-
Question 1
Correct
-
A 45-year-old woman is brought into the emergency room by an ambulance with sirens blaring after being involved in a car accident. She was hit by a truck while crossing the street and is suspected to have a pelvic injury. Her condition is unstable, and the hospital has activated the massive transfusion protocol. You decide to also administer tranexamic acid and give an initial dose of 1 g intravenously over a period of 10 minutes.
What should be the subsequent dose of tranexamic acid and how long should it be administered for?Your Answer: 1 g IV over 8 hours
Explanation:ATLS guidelines now suggest administering only 1 liter of crystalloid fluid during the initial assessment. If patients do not respond to the crystalloid, it is recommended to quickly transition to blood products. Studies have shown that infusing more than 1.5 liters of crystalloid fluid is associated with higher mortality rates in trauma cases. Therefore, it is advised to prioritize the early use of blood products and avoid large volumes of crystalloid fluid in trauma patients. In cases where it is necessary, massive transfusion should be considered, defined as the transfusion of more than 10 units of blood in 24 hours or more than 4 units of blood in one hour. For patients with evidence of Class III and IV hemorrhage, early resuscitation with blood and blood products in low ratios is recommended.
Based on the findings of significant trials, such as the CRASH-2 study, the use of tranexamic acid is now recommended within 3 hours. This involves administering a loading dose of 1 gram intravenously over 10 minutes, followed by an infusion of 1 gram over eight hours. In some regions, tranexamic acid is also being utilized in the prehospital setting.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Trauma
-
-
Question 2
Incorrect
-
A 45-year-old woman was involved in a car accident where her car collided with a tree at a high speed. She was not wearing a seatbelt and was thrown forward onto the steering wheel of her car. She has bruising over her anterior chest wall and is experiencing chest pain. Her chest X-ray in the resuscitation room shows potential signs of a traumatic aortic injury, but it is uncertain.
Which investigation should be prioritized for further examination?Your Answer: Aortography
Correct Answer: Contrast-enhanced CT scan of the chest
Explanation:Traumatic aortic rupture, also known as traumatic aortic disruption or transection, occurs when the aorta is torn or ruptured due to physical trauma. This condition often leads to sudden death because of severe bleeding. Motor vehicle accidents and falls from great heights are the most common causes of this injury.
The patients with the highest chances of survival are those who have an incomplete tear near the ligamentum arteriosum of the proximal descending aorta, close to where the left subclavian artery branches off. The presence of an intact adventitial layer or contained mediastinal hematoma helps maintain continuity and prevents immediate bleeding and death. If promptly identified and treated, survivors of these injuries can recover. In cases where traumatic aortic rupture leads to sudden death, approximately 50% of patients have damage at the aortic isthmus, while around 15% have damage in either the ascending aorta or the aortic arch.
Initial chest X-rays may show signs consistent with a traumatic aortic injury. However, false-positive and false-negative results can occur, and sometimes there may be no abnormalities visible on the X-ray. Some of the possible X-ray findings include a widened mediastinum, hazy left lung field, obliteration of the aortic knob, fractures of the 1st and 2nd ribs, deviation of the trachea to the right, presence of a pleural cap, elevation and rightward shift of the right mainstem bronchus, depression of the left mainstem bronchus, obliteration of the space between the pulmonary artery and aorta, and deviation of the esophagus or NG tube to the right.
A helical contrast-enhanced CT scan of the chest is the preferred initial investigation for suspected blunt aortic injury. It has proven to be highly accurate, with close to 100% sensitivity and specificity. CT scanning should be performed liberally, as chest X-ray findings can be unreliable. However, hemodynamically unstable patients should not be placed in a CT scanner. If the CT results are inconclusive, aortography or trans-oesophageal echo can be performed for further evaluation.
Immediate surgical intervention is necessary for these injuries. Endovascular repair is the most common method used and has excellent short-term outcomes. Open repair may also be performed depending on the circumstances. It is important to control heart rate and blood pressure during stabilization to reduce the risk of rupture. Pain should be managed with appropriate analgesic
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Trauma
-
-
Question 3
Incorrect
-
A child who has been involved in a car accident undergoes a traumatic cardiac arrest. You perform an anterolateral thoracotomy.
What is the accurate anatomical location for the incision that needs to be made?Your Answer: 5th intercostal space from the midaxillary line to the posterior axillary line
Correct Answer: 4th intercostal space from the sternum to the posterior axillary line
Explanation:An anterolateral thoracotomy is a surgical procedure performed on the front part of the chest wall. It is commonly used in Emergency Department thoracotomy, with a preference for a left-sided approach in patients with traumatic arrest or left-sided chest injuries. However, in patients with right-sided chest injuries and profound hypotension but have not arrested, a right-sided approach is recommended.
The procedure is carried out in the following steps:
– An incision is made along the 4th or 5th intercostal space, starting from the sternum at the front and extending to the posterior axillary line.
– The incision should be deep enough to partially cut through the latissimus dorsi muscle.
– The skin, subcutaneous fat, and superficial portions of the pectoralis and serratus muscles are divided.
– The parietal pleura is divided, allowing entry into the pleural cavity.
– The intercostal muscles are completely cut, and a rib spreader is placed and opened to provide visualization of the thoracic cavity.
– The anterolateral approach allows access to important anatomical structures during resuscitation, including the pulmonary hilum, heart, and aorta.In cases where there is suspicion of a right-sided heart injury, an additional incision can be made on the right side, extending across the entire chest. This is known as a bilateral anterolateral thoracotomy or a clamshell thoracotomy.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Trauma
-
-
Question 4
Incorrect
-
You are summoned to a cardiac arrest in the resuscitation area of your Emergency Department. As part of your treatment, a dose of adrenaline is given.
Which of the following is NOT a beta-adrenergic effect of adrenaline?Your Answer: Increased myocardial contractility
Correct Answer: Systemic vasoconstriction
Explanation:The effects of adrenaline on alpha-adrenergic receptors result in the narrowing of blood vessels throughout the body, leading to increased pressure in the coronary and cerebral arteries. On the other hand, the effects of adrenaline on beta-adrenergic receptors enhance the strength of the heart’s contractions and increase the heart rate, which can potentially improve blood flow to the coronary and cerebral arteries. However, it is important to note that these positive effects may be counteracted by the simultaneous increase in oxygen consumption by the heart, the occurrence of abnormal heart rhythms, reduced oxygen levels due to abnormal blood flow patterns, impaired small blood vessel function, and worsened heart function following a cardiac arrest.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Trauma
-
-
Question 5
Correct
-
A 15 year old female patient is brought to the emergency department after being kicked by a horse multiple times. The patient had recently started work cleaning stables and was kicked several times whilst behind one of the horses. The patients observations are shown below:
Parameter Result
Blood pressure 108/62 mmHg
Pulse rate 124 bpm
Respiration rate 30 rpm
SpO2 95% on air
On examination there is significant bruising to the right anterolateral aspect of the chest wall, the patient is clammy, there is reduced air entry with dull percussion to the right lung base and the trachea is central. What is the likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Massive haemothorax
Explanation:Massive haemothorax is characterized by the presence of more than 1.5 litres of blood in the pleural space. The patient’s history and examination findings are indicative of haemothorax. When blood loss exceeds 1500ml, it is classified as grade 3 hypovolemic shock, which is considered severe. Symptoms such as a pulse rate over 120, respiration rate over 30, and low blood pressure align with grade 3 shock and are consistent with massive haemothorax. In the case of pneumothorax, percussion reveals a resonant or hyper-resonant sound. Chylothorax, on the other hand, is a rare condition that typically occurs due to injury to the thoracic duct.
