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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old woman comes to the skin clinic with flaccid blisters on the inside of her mouth and the front of her chest, accompanied by red and weeping areas. The dermatologist performs a skin biopsy, which reveals a superficial intra-epidermal split just above the basal layer with acantholysis. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Bullous pemphigoid
Correct Answer: Pemphigus vulgaris
Explanation:Pemphigus vulgaris is an autoimmune disease that causes blistering and erosions on the skin and mucous membranes, particularly in the mouth. It is caused by autoantibodies to desmoglein 3, a component of the desmosome. The blisters are thin-walled and easily ruptured, leaving painful erosions. Diagnosis is made with a skin biopsy, and treatment involves high-dose corticosteroids or other immunosuppressive drugs.
Bullous pemphigoid is another blistering disorder, but it involves sub-epidermal splitting and tense blisters that are less easily ruptured than in pemphigus vulgaris. Mucous membranes are typically not affected.
Dermatitis herpetiformis is characterised by intensely pruritic clusters of small blisters on the elbows, knees, back, and buttocks. It is associated with HLA-DQ2 and DQ8 and is often seen in patients with coeliac disease.
Epidermolysis bullosa is a rare inherited disorder that causes the skin to become very fragile, leading to blistering and erosions. Symptoms appear at birth or shortly afterwards.
Tuberous sclerosis is not associated with blistering and is a genetic disorder that causes benign tumours to grow in various organs, including the skin.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 2
Incorrect
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An 80-year-old woman comes in for a routine eye exam and is found to have a reproducible peripheral vision defect in her left eye. She reports no noticeable changes in her vision. Tonometry shows intraocular pressure of 17 mmHg in the left eye and 19 mmHg in the right eye (normal range is 10-21 mmHg). Direct ophthalmoscopy reveals a cup-to-disc ratio of 0.8 (increased) in the left eye. Gonioscopy is normal and she has no significant medical history. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Dry age-related macular degeneration
Correct Answer: Chronic open-angle glaucoma
Explanation:The correct diagnosis for this patient is chronic open-angle glaucoma, which can sometimes occur even with normal intraocular pressure. The patient’s symptoms, such as gradual peripheral vision loss, and the increased cup-to-disc ratio seen on investigations point towards this diagnosis. Gonioscopy also revealed a normal drainage angle, confirming that this is open-angle glaucoma.
Dry age-related macular degeneration is an incorrect diagnosis in this case, as it typically presents with central vision loss and drusen on ophthalmoscopy, not changes in the cup-to-disc ratio.
Hypertensive retinopathy is also an unlikely diagnosis, as it is often asymptomatic and associated with a medical history of hypertension. Additionally, it has a characteristic appearance on ophthalmoscopy that does not include changes in the cup-to-disc ratio.
Optic neuritis is another incorrect diagnosis, as it typically presents with painful vision loss and other symptoms such as loss of color vision or acuity. It is also often associated with multiple sclerosis, which would present with additional symptoms such as sensory or motor deficits or other cranial nerve palsies.
Glaucoma is a condition where the optic nerve is damaged due to increased pressure in the eye. Primary open-angle glaucoma (POAG) is a type of glaucoma where the peripheral iris is clear of the trabecular meshwork, which is important in draining aqueous humour from the eye. POAG is more common in older individuals and those with a family history of the condition. It may present insidiously with symptoms such as peripheral visual field loss, decreased visual acuity, and optic disc cupping. Diagnosis is made through a series of investigations including automated perimetry, slit lamp examination, applanation tonometry, central corneal thickness measurement, and gonioscopy. It is important to assess the risk of future visual impairment based on factors such as IOP, CCT, family history, and life expectancy. Referral to an ophthalmologist is typically done through a GP.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 3
Incorrect
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You are examining a 7-month-old infant who has a capillary haemangioma located on the right cheek that is beginning to interfere with their vision. Following a conversation with the parents, you have decided to initiate treatment for this area due to the potential impact on eyesight.
What is the primary treatment option for capillary haemangioma?Your Answer: Systemic Steroids
Correct Answer: Propranolol
Explanation:When it comes to capillary haemangiomas that require intervention, the preferred treatment is propranolol. Other options include laser therapy or systemic steroids, but topical steroids are unlikely to be effective. Surgery is generally not recommended for most cases.
Understanding Strawberry Naevus
Strawberry naevus, also known as capillary haemangioma, is a type of skin condition that usually develops in infants within the first month of life. It is characterized by raised, erythematous, and multilobed tumours that commonly appear on the face, scalp, and back. While it is not present at birth, it can grow rapidly and reach its peak size at around 6-9 months before regressing over the next few years. In fact, around 95% of cases resolve before the child reaches 10 years of age. However, there are potential complications that may arise, such as obstructing visual fields or airway, bleeding, ulceration, and thrombocytopaenia.
Capillary haemangiomas are more common in white infants, particularly in female and premature infants, as well as those whose mothers have undergone chorionic villous sampling. In cases where treatment is necessary, propranolol is now the preferred choice over systemic steroids. Topical beta-blockers like timolol may also be used. It is important to note that there is a deeper type of capillary haemangioma called cavernous haemangioma. Understanding the nature of strawberry naevus is crucial in managing its potential complications and providing appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 12-year-old girl presents to the clinic with complaints of anterior knee pain for a few weeks, which worsens while walking downstairs. During the examination, a positive shrug test is observed, and she has a valgus knee deformity.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Osteochondritis dissecans
Correct Answer: Chondromalacia patellae
Explanation:Common Causes of Knee Pain in Adolescents and Young Adults
Knee pain is a common complaint among adolescents and young adults. There are several conditions that can cause knee pain, including chondromalacia patellae, osteoarthritis, Osgood-Schlatter disease, osteochondritis dissecans, and patellar subluxation.
Chondromalacia patellae is characterized by abnormal softening of the cartilage on the underside of the patella. It is more common in females, those with valgus knee deformity, and those who are flat-footed. Patients may experience anterior knee pain that worsens with prolonged sitting or activities such as walking down stairs, jumping, running, or climbing. Treatment involves physiotherapy to alter patella-femoral alignment, along with analgesics and ice for symptom relief.
Osteoarthritis is a disease of older patients caused by cartilage breakdown in weight-bearing joints. Osgood-Schlatter disease is a common cause of knee pain in young adolescents, particularly sporty boys, and is caused by overuse of quadriceps. Osteochondritis dissecans is caused by separation of subchondral bone articular cartilage from the joint surface and tends to present in teenagers and young adults with vague and achy joint pain. Patellar subluxation describes the temporary but recurring lateral subluxation of the patella, which can cause anterior patellar pain and joint stiffness.
It is important to note that knee pain in children could be due to hip pathology, such as slipped upper femoral epiphysis. Diagnosis and treatment for these conditions may involve clinical examination, radiographs, and MRI. Treatment may include physiotherapy, analgesics, ice packs, knee braces, and in some cases, surgery.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 60-year-old woman has blood tests done by her primary care physician during a routine check-up. The results show a decline in her renal function. Upon further examination, she reports experiencing ankle swelling and increased fatigue. The renal team suspects she may have amyloidosis. What diagnostic test could be used to confirm this diagnosis?
Your Answer: Lung biopsy
Correct Answer: Renal biopsy
Explanation:Diagnostic Methods for Renal Amyloidosis
Renal amyloidosis is a condition that can be challenging to diagnose. It is caused by the accumulation of proteinaceous material in tissues, which can be identified through a biopsy. Congo-red staining extracellular fibrillar material is a characteristic feature of amyloid protein in the kidney. While a urine dip may show proteinuria, a renal biopsy is necessary for a definitive diagnosis as proteinuria can be caused by other conditions. A bone marrow biopsy can confirm amyloidosis if there is suspicion of bone marrow infiltration. CT scans of the abdomen may reveal abnormalities in the kidneys or lymph nodes, but a renal biopsy is still required for a definitive diagnosis. As amyloidosis can affect other organs, a lung biopsy may not be the most targeted approach for diagnosing renal amyloidosis. Overall, a renal biopsy is the most reliable method for diagnosing renal amyloidosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine/Urology
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 9-year-old boy with a history of asthma is being evaluated. He is currently receiving treatment with a salbutamol inhaler as needed and beclometasone inhaler 100mcg twice daily. However, he frequently requires salbutamol for exacerbations and experiences a nighttime cough.
In accordance with NICE recommendations, what is the most suitable course of action for further management?Your Answer: Increase beclometasone to 200mcg bd
Correct Answer: Trial of a leukotriene receptor antagonist
Explanation:For children between the ages of 5 and 16 who have asthma that is not being controlled by a combination of a short-acting beta agonist (SABA) and a low-dose inhaled corticosteroid (ICS), it is recommended to add a leukotriene receptor antagonist to their asthma management plan.
Managing Asthma in Children: NICE Guidelines
Asthma management in children has been updated by NICE in 2017, following the 2016 BTS guidelines. The new guidelines for children aged 5-16 are similar to those for adults, with a stepwise approach for treatment. For newly-diagnosed asthma, short-acting beta agonist (SABA) is recommended. If symptoms persist, a combination of SABA and paediatric low-dose inhaled corticosteroid (ICS) is used. Leukotriene receptor antagonist (LTRA) is added if symptoms still persist, followed by long-acting beta agonist (LABA) if necessary. Maintenance and reliever therapy (MART) is used as a combination of ICS and LABA for daily maintenance therapy and symptom relief. For children under 5 years old, clinical judgement plays a greater role in diagnosis. The stepwise approach is similar to that for older children, with an 8-week trial of paediatric moderate-dose ICS before adding LTRA. If symptoms persist, referral to a paediatric asthma specialist is recommended.
