersensitivity reaction is an antibody-mediated reaction that results in cellular injury. Examples include incompatible blood transfusions, haemolytic disease of the newborn, and autoimmune haemolytic anaemias.

      Type III hypersensitivity reaction is an immune complex-mediated reaction. Immune complexes are lattices of antibody and antigen that trigger an inflammatory response when not cleared from the circulation. Extrinsic allergic alveolitis, or bird fancier’s lung, is an example of this type of reaction.

      Type IV hypersensitivity reaction is a delayed reaction involving T helper cells that become activated upon contact with an antigen. Cytokine release from sensitised T-cells leads to macrophage-induced phagocytosis. This type of reaction is seen in contact dermatitis and some cases of extrinsic allergic alveolitis.

      Anaphylaxis is a type I-mediated hypersensitivity reaction that results in rapid respiratory and circulatory compromise. Skin and mucosal changes, such as rash with wheal and angio-oedema, are also present.

      In summary, hypersensitivity reactions can have different mechanisms and clinical presentations. Understanding the type of reaction is important for proper diagnosis and management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immunology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 14-month old toddler is brought to the pediatrician by his father, who...

    Incorrect

    • A 14-month old toddler is brought to the pediatrician by his father, who is worried about his child's decreased appetite and mouth ulcers for the past three days. During the examination, a few blisters are observed on the soles of his feet. Vital signs indicate a temperature of 37.8ºC, heart rate of 125/min, respiratory rate of 28/min, and oxygen saturation of 98% in room air.

      The father reports that his child was born at full term through a normal delivery, is following the growth chart appropriately, and has received all the recommended vaccinations. What is the most probable cause of the child's symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Coxsackie A16

      Explanation:

      The child’s symptoms are indicative of hand, foot and mouth disease, which is caused by Coxsackie A16. The condition is characterized by mild systemic discomfort, oral ulcers, and vesicles on the palms and soles. It typically resolves on its own within 7 to 10 days, and the child may find relief from any pain by taking over-the-counter analgesics. Over-the-counter oral numbing sprays may also help alleviate sore throat symptoms. Kawasaki disease, on the other hand, is associated with a higher fever than what this child is experiencing, as well as some distinct features that can be recalled using the mnemonic ‘CRASH and burn’. These include conjunctivitis (bilateral), non-vesicular rash, cervical adenopathy, swollen strawberry tongue, and hand or foot swelling, along with a fever that lasts for more than 5 days and is very high.

      Hand, Foot and Mouth Disease: A Contagious Condition in Children

      Hand, foot and mouth disease is a viral infection that commonly affects children. It is caused by intestinal viruses from the Picornaviridae family, particularly coxsackie A16 and enterovirus 71. This condition is highly contagious and often occurs in outbreaks in nurseries. The symptoms of hand, foot and mouth disease include mild systemic upset such as sore throat and fever, as well as oral ulcers and vesicles on the palms and soles of the feet.

      Symptomatic treatment is the only management option for hand, foot and mouth disease. This includes general advice about hydration and analgesia, as well as reassurance that there is no link to disease in cattle. Children do not need to be excluded from school, but the Health Protection Agency recommends that children who are unwell should be kept off school until they feel better. If there is a suspected large outbreak, it is advised to contact the Health Protection Agency for further guidance.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A 16-year-old girl presents with primary amenorrhoea. She has never had a menstrual...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old girl presents with primary amenorrhoea. She has never had a menstrual period. Upon physical examination, downy hair is observed in the armpits and genital area, but there is no breast development. A vagina is present, but no uterus can be felt during pelvic examination. Genetic testing reveals a 46,XY karyotype. All other physical exam findings are unremarkable, and her blood work is normal. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Male intersex

      Explanation:

      Intersex and Genetic Disorders: Understanding the Different Types

      Intersex conditions and genetic disorders can affect an individual’s physical and biological characteristics. Understanding the different types can help in diagnosis and treatment.