Further Reading:
Haemothorax is the accumulation of blood in the pleural cavity of the chest, usually resulting from chest trauma. It can be difficult to differentiate from other causes of pleural effusion on a chest X-ray. Massive haemothorax refers to a large volume of blood in the pleural space, which can impair physiological function by causing blood loss, reducing lung volume for gas exchange, and compressing thoracic structures such as the heart and IVC.
The management of haemothorax involves replacing lost blood volume and decompressing the chest. This is done through supplemental oxygen, IV access and cross-matching blood, IV fluid therapy, and the insertion of a chest tube. The chest tube is connected to an underwater seal and helps drain the fluid, pus, air, or blood from the pleural space. In cases where there is prompt drainage of a large amount of blood, ongoing significant blood loss, or the need for blood transfusion, thoracotomy and ligation of bleeding thoracic vessels may be necessary. It is important to have two IV accesses prior to inserting the chest drain to prevent a drop in blood pressure.
In summary, haemothorax is the accumulation of blood in the pleural cavity due to chest trauma. Managing haemothorax involves replacing lost blood volume and decompressing the chest through various interventions, including the insertion of a chest tube. Prompt intervention may be required in cases of significant blood loss or ongoing need for blood transfusion.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Trauma
-
-
Question 6
Correct
-
A 32-year-old woman comes to the emergency department after falling while drunk. She has a 6.5 cm cut on the back of her head and says she feels a tingling sensation in the area of the cut. Which of the following structures provides sensory innervation to the back of the head?
Your Answer: C2 and C3 cervical nerves
Explanation:The main sensory supply to the back of the scalp comes from the C2 and C3 cervical nerves. The scalp receives innervation from branches of both the trigeminal nerve and the cervical nerves, as depicted in the illustration in the notes. The C2 and C3 cervical nerves are primarily responsible for supplying sensation to the posterior scalp.
Further Reading:
The scalp is the area of the head that is bordered by the face in the front and the neck on the sides and back. It consists of several layers, including the skin, connective tissue, aponeurosis, loose connective tissue, and periosteum of the skull. These layers provide protection and support to the underlying structures of the head.
The blood supply to the scalp primarily comes from branches of the external carotid artery and the ophthalmic artery, which is a branch of the internal carotid artery. These arteries provide oxygen and nutrients to the scalp tissues.
The scalp also has a complex venous drainage system, which is divided into superficial and deep networks. The superficial veins correspond to the arterial branches and are responsible for draining blood from the scalp. The deep venous network is drained by the pterygoid venous plexus.
In terms of innervation, the scalp receives sensory input from branches of the trigeminal nerve and the cervical nerves. These nerves transmit sensory information from the scalp to the brain, allowing us to perceive touch, pain, and temperature in this area.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Trauma
-
-
Question 7
Correct
-
A 21 year old patient is brought into the emergency department with burns to the left arm. The patient informs you that one of their friends had accidentally set their sleeve on fire with a lighter, causing the material to quickly burn and stick to their skin. The patient's entire left arm is burned, with the front part experiencing superficial partial thickness burns and the back part having areas of deep partial thickness and full thickness burns. What is the estimated total body surface area of burn in this patient?
Your Answer: 9%
Explanation:To estimate the total body surface area of burn, we need to consider the rule of nines. This rule divides the body into different regions, each representing a certain percentage of the total body surface area. According to the rule of nines, the left arm accounts for 9% of the total body surface area. Therefore, the estimated total body surface area of burn in this patient is 9%.
Further Reading:
Burn injuries can be classified based on their type (degree, partial thickness or full thickness), extent as a percentage of total body surface area (TBSA), and severity (minor, moderate, major/severe). Severe burns are defined as a >10% TBSA in a child and >15% TBSA in an adult.
When assessing a burn, it is important to consider airway injury, carbon monoxide poisoning, type of burn, extent of burn, special considerations, and fluid status. Special considerations may include head and neck burns, circumferential burns, thorax burns, electrical burns, hand burns, and burns to the genitalia.
Airway management is a priority in burn injuries. Inhalation of hot particles can cause damage to the respiratory epithelium and lead to airway compromise. Signs of inhalation injury include visible burns or erythema to the face, soot around the nostrils and mouth, burnt/singed nasal hairs, hoarse voice, wheeze or stridor, swollen tissues in the mouth or nostrils, and tachypnea and tachycardia. Supplemental oxygen should be provided, and endotracheal intubation may be necessary if there is airway obstruction or impending obstruction.
The initial management of a patient with burn injuries involves conserving body heat, covering burns with clean or sterile coverings, establishing IV access, providing pain relief, initiating fluid resuscitation, measuring urinary output with a catheter, maintaining nil by mouth status, closely monitoring vital signs and urine output, monitoring the airway, preparing for surgery if necessary, and administering medications.
Burns can be classified based on the depth of injury, ranging from simple erythema to full thickness burns that penetrate into subcutaneous tissue. The extent of a burn can be estimated using methods such as the rule of nines or the Lund and Browder chart, which takes into account age-specific body proportions.
Fluid management is crucial in burn injuries due to significant fluid losses. Evaporative fluid loss from burnt skin and increased permeability of blood vessels can lead to reduced intravascular volume and tissue perfusion. Fluid resuscitation should be aggressive in severe burns, while burns <15% in adults and <10% in children may not require immediate fluid resuscitation. The Parkland formula can be used to calculate the intravenous fluid requirements for someone with a significant burn injury.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Trauma
-
-
Question 8
Incorrect
-
A 35-year-old man is brought into the emergency room by an ambulance with flashing lights. He has been involved in a building fire and has sustained severe burns. You evaluate his airway and have concerns about potential airway blockage. You decide to perform intubation on the patient and begin preparing the required equipment.
Which of the following is NOT a reason for performing early intubation in a burn patient?Your Answer: Burns inside the mouth
Correct Answer: Superficial partial-thickness circumferential neck burns
Explanation:Early assessment of the airway is a critical aspect of managing a burned patient. Airway obstruction can occur rapidly due to direct injury or swelling from the burn. If there is a history of trauma, the airway should be evaluated while maintaining cervical spine control.