It should be noted that NICE does not recommend changing treatment for well-controlled asthma patients simply to adhere to the latest guidelines. The definitions of low, moderate, and high-dose ICS have also changed, with different definitions for adults and children. For children, <= 200 micrograms budesonide or equivalent is considered a paediatric low dose, 200-400 micrograms is a moderate dose, and > 400 micrograms is a high dose. Overall, the new NICE guidelines provide a clear and concise approach to managing asthma in children.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old man has been admitted to the stroke ward due to experiencing dense right-sided weakness and facial droop. The stroke team has treated him for an acute stroke, and he has been making good progress with the help of the physiotherapy and occupational therapy team. Although the CT head did not reveal any abnormalities, the team has arranged for an MRI head and a Doppler ultrasound of the carotid arteries. The MRI head has shown a left-sided infarct, and the carotid doppler has revealed severe stenosis of the left carotid artery. What should be the next appropriate plan for the stroke team?
Your Answer: MRI cervical spine
Correct Answer: Refer to the vascular surgeons for consideration of carotid artery endarterectomy
Explanation:If a patient experiences a stroke or TIA in the carotid territory and is not severely disabled, carotid artery endarterectomy may be a viable option. Additionally, if the patient is making positive strides with physiotherapy and has significant carotid stenosis, they should be evaluated by the surgical team for potential endarterectomy. At this time, there is no need for involvement from the cardiology team as it is unclear what cardiac investigations have already been conducted. An MRI of the C-spine would not provide any additional information for the management plan, and there is no indication for repeat blood tests.
The Royal College of Physicians (RCP) and NICE have published guidelines on the diagnosis and management of patients following a stroke. The management of acute stroke includes maintaining normal levels of blood glucose, hydration, oxygen saturation, and temperature. Blood pressure should not be lowered in the acute phase unless there are complications. Aspirin should be given as soon as possible if a haemorrhagic stroke has been excluded. Anticoagulants should not be started until brain imaging has excluded haemorrhage. Thrombolysis with alteplase should only be given if administered within 4.5 hours of onset of stroke symptoms and haemorrhage has been definitively excluded. Mechanical thrombectomy is a new treatment option for patients with an acute ischaemic stroke. NICE recommends thrombectomy for people who have acute ischaemic stroke and confirmed occlusion of the proximal anterior circulation demonstrated by computed tomographic angiography or magnetic resonance angiography. Secondary prevention includes the use of clopidogrel and dipyridamole. Carotid artery endarterectomy should only be considered if carotid stenosis is greater than 70% according to ECST criteria or greater than 50% according to NASCET criteria.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 8
Correct
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The cardiac arrest team is summoned to the bedside of a 68-year-old male patient, 3 days post-myocardial infarction. Two nurses are currently administering chest compressions and a manual defibrillator has just been connected. Chest compressions are momentarily halted to analyze the rhythm, which reveals pulseless electrical activity. What actions should be taken in this situation?
Your Answer: Adrenaline should be commenced immediately
Explanation:In the case of a non-shockable rhythm, it is crucial to administer adrenaline as soon as possible according to the ALS protocol. This should be done immediately and during alternate cycles. However, if the rhythm is shockable, adrenaline should be given after the third shock and then during alternate cycles. Amiodarone should be administered after the third shock, and a second dose may be considered after five shocks. Therefore, the other options are not appropriate.
The 2015 Resus Council guidelines for adult advanced life support outline the steps to be taken when dealing with patients with shockable and non-shockable rhythms. For both types of patients, chest compressions are a crucial part of the process, with a ratio of 30 compressions to 2 ventilations. Defibrillation is recommended for shockable rhythms, with a single shock for VF/pulseless VT followed by 2 minutes of CPR. Adrenaline and amiodarone are the drugs of choice for non-shockable rhythms, with adrenaline given as soon as possible and amiodarone administered after 3 shocks for VF/pulseless VT. Thrombolytic drugs should be considered if a pulmonary embolus is suspected. Atropine is no longer recommended for routine use in asystole or PEA. Oxygen should be titrated to achieve saturations of 94-98% following successful resuscitation. The Hs and Ts should be considered as potential reversible causes of cardiac arrest.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Medicine
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 79-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of a painless leg ulcer that has been present for a few weeks. Upon examination, the GP observes a superficial erythematous oval-shaped ulcer above her medial malleolus, with hyperpigmentation of the surrounding skin. The patient's ankle-brachial pressure index (ABPI) is 0.95. What is the initial management strategy that should be employed?
Your Answer: Urgent referral to vascular surgery
Correct Answer: Compression bandaging
Explanation:The recommended treatment for venous ulceration is compression bandaging, which is appropriate for this patient who exhibits typical signs of the condition such as hyperpigmentation and an ulcer located above the medial malleolus. Before initiating compression treatment, an ABPI was performed to rule out arterial disease, which was normal. Hydrocolloid dressings have limited benefit for venous ulceration, while flucloxacillin is used to treat cellulitis. Diabetic foot ulcers are painless and tend to occur on pressure areas, while arterial ulcers have distinct characteristics and are associated with an abnormal ABPI.
Venous Ulceration and its Management
Venous ulceration is a type of ulcer that is commonly seen above the medial malleolus. To assess for poor arterial flow that could impair healing, an ankle-brachial pressure index (ABPI) is important in non-healing ulcers. A normal ABPI is usually between 0.9 – 1.2, while values below 0.9 indicate arterial disease. Interestingly, values above 1.3 may also indicate arterial disease, particularly in diabetics, due to false-negative results caused by arterial calcification.
The only treatment that has been shown to be of real benefit for venous ulceration is compression bandaging, usually four-layer. Oral pentoxifylline, a peripheral vasodilator, can also improve the healing rate. There is some small evidence supporting the use of flavonoids, but little evidence to suggest benefit from hydrocolloid dressings, topical growth factors, ultrasound therapy, and intermittent pneumatic compression. Proper management of venous ulceration is crucial to promote healing and prevent complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A newly born infant is diagnosed with gastroschisis and has exposed bowel. The mother is concerned about potential complications besides fluid loss.
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Heat loss
Explanation:Exposed bowel in babies with gastroschisis leads to a considerable loss of fluid and heat, which can pose a serious risk to their lives. Unlike exomphalos, gastroschisis is not associated with cardiac and renal issues. Additionally, there is no correlation between gastroschisis and microcephaly or macrocephaly.
Gastroschisis and exomphalos are both types of congenital visceral malformations. Gastroschisis refers to a defect in the anterior abdominal wall located just beside the umbilical cord. In contrast, exomphalos, also known as omphalocoele, involves the protrusion of abdominal contents through the anterior abdominal wall, which are covered by an amniotic sac formed by amniotic membrane and peritoneum.
When it comes to managing gastroschisis, vaginal delivery may be attempted, but newborns should be taken to the operating theatre as soon as possible after delivery, ideally within four hours. As for exomphalos, a caesarean section is recommended to reduce the risk of sac rupture. In cases where primary closure is difficult due to lack of space or high intra-abdominal pressure, a staged repair may be undertaken. This involves allowing the sac to granulate and epithelialise over several weeks or months, forming a shell. As the infant grows, the sac contents will eventually fit within the abdominal cavity, at which point the shell can be removed and the abdomen closed.
Overall, both gastroschisis and exomphalos require careful management to ensure the best possible outcome for the newborn. By understanding the differences between these two conditions and the appropriate steps to take, healthcare professionals can provide effective care and support to both the infant and their family.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 26-year-old construction worker visits his GP complaining of elbow swelling that has been present for three weeks. He reports that it started gradually and has no known triggers. The area is painful and warm to the touch, but he has no swelling in other parts of his body and feels generally well. The patient has a history of well-managed rheumatoid arthritis and is taking methotrexate, and has no other medical conditions. During the examination, the doctor detects a tender, soft, fluctuant mass on the back of the patient's elbow. Based on these findings, what is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Olecranon bursitis
Explanation:Olecranon bursitis is a condition that occurs when the olecranon bursa, a fluid-filled sac located over the olecranon process at the proximal end of the ulna, becomes inflamed. This bursa serves to reduce friction between the elbow joint and the surrounding soft tissues. Inflammation can be caused by trauma, infection, or systemic conditions such as rheumatoid arthritis or gout. It is also commonly known as student’s elbow due to the repetitive mild trauma of leaning on a desk using the elbows. The condition can be categorized as septic or non-septic depending on whether an infection is present.
The condition is more common in men and typically presents between the ages of 30 and 60. Causes of olecranon bursitis include repetitive trauma, direct trauma, infection, gout, rheumatoid arthritis, and idiopathic reasons. Patients with non-septic olecranon bursitis typically present with swelling over the olecranon process, while some may also experience tenderness and erythema over the bursa. Patients with septic bursitis are more likely to have pain and fever.
Signs of olecranon bursitis include swelling over the posterior aspect of the elbow, tenderness on palpation of the swollen area, redness and warmth of the overlying skin, fever, skin abrasion overlying the bursa, effusions in other joints if associated with rheumatoid arthritis, and tophi if associated with gout. Movement at the elbow joint should be painless until the swollen bursa is compressed in full flexion.
