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  • Question 1 - An 85-year-old man attends his General Practitioner (GP) with his daughter to discuss...

    Incorrect

    • An 85-year-old man attends his General Practitioner (GP) with his daughter to discuss advance care planning. He has a background history of metastatic lung cancer, mild dementia and a previous stroke with residual mild dysphasia. He wishes to make an advance care directive to state that if he becomes acutely unwell with a life-threatening illness, he wishes to be managed in a palliative manner.
      Which of the following would make the writing of an advance directive invalid?

      Your Answer: Mild dementia

      Correct Answer: Lack of capacity to weigh up the information given to make an informed decision

      Explanation:

      Factors that can Invalidate an Advance Directive

      An advance directive is a legal document that outlines a person’s wishes regarding their medical treatment in case they become unable to make decisions for themselves. However, certain factors can invalidate an advance directive, including:

      1. Lack of capacity to weigh up the information given to make an informed decision: If a person lacks the capacity to understand the implications of an advance directive, it will be invalid.

      2. Failure to put a copy of the advance directive in the patient’s medical records: While not having a copy of the advance directive in the medical records may result in the patient’s wishes not being communicated in time to the doctors, it does not make the advance directive invalid.

      3. Dysphasia: Having difficulty communicating verbally does not necessarily limit a person’s capacity to understand the implications of an advance directive.

      4. Mild dementia or other mental health conditions: These conditions do not invalidate an advance directive unless the person lacks capacity regarding a specific aspect for which they are writing the advance directive.

      5. Failure to have the directive witnessed by a solicitor: An advance directive does not require a solicitor’s presence or signature to be valid. It must be written in the presence of two witnesses to confirm that the person had mental capacity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ethics And Legal
      97.6
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 65-year-old man experiences bilateral calf pain that forces him to stop walking...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old man experiences bilateral calf pain that forces him to stop walking after 100 yards. He discovers that walking uphill and bending forward alleviates the pain. However, he can ride a bike without any discomfort. What is the probable root cause of his condition?

      Your Answer: Lumbar canal stenosis

      Explanation:

      The pain’s position and its improvement when walking uphill make it unlikely that there is a vascular cause underlying it.

      Lumbar spinal stenosis is a condition where the central canal in the lower back is narrowed due to degenerative changes, such as a tumor or disk prolapse. Patients may experience back pain, neuropathic pain, and symptoms similar to claudication. However, one distinguishing factor is that the pain is positional, with sitting being more comfortable than standing, and walking uphill being easier than downhill. Degenerative disease is the most common cause, starting with changes in the intervertebral disk that lead to disk bulging and collapse. This puts stress on the facet joints, causing cartilage degeneration, hypertrophy, and osteophyte formation, which narrows the spinal canal and compresses the nerve roots of the cauda equina. MRI scanning is the best way to diagnose lumbar spinal stenosis, and treatment may involve a laminectomy.

      Overall, lumbar spinal stenosis is a condition that affects the lower back and can cause a range of symptoms, including pain and discomfort. It is often caused by degenerative changes in the intervertebral disk, which can lead to narrowing of the spinal canal and compression of the nerve roots. Diagnosis is typically done through MRI scanning, and treatment may involve a laminectomy. It is important to note that the pain associated with lumbar spinal stenosis is positional, with sitting being more comfortable than standing, and walking uphill being easier than downhill.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      153.2
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 50-year-old truck driver is admitted with a left-sided facial droop, dysphasia and...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old truck driver is admitted with a left-sided facial droop, dysphasia and dysarthria. His symptoms slowly improve and he is very eager to return to work as he is self-employed. After 3 weeks, he has made a complete clinical recovery and neurological examination is normal. As per the guidelines of the Driver and Vehicle Licensing Agency (DVLA), when can he recommence driving his truck?

      Your Answer: 4 weeks after onset of symptoms

      Correct Answer: 12 months after onset of symptoms

      Explanation:

      Driving Restrictions Following Stroke or TIA

      After experiencing a stroke or transient ischaemic attack (TIA), there are various restrictions on driving depending on the time elapsed since onset of symptoms and the type of vehicle being driven.