There are several risk factors for airway obstruction in burned patients, including inhalation injury, soot in the mouth or nostrils, singed nasal hairs, burns to the head, face, and neck, burns inside the mouth, large burn area and increasing burn depth, associated trauma, and a carboxyhemoglobin level above 10%.
In cases where significant swelling is anticipated, it may be necessary to urgently secure the airway with an uncut endotracheal tube before the swelling becomes severe. Delaying recognition of impending airway obstruction can make intubation difficult, and a surgical airway may be required.
The American Burn Life Support (ABLS) guidelines recommend early intubation in certain situations. These include signs of airway obstruction, extensive burns, deep facial burns, burns inside the mouth, significant swelling or risk of swelling, difficulty swallowing, respiratory compromise, decreased level of consciousness, and anticipated transfer of a patient with a large burn and airway issues without qualified personnel to intubate during transport.
Circumferential burns of the neck can cause tissue swelling around the airway, making early intubation necessary in these cases as well.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Trauma
-
-
Question 9
Incorrect
-
A 35-year-old man is brought in by ambulance following a car crash. A FAST scan is conducted to assess for the presence of a haemoperitoneum.
Where is free fluid most likely to be observed if a haemoperitoneum is present?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Liver
Explanation:A Focussed Assessment with Sonography for Trauma (FAST) scan is a point-of-care ultrasound examination conducted when a trauma patient arrives. Its primary purpose is to identify the presence of intra-abdominal free fluid, which is typically assumed to be haemoperitoneum in the context of trauma. This information is crucial for making decisions regarding further management of the patient.
The sensitivity of FAST scanning for detecting intraperitoneal fluid is approximately 90%, while its specificity is around 95%. However, its sensitivity for detecting solid organ injuries is much lower. As a result, FAST scanning has largely replaced diagnostic peritoneal lavage as the preferred initial method for assessing haemoperitoneum.
During a standard FAST scan, four regions are examined. The subxiphoid transverse view is used to assess for pericardial effusion and left lobe liver injuries. The longitudinal view of the right upper quadrant helps identify right liver injuries, right kidney injury, and fluid in the hepatorenal recess (Morison’s pouch). The longitudinal view of the left upper quadrant is used to assess for splenic injury and left kidney injury. Lastly, the transverse and longitudinal views of the suprapubic region are used to examine the bladder and fluid in the pouch of Douglas.
In addition to the standard FAST scan, an extended FAST or eFAST may be performed to assess the left and right thoracic regions. This helps determine the presence of pneumothorax and haemothorax.
The hepatorenal recess is the deepest part of the peritoneal cavity when the patient is lying flat. Consequently, it is the most likely area for fluid to accumulate.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Trauma
-
-
Question 10
Incorrect
-
A young patient who has been in a car accident experiences a traumatic cardiac arrest. You decide to perform an anterolateral thoracotomy.
During this procedure, which structures will need to be divided?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Latissimus dorsi
Explanation:An anterolateral thoracotomy is a surgical procedure performed on the front part of the chest wall. It is commonly used in Emergency Department thoracotomy, with a preference for a left-sided approach in patients experiencing traumatic arrest or left-sided chest injuries. However, in cases where patients have not arrested but present with severe low blood pressure and right-sided chest injuries, a right-sided approach is recommended.
The procedure is conducted as follows: an incision is made along the 4th or 5th intercostal space, starting from the sternum at the front and extending to the posterior axillary line. The incision should be deep enough to partially cut through the latissimus dorsi muscle. Subsequently, the skin, subcutaneous fat, and superficial portions of the pectoralis and serratus muscles are divided. The parietal pleura is then divided, allowing access to the pleural cavity. The intercostal muscles are completely cut, and a rib spreader is inserted and opened to provide visualization of the thoracic cavity.
The anterolateral approach enables access to crucial anatomical structures during resuscitation, including the pulmonary hilum, heart, and aorta. In cases where a right-sided heart injury is suspected, an additional incision can be made on the right side, extending across the entire chest. This procedure is known as a bilateral anterolateral thoracotomy or a clamshell thoracotomy.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Trauma
-
-
Question 11
Incorrect
-
You are overseeing the care of a 25-year-old male who has sustained a stab wound to the chest. During your examination, you observe air bubbling from the wound, indicating a potential sucking chest wound. What is the primary intervention that should be prioritized in managing this injury?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Application of an occlusive dressing with one side left open
Explanation:Dressings that function as flutter valves are beneficial in the initial treatment of open pneumothorax. The first step involves applying an occlusive dressing that covers the wound, with one side intentionally left open to create a flutter-valve effect. Alternatively, a chest seal device can be used. The occlusive dressing should be square or rectangular in shape, with three sides securely sealed and one side left unsealed. When the patient inhales, the dressing is drawn against the chest wall, preventing air from entering the chest cavity. However, during exhalation, air can still escape through the open side of the dressing. Another option is to use a chest seal device that includes a built-in one-way (flutter) valve. Definitive management typically involves surgical intervention to repair the defect and address any other injuries. The Royal College of Emergency Medicine (RCEM) also recommends surgery as the definitive treatment, as inserting a chest drain may disrupt tissues that could otherwise be used to cover the defect with muscle flaps.
Further Reading:
An open pneumothorax, also known as a sucking chest wound, occurs when air enters the pleural space due to an open chest wound or physical defect. This can lead to ineffective ventilation, causing hypoxia and hypercarbia. Air can enter the pleural cavity passively or be sucked in during inspiration, leading to lung collapse on that side. Sucking wounds can be heard audibly as air passes through the chest defect, and entry wounds are usually visible.
To manage an open pneumothorax, respiratory compromise can be alleviated by covering the wound with a dressing or using a chest seal device. It is important to ensure that one side of the dressing is not occluded, allowing the dressing to function as a flutter valve and prevent significant air ingress during inspiration while allowing air to escape the pleural cavity. If tension pneumothorax is suspected after applying a dressing, the dressing may need to be temporarily removed for decompression.
Intubation and intermittent positive pressure ventilation (IPPV) can be used to ventilate the patient and alleviate respiratory distress. Definitive management involves either inserting a chest drain or surgically repairing the defect. Surgical repair is typically preferred, especially for large wounds.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Trauma
-
-
Question 12
Incorrect
-
A 35-year-old woman is brought in by ambulance following a car accident where her car was struck by a truck. She has suffered severe facial injuries and shows signs of airway obstruction. Her neck is immobilized. She has suffered significant midface trauma, and the anesthesiologist decides to secure a definitive airway by intubating the patient. He is unable to pass an endotracheal tube, and he decides to perform a needle cricothyroidotomy.
Which of the following statements regarding needle cricothyroidotomy is FALSE?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The cricothyroid membrane is located directly below the cricoid cartilage
Explanation:A needle cricothyroidotomy is a procedure used in emergency situations to provide oxygenation when intubation and oxygenation are not possible. It is typically performed when a patient cannot be intubated or oxygenated. There are certain conditions that make this procedure contraindicated, such as local infection, distorted anatomy, previous failed attempts, and swelling or mass lesions.