Investigations are not always needed if a clinical diagnosis can be made and there is no concern about septic arthritis. However, if septic bursitis is suspected, aspiration of bursal fluid for microscopy and culture is essential. Purulent fluid suggests infection, while straw-colored bursal fluid favors a non-infective cause.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old Caucasian man comes to his GP for a routine check-up. He works as a lawyer and reports feeling healthy with no recent illnesses. He has a history of hypertension and is currently taking 10mg of ramipril daily. He has no known allergies.
During his ambulatory blood pressure monitoring, his readings were consistently high at 158/92 mmHg, 162/94mmHg, and 159/93mmHg.
What would be the most appropriate next step in managing this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Indapamide
Explanation:For a patient with poorly controlled hypertension who is already taking an ACE inhibitor, the addition of a calcium channel blocker or a thiazide-like diuretic is recommended. In individuals under the age of 55 and of Caucasian ethnicity, the first-line treatment for hypertension is an ACE inhibitor such as ramipril. If the blood pressure remains elevated despite maximum dose of ramipril, a second medication should be added. A calcium channel blocker or thiazide-like diuretic is the preferred choice for second-line therapy in this scenario.
NICE Guidelines for Managing Hypertension
Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is a common condition that can lead to serious health problems if left untreated. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published updated guidelines for the management of hypertension in 2019. Some of the key changes include lowering the threshold for treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old, allowing the use of angiotensin receptor blockers instead of ACE inhibitors, and recommending the use of a calcium channel blocker or thiazide-like diuretic in addition to an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker.
The guidelines also provide a flow chart for the diagnosis and management of hypertension. Lifestyle advice, such as reducing salt intake, caffeine intake, and alcohol consumption, as well as exercising more and losing weight, should not be forgotten and is frequently tested in exams. Treatment options depend on the patient’s age, ethnicity, and other factors, and may involve a combination of drugs.
NICE recommends treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old if they have target organ damage, established cardiovascular disease, renal disease, diabetes, or a 10-year cardiovascular risk equivalent to 10% or greater. For patients with stage 2 hypertension, drug treatment should be offered regardless of age. The guidelines also provide step-by-step treatment options, including adding a third or fourth drug if necessary.
New drugs, such as direct renin inhibitors like Aliskiren, may have a role in patients who are intolerant of more established antihypertensive drugs. However, trials have only investigated the fall in blood pressure and no mortality data is available yet. Patients who fail to respond to step 4 measures should be referred to a specialist. The guidelines also provide blood pressure targets for different age groups.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 13
Incorrect
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You are evaluating a young patient in primary care who has a significant family history of multiple endocrine neoplasia type 1. Although genetic testing has confirmed an abnormal genetic profile, the patient has not yet presented with any clinical manifestations of the condition. What is the genetic term used to describe conditions where the genotype is abnormal, but the phenotype remains normal?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Low penetrance
Explanation:When a condition has low genetic penetrance, it may not show many clinical signs or symptoms, and the patient may appear normal, despite having an abnormal genetic profile. This is because the severity of the phenotype is determined by the penetrance of the genotype. If the condition has high penetrance, the phenotype is more likely to be expressed, resulting in more signs and symptoms.
Autosomal Dominant Diseases: Characteristics and Complicating Factors
Autosomal dominant diseases are genetic disorders that are inherited from one parent who carries the abnormal gene. In these diseases, both homozygotes and heterozygotes manifest the disease, and both males and females can be affected. The disease is passed on to 50% of children, and it normally appears in every generation. The risk remains the same for each successive pregnancy.
However, there are complicating factors that can affect the expression of the disease. Non-penetrance is a phenomenon where an individual carries the abnormal gene but does not show any clinical signs or symptoms of the disease. For example, 40% of individuals with otosclerosis do not show any symptoms despite carrying the abnormal gene. Another complicating factor is spontaneous mutation, where a new mutation occurs in one of the gametes. This can result in the disease appearing in a child even if both parents do not carry the abnormal gene. For instance, 80% of individuals with achondroplasia have unaffected parents.
In summary, autosomal dominant diseases have distinct characteristics such as their inheritance pattern and the fact that affected individuals can pass on the disease. However, complicating factors such as non-penetrance and spontaneous mutation can affect the expression of the disease and make it more difficult to predict its occurrence.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 38-year-old, overweight woman presents to the clinic with complaints of occasional abdominal pain for the past few months. She experienced a constant pain episode two days ago that started in the epigastric region and then moved to the right upper quadrant, accompanied by vomiting.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Biliary colic
Explanation:Biliary Colic and Other Abdominal Conditions: A Brief Overview
Biliary colic, diverticulitis, chronic pancreatitis, ulcerative colitis, and coeliac disease are all conditions that can cause abdominal pain and discomfort. Understanding the risk factors, symptoms, and diagnostic criteria for each can help healthcare professionals make accurate diagnoses and provide appropriate treatment. Biliary colic, for example, is characterized by severe, constant pain in the epigastrium or right upper quadrant, often accompanied by nausea and vomiting. Diverticulitis, on the other hand, typically presents with left lower quadrant pain and changes in bowel habits. Chronic pancreatitis is associated with intermittent attacks of severe pain in the mid-abdomen or left upper abdomen, while ulcerative colitis is characterized by rectal bleeding, frequent stools, and mucus discharge. Coeliac disease, the most common food intolerance worldwide, can present with a range of gastrointestinal and extraintestinal symptoms. By understanding the unique features of each condition, healthcare professionals can provide effective care and improve patient outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman comes to the clinic worried about a lump in her right breast that she discovered a few days ago. Upon examination, the lump is painless, smooth, soft, and easily movable. There is no history of breast cancer in her family. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Fibroadenoma
Explanation:Breast masses are a common concern among women, and it is important to understand the possible causes to determine the appropriate course of action. Here are some of the most common causes of breast masses and their characteristics:
Fibroadenoma: This is the most common cause of breast mass in women under 35 years old. It appears as a singular, firm, rubbery, smooth, mobile, painless mass ranging in size from 1 cm to 5 cm. Ultrasonography reveals a well-defined, hypoechoic, homogeneous mass 1–20 cm in diameter.
Fat Necrosis: This is a benign inflammatory process that occurs when there is saponification of local fat. It can result from direct trauma or nodular panniculitis. The breast mass is usually firm, round, and painless, and there may be a single mass or multiple masses. It may be tender or painful in some people.
Breast Abscess: This usually presents with localised breast oedema, erythema, warmth, and pain. There may be associated symptoms of fever, nausea, vomiting, spontaneous drainage from the mass or nipple, and a history of previous breast infection.
Breast Cancer: Early breast cancer may be asymptomatic, and pain and discomfort are typically not present. It is often first detected as an abnormality on a mammogram before it is felt by the patient or healthcare professional. If a lump is discovered, there may be a change in breast size or shape, skin dimpling or skin changes, recent nipple inversion or skin change, or nipple abnormalities.
Lipoma: Lipomas are common benign tumors composed of mature adipocytes that typically present clinically as well-circumscribed, soft, mobile, nontender masses. The classic mammographic appearance of lipoma is a circumscribed fat-containing mass.
It is important to note that the physical examination findings may not always be enough to determine the cause of the breast mass, and further testing may be necessary. Consultation with a healthcare professional is recommended for proper diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 60-year-old man with no significant medical history presents to the Emergency Department with an ECG indicative of an anterior myocardial infarction. Tragically, he experiences cardiac arrest shortly after arrival. What is the leading cause of mortality in patients following a heart attack?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ventricular fibrillation
Explanation:Complications of Myocardial Infarction
Myocardial infarction (MI) can lead to various complications, which can occur immediately, early, or late after the event. Cardiac arrest is the most common cause of death following MI, usually due to ventricular fibrillation. Patients are treated with defibrillation as per the ALS protocol. Cardiogenic shock may occur if a significant portion of the ventricular myocardium is damaged, leading to a decrease in ejection fraction. This condition is challenging to treat and may require inotropic support and/or an intra-aortic balloon pump. Chronic heart failure may develop if the patient survives the acute phase, and loop diuretics such as furosemide can help decrease fluid overload. Tachyarrhythmias, such as ventricular fibrillation and ventricular tachycardia, are common complications of MI. Bradyarrhythmias, such as atrioventricular block, are more common following inferior MI.
Pericarditis is a common complication of MI in the first 48 hours, characterized by typical pericarditis pain, a pericardial rub, and a pericardial effusion. Dressler’s syndrome, which occurs 2-6 weeks after MI, is an autoimmune reaction against antigenic proteins formed during myocardial recovery. It is treated with NSAIDs. Left ventricular aneurysm may form due to weakened myocardium, leading to persistent ST elevation and left ventricular failure. Patients are anticoagulated due to the increased risk of thrombus formation and stroke. Left ventricular free wall rupture and ventricular septal defect are rare but serious complications that require urgent surgical correction. Acute mitral regurgitation may occur due to ischaemia or rupture of the papillary muscle, leading to acute hypotension and pulmonary oedema. Vasodilator therapy and emergency surgical repair may be necessary.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 3-day-old infant delivered via caesarean section at 38 weeks gestation presents with limb hypoplasia, rudimentary digits, and microcephaly. What is the probable prenatal infection that the baby was exposed to?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Varicella zoster virus
Explanation:During pregnancy, if a woman shows signs of primary infection with varicella zoster, it is considered a classical indication. The risk to the fetus is highest before 20 weeks of gestation and can lead to skin scarring, limb underdevelopment, microcephaly, and eye defects. If there is any uncertainty about a pregnant woman’s history of chickenpox, she should be tested for varicella antibodies and given varicella zoster immunoglobulins if she is not immune. Cytomegalovirus infection during pregnancy can result in cerebral calcification, microcephaly, and sensorineural deafness. HIV does not pose any physical risk to the developing fetus, but there is a risk of perinatal transmission. Rubella infections during pregnancy are linked to deafness, congenital cataracts, and cardiac complications.