      For car drivers, it is recommended that they do not drive for at least 4 weeks after a TIA or stroke. After 1 month, they may resume driving if there has been satisfactory recovery.

      However, for lorry or bus drivers, licences will be revoked for 1 year following a stroke or TIA. After 12 months, relicensing may be offered subject to satisfactory clinical recovery. Functional cardiac testing and medical reports may be required.

      For car drivers who have had a single TIA or stroke, they may resume driving 1 month after the event following satisfactory clinical recovery.

      Overall, it is important to follow these restrictions to ensure the safety of both the driver and others on the road.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      201.5
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 28-year-old gardener who is typically healthy and in good shape visits his...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old gardener who is typically healthy and in good shape visits his doctor complaining of worsening abdominal pain that has been present for two days. He also reports feeling nauseous and experiencing loose bowel movements. During the examination, the patient's temperature is found to be 37.9 °C, and he has a heart rate of 90 bpm and a blood pressure of 118/75 mmHg. The doctor notes that the patient's abdomen is tender to the touch and that he has a positive Rovsing sign. What is the most probable diagnosis for this patient?

      Your Answer: Appendicitis

      Explanation:

      Physical Signs and Symptoms of Abdominal Conditions

      Abdominal conditions can present with a variety of physical signs and symptoms that can aid in their diagnosis. Here are some common signs and symptoms associated with different abdominal conditions:

      Appendicitis: A positive Rovsing sign, psoas sign, and obturator sign are less commonly found symptoms of appendicitis. More common signs include rebound tenderness, guarding, and rigidity.

      Splenic rupture: A positive Kehr’s sign, which is acute shoulder tip pain due to irritation of the peritoneum by blood, is associated with a diagnosis of splenic rupture.

      Pyelonephritis: Positive costovertebral angle tenderness, also known as the Murphy’s punch sign, may indicate pyelonephritis.

      Abdominal aortic aneurysm: A large abdominal aortic aneurysm may present with a pulsatile abdominal mass on palpation of the abdomen. However, the Rovsing sign is associated with appendicitis, not an abdominal aneurysm.

      Pancreatitis: A positive Grey Turner’s sign, which is bruising/discoloration to the flanks, is most commonly associated with severe acute pancreatitis. Other physical findings include fever, abdominal tenderness, guarding, Cullen’s sign, jaundice, and hypotension.

      Knowing these physical signs and symptoms can aid in the diagnosis and treatment of abdominal conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Colorectal
      82.8
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 65-year-old woman with breast cancer and bony metastases has been admitted to...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old woman with breast cancer and bony metastases has been admitted to your ward following a vertebral fracture sustained while twisting in her car seat. The orthopaedic team is managing this conservatively. She has a medical history of hypertension, type 2 diabetes, chronic kidney disease stage 4, and gastro-oesophageal reflux disease. Currently, she is taking amlodipine and omeprazole. She previously took alendronic acid but stopped due to severe reflux. What is the most appropriate treatment to initiate?

      Your Answer: Denosumab

      Explanation:

      To prevent pathological fractures in bone metastases, bisphosphonates and denosumab are viable options. However, if the patient’s eGFR is less than 30, denosumab is the preferred choice. Alendronic acid should be avoided due to the patient’s history of severe reflux during previous use. Denosumab is a novel treatment for osteoporosis that inhibits the development of osteoclasts by blocking RANKL. It is administered via subcutaneous injection and is also effective in preventing skeletal-related events in adults with bone metastases from solid tumors. Cinacalcet is not indicated for the management of osteoporosis or pathological fractures, but rather for hyperparathyroidism and hypercalcemia in parathyroid carcinoma. Hormone-replacement therapy (HRT) is not recommended for the treatment of osteoporosis in older postmenopausal women due to its unfavorable risk-benefit ratio.

      Denosumab: A New Treatment for Osteoporosis

      Denosumab is a human monoclonal antibody that inhibits the development of osteoclasts, which are responsible for breaking down bone tissue. It is administered as a subcutaneous injection every six months at a dose of 60mg. A larger dose of 120mg may be given every four weeks to prevent skeletal-related events in adults with bone metastases from solid tumors.