To perform a needle cricothyroidotomy, the necessary equipment should be assembled and prepared. The patient should be positioned supine with their neck in a neutral position. The neck should be cleaned in a sterile manner using antiseptic swabs. If time allows, the area should be anesthetized locally. A 12 or 14 gauge over-the-needle catheter should be assembled to a 10 mL syringe.
The cricothyroid membrane, located between the thyroid and cricoid cartilage, should be identified anteriorly. The trachea should be stabilized with the thumb and forefinger of one hand. Using the other hand, the skin should be punctured in the midline with the needle over the cricothyroid membrane. The needle should be directed at a 45° angle caudally while negative pressure is applied to the syringe. Needle aspiration should be maintained as the needle is inserted through the lower half of the cricothyroid membrane, with air aspiration indicating entry into the tracheal lumen.
Once the needle is in place, the syringe and needle should be removed while the catheter is advanced to the hub. The oxygen catheter should be attached and the airway secured. It is important to be aware of possible complications, such as technique failure, cannula obstruction or dislodgement, injury to local structures, and surgical emphysema if high flow oxygen is administered through a malpositioned cannula.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Trauma
-
-
Question 13
Incorrect
-
A man in his early forties who works at a steel mill is hit in the front of his abdomen by a steel girder. A FAST scan is conducted, revealing the existence of free fluid within the abdominal cavity.
Which organ is most likely to have sustained an injury in this scenario?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Spleen
Explanation:Blunt abdominal trauma often leads to injuries in certain organs. According to the latest edition of the ATLS manual, the spleen is the most frequently injured organ, with a prevalence of 40-55%. Following closely behind is the liver, which sustains injuries in about 35-45% of cases. The small bowel, although less commonly affected, still experiences injuries in approximately 5-10% of patients. It is worth noting that patients who undergo laparotomy for blunt trauma have a 15% incidence of retroperitoneal hematoma. These statistics highlight the significant impact of blunt abdominal trauma on organ health.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Trauma
-
-
Question 14
Incorrect
-
A 45-year-old woman is brought into resus by blue light ambulance following a car crash. She was hit by a truck while driving a car and has a suspected pelvic injury. She is currently on a backboard with cervical spine protection and a pelvic binder in place. The massive transfusion protocol is activated.
Which of the following is the definition of a massive transfusion?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The transfusion of more than 4 units of blood in 1 hour
Explanation:ATLS guidelines now suggest administering only 1 liter of crystalloid fluid during the initial assessment. If patients do not respond to the crystalloid, it is recommended to quickly transition to blood products. Studies have shown that infusing more than 1.5 liters of crystalloid fluid is associated with higher mortality rates in trauma cases. Therefore, it is advised to prioritize the early use of blood products and avoid large volumes of crystalloid fluid in trauma patients. In cases where it is necessary, massive transfusion should be considered, defined as the transfusion of more than 10 units of blood in 24 hours or more than 4 units of blood in one hour. For patients with evidence of Class III and IV hemorrhage, early resuscitation with blood and blood products in low ratios is recommended.
Based on the findings of significant trials, such as the CRASH-2 study, the use of tranexamic acid is now recommended within 3 hours. This involves administering a loading dose of 1 gram intravenously over 10 minutes, followed by an infusion of 1 gram over eight hours. In some regions, tranexamic acid is also being utilized in the prehospital setting.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Trauma
-
-
Question 15
Incorrect
-
A 42-year-old male is brought into the ED by ambulance following a car accident with suspected internal abdominal injury. Upon arrival in the ED, his blood pressure was recorded as 102/68 mmHg and his pulse rate was 114 bpm. Initial resuscitation measures have been initiated, and a fluid bolus of 500 ml of 0.9% saline has been administered. The patient's vital signs are reassessed after the bolus and are as follows:
Blood pressure: 92/66 mmHg
Pulse rate: 124 bpm
Respiration rate: 29 bpm
SpO2: 98% on 15 liters of oxygen
Temperature: 36.1 ºC
What percentage of the patient's circulating blood volume would you estimate has been lost?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 30-40%
Explanation:Shock is a condition characterized by inadequate tissue perfusion due to circulatory insufficiency. It can be caused by fluid loss or redistribution, as well as impaired cardiac output. The main causes of shock include haemorrhage, diarrhoea and vomiting, burns, diuresis, sepsis, neurogenic shock, anaphylaxis, massive pulmonary embolism, tension pneumothorax, cardiac tamponade, myocardial infarction, and myocarditis.
One common cause of shock is haemorrhage, which is frequently encountered in the emergency department. Haemorrhagic shock can be classified into different types based on the amount of blood loss. Type 1 haemorrhagic shock involves a blood loss of 15% or less, with less than 750 ml of blood loss. Patients with type 1 shock may have normal blood pressure and heart rate, with a respiratory rate of 12 to 20 breaths per minute.
Type 2 haemorrhagic shock involves a blood loss of 15 to 30%, with 750 to 1500 ml of blood loss. Patients with type 2 shock may have a pulse rate of 100 to 120 beats per minute and a respiratory rate of 20 to 30 breaths per minute. Blood pressure is typically normal in type 2 shock.
Type 3 haemorrhagic shock involves a blood loss of 30 to 40%, with 1.5 to 2 litres of blood loss. Patients with type 3 shock may have a pulse rate of 120 to 140 beats per minute and a respiratory rate of more than 30 breaths per minute. Urine output is decreased to 5-15 mls per hour.
Type 4 haemorrhagic shock involves a blood loss of more than 40%, with more than 2 litres of blood loss. Patients with type 4 shock may have a pulse rate of more than 140 beats per minute and a respiratory rate of more than 35 breaths per minute. They may also be drowsy, confused, and possibly experience loss of consciousness. Urine output may be minimal or absent.
In summary, shock is a condition characterized by inadequate tissue perfusion. Haemorrhage is a common cause of shock, and it can be classified into different types based on the amount of blood loss. Prompt recognition and management of shock are crucial in order to prevent further complications and improve patient outcomes
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Trauma
-
-
Question 16
Incorrect
-
A 25-year-old woman is stabbed in the chest during a fight outside a bar. A FAST scan is conducted, revealing the presence of free fluid in the chest cavity.
Which of the following organs is most likely to be damaged in this scenario?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Liver
Explanation:Stab wounds to the abdomen result in tissue damage through laceration and cutting. When patients experience penetrating abdominal trauma due to stab wounds, the organs that are most commonly affected include the liver (40% of cases), small bowel (30% of cases), diaphragm (20% of cases), and colon (15% of cases). These statistics are derived from the latest edition of the ATLS manual.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Trauma
-
-
Question 17
Incorrect
-
A child presents with a thermal burn affecting her left hand that occurred in the kitchen while baking. You evaluate the burn and observe that it is a deep partial-thickness burn.