Chickenpox exposure in pregnancy can pose risks to both the mother and fetus, including fetal varicella syndrome. Post-exposure prophylaxis (PEP) with varicella-zoster immunoglobulin (VZIG) or antivirals should be given to non-immune pregnant women, with timing dependent on gestational age. If a pregnant woman develops chickenpox, specialist advice should be sought and oral aciclovir may be given if she is ≥ 20 weeks and presents within 24 hours of onset of the rash.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 18
Incorrect
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You are performing the yearly evaluation of a 42-year-old woman with type 1 diabetes mellitus. Your objective is to screen for diabetic neuropathy that may affect her feet. What is the most suitable screening test to utilize?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Test sensation using a 10 g monofilament
Explanation:To evaluate diabetic neuropathy in the feet, it is recommended to utilize a monofilament weighing 10 grams.
Diabetic foot disease is a significant complication of diabetes mellitus that requires regular screening. In 2015, NICE published guidelines on diabetic foot disease. The disease is caused by two main factors: neuropathy, which results in a loss of protective sensation, and peripheral arterial disease, which increases the risk of macro and microvascular ischaemia. Symptoms of diabetic foot disease include loss of sensation, absent foot pulses, reduced ankle-brachial pressure index (ABPI), intermittent claudication, calluses, ulceration, Charcot’s arthropathy, cellulitis, osteomyelitis, and gangrene. All patients with diabetes should be screened for diabetic foot disease at least once a year. Screening for ischaemia involves palpating for both the dorsalis pedis pulse and posterial tibial artery pulse, while screening for neuropathy involves using a 10 g monofilament on various parts of the sole of the foot. NICE recommends that patients be risk-stratified into low, moderate, and high-risk categories based on factors such as deformity, previous ulceration or amputation, renal replacement therapy, neuropathy, and non-critical limb ischaemia. Patients who are moderate or high-risk should be regularly followed up by their local diabetic foot centre.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old man presents with weakness of his right upper limb. On examination, there is weakness of the right triceps muscle, brachioradialis and extensor digitorum. Sensation is normal. The right triceps jerk is absent. There is some wasting of the dorsum of the forearm.
Where is the most likely site of the lesion?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Right radial nerve
Explanation:The patient has multiple nerve-related issues, including a right radial nerve palsy, a possible brachial plexus injury, and weakness of the brachioradialis muscle. The right radial nerve palsy is likely due to a humeral or proximal radial fracture or compression, resulting in weak wrist, elbow, and MCP extension and wrist drop. The brachial plexus injury may be affecting a specific nerve rather than the whole plexus, with symptoms consistent with an upper or lower trunk lesion. The weakness of the brachioradialis muscle suggests a possible C5-6 nerve root involvement. The patient does not have any sensory deficits, which is unusual for these types of nerve injuries. Testing of dermatomes, motor function, and reflexes can help identify the specific nerve root or nerve affected.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 20
Incorrect
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You assess a 75-year-old woman who is taking several medications. She reports experiencing hearing loss and bilateral tinnitus over the past few months. Which of the following medications could potentially be causing these symptoms?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Furosemide
Explanation:Loop diuretics have the potential to cause ototoxicity.
Loop Diuretics: Mechanism of Action and Indications
Loop diuretics, such as furosemide and bumetanide, are medications that inhibit the Na-K-Cl cotransporter (NKCC) in the thick ascending limb of the loop of Henle. This reduces the absorption of NaCl and increases the excretion of water and electrolytes, making them effective in treating conditions such as heart failure and resistant hypertension. Loop diuretics act on NKCC2, which is more prevalent in the kidneys.
As loop diuretics work on the apical membrane, they must first be filtered into the tubules by the glomerulus before they can have an effect. This means that patients with poor renal function may require higher doses to achieve a sufficient concentration within the tubules.
Loop diuretics are commonly used in the treatment of heart failure, both acutely (usually intravenously) and chronically (usually orally). They are also effective in treating resistant hypertension, particularly in patients with renal impairment.
However, loop diuretics can have adverse effects, including hypotension, hyponatremia, hypokalemia, hypomagnesemia, hypochloremic alkalosis, ototoxicity, hypocalcemia, renal impairment (from dehydration and direct toxic effect), hyperglycemia (less common than with thiazides), and gout.
In summary, loop diuretics are effective medications for treating heart failure and resistant hypertension, but their use should be carefully monitored due to potential adverse effects. Patients with poor renal function may require higher doses to achieve therapeutic effects.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- ENT
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 27-year-old female patient presents to you for her cervical cancer screening and expresses interest in learning more about HPV (human papillomavirus). What is a true statement regarding HPV?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: HPV 16 and 18 are most commonly associated with cervical cancer
Explanation:The most significant risk factor for cervical cancer is infection with the human papillomavirus (HPV), particularly types 16, 18, and 33. Among the approximately 15 types of HPV that are considered high-risk for cervical cancer, HPV 16 and 18 are responsible for about 70% of cases. HPV 6 and 11, on the other hand, are associated with the formation of genital warts.
Understanding Cervical Cancer: Risk Factors and Mechanism of HPV
Cervical cancer is a type of cancer that affects the cervix, which is the lower part of the uterus. It is most commonly diagnosed in women under the age of 45, with the highest incidence rates occurring in those aged 25-29. The cancer can be divided into two types: squamous cell cancer and adenocarcinoma. Symptoms may include abnormal vaginal bleeding, postcoital bleeding, intermenstrual bleeding, or postmenopausal bleeding, as well as vaginal discharge.
The most important factor in the development of cervical cancer is the human papillomavirus (HPV), particularly serotypes 16, 18, and 33. Other risk factors include smoking, human immunodeficiency virus, early first intercourse, many sexual partners, high parity, and lower socioeconomic status. While the association between combined oral contraceptive pill use and cervical cancer is sometimes debated, a large study published in the Lancet confirmed the link.
The mechanism by which HPV causes cervical cancer involves the production of oncogenes E6 and E7 by HPV 16 and 18, respectively. E6 inhibits the p53 tumour suppressor gene, while E7 inhibits the RB suppressor gene. Understanding the risk factors and mechanism of HPV in the development of cervical cancer is crucial for prevention and early detection. Regular cervical cancer screening is recommended for all women.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 27-year-old man complains of a sudden pain in the back of his calf during a football game, causing him to limp off the field. Upon examination by the team doctor, he exhibits a positive Simmond's sign. What type of injury is he likely to have suffered?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Achilles tendon rupture
Explanation:If a person experiences an audible ‘pop’ in their ankle, sudden and severe pain in the calf or ankle, or is unable to continue playing a sport or running, an Achilles tendon rupture should be suspected. Posterior ankle impingement is characterized by pain during forced plantar flexion when jumping or kicking, and is most commonly seen in gymnasts, ballet dancers, and footballers. Navicular bone fractures, which are stress fractures, are frequently observed in athletes who engage in sports that involve sprinting and jumping. Athletes who have had multiple ankle sprains may experience peroneal tendon dislocation due to friction and inflammation of the tendon. Stress metatarsal fractures, also known as march fractures, are most commonly seen in soldiers, hikers, and hospital doctors who spend extended periods standing and walking.
Achilles tendon disorders are a common cause of pain in the back of the heel. These disorders can include tendinopathy, partial tears, and complete ruptures of the Achilles tendon. Certain factors, such as the use of quinolone antibiotics and high cholesterol levels, can increase the risk of developing these disorders. Symptoms of Achilles tendinopathy typically include gradual onset of pain that worsens with activity, as well as morning stiffness. Treatment for this condition usually involves pain relief, reducing activities that exacerbate the pain, and performing calf muscle eccentric exercises.
In contrast, an Achilles tendon rupture is a more serious condition that requires immediate medical attention. This type of injury is often caused by sudden, forceful movements during sports or running. Symptoms of an Achilles tendon rupture include an audible popping sound, sudden and severe pain in the calf or ankle, and an inability to walk or continue the activity. To help diagnose an Achilles tendon rupture, doctors may use Simmond’s triad, which involves examining the foot for abnormal angles and feeling for a gap in the tendon. Ultrasound is typically the first imaging test used to confirm a diagnosis of Achilles tendon rupture. If a rupture is suspected, it is important to seek medical attention from an orthopaedic specialist as soon as possible.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with retrosternal chest pain. She is admitted and all cardiac investigations are normal. She is diagnosed with gastro-oesophageal reflux disease.