      When it comes to managing osteoporosis, oral bisphosphonates are still the first-line treatment, with alendronate being the preferred option. If alendronate is not tolerated, an alternative bisphosphonate such as risedronate or etidronate may be used. Next-line medications are only started if certain T score and other risk factor criteria are met. Raloxifene and strontium ranelate were previously recommended as next-line drugs, but due to safety concerns regarding strontium ranelate, denosumab is becoming increasingly popular.

      Denosumab is generally well-tolerated, with dyspnea and diarrhea being the most common side effects. However, doctors should be aware of the potential for atypical femoral fractures in patients taking denosumab and should look out for patients complaining of unusual thigh, hip, or groin pain.

      Overall, denosumab is a promising new treatment for osteoporosis that may be particularly useful for patients who cannot tolerate oral bisphosphonates or who have other risk factors that make them unsuitable for these medications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      104
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 56-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of fatigue and a painful finger...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of fatigue and a painful finger that has been bothering her for the past 3 weeks. She has also discovered a soft lump at the base of her left calf and requests that it be examined. She denies any fever, weight loss, or trauma, and has a medical history of systemic lupus erythematosus.

      During the examination, the GP observes erythema and swelling in the proximal interphalangeal joint of the left index finger. The patient can move the joint independently, but pain limits her range of motion. Arthrocentesis reveals yellow fluid without crystal formation or gram stain, but a high level of leukocytes (40,000/μL) and a predominance of polymorphonuclear neutrophils in the cytology.

      What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Septic arthritis

      Correct Answer: Rheumatoid arthritis

      Explanation:

      A joint aspiration is recommended for this patient who presents with new-onset monoarticular arthritis and no confirmed diagnosis of rheumatoid arthritis. In cases of rheumatoid arthritis, the synovial fluid will typically appear yellow and have increased opacity due to the quantity of leukocytes present. The leukocyte count can range from 2,000 to 50,000 per microlitre, with a predominance of polymorphonuclear neutrophils (PMNs). There will be no crystals present. Despite the patient’s atypical history of rheumatoid arthritis, the arthrocentesis findings, along with their past medical history of systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) and the presence of constitutional symptoms and an Achilles tendon nodule, support the diagnosis of rheumatoid arthritis. Gout, osteoarthritis, and pseudogout can be ruled out based on the absence of their characteristic arthrocentesis findings.

      Rheumatoid Arthritis: Symptoms and Presentations

      Rheumatoid arthritis is a chronic autoimmune disease that primarily affects the joints, causing pain, swelling, and stiffness. The typical features of rheumatoid arthritis include swollen and painful joints in the hands and feet, with stiffness being worse in the morning. The condition gradually worsens over time, with larger joints becoming involved. The presentation of rheumatoid arthritis usually develops insidiously over a few months, and a positive ‘squeeze test’ may be observed, which causes discomfort on squeezing across the metacarpal or metatarsal joints.

      Late features of rheumatoid arthritis include Swan neck and boutonnière deformities, which are unlikely to be present in a recently diagnosed patient. However, other presentations of rheumatoid arthritis may include an acute onset with marked systemic disturbance or relapsing/remitting monoarthritis of different large joints, known as palindromic rheumatism. It is important to recognize the symptoms and presentations of rheumatoid arthritis to ensure prompt diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      168.8
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 42-year-old man is referred to an otolaryngologist with vertigo and hearing loss....

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old man is referred to an otolaryngologist with vertigo and hearing loss. A magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) scan of the cranial region reveals a tumour at the cerebellopontine angle. A working diagnosis of acoustic neuroma is made. In light of the progressive symptoms, the surgeon plans to remove the tumour.
      With regard to the vestibulocochlear nerve, which of the following is correct?