Which of the following statements about deep partial-thickness burns is accurate?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: They do not blanch with pressure
Explanation:Assessing the depth of a burn is crucial for determining the severity of the injury and planning appropriate wound care. Burns are typically classified as first-, second-, or third-degree, depending on how deeply they penetrate the skin’s surface.
First-degree burns, also known as superficial burns, only affect the outer layer of skin called the epidermis. These burns are characterized by redness and pain, with dry skin and no blistering. An example of a first-degree burn is mild sunburn. They usually do not require intravenous fluid replacement and are not included in the assessment of the burn’s extent. Long-term tissue damage is rare with these burns.
Second-degree burns, also called partial-thickness burns, involve both the epidermis and part of the dermis layer of skin. They can be further categorized as superficial partial-thickness or deep partial-thickness burns. Superficial partial-thickness burns are moist, hypersensitive, potentially blistered, uniformly pink, and blanch when touched. Deep partial-thickness burns are drier, less painful, potentially blistered, red or mottled in appearance, and do not blanch when touched.
Third-degree burns, also known as full-thickness burns, destroy both the epidermis and dermis layers of skin and extend into the subcutaneous tissue. These burns may also damage underlying bones, muscles, and tendons. The burn site appears translucent or waxy white, or it can be charred. Once the epidermis is removed, the underlying dermis may initially appear red but does not blanch under pressure. This dermis is typically dry and does not produce any fluid. Since the nerve endings are destroyed, there is no sensation in the affected area.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Trauma
-
-
Question 18
Incorrect
-
A 25 year old male is brought to the emergency department by the police. The man tried to evade capture by leaping from a ground floor window. The patient reports that both of his feet are hurting, but the left foot is significantly more painful than the right. The patient exhibits tenderness in the left heel, leading you to suspect a calcaneus fracture. Which of the following statements about calcaneus fractures is accurate?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Contralateral calcaneus fractures are present in 10% of patients
Explanation:Fractures that extend into the calcaneocuboid joint are commonly intra-articular. It is recommended to refer patients to orthopaedics for further evaluation and treatment. Conservative management usually involves keeping the patient non-weight bearing for a period of 6-12 weeks.
Further Reading:
Calcaneus fractures are a common type of lower limb and joint injury. The calcaneus, or heel bone, is the most frequently fractured tarsal bone. These fractures are often intra-articular, meaning they involve the joint. The most common cause of calcaneus fractures is a fall or jump from a height.
When assessing calcaneus fractures, X-rays are used to visualize the fracture lines. Two angles are commonly assessed to determine the severity of the fracture. Böhler’s angle, which measures the angle between two tangent lines drawn across the anterior and posterior borders of the calcaneus, should be between 20-40 degrees. If it is less than 20 degrees, it indicates a calcaneal fracture with flattening. The angle of Gissane, which measures the depression of the posterior facet of the subtalar joint, should be between 120-145 degrees. An increased angle of Gissane suggests a calcaneal fracture.
In the emergency department, the management of a fractured calcaneus involves identifying the injury and any associated injuries, providing pain relief, elevating the affected limb(s), and referring the patient to an orthopedic specialist. It is important to be aware that calcaneus fractures are often accompanied by other injuries, such as bilateral fractures of vertebral fractures.
The definitive management of a fractured calcaneus can be done conservatively or through surgery, specifically open reduction internal fixation (ORIF). The orthopedic team will typically order a CT or MRI scan to classify the fracture and determine the most appropriate treatment. However, a recent UK heel fracture trial suggests that in most cases, ORIF does not improve fracture outcomes.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Trauma
-
-
Question 19
Incorrect
-
A 42-year-old woman was in a car crash where her vehicle collided with a wall at a high speed. She was not wearing a seatbelt and was thrown forward onto the steering wheel. She has bruising on her front chest wall and is experiencing chest pain. The chest X-ray taken in the emergency room shows signs of a traumatic aortic injury.
Which of the following chest X-ray findings is most indicative of this injury?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Presence of a pleural cap
Explanation:Traumatic aortic rupture, also known as traumatic aortic disruption or transection, occurs when the aorta is torn or ruptured due to physical trauma. This condition often leads to sudden death because of severe bleeding. Motor vehicle accidents and falls from great heights are the most common causes of this injury.
The patients with the highest chances of survival are those who have an incomplete tear near the ligamentum arteriosum of the proximal descending aorta, close to where the left subclavian artery branches off. The presence of an intact adventitial layer or contained mediastinal hematoma helps maintain continuity and prevents immediate bleeding and death. If promptly identified and treated, survivors of these injuries can recover. In cases where traumatic aortic rupture leads to sudden death, approximately 50% of patients have damage at the aortic isthmus, while around 15% have damage in either the ascending aorta or the aortic arch.
Initial chest X-rays may show signs consistent with a traumatic aortic injury. However, false-positive and false-negative results can occur, and sometimes there may be no abnormalities visible on the X-ray. Some of the possible X-ray findings include a widened mediastinum, hazy left lung field, obliteration of the aortic knob, fractures of the 1st and 2nd ribs, deviation of the trachea to the right, presence of a pleural cap, elevation and rightward shift of the right mainstem bronchus, depression of the left mainstem bronchus, obliteration of the space between the pulmonary artery and aorta, and deviation of the esophagus or NG tube to the right.
A helical contrast-enhanced CT scan of the chest is the preferred initial investigation for suspected blunt aortic injury. It has proven to be highly accurate, with close to 100% sensitivity and specificity. CT scanning should be performed liberally, as chest X-ray findings can be unreliable. However, hemodynamically unstable patients should not be placed in a CT scanner. If the CT results are inconclusive, aortography or trans-oesophageal echo can be performed for further evaluation.
Immediate surgical intervention is necessary for these injuries. Endovascular repair is the most common method used and has excellent short-term outcomes. Open repair may also be performed depending on the circumstances. It is important to control heart rate and blood pressure during stabilization to reduce the risk of rupture. Pain should be managed with appropriate analgesic
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Trauma
-
-
Question 20
Incorrect
-
A 30-year-old woman suffers a gunshot wound to the chest in a domestic dispute. A FAST scan is performed, which shows the presence of intra-thoracic free fluid.
Which of the following organs is most likely to be injured in this case?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Small bowel
Explanation:Low-velocity gunshot wounds to the abdomen result in tissue damage through laceration and cutting. On the other hand, high-velocity gunshot wounds transfer a greater amount of kinetic energy to the abdominal viscera. These types of wounds can cause more extensive damage in the surrounding area of the missile’s path due to temporary cavitation.
When patients experience penetrating abdominal trauma as a result of gunshot wounds, certain organs are more commonly injured. The small bowel is affected in approximately 50% of cases, followed by the colon in 40% of cases. The liver is injured in around 30% of cases, while abdominal vascular structures are affected in about 25% of cases.