Which of the following symptoms would most commonly require an urgent inpatient upper gastrointestinal (GI) endoscopy before being discharged?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Melaena
Explanation:Melaena is a serious symptom of upper GI bleeding that requires emergency treatment. The patient must be stabilized and resuscitated before undergoing an upper GI endoscopy within 24 hours of admission. Dysphagia is a red-flag symptom that may indicate oesophageal or gastric cancer and requires urgent investigation with an upper GI endoscopy within two weeks. Epigastric pain without red-flag symptoms should be treated with PPIs for 4-8 weeks before any investigation is necessary. Vomiting with high platelet count, weight loss, reflux, dyspepsia, or upper-abdominal pain requires a non-urgent OGD. Weight loss in patients over 55 years with reflux symptoms requires a 2-week wait referral for suspected cancer, but not an urgent inpatient endoscopy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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Question 24
Incorrect
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An 80-year-old man arrives at the Emergency Department after experiencing a 3-hour episode of right facial weakness with forehead sparing. He has a medical history of polymyalgia rheumatica and haemophilia B and takes low dose prednisolone as his only regular medication. He has been a smoker for the past 20 years, consuming 20 cigarettes a day. Upon examination, he reports that his neurological symptoms have resolved 30 minutes ago. What is the best initial course of action?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Admit and arrange a CT head
Explanation:If a patient with a bleeding disorder or on anticoagulants such as warfarin or DOACs is suspected of having a TIA, immediate admission for imaging is necessary to rule out a hemorrhage. In this case, the patient’s age, sex, smoking history, and bleeding disorder increase the likelihood of a TIA. The patient’s history of polymyalgia rheumatica and low dose prednisolone management are not relevant to the diagnosis or management of TIA.
Admission and a CT head are necessary due to the patient’s history of haemophilia B, which increases the risk of hemorrhagic causes of stroke-like symptoms. Aspirin should not be given immediately as it may worsen bleeding in patients with bleeding disorders or on anticoagulants. Reassuring and managing as an outpatient is not appropriate for either hemorrhagic or ischemic causes of TIA, both of which are possible in this case. Thrombectomy is not the appropriate management for this patient as he is at high risk of hemorrhagic stroke, and imaging is necessary to rule out a bleed.
A transient ischaemic attack (TIA) is a brief period of neurological deficit caused by a vascular issue, lasting less than an hour. The original definition of a TIA was based on time, but it is now recognized that even short periods of ischaemia can result in pathological changes to the brain. Therefore, a new ’tissue-based’ definition is now used. The clinical features of a TIA are similar to those of a stroke, but the symptoms resolve within an hour. Possible features include unilateral weakness or sensory loss, aphasia or dysarthria, ataxia, vertigo, or loss of balance, visual problems, and sudden transient loss of vision in one eye (amaurosis fugax).
NICE recommends immediate antithrombotic therapy with aspirin 300 mg unless the patient has a bleeding disorder or is taking an anticoagulant. If the patient has had more than one TIA or has a suspected cardioembolic source or severe carotid stenosis, specialist review is necessary. Urgent assessment is required within 24 hours for patients who have had a suspected TIA in the last 7 days. Referral for specialist assessment is necessary as soon as possible within 7 days for patients who have had a suspected TIA more than a week previously. Neuroimaging and carotid imaging are recommended, and antithrombotic therapy is necessary. Carotid artery endarterectomy should only be considered if the carotid stenosis is greater than 70% according to ECST criteria or greater than 50% according to NASCET criteria.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A senior citizen who is taking digoxin asks you about the toxic effects of digoxin therapy, having read about it on the internet.
Which of the following is associated with digoxin toxicity?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Premature ventricular beats
Explanation:Understanding Digoxin Toxicity: Symptoms and Risk Factors
Digoxin toxicity can occur suddenly in cases of overdose or gradually during long-term treatment. It is a common issue among elderly patients and is often associated with risk factors such as hypokalemia, hypomagnesemia, and hypercalcemia. The most common and earliest dysrhythmia in digoxin toxicity is the finding of premature ventricular beats on an ECG, along with sinus bradycardia. Other ECG changes may include depressed conduction, bigeminal and trigeminal rhythms, ventricular bigeminy, and bidirectional ventricular tachycardia. Hair loss is not associated with digoxin toxicity, but gum/gingival hypertrophy can be caused by other drugs. Loss of appetite, vomiting, anorexia, and fatigue are common symptoms reported by patients. It is important to understand the symptoms and risk factors associated with digoxin toxicity to ensure proper treatment and management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology/Therapeutics
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old farmer with a history of depression arrives at the emergency department complaining of blurred vision, runny nose, watery eyes, diarrhoea, and vomiting. The patient admits to ingesting a pesticide in an attempt to commit suicide. What other clinical manifestations should be anticipated in this individual?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Bradycardia
Explanation:This individual is displaying symptoms consistent with organophosphate poisoning, which is a type of pesticide. Organophosphate pesticides work by inhibiting acetylcholinesterase, which affects the nervous system. This causes an accumulation of acetylcholine at nerve synapses and neuromuscular junctions, resulting in excessive stimulation of muscarinic and nicotinic receptors. As a result, bradycardia is a common symptom. The recommended treatment for organophosphate poisoning is atropine, which should be administered every 10-20 minutes until secretions dry up and the heart rate increases to 80-90 beats per minute.
The options of dilated pupils, dry mouth, and hallucinations are incorrect. Organophosphate poisoning typically causes miosis (constricted pupils) due to overstimulation of the parasympathetic system, excessive secretions including salivation, bronchial secretions, diarrhea, and vomiting. While confusion, agitation, and coma may occur in severe cases, hallucinations are not a common symptom.
Understanding Organophosphate Insecticide Poisoning
Organophosphate insecticide poisoning is a condition that occurs when there is an accumulation of acetylcholine in the body, leading to the inhibition of acetylcholinesterase. This, in turn, causes an upregulation of nicotinic and muscarinic cholinergic neurotransmission. In warfare, sarin gas is a highly toxic synthetic organophosphorus compound that has similar effects. The symptoms of organophosphate poisoning can be remembered using the mnemonic SLUD, which stands for salivation, lacrimation, urination, and defecation/diarrhea. Other symptoms include hypotension, bradycardia, small pupils, and muscle fasciculation.
The management of organophosphate poisoning involves the use of atropine, which helps to counteract the effects of acetylcholine. However, the role of pralidoxime in the treatment of this condition is still unclear. Meta-analyses conducted to date have failed to show any clear benefit of pralidoxime in the management of organophosphate poisoning.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology/Therapeutics
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 59-year-old man comes to his General Practitioner complaining of severe dizziness, double vision and tinnitus whenever he lifts weights. He is a non-smoker and is in good health otherwise. During the examination, there is a difference of 35 mmHg between the systolic blood pressure (BP) in his left and right arms. His cardiovascular examination is otherwise unremarkable. His neurological examination is also normal.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Subclavian steal syndrome
Explanation:Differentiating Subclavian Steal Syndrome from Other Conditions
Subclavian steal syndrome is a condition that occurs when the subclavian artery is narrowed or blocked, leading to reversed blood flow in the vertebral artery. This can cause arm claudication and transient neurological symptoms when the affected arm is exercised. A key diagnostic feature is a systolic blood pressure difference of at least 15 mmHg between the affected and non-affected arms. However, other conditions can also cause discrepancies in blood pressure or similar symptoms, making it important to differentiate subclavian steal syndrome from other possibilities.
Aortic dissection is a medical emergency that can cause a sudden onset of chest pain and rapidly deteriorating symptoms. Benign paroxysmal positional vertigo (BPPV) is characterized by vertigo triggered by head movements, but does not involve blood pressure differences or diplopia. Buerger’s disease is a rare condition that can cause blood pressure discrepancies, but also involves skin changes and tissue ischemia. Carotid sinus hypersensitivity (CSH) can cause syncope when pressure is applied to the neck, but does not explain the other symptoms reported by the patient.
In summary, a thorough evaluation is necessary to distinguish subclavian steal syndrome from other conditions that may present with similar symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old woman with a history of severe disabling arthritis presents to the Emergency Department with a 3-week history of dyspnoea. She reports a dry cough of similar duration. She has never smoked and has never been employed. On cardiovascular examination, no abnormalities are detected. Respiratory examination reveals reduced air entry at the left base, which is stony dull to percussion. A chest X-ray shows blunting of the left costophrenic angle.
What is the most likely diagnosis associated with her current respiratory problem?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Rheumatoid arthritis (RA)
Explanation:Respiratory Manifestations of Rheumatoid Arthritis
Rheumatoid arthritis (RA) is an inflammatory arthritis that can affect various parts of the body, including the respiratory tract. One common manifestation of RA in the respiratory system is pleural involvement, which can present as pleural effusion, pleural nodules, or pleurisy. Other respiratory complications associated with RA include pulmonary fibrosis and bronchiolitis obliterans.
It is important to note that other types of arthritis, such as ankylosing spondylitis, Behçet’s disease, gout, and psoriatic arthritis, do not typically present with respiratory complications like pleural effusion. Ankylosing spondylitis is associated with apical fibrosis, while Behçet’s disease is known for neurological complications. Gout is caused by purine metabolism abnormality and affects the joints and renal tract, while psoriatic arthritis is strongly associated with psoriasis and can lead to ocular and cardiovascular complications.
Overall, if a patient with RA presents with respiratory symptoms, it is important to consider the possibility of pleural involvement and other respiratory complications associated with the disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Medicine
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old female patient complains of gradual tingling and numbness in her right hand's 4th and 5th fingers. The symptoms were occasional at first, but now they are persistent. She observes that the discomfort intensifies when she rests her right elbow on a surface. She remembers hitting her elbow against a door a while back. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cubital tunnel syndrome
Explanation:Cubital tunnel syndrome is a condition that occurs when the ulnar nerve is compressed, resulting in tingling and numbness in the fourth and fifth fingers.
The correct answer is cubital tunnel syndrome. The ulnar nerve passes through the cubital tunnel, and when it is compressed, it can cause the symptoms described, such as tingling and numbness in the fourth and fifth fingers. Treatment for this condition may involve conservative measures, but surgery may be necessary in some cases.