      Male Pseudointersex
      Male pseudointersex is a condition where an individual has a 46XY karyotype and testes but presents phenotypically as a woman. This is caused by androgen insensitivity, deficit in testosterone production, or deficit in dihydrotestosterone production. Androgen insensitivity syndrome is the most common mechanism, which obstructs the development of male genitalia and secondary sexual characteristics, resulting in a female phenotype.

      True Intersex
      True intersex is when an individual carries both male and female gonads.

      Female Intersex
      Female intersex is a term used to describe an individual who is phenotypically male but has a 46XX genotype and ovaries. This is usually due to hyperandrogenism or a deficit in estrogen synthesis, leading to excessive androgen synthesis.

      Fragile X Syndrome
      Fragile X syndrome is an X-linked dominant disorder that affects more men than women. It is associated with a long and narrow face, large ears, large testicles, significant intellectual disability, and developmental delay. The karyotype correlates with the phenotype and gonads.

      Turner Syndrome
      Turner syndrome is associated with the genotype 45XO. Patients are genotypically and phenotypically female, missing part of, or a whole, X chromosome. They have primary or secondary amenorrhea due to premature ovarian failure and failure to develop secondary sexual characteristics.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A 7-year-old girl presents with oedema and proteinuria of 4.2 g/24 hours. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 7-year-old girl presents with oedema and proteinuria of 4.2 g/24 hours. She is diagnosed with minimal change disease and started on steroid therapy. What could be the possible reason for her proteinuria?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Glomerular proteinuria

      Explanation:

      Glomerular Proteinuria and Minimal Change Disease

      Glomerular proteinuria is a condition characterized by the presence of protein in the urine due to damage to the glomeruli, the tiny filters in the kidneys responsible for removing waste from the blood. This condition can be caused by primary glomerular disease, glomerulonephritis, anti-GBM disease, immune complex deposition, and inherited conditions such as Alport’s syndrome. Additionally, secondary glomerular disease can result from systemic diseases like diabetes.

      One type of glomerulonephritis that is particularly common in children is minimal change disease. This condition has a good prognosis and can often be treated effectively with steroids. It is important to promptly diagnose and treat glomerular proteinuria to prevent further damage to the kidneys and maintain overall kidney function.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A 24-year-old female patient presents at the clinic with a complaint of intense...

    Incorrect

    • A 24-year-old female patient presents at the clinic with a complaint of intense menstrual cramps. Despite taking the maximum recommended doses of ibuprofen and paracetamol, she has not experienced much relief. As a healthcare provider, you opt to prescribe a course of hyoscine tablets. Can you explain the mechanism of action of hyoscine?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Antispasmodic

      Explanation:

      Hyoscine Butylbromide and Other Pain Relievers

      Hyoscine butylbromide is a medication that works by relaxing the smooth muscles in the gastrointestinal, biliary, and genito-urinary tracts. It does not enter the central nervous system, so it does not cause anticholinergic side effects in the brain. Instead, it blocks ganglia in the visceral wall and has antimuscarinic activity, which can help relieve menstrual cramps that have not responded to other pain relievers.

      Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) are another type of pain reliever that work by inhibiting COX-1 and COX-2. It was once believed that only COX-2 inhibitors would provide pain relief without the risk of gastrointestinal bleeding. However, these drugs were withdrawn due to an increased risk of cardiovascular events in patients who used them.

      Codeine is an example of an opiate receptor agonist that can be added to other pain relievers to enhance their effects.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A 72-year-old man is brought by ambulance to the Accident and Emergency department....

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old man is brought by ambulance to the Accident and Emergency department. He is visibly distressed but gives a history of sudden onset central compressive chest pain radiating to his left upper limb. He is also nauseous and very sweaty. He has had previous myocardial infarctions (MI) in the past and claims the pain is identical to those episodes. ECG reveals an anterior ST elevation MI.
      Which of the following is an absolute contraindication to thrombolysis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Brain neoplasm

      Explanation:

      Relative and Absolute Contraindications to Thrombolysis

      Thrombolysis is a treatment option for patients with ongoing cardiac ischemia and presentation within 12 hours of onset of pain. However, there are both relative and absolute contraindications to this treatment.