Please note that these statistics have been obtained from the most recent edition of the ATLS manual.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Trauma
-
-
Question 21
Incorrect
-
You are managing a 32-year-old male patient who leaped off a bridge. There is noticeable bruising and extreme sensitivity over the calcaneus. You are currently waiting for an X-ray to confirm the presence of a calcaneal fracture. Which of the following statements is accurate regarding the assessment of the X-ray?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The normal angle of Gissane is 120-145°
Explanation:The typical range for the normal angle of Gissane is between 120 and 145 degrees. An increase in this angle suggests that the posterior facet of the subtalar joint is depressed, which may indicate a calcaneal fracture. Similarly, the normal range for Bohler’s angle is between 20 and 40 degrees. For more detailed information and visual representations of these angles, please refer to the accompanying notes.
Further Reading:
calcaneus fractures are a common type of lower limb and joint injury. The calcaneus, or heel bone, is the most frequently fractured tarsal bone. These fractures are often intra-articular, meaning they involve the joint. The most common cause of calcaneus fractures is a fall or jump from a height.
When assessing calcaneus fractures, X-rays are used to visualize the fracture lines. Two angles are commonly assessed to determine the severity of the fracture. Böhler’s angle, which measures the angle between two tangent lines drawn across the anterior and posterior borders of the calcaneus, should be between 20-40 degrees. If it is less than 20 degrees, it indicates a calcaneal fracture with flattening. The angle of Gissane, which measures the depression of the posterior facet of the subtalar joint, should be between 120-145 degrees. An increased angle of Gissane suggests a calcaneal fracture.
In the emergency department, the management of a fractured calcaneus involves identifying the injury and any associated injuries, providing pain relief, elevating the affected limb(s), and referring the patient to an orthopedic specialist. It is important to be aware that calcaneus fractures are often accompanied by other injuries, such as bilateral fractures of vertebral fractures.
The definitive management of a fractured calcaneus can be done conservatively or through surgery, specifically open reduction internal fixation (ORIF). The orthopedic team will typically order a CT or MRI scan to classify the fracture and determine the most appropriate treatment. However, a recent UK heel fracture trial suggests that in most cases, ORIF does not improve fracture outcomes.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Trauma
-
-
Question 22
Incorrect
-
A 32-year-old woman was involved in a car accident where her car collided with a tree at a high speed. She was not wearing a seatbelt and was thrown forward onto the steering wheel of her car. She has bruising over her anterior chest wall and is experiencing chest pain. A helical contrast-enhanced CT scan of the chest reveals a traumatic aortic injury.
Where is her injury most likely to have occurred anatomically?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Proximal descending aorta
Explanation:Traumatic aortic rupture, also known as traumatic aortic disruption or transection, occurs when the aorta is torn or ruptured due to physical trauma. This condition often leads to sudden death because of severe bleeding. Motor vehicle accidents and falls from great heights are the most common causes of this injury.
The patients with the highest chances of survival are those who have an incomplete tear near the ligamentum arteriosum of the proximal descending aorta, close to where the left subclavian artery branches off. The presence of an intact adventitial layer or contained mediastinal hematoma helps maintain continuity and prevents immediate bleeding and death. If promptly identified and treated, survivors of these injuries can recover. In cases where traumatic aortic rupture leads to sudden death, approximately 50% of patients have damage at the aortic isthmus, while around 15% have damage in either the ascending aorta or the aortic arch.
Initial chest X-rays may show signs consistent with a traumatic aortic injury. However, false-positive and false-negative results can occur, and sometimes there may be no abnormalities visible on the X-ray. Some of the possible X-ray findings include a widened mediastinum, hazy left lung field, obliteration of the aortic knob, fractures of the 1st and 2nd ribs, deviation of the trachea to the right, presence of a pleural cap, elevation and rightward shift of the right mainstem bronchus, depression of the left mainstem bronchus, obliteration of the space between the pulmonary artery and aorta, and deviation of the esophagus or NG tube to the right.
A helical contrast-enhanced CT scan of the chest is the preferred initial investigation for suspected blunt aortic injury. It has proven to be highly accurate, with close to 100% sensitivity and specificity. CT scanning should be performed liberally, as chest X-ray findings can be unreliable. However, hemodynamically unstable patients should not be placed in a CT scanner. If the CT results are inconclusive, aortography or trans-oesophageal echo can be performed for further evaluation.
Immediate surgical intervention is necessary for these injuries. Endovascular repair is the most common method used and has excellent short-term outcomes. Open repair may also be performed depending on the circumstances. It is important to control heart rate and blood pressure during stabilization to reduce the risk of rupture. Pain should be managed with appropriate analgesic
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Trauma
-
-
Question 23
Incorrect
-
A 35-year-old woman is involved in a car accident. Her observations are taken one hour after arriving in the Emergency Department. Her pulse rate is 110 bpm, BP is 120/80 mmHg, respiratory rate 20 breaths/minute, and her urine output over the past hour has been 30 ml. She is currently mildly anxious. The patient weighs approximately 65 kg.
How would you classify her haemorrhage according to the ATLS haemorrhagic shock classification?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Class II
Explanation:This patient is showing a slightly elevated heart rate and respiratory rate, as well as a slightly reduced urine output. These signs indicate that the patient has experienced a class II haemorrhage at this point. It is important to be able to recognize the degree of blood loss based on vital sign and mental status abnormalities. The Advanced Trauma Life Support (ATLS) haemorrhagic shock classification provides a way to link the amount of blood loss to expected physiological responses in a healthy 70 kg patient. In a 70 kg male patient, the total circulating blood volume is approximately five liters, which accounts for about 7% of their total body weight.
The ATLS haemorrhagic shock classification is summarized as follows:
CLASS I:
– Blood loss: Up to 750 mL
– Blood loss (% blood volume): Up to 15%
– Pulse rate: Less than 100 bpm
– Systolic BP: Normal
– Pulse pressure: Normal (or increased)
– Respiratory rate: 14-20 breaths per minute
– Urine output: Greater than 30 mL/hr
– CNS/mental status: Slightly anxiousCLASS II:
– Blood loss: 750-1500 mL
– Blood loss (% blood volume): 15-30%
– Pulse rate: 100-120 bpm
– Systolic BP: Normal
– Pulse pressure: Decreased
– Respiratory rate: 20-30 breaths per minute
– Urine output: 20-30 mL/hr
– CNS/mental status: Mildly anxiousCLASS III:
– Blood loss: 1500-2000 mL
– Blood loss (% blood volume): 30-40%
– Pulse rate: 120-140 bpm
– Systolic BP: Decreased
– Pulse pressure: Decreased
– Respiratory rate: 30-40 breaths per minute
– Urine output: 5-15 mL/hr
– CNS/mental status: Anxious, confusedCLASS IV:
– Blood loss: More than 2000 mL
– Blood loss (% blood volume): More than 40%
– Pulse rate: More than 140 bpm
– Systolic BP: Decreased
– Pulse pressure: Decreased
– Respiratory rate: More than 40 breaths per minute
– Urine output: Negligible
– CNS/mental status: Confused, lethargic -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Trauma
-
-
Question 24
Incorrect
-
A 35-year-old woman that has been involved in a car accident is estimated to have suffered a class II haemorrhage according to the Advanced Trauma Life Support (ATLS) haemorrhagic shock classification. The patient weighs approximately 60 kg.