Carpal tunnel syndrome, on the other hand, is caused by compression of the median nerve at the wrist, leading to pain and tingling in the hand and wrist, rather than specific fingers.
De Quervain’s tenosynovitis presents differently, with pain occurring during movement of the thumb and wrist, and the radial styloid may become thickened and hardened.
Medial epicondylitis, or golfer’s elbow, causes pain in the medial elbow area, near the cubital tunnel, but it is a tendinopathy rather than nerve compression. The pain is localized to the affected area.
Understanding Cubital Tunnel Syndrome
Cubital tunnel syndrome is a condition that occurs when the ulnar nerve is compressed as it passes through the cubital tunnel. This can cause a range of symptoms, including tingling and numbness in the fourth and fifth fingers, which may start off intermittent but eventually become constant. Over time, patients may also experience weakness and muscle wasting. Pain is often worse when leaning on the affected elbow, and there may be a history of osteoarthritis or prior trauma to the area.
Diagnosis of cubital tunnel syndrome is usually made based on clinical features, although nerve conduction studies may be used in selected cases. Management of the condition typically involves avoiding aggravating activities, undergoing physiotherapy, and receiving steroid injections. In cases where these measures are not effective, surgery may be necessary. By understanding the symptoms and treatment options for cubital tunnel syndrome, patients can take steps to manage their condition and improve their quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 30
Incorrect
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An 80-year-old man presents to ophthalmology with complaints of progressive vision loss over the past few months, which has worsened suddenly in the last week. On visual field testing, a central scotoma is noted, and fundoscopy reveals well-defined red patches on the retina. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Wet age-related macular degeneration
Explanation:If a patient experiences a gradual decline in vision over several months, along with metamorphopsia and a central scotoma, it is highly likely that they have wet age-related macular degeneration (ARMD). This condition is characterized by a sudden deterioration in vision, red patches on the retina during fundoscopy, and leakage of serous fluid and blood. Acute angle-closure glaucoma, on the other hand, presents with severe headaches, vomiting, and mid-dilated or irregularly shaped pupils. Dry ARMD also causes a slow decline in vision, but it does not result in sudden deterioration or red patches on the retina. Retinal detachment causes a painless loss of vision that starts peripherally and progresses centrally, while vitreous hemorrhage is a common cause of sudden visual loss in diabetics, characterized by dark spots in the vision and a hemorrhage within the vitreous cavity during fundoscopy.
Age-related macular degeneration (ARMD) is a common cause of blindness in the UK, characterized by the degeneration of the central retina (macula) and the formation of drusen. It is more prevalent in females and is strongly associated with advancing age, smoking, family history, and conditions that increase the risk of ischaemic cardiovascular disease. ARMD can be classified into two forms: dry and wet. Dry ARMD is more common and is characterized by drusen, while wet ARMD is characterized by choroidal neovascularisation and carries a worse prognosis. Clinical features of ARMD include subacute onset of visual loss, difficulties in dark adaptation, and visual disturbances such as photopsia and glare.
To diagnose ARMD, slit-lamp microscopy and color fundus photography are used to identify any pigmentary, exudative, or haemorrhagic changes affecting the retina. Fluorescein angiography and indocyanine green angiography may also be used to visualize changes in the choroidal circulation. Treatment for dry ARMD involves a combination of zinc with anti-oxidant vitamins A, C, and E, which has been shown to reduce disease progression by around one third. For wet ARMD, anti-VEGF agents such as ranibizumab, bevacizumab, and pegaptanib are used to limit disease progression and stabilize or reverse visual loss. Laser photocoagulation may also be used to slow progression, but anti-VEGF therapies are usually preferred due to the risk of acute visual loss after treatment.
In summary, ARMD is a common cause of blindness in the UK that is strongly associated with advancing age, smoking, and family history. It can be classified into dry and wet forms, with wet ARMD carrying a worse prognosis. Diagnosis involves the use of various imaging techniques, and treatment options include a combination of zinc and anti-oxidant vitamins for dry ARMD and anti-VEGF agents or laser photocoagulation for wet ARMD.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 31
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old female presents to her GP after a missed period and a positive pregnancy test. She is thrilled to be pregnant but is worried about her epilepsy medication. What medications are safe for epileptics during pregnancy?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Lamotrigine
Explanation:The use of anti-epileptic medication during pregnancy is a complex issue due to the risk of severe congenital defects. Therefore, it is important to provide good contraceptive advice and planning to women of childbearing age who are taking these medications. However, in cases where a woman becomes pregnant while on anti-epileptic medication, it is crucial to seek medical advice as soon as possible.
According to recent guidelines from MBRRACE-UK and NICE, lamotrigine is the preferred medication for most women with epilepsy who are of childbearing age. In some cases, a dose increase may be necessary during pregnancy. Other medications such as phenytoin, phenobarbitone, and sodium valproate are known to have adverse effects on cognitive abilities and are generally avoided unless absolutely necessary.
For pregnant women with epilepsy, lamotrigine, carbamazepine, and levetiracetam are considered to have the least impact on the developing fetus. However, it is important for all pregnant women with epilepsy to receive specialist care and guidance throughout their pregnancy.
Pregnancy and breastfeeding can be a concern for women with epilepsy. It is generally recommended that women continue taking their medication during pregnancy, as the risks of uncontrolled seizures outweigh the potential risks to the fetus. However, it is important for women to take folic acid before pregnancy to reduce the risk of neural tube defects. The use of antiepileptic medication during pregnancy can increase the risk of congenital defects, but this risk is still relatively low. It is recommended to aim for monotherapy and there is no need to monitor drug levels. Sodium valproate is associated with neural tube defects, while carbamazepine is considered the least teratogenic of the older antiepileptics. Phenytoin is associated with cleft palate, and lamotrigine may require a dose increase during pregnancy. Breastfeeding is generally safe for mothers taking antiepileptics, except for barbiturates. Pregnant women taking phenytoin should be given vitamin K in the last month of pregnancy to prevent clotting disorders in the newborn.
A warning has been issued about the use of sodium valproate during pregnancy and in women of childbearing age. New evidence suggests a significant risk of neurodevelopmental delay in children following maternal use of this medication. Therefore, it should only be used if clearly necessary and under specialist neurological or psychiatric advice. It is important for women with epilepsy to discuss their options with their healthcare provider and make informed decisions about their treatment during pregnancy and breastfeeding.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 32
Incorrect
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A 48-year-old man comes back to the clinic for a blood pressure check following an increase in his ramipril dosage. During the check, his blood pressure is recorded as 152/96 mmHg, and he reports getting similar readings on his home monitor. Which medication would be the most suitable to initiate for this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Amlodipine
Explanation:If a patient in this age group has poorly controlled hypertension despite taking an ACE inhibitor (or angiotensin II receptor blocker), the next step is to consider adding a calcium channel blocker or a thiazide-like diuretic. In this case, adding a calcium channel blocker would be the appropriate choice. Beta blockers are not recommended in the NICE guidelines for hypertension management. While a thiazide-like diuretic could also be an option, furosemide, a loop diuretic, is not suitable. It is important to note that adding another ACE inhibitor is not recommended since the patient is already taking one.
NICE Guidelines for Managing Hypertension
Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is a common condition that can lead to serious health problems if left untreated. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published updated guidelines for the management of hypertension in 2019. Some of the key changes include lowering the threshold for treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old, allowing the use of angiotensin receptor blockers instead of ACE inhibitors, and recommending the use of a calcium channel blocker or thiazide-like diuretic in addition to an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker.
The guidelines also provide a flow chart for the diagnosis and management of hypertension. Lifestyle advice, such as reducing salt intake, caffeine intake, and alcohol consumption, as well as exercising more and losing weight, should not be forgotten and is frequently tested in exams. Treatment options depend on the patient’s age, ethnicity, and other factors, and may involve a combination of drugs.
NICE recommends treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old if they have target organ damage, established cardiovascular disease, renal disease, diabetes, or a 10-year cardiovascular risk equivalent to 10% or greater. For patients with stage 2 hypertension, drug treatment should be offered regardless of age. The guidelines also provide step-by-step treatment options, including adding a third or fourth drug if necessary.
New drugs, such as direct renin inhibitors like Aliskiren, may have a role in patients who are intolerant of more established antihypertensive drugs. However, trials have only investigated the fall in blood pressure and no mortality data is available yet. Patients who fail to respond to step 4 measures should be referred to a specialist. The guidelines also provide blood pressure targets for different age groups.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 33
Incorrect
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A 75-year-old man presents to his GP with a decline in his vision. He describes a gradual onset of dark floaters in his vision over the past few months and has recently experienced some episodes of flashing lights when outside in bright sunlight. The patient has a history of hypertension, which is managed with 5mg ramipril daily. He has a smoking history of 45 pack-years, does not consume alcohol, and is able to perform his daily activities independently. What is the most probable diagnosis for this patient's vision changes?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Vitreous detachment
Explanation:The patient has flashers and floaters associated with vitreous detachment, which can lead to retinal detachment. This is not central retinal artery occlusion, ischaemic optic neuropathy, macular degeneration, or temporal arteritis.
Sudden loss of vision can be a scary symptom for patients, as it may indicate a serious issue or only be temporary. Transient monocular visual loss (TMVL) is a term used to describe a sudden, brief loss of vision that lasts less than 24 hours. The most common causes of sudden, painless loss of vision include ischaemic/vascular issues (such as thrombosis, embolism, and temporal arteritis), vitreous haemorrhage, retinal detachment, and retinal migraine.