      Your Answer: The vestibulocochlear nerve exits the cranium through the jugular foramen

      Correct Answer: Vestibular fibres pass to the vestibular nuclear complex, located in the floor of the fourth ventricle

      Explanation:

      Anatomy of the Vestibulocochlear Nerve

      The vestibulocochlear nerve, also known as the eighth cranial nerve, is responsible for carrying special sensory afferent fibers from the inner ear. It is composed of two portions: the vestibular nerve and the cochlear nerve. The vestibular fibers pass to the vestibular nuclear complex, located in the floor of the fourth ventricle, while the cochlear fibers pass to the cochlear nuclear complex, located across the junction between the pons and medulla.

      Acoustic neuromas, which are tumors that commonly arise from the vestibular portion of the nerve, are also known as vestibular schwannomas. The efferent nerve supply to the tensor tympani, a muscle in the middle ear, is provided by the mandibular branch of the fifth cranial nerve.

      The vestibulocochlear nerve enters the brainstem at the pontomedullary junction, lateral to the facial nerve. It then passes into the temporal bone via the internal auditory meatus, along with the facial nerve. It does not exit the cranium through the jugular foramen, which is where the ninth, tenth, and eleventh cranial nerves exit. Understanding the anatomy of the vestibulocochlear nerve is important in diagnosing and treating disorders related to hearing and balance.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      146.3
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 29-year-old female comes to the emergency department complaining of vaginal bleeding and...

    Correct

    • A 29-year-old female comes to the emergency department complaining of vaginal bleeding and right lower quadrant abdominal pain. The pain worsens with movement and extends to her right shoulder. She has no gastrointestinal symptoms and her last menstrual period was 6 weeks ago. A pregnancy test confirms she is pregnant. What is a potential risk factor for this presentation?

      Your Answer: Endometriosis

      Explanation:

      Endometriosis increases the likelihood of ectopic pregnancy, which is evident from the lower abdominal pain, vaginal bleeding, absence of gastrointestinal symptoms, and positive pregnancy test in this case. Ectopic pregnancy occurs when a fertilized egg implants outside the uterus, and endometriosis can cause scar tissue and adhesions that hinder the zygote’s journey to the uterus. The use of combined oral contraceptive pills or emergency hormonal contraception does not elevate the risk of ectopic pregnancy, as per NICE guidelines. However, a history of previous ectopic pregnancies is associated with an increased risk.

      Understanding Ectopic Pregnancy: Incidence and Risk Factors

      Ectopic pregnancy occurs when a fertilized egg implants outside the uterus, usually in the fallopian tubes. This condition is a serious medical emergency that requires immediate attention. According to epidemiological studies, ectopic pregnancy occurs in approximately 0.5% of all pregnancies.

      Several risk factors can increase the likelihood of ectopic pregnancy. These include damage to the fallopian tubes due to pelvic inflammatory disease or surgery, a history of previous ectopic pregnancy, endometriosis, the use of intrauterine contraceptive devices (IUCDs), and the progesterone-only pill. In vitro fertilization (IVF) also increases the risk of ectopic pregnancy, with approximately 3% of IVF pregnancies resulting in ectopic implantation.

      It is important to note that any factor that slows down the passage of the fertilized egg to the uterus can increase the risk of ectopic pregnancy. Early detection and prompt treatment are crucial in managing this condition and preventing serious complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      138.6
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 42-year-old teacher is referred to the Breast Clinic for further investigation after...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old teacher is referred to the Breast Clinic for further investigation after finding a lump on her right breast one week earlier. She has well-controlled hypertension, but no other medical history of note. The patient does not smoke and is a keen runner.
      The patient is especially concerned that she may have breast cancer, as her grandmother and maternal aunt both died from the condition. She is very upset that she did not find the lump sooner, as she thinks that it is at least 1 cm in size.
      With regard to tumour kinetics, which one of the following is correct?

      Your Answer: The clinical phase of tumour growth is long compared with the pre-clinical phase

      Correct Answer: Tumour growth obeys Gompertzian kinetics

      Explanation:

      Misconceptions about Tumour Growth

      Tumour growth is a complex process that is often misunderstood. Here are some common misconceptions about tumour growth:

      Common Misconceptions about Tumour Growth

      1. Tumour growth obeys Gompertzian kinetics
      While the rate of tumour growth does slow down from the initial exponential pattern, the assumption that it follows a sigmoidal shape is not always accurate.