Which of the following physiological parameters is consistent with a diagnosis of class II haemorrhage?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Heart rate of 110 bpm
Explanation:Recognizing the extent of blood loss based on vital sign and mental status abnormalities is a crucial skill. The Advanced Trauma Life Support (ATLS) classification for hemorrhagic shock correlates the amount of blood loss with expected physiological responses in a healthy individual weighing 70 kg. In terms of body weight, the total circulating blood volume accounts for approximately 7%, which is roughly equivalent to five liters in an average 70 kg male patient.
The ATLS classification for hemorrhagic shock is as follows:
CLASS I:
– Blood loss: Up to 750 mL
– Blood loss (% blood volume): Up to 15%
– Pulse rate: Less than 100 beats per minute (bpm)
– Systolic blood pressure: Normal
– Pulse pressure: Normal (or increased)
– Respiratory rate: 14-20 breaths per minute
– Urine output: Greater than 30 mL/hr
– CNS/mental status: Slightly anxiousCLASS II:
– Blood loss: 750-1500 mL
– Blood loss (% blood volume): 15-30%
– Pulse rate: 100-120 bpm
– Systolic blood pressure: Normal
– Pulse pressure: Decreased
– Respiratory rate: 20-30 breaths per minute
– Urine output: 20-30 mL/hr
– CNS/mental status: Mildly anxiousCLASS III:
– Blood loss: 1500-2000 mL
– Blood loss (% blood volume): 30-40%
– Pulse rate: 120-140 bpm
– Systolic blood pressure: Decreased
– Pulse pressure: Decreased
– Respiratory rate: 30-40 breaths per minute
– Urine output: 5-15 mL/hr
– CNS/mental status: Anxious, confusedCLASS IV:
– Blood loss: More than 2000 mL
– Blood loss (% blood volume): More than 40%
– Pulse rate: More than 140 bpm
– Systolic blood pressure: Decreased
– Pulse pressure: Decreased
– Respiratory rate: More than 40 breaths per minute
– Urine output: Negligible
– CNS/mental status: Confused, lethargic -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Trauma
-
-
Question 25
Incorrect
-
A 45-year-old woman was involved in a car accident where her car collided with a tree at high speed. She was not wearing a seatbelt and was thrown forward onto the steering wheel of her car. She has bruising over her anterior chest wall and is experiencing chest pain. Her chest X-ray in the emergency room reveals evidence of a traumatic aortic injury.
Which of the following fractures are most indicative of this injury?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 1st and 2nd ribs
Explanation:Traumatic aortic rupture, also known as traumatic aortic disruption or transection, occurs when the aorta is torn or ruptured due to physical trauma. This condition often leads to sudden death because of severe bleeding. Motor vehicle accidents and falls from great heights are the most common causes of this injury.
The patients with the highest chances of survival are those who have an incomplete tear near the ligamentum arteriosum of the proximal descending aorta, close to where the left subclavian artery branches off. The presence of an intact adventitial layer or contained mediastinal hematoma helps maintain continuity and prevents immediate bleeding and death. If promptly identified and treated, survivors of these injuries can recover. In cases where traumatic aortic rupture leads to sudden death, approximately 50% of patients have damage at the aortic isthmus, while around 15% have damage in either the ascending aorta or the aortic arch.
Initial chest X-rays may show signs consistent with a traumatic aortic injury. However, false-positive and false-negative results can occur, and sometimes there may be no abnormalities visible on the X-ray. Some of the possible X-ray findings include a widened mediastinum, hazy left lung field, obliteration of the aortic knob, fractures of the 1st and 2nd ribs, deviation of the trachea to the right, presence of a pleural cap, elevation and rightward shift of the right mainstem bronchus, depression of the left mainstem bronchus, obliteration of the space between the pulmonary artery and aorta, and deviation of the esophagus or NG tube to the right.
A helical contrast-enhanced CT scan of the chest is the preferred initial investigation for suspected blunt aortic injury. It has proven to be highly accurate, with close to 100% sensitivity and specificity. CT scanning should be performed liberally, as chest X-ray findings can be unreliable. However, hemodynamically unstable patients should not be placed in a CT scanner. If the CT results are inconclusive, aortography or trans-oesophageal echo can be performed for further evaluation.
Immediate surgical intervention is necessary for these injuries. Endovascular repair is the most common method used and has excellent short-term outcomes. Open repair may also be performed depending on the circumstances. It is important to control heart rate and blood pressure during stabilization to reduce the risk of rupture. Pain should be managed with appropriate analgesic
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Trauma
-
-
Question 26
Incorrect
-
A 35-year-old woman who has been involved in a car accident is estimated to have suffered a class I haemorrhage according to the Advanced Trauma Life Support (ATLS) haemorrhagic shock classification. The patient weighs approximately 60 kg.
Which of the following physiological parameters is consistent with a diagnosis of class I haemorrhage?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Increased pulse pressure
Explanation:Recognizing the extent of blood loss based on vital sign and mental status abnormalities is a crucial skill. The Advanced Trauma Life Support (ATLS) classification for hemorrhagic shock correlates the amount of blood loss with expected physiological responses in a healthy individual weighing 70 kg. In terms of body weight, the total circulating blood volume accounts for approximately 7%, which is roughly equivalent to five liters in an average 70 kg male patient.
The ATLS classification for hemorrhagic shock is as follows:
CLASS I:
– Blood loss: Up to 750 mL
– Blood loss (% blood volume): Up to 15%
– Pulse rate: Less than 100 beats per minute (bpm)
– Systolic blood pressure: Normal
– Pulse pressure: Normal (or increased)
– Respiratory rate: 14-20 breaths per minute
– Urine output: Greater than 30 mL/hr
– CNS/mental status: Slightly anxiousCLASS II:
– Blood loss: 750-1500 mL
– Blood loss (% blood volume): 15-30%
– Pulse rate: 100-120 bpm
– Systolic blood pressure: Normal
– Pulse pressure: Decreased
– Respiratory rate: 20-30 breaths per minute
– Urine output: 20-30 mL/hr
– CNS/mental status: Mildly anxiousCLASS III:
– Blood loss: 1500-2000 mL
– Blood loss (% blood volume): 30-40%
– Pulse rate: 120-140 bpm
– Systolic blood pressure: Decreased
– Pulse pressure: Decreased
– Respiratory rate: 30-40 breaths per minute
– Urine output: 5-15 mL/hr
– CNS/mental status: Anxious, confusedCLASS IV:
– Blood loss: More than 2000 mL
– Blood loss (% blood volume): More than 40%
– Pulse rate: More than 140 bpm
– Systolic blood pressure: Decreased
– Pulse pressure: Decreased
– Respiratory rate: More than 40 breaths per minute
– Urine output: Negligible
– CNS/mental status: Confused, lethargic -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Trauma
-
-
Question 27
Incorrect
-
A 45 year old male is brought into the emergency department following a car crash. There is significant bruising on the right side of the chest. You suspect the patient has a haemothorax. What are the two main objectives in managing this condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Replace lost circulating blood volume and decompression of the pleural space
Explanation:The main objectives in managing haemothorax are to restore the lost blood volume and relieve pressure in the pleural space. These actions are crucial for improving the patient’s oxygen levels.