Ischaemic/vascular issues, also known as ‘amaurosis fugax’, have a wide range of potential causes, including large artery disease, small artery occlusive disease, venous disease, and hypoperfusion. Altitudinal field defects are often seen, and ischaemic optic neuropathy can occur due to occlusion of the short posterior ciliary arteries. Central retinal vein occlusion is more common than arterial occlusion and can be caused by glaucoma, polycythaemia, or hypertension. Central retinal artery occlusion is typically caused by thromboembolism or arteritis and may present with an afferent pupillary defect and a ‘cherry red’ spot on a pale retina.
Vitreous haemorrhage can be caused by diabetes, bleeding disorders, or anticoagulants and may present with sudden visual loss and dark spots. Retinal detachment may be preceded by flashes of light or floaters, which are also common in posterior vitreous detachment. Differentiating between posterior vitreous detachment, retinal detachment, and vitreous haemorrhage can be challenging, but each has distinct features such as photopsia and floaters for posterior vitreous detachment, a dense shadow that progresses towards central vision for retinal detachment, and large bleeds causing sudden visual loss for vitreous haemorrhage.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 34
Incorrect
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Sarah is a 30-year-old woman who has been admitted under Section 2 of the Mental Health Act. She has a history of depression and was recently referred for a Mental Health Act assessment because her family were concerned about her. She has been talking about her insides rotting and believes that she is going to die in her sleep. She cannot be convinced otherwise. She is not eating, barely drinking and lacks energy, concentration and motivation. Just prior to the Assessment she used a biro pen to cut into her forearm to 'prove that there is nothing inside that will bleed', and this required reconstructive surgery.
She is admitted to a psychiatric hospital and is commenced on an SSRI and an antipsychotic. One week into her admission the nurses call you because she is scoring highly on the Early Warning Score.
On examination you find Sarah to be confused. She has a temperature of 39ºC and is sweating. Her heart rate is 130 beats/min and her blood pressure is 80/50 mmHg. She complains of muscle stiffness but is not sure when this began. Cogwheel rigidity is present.
Urgent blood tests reveal the following:
Hb 155 g/L Male: (135-180) Female: (115 - 160)
Platelets 200 * 109/L (150 - 400)
WBC 18 * 109/L (4.0 - 11.0)
Creatine Kinase 2032 9/L (32-294)
Na+ 135 mmol/L (135 - 145)
K+ 4.9 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0)
Urea 3.0 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0)
Creatinine 118 µmol/L (55 - 120)
What is the likely cause of her symptoms?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Neuroleptic malignant syndrome
Explanation:Neuroleptic malignant syndrome is a severe reaction that can occur in response to antipsychotic medication and can be life-threatening. The patient is exhibiting symptoms consistent with NMS, including muscle rigidity and elevated creatine kinase levels. Amphetamine intoxication is an unlikely cause as there is no history of drug use and the patient is under Section 2 of the MHA. Encephalitis and sepsis are important differential diagnoses to consider, but cogwheel rigidity would not be expected in encephalitis and sepsis would not typically cause muscle rigidity or elevated creatine kinase levels.
Understanding Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome
Neuroleptic malignant syndrome is a rare but serious condition that can occur in patients taking antipsychotic medication. It can also happen with dopaminergic drugs used for Parkinson’s disease. The exact cause of this condition is unknown, but it is believed that dopamine blockade induced by antipsychotics triggers massive glutamate release, leading to neurotoxicity and muscle damage. Symptoms of neuroleptic malignant syndrome typically appear within hours to days of starting an antipsychotic and include fever, muscle rigidity, autonomic lability, and agitated delirium with confusion.
A raised creatine kinase is present in most cases, and acute kidney injury may develop in severe cases. Management of neuroleptic malignant syndrome involves stopping the antipsychotic medication and transferring the patient to a medical ward or intensive care unit. Intravenous fluids may be given to prevent renal failure, and dantrolene or bromocriptine may be used in selected cases. It is important to differentiate neuroleptic malignant syndrome from serotonin syndrome, which has similar symptoms but is caused by excessive serotonin activity.
In summary, neuroleptic malignant syndrome is a rare but potentially life-threatening condition that can occur in patients taking antipsychotic medication or dopaminergic drugs. Early recognition and management are crucial to prevent complications and improve outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 35
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old man with a history of chronic heart failure due to ischaemic cardiomyopathy is being evaluated. He was discharged from the hospital two weeks ago after experiencing a heart attack. An echocardiogram conducted during his hospitalization revealed a left ventricular ejection fraction of 40%, but no valve issues were identified.
Despite his current regimen of furosemide, ramipril, carvedilol, aspirin, and simvastatin, he continues to experience shortness of breath with minimal exertion, such as walking 30 meters. On examination, his chest is clear, and there is only slight peripheral edema. What is the most appropriate next step in his management?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Add an aldosterone antagonist
Explanation:The 2010 NICE guidelines have been revised to recommend the use of both angiotensin-2 receptor blockers and hydralazine in combination with a nitrate as second-line treatments for heart failure, in addition to aldosterone antagonists. However, considering the patient’s recent myocardial infarction, the most appropriate option would be an aldosterone antagonist, as per the NICE guidelines. For further information, please refer to the guidelines.
Drug Management for Chronic Heart Failure: NICE Guidelines
Chronic heart failure is a serious condition that requires proper management to improve patient outcomes. In 2018, the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) updated their guidelines on drug management for chronic heart failure. The guidelines recommend first-line therapy with both an ACE-inhibitor and a beta-blocker, with clinical judgement used to determine which one to start first. Second-line therapy involves the use of aldosterone antagonists, which should be monitored for hyperkalaemia. SGLT-2 inhibitors are also increasingly being used to manage heart failure with a reduced ejection fraction. Third-line therapy should be initiated by a specialist and may include ivabradine, sacubitril-valsartan, hydralazine in combination with nitrate, digoxin, or cardiac resynchronisation therapy. Other treatments such as annual influenza and one-off pneumococcal vaccines are also recommended.
Overall, the NICE guidelines provide a comprehensive approach to drug management for chronic heart failure. It is important to note that loop diuretics have not been shown to reduce mortality in the long-term, and that ACE-inhibitors and beta-blockers have no effect on mortality in heart failure with preserved ejection fraction. Healthcare professionals should carefully consider the patient’s individual needs and circumstances when determining the appropriate drug therapy for chronic heart failure.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 36
Incorrect
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A 40-year-old woman undergoing treatment for rheumatoid arthritis complains of nephrotic syndrome.
Which medication is the probable cause of this issue?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Penicillamine
Explanation:Overview of Medications Used in the Treatment of Rheumatoid Arthritis
Rheumatoid arthritis is a chronic autoimmune disease that affects the joints and can lead to disability. There are several medications used in the management of this condition, each with their own benefits and potential side effects.
Penicillamine is a drug commonly used in the treatment of rheumatoid arthritis, but it can also cause secondary membranous nephropathy, a condition characterized by proteinuria. Hydroxychloroquine is another medication that can be used for active rheumatoid arthritis, but its main complication is ocular toxicity. Sulfasalazine is primarily used for ulcerative colitis, but can also be used for rheumatoid arthritis under expert advice. Cyclophosphamide is rarely used for rheumatoid arthritis and is associated with the rare but serious complication of haemorrhagic cystitis. Methotrexate is a commonly used medication for severe Crohn’s disease and moderate to severe rheumatoid arthritis, but its main complication is bone marrow suppression.
It is important for patients to work closely with their healthcare providers to determine the most appropriate medication for their individual needs and to monitor for potential side effects.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine/Urology
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Question 37
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old man experiences severe facial and tongue swelling following administration of the Japanese encephalitis vaccine. He receives 500mcg of intramuscular adrenaline immediately and is placed in a supine position with elevated legs while receiving high-flow oxygen. Despite the initial dose of adrenaline, his facial swelling persists and his blood pressure drops to 82/54 mmHg. How long should the healthcare provider wait before administering a second dose of adrenaline?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 5 minutes
Explanation:Adrenaline can be administered every 5 minutes during the management of anaphylaxis.
Anaphylaxis is a severe and potentially life-threatening allergic reaction that affects the entire body. It can be caused by various triggers, including food, drugs, and insect venom. The symptoms of anaphylaxis typically occur suddenly and progress rapidly, affecting the airway, breathing, and circulation. Common signs include swelling of the throat and tongue, hoarse voice, respiratory wheeze, dyspnea, hypotension, and tachycardia. In addition, around 80-90% of patients experience skin and mucosal changes, such as generalized pruritus, erythematous rash, or urticaria.
The management of anaphylaxis requires prompt and decisive action, as it is a medical emergency. The Resuscitation Council guidelines recommend intramuscular adrenaline as the most important drug for treating anaphylaxis. The recommended doses of adrenaline vary depending on the patient’s age, ranging from 100-150 micrograms for infants under 6 months to 500 micrograms for adults and children over 12 years. Adrenaline can be repeated every 5 minutes if necessary, and the best site for injection is the anterolateral aspect of the middle third of the thigh. In cases of refractory anaphylaxis, IV fluids and expert help should be sought.