      2. The clinical phase of tumour growth is long compared with the pre-clinical phase
      In reality, the clinical phase of a tumour is short in comparison to the pre-clinical phase. By the time a tumour is detected, it has already completed a significant portion of its life cycle.

      3. The smallest clinically detectable tumour is 1000 cells
      This is far too few cells to be clinically detectable. The usual number required to be clinically detectable would be 109 cells.

      4. In most tumours, the growth fraction is >90%
      The growth fraction is usually 4–80%, with an average of <20%. Even in some rapidly growing tumours, the growth fraction is only about 20%. 5. Tumour growth is characterised by contact inhibition
      Contact inhibition is a mechanism that is lost in cancer cells. Tumour growth is actually characterised by uncontrolled cell growth and division.

      It is important to have a clear understanding of tumour growth in order to develop effective treatments and improve patient outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Oncology
      120.4
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 67-year-old woman with multiple comorbidities complains of acute left leg pain that...

    Correct

    • A 67-year-old woman with multiple comorbidities complains of acute left leg pain that has been affecting her mobility for the past two days. Upon examination, you observe a cold, pulseless left lower leg with reduced sensation. No visible ulcers are present on examination of her lower limbs. She typically consumes approximately 7 units of alcohol per week and has a medical history of well-controlled type 2 diabetes mellitus (latest HbA1c 49 mmol/mol), asthma, and atrial fibrillation. Recently, she began hormone replacement therapy (HRT) to alleviate vasomotor symptoms associated with menopause. What is the most likely cause of this patient's presentation based on her risk factors?

      Your Answer: Atrial fibrillation

      Explanation:

      Atrial fibrillation is a known risk factor for embolic acute limb ischaemia, as it increases the likelihood of thromboembolic disease. This occurs when thrombi form in the atrium and migrate, resulting in an embolism that can cause acute limb ischaemia. The patient’s alcohol intake is within recommended limits and is unlikely to be the cause of her condition, although excessive alcohol consumption can increase the risk of bleeding and cardiovascular disease. Hormone replacement therapy (HRT) is generally considered to prevent arterial disease progression, but it can increase the risk of venous thrombosis such as deep vein thrombosis or pulmonary embolism. Reduced mobility can increase the risk of venous thromboembolic disease, but it is not typically associated with acute limb ischaemia. While hyperglycaemia in type 2 diabetes can damage blood vessels, the patient’s diabetes is well controlled and is unlikely to be the primary cause of her presentation. However, diabetes is associated with atherosclerosis, which can lead to arterial occlusion, and patients with diabetic neuropathy may present late and have an increased risk of developing gangrene requiring amputation.

      Peripheral arterial disease can present in three main ways: intermittent claudication, critical limb ischaemia, and acute limb-threatening ischaemia. The latter is characterized by one or more of the 6 P’s: pale, pulseless, painful, paralysed, paraesthetic, and perishing with cold. Initial investigations include a handheld arterial Doppler examination and an ankle-brachial pressure index (ABI) if Doppler signals are present. It is important to determine whether the ischaemia is due to a thrombus or embolus, as this will guide management. Thrombus is suggested by pre-existing claudication with sudden deterioration, reduced or absent pulses in the contralateral limb, and evidence of widespread vascular disease. Embolus is suggested by a sudden onset of painful leg (<24 hours), no history of claudication, clinically obvious source of embolus, and no evidence of peripheral vascular disease. Initial management includes an ABC approach, analgesia, intravenous unfractionated heparin, and vascular review. Definitive management options include intra-arterial thrombolysis, surgical embolectomy, angioplasty, bypass surgery, or amputation for irreversible ischaemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
      110.5
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Ethics And Legal (0/1) 0%
Musculoskeletal (2/3) 67%
Neurology (0/1) 0%
Colorectal (1/1) 100%
ENT (0/1) 0%
Obstetrics (1/1) 100%
Oncology (0/1) 0%
Surgery (1/1) 100%
Passmed