Further Reading:
Haemothorax is the accumulation of blood in the pleural cavity of the chest, usually resulting from chest trauma. It can be difficult to differentiate from other causes of pleural effusion on a chest X-ray. Massive haemothorax refers to a large volume of blood in the pleural space, which can impair physiological function by causing blood loss, reducing lung volume for gas exchange, and compressing thoracic structures such as the heart and IVC.
The management of haemothorax involves replacing lost blood volume and decompressing the chest. This is done through supplemental oxygen, IV access and cross-matching blood, IV fluid therapy, and the insertion of a chest tube. The chest tube is connected to an underwater seal and helps drain the fluid, pus, air, or blood from the pleural space. In cases where there is prompt drainage of a large amount of blood, ongoing significant blood loss, or the need for blood transfusion, thoracotomy and ligation of bleeding thoracic vessels may be necessary. It is important to have two IV accesses prior to inserting the chest drain to prevent a drop in blood pressure.
In summary, haemothorax is the accumulation of blood in the pleural cavity due to chest trauma. Managing haemothorax involves replacing lost blood volume and decompressing the chest through various interventions, including the insertion of a chest tube. Prompt intervention may be required in cases of significant blood loss or ongoing need for blood transfusion.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Trauma
-
-
Question 28
Incorrect
-
You evaluate the airway and breathing of a patient who has been brought into the emergency department by an ambulance after being rescued from a house fire. You suspect that the patient may have an obstructed airway.
Which of the following statements about managing the airway and breathing in burn patients is NOT true?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: High tidal volumes should be used in intubated patients
Explanation:Patients who have suffered burns should receive high-flow oxygen (15 L) through a reservoir bag while their breathing is being evaluated. If intubation is necessary, it is crucial to use an appropriately sized endotracheal tube (ETT). Using a tube that is too small can make it difficult or even impossible to ventilate the patient, clear secretions, or perform bronchoscopy.
According to the ATLS guidelines, adults should be intubated using an ETT with an internal diameter (ID) of at least 7.5 mm or larger. Children, on the other hand, should have an ETT with an ID of at least 4.5 mm. Once a patient has been intubated, it is important to continue administering 100% oxygen until their carboxyhemoglobin levels drop to less than 5%.
To protect the lungs, it is recommended to use lung protective ventilation techniques. This involves using low tidal volumes (4-8 mL/kg) and ensuring that peak inspiratory pressures do not exceed 30 cmH2O.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Trauma
-
-
Question 29
Incorrect
-
You are present at a trauma call for an elderly pedestrian who has been hit by a car. She has bruising on the right side of her chest. The primary survey has been completed and you have been asked to perform a secondary survey.
According to the ATLS guidelines, which of the following indicates a potentially life-threatening chest injury that should be identified and treated during the SECONDARY survey?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Blunt oesophageal rupture
Explanation:The ATLS guidelines categorize chest injuries in trauma into two groups: life-threatening injuries that require immediate identification and treatment in the primary survey, and potentially life-threatening injuries that should be identified and treated in the secondary survey.
During the primary survey, the focus is on identifying and treating life-threatening thoracic injuries. These include airway obstruction, tracheobronchial tree injury, tension pneumothorax, open pneumothorax, massive haemothorax, and cardiac tamponade. Prompt recognition and intervention are crucial in order to prevent further deterioration and potential fatality.
In the secondary survey, attention is given to potentially life-threatening injuries that may not be immediately apparent. These include simple pneumothorax, haemothorax, flail chest, pulmonary contusion, blunt cardiac injury, traumatic aortic disruption, traumatic diaphragmatic injury, and blunt oesophageal rupture. These injuries may not pose an immediate threat to life, but they still require identification and appropriate management to prevent complications and ensure optimal patient outcomes.
By dividing chest injuries into these two categories and addressing them in a systematic manner, healthcare providers can effectively prioritize and manage trauma patients, ultimately improving their chances of survival and recovery.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Trauma
-
-
Question 30
Incorrect
-
A 35-year-old woman is involved in a car accident. Her observations are taken one hour after arriving at the Emergency Department. Her pulse rate is 88 bpm, BP is 130/50 mmHg, respiratory rate 16 breaths/minute, and her urine output over the past hour has been 40 ml. She has some bruising evident on her arm and is slightly nervous. The patient weighs approximately 65 kg.
How would you classify her haemorrhage according to the ATLS haemorrhagic shock classification?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Class I
Explanation:This patient’s physiological parameters are mostly within normal range, but there is an increased pulse pressure and slight anxiety, suggesting a class I haemorrhage. It is crucial to be able to identify the degree of blood loss based on vital signs and mental status changes. The Advanced Trauma Life Support (ATLS) classification for haemorrhagic shock correlates the amount of blood loss with expected physiological responses in a healthy 70 kg individual. In a 70 kg male patient, the total circulating blood volume is approximately five litres, which accounts for about 7% of their total body weight.
The ATLS haemorrhagic shock classification is as follows:
CLASS I:
– Blood loss: Up to 750 mL
– Blood loss (% blood volume): Up to 15%
– Pulse rate: Less than 100 bpm
– Systolic BP: Normal
– Pulse pressure: Normal (or increased)
– Respiratory rate: 14-20 breaths per minute
– Urine output: Greater than 30 ml/hr
– CNS/mental status: Slightly anxiousCLASS II:
– Blood loss: 750-1500 mL
– Blood loss (% blood volume): 15-30%
– Pulse rate: 100-120 bpm
– Systolic BP: Normal
– Pulse pressure: Decreased
– Respiratory rate: 20-30 breaths per minute
– Urine output: 20-30 ml/hr
– CNS/mental status: Mildly anxiousCLASS III:
– Blood loss: 1500-2000 mL
– Blood loss (% blood volume): 30-40%
– Pulse rate: 120-140 bpm
– Systolic BP: Decreased
– Pulse pressure: Decreased
– Respiratory rate: 30-40 breaths per minute
– Urine output: 5-15 ml/hr
– CNS/mental status: Anxious, confusedCLASS IV:
– Blood loss: More than 2000 mL
– Blood loss (% blood volume): More than 40%
– Pulse rate: Greater than 140 bpm
– Systolic BP: Decreased
– Pulse pressure: Decreased
– Respiratory rate: More than 40 breaths per minute
– Urine output: Negligible
– CNS/mental status: Confused, lethargic -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Trauma
-
00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00
:
00
:
0
00
Session Time
00
:
00
Average Question Time (
Mins)