      Absolute contraindications include internal or heavy PV bleeding, acute pancreatitis or severe liver disease, esophageal varices, active lung disease with cavitation, recent trauma or surgery within the past 2 weeks, severe hypertension (>200/120 mmHg), suspected aortic dissection, recent hemorrhagic stroke, cerebral neoplasm, and previous allergic reaction.

      Relative contraindications include prolonged CPR, history of CVA, bleeding diathesis, anticoagulation, blood pressure of 180/100 mmHg, peptic ulcer, and pregnancy or recent delivery.

      It is important to consider these contraindications before administering thrombolysis as they can increase the risk of complications. Primary percutaneous coronary intervention is the preferred treatment option, but if not available, thrombolysis can be a viable alternative. The benefit of thrombolysis decreases over time, and a target time of <30 minutes from admission for commencement of thrombolysis is typically recommended.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - A 23-year-old man is brought to the emergency department by ambulance after being...

    Incorrect

    • A 23-year-old man is brought to the emergency department by ambulance after being found shouting at shoppers in a corner of a supermarket. He claims that the shoppers were trying to kill him and he sees coloured halos around the shop shelves. He has no past medical history. His vital signs are as follows: heart rate of 120 bpm, respiratory rate of 20/min, blood pressure of 130/90 mmHg, and temperature of 38°C. He is agitated, clammy to touch, and has dilated pupils despite adequate lighting. Both hands show a fine tremor. What drug overdose is responsible for his symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: LSD

      Explanation:

      Understanding LSD Intoxication

      LSD, also known as lysergic acid diethylamide, is a synthetic hallucinogen that gained popularity as a recreational drug in the 1960s to 1980s. While its usage has declined in recent years, it still persists, with adolescents and young adults being the most frequent users. LSD is one of the most potent psychoactive compounds known, and its psychedelic effects usually involve heightening or distortion of sensory stimuli and enhancement of feelings and introspection.

      Patients with LSD toxicity typically present following acute panic reactions, massive ingestions, or unintentional ingestions. The symptoms of LSD intoxication are variable and can include impaired judgments, amplification of current mood, agitation, and drug-induced psychosis. Somatic symptoms such as nausea, headache, palpitations, dry mouth, drowsiness, and tremors may also occur. Signs of LSD intoxication can include tachycardia, hypertension, mydriasis, paresthesia, hyperreflexia, and pyrexia.

      Massive overdoses of LSD can lead to complications such as respiratory arrest, coma, hyperthermia, autonomic dysfunction, and bleeding disorders. The diagnosis of LSD toxicity is mainly based on history and examination, as most urine drug screens do not pick up LSD.

      Management of the intoxicated patient is dependent on the specific behavioral manifestation elicited by the drug. Agitation should be managed with supportive reassurance in a calm, stress-free environment, and benzodiazepines may be used if necessary. LSD-induced psychosis may require antipsychotics. Massive ingestions of LSD should be treated with supportive care, including respiratory support and endotracheal intubation if needed. Hypertension, tachycardia, and hyperthermia should be treated symptomatically, while hypotension should be treated initially with fluids and subsequently with vasopressors if required. Activated charcoal administration and gastric emptying are of little clinical value by the time a patient presents to the emergency department, as LSD is rapidly absorbed through the gastrointestinal tract.

      In conclusion, understanding LSD intoxication is crucial for healthcare professionals to provide appropriate management and care for patients who present with symptoms of LSD toxicity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Cardiology (0/1) 0%
Neurosurgery (1/1) 100%
Ophthalmology (0/1) 0%
Gynaecology (0/1) 0%
Haematology (0/1) 0%
Passmed