Following stabilisation, patients may be given non-sedating oral antihistamines to manage persisting skin symptoms. It is important to refer all patients with a new diagnosis of anaphylaxis to a specialist allergy clinic and provide them with an adrenaline injector as an interim measure before the specialist assessment. Patients should also be prescribed two adrenaline auto-injectors and trained on how to use them. A risk-stratified approach to discharge should be taken, as biphasic reactions can occur in up to 20% of patients. The Resus Council UK recommends a fast-track discharge for patients who have had a good response to a single dose of adrenaline and complete resolution of symptoms, while those who require two doses of IM adrenaline or have a history of biphasic reaction should be observed for at least 12 hours following symptom resolution.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Immunology/Allergy
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Question 38
Incorrect
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Which of the following is not a characteristic of Tetralogy of Fallot?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Atrial septal defect
Explanation:Understanding Tetralogy of Fallot
Tetralogy of Fallot (TOF) is a congenital heart disease that results from the anterior malalignment of the aorticopulmonary septum. It is the most common cause of cyanotic congenital heart disease, and it typically presents at around 1-2 months, although it may not be detected until the baby is 6 months old. The condition is characterized by four features, including ventricular septal defect (VSD), right ventricular hypertrophy, right ventricular outflow tract obstruction, and overriding aorta. The severity of the right ventricular outflow tract obstruction determines the degree of cyanosis and clinical severity.
Other features of TOF include cyanosis, which may cause episodic hypercyanotic ‘tet’ spells due to near occlusion of the right ventricular outflow tract. These spells are characterized by tachypnea and severe cyanosis that may occasionally result in loss of consciousness. They typically occur when an infant is upset, in pain, or has a fever, and they cause a right-to-left shunt. Additionally, TOF may cause an ejection systolic murmur due to pulmonary stenosis, and a right-sided aortic arch is seen in 25% of patients. Chest x-ray shows a ‘boot-shaped’ heart, while ECG shows right ventricular hypertrophy.
The management of TOF often involves surgical repair, which is usually undertaken in two parts. Cyanotic episodes may be helped by beta-blockers to reduce infundibular spasm. However, it is important to note that at birth, transposition of the great arteries is the more common lesion as patients with TOF generally present at around 1-2 months. Understanding the features and management of TOF is crucial for healthcare professionals to provide appropriate care and treatment for affected infants.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 39
Incorrect
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A 43-year-old woman is diagnosed with premature ovarian failure and prescribed HRT for symptom relief and bone health. What other medical condition is she at a higher risk for?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ischaemic heart disease
Explanation:Premature menopause is linked to higher mortality rates, including an increased risk of osteoporosis and cardiovascular disease, specifically ischaemic heart disease. Oestrogen is known to have protective effects on bone health and cardiovascular disease, making the increased risks associated with premature menopause particularly concerning. Hormone replacement therapy (HRT) is often recommended until the normal age of menopause, with a discussion of the risks and benefits of continuing HRT beyond that point. A 2015 NICE review found that the baseline risk of coronary heart disease and stroke for menopausal women varies based on individual cardiovascular risk factors. HRT with oestrogen alone is associated with no or reduced risk of coronary heart disease, while HRT with oestrogen and progestogen is linked to little or no increase in the risk of coronary heart disease. However, taking oral (but not transdermal) oestrogen is associated with a small increase in the risk of stroke.
Premature Ovarian Insufficiency: Causes and Management
Premature ovarian insufficiency is a condition where menopausal symptoms and elevated gonadotrophin levels occur before the age of 40. It affects approximately 1 in 100 women and can be caused by various factors such as idiopathic reasons, family history, bilateral oophorectomy, radiotherapy, chemotherapy, infection, autoimmune disorders, and resistant ovary syndrome. The symptoms of premature ovarian insufficiency are similar to those of normal menopause, including hot flushes, night sweats, infertility, secondary amenorrhoea, raised FSH and LH levels, and low oestradiol.
Management of premature ovarian insufficiency involves hormone replacement therapy (HRT) or a combined oral contraceptive pill until the age of the average menopause, which is 51 years. It is important to note that HRT does not provide contraception in case spontaneous ovarian activity resumes. Early diagnosis and management of premature ovarian insufficiency can help alleviate symptoms and improve quality of life for affected women.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 40
Incorrect
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A 38-year-old male patient visits the GP clinic complaining of redness in his left eye for the past week. During the examination, a tender papule is observed at the margin of the lower eyelid on the left side. Additionally, the conjunctiva of the left eye appears red. What is the best course of action for this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Warm compress, analgesia and topical antibiotic
Explanation:If there is conjunctivitis present with the stye, topical antibiotics are recommended along with warm compress and pain relief. Cold compress should not be used. Oral antibiotics should only be considered if the infection persists despite topical treatment.
Eyelid problems are quite common and can include a variety of issues. One such issue is blepharitis, which is inflammation of the eyelid margins that can cause redness in the eye. Another problem is a stye, which is an infection of the glands in the eyelids. Chalazion, also known as Meibomian cyst, is another eyelid problem that can occur. Entropion is when the eyelids turn inward, while ectropion is when they turn outward.
Styes can come in different forms, such as external or internal. An external stye is an infection of the glands that produce sebum or sweat, while an internal stye is an infection of the Meibomian glands. Treatment for styes typically involves hot compresses and pain relief, with topical antibiotics only being recommended if there is also conjunctivitis present. A chalazion, on the other hand, is a painless lump that can form in the eyelid due to a retention cyst of the Meibomian gland. While most cases will resolve on their own, some may require surgical drainage.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 41
Incorrect
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A 9-year-old boy is presented to the GP by his mother due to the development of a limp. The mother noticed that his left hip was sore and stiff about a month ago. The pain has gradually worsened, making it difficult for the boy to walk and causing significant discomfort. The boy has a normal developmental history and is otherwise healthy. What is the probable underlying cause of his symptoms?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Avascular necrosis
Explanation:Perthes’ disease is characterized by a lack of blood supply to the femoral head, leading to its necrosis and resulting in symptoms such as hip pain, stiffness, and limping. These symptoms are consistent with the presentation of a young boy experiencing progressive hip pain and reduced range of motion. The age of onset for Perthes’ disease typically falls within the range of 6-8 years old, further supporting this diagnosis.
While an epiphyseal plate fracture can also cause pain and limping, it is typically the result of a traumatic injury, which is not the case in this scenario. Slipped upper femoral epiphysis (SUFE) is another potential cause of hip pain and limping, but it typically affects older children and progresses more slowly over several months. Septic arthritis, on the other hand, is a medical emergency characterized by acute joint pain, swelling, and systemic symptoms, which are not present in this case.
Understanding Perthes’ Disease
Perthes’ disease is a degenerative condition that affects the hip joints of children, typically between the ages of 4-8 years. It is caused by a lack of blood supply to the femoral head, which leads to bone infarction and avascular necrosis. This condition is more common in boys, with around 10% of cases being bilateral. The symptoms of Perthes’ disease include hip pain, stiffness, reduced range of hip movement, and a limp. Early changes can be seen on an x-ray, such as widening of the joint space, while later changes include decreased femoral head size and flattening.
To diagnose Perthes’ disease, a plain x-ray is usually sufficient. However, if symptoms persist and the x-ray is normal, a technetium bone scan or magnetic resonance imaging may be necessary. If left untreated, Perthes’ disease can lead to complications such as osteoarthritis and premature fusion of the growth plates.
The severity of Perthes’ disease is classified using the Catterall staging system, which ranges from stage 1 (clinical and histological features only) to stage 4 (loss of acetabular integrity). Treatment options include keeping the femoral head within the acetabulum using a cast or braces, observation for children under 6 years old, and surgical management for older children with severe deformities. The prognosis for Perthes’ disease is generally good, with most cases resolving with conservative management. Early diagnosis is key to improving outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 42
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old man who has recently had a stroke is here for a follow-up appointment. He explains that he was watching a game with his son when he suddenly lost feeling on the left side of his body. Emergency services were called and he was taken to the hospital where a CT scan confirmed a right-sided ischemic stroke. He has no other medical history. What antiplatelet medication should he be prescribed after the stroke?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Aspirin 300 mg daily for 2 weeks then clopidogrel 75 mg daily lifelong
Explanation:After a stroke, all patients should receive an antiplatelet medication, unless they require an anticoagulant. As per NICE guidelines, individuals with confirmed ischaemic stroke through brain imaging should be given 300 mg of aspirin daily for two weeks. Afterward, long-term treatment with 75 mg of clopidogrel is recommended, provided it is well-tolerated and not contraindicated. If clopidogrel is not suitable, modified-release dipyridamole with low-dose aspirin should be administered.
Latest Guidance on Antiplatelets
Antiplatelets are medications that prevent blood clots from forming by inhibiting platelet aggregation. The most recent guidelines recommend different antiplatelet regimens depending on the diagnosis. For acute coronary syndrome, aspirin and ticagrelor are recommended for 12 months, followed by lifelong aspirin and clopidogrel if aspirin is contraindicated. For percutaneous coronary intervention, lifelong aspirin and prasugrel or ticagrelor for 12 months are recommended, with lifelong clopidogrel if aspirin is contraindicated. For TIA and ischaemic stroke, lifelong clopidogrel is recommended as first-line treatment, with lifelong aspirin and dipyridamole as second-line treatment. For peripheral arterial disease, lifelong clopidogrel is recommended as first-line treatment, with lifelong aspirin as second-line treatment. It is important to follow these guidelines to ensure the best possible outcomes for patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 43
Incorrect
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A 19-year-old man's mother visits his General Practitioner with concerns about her son's behavior. The young man has become isolated from his social circle, has developed an interest in the paranormal, and appears increasingly disheveled. He has been observed talking to himself and recently covered the TV screen with paper. His speech is erratic and jumps from one unrelated topic to another. He is not using any psychotropic drugs and has no history of health issues. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Schizophrenia
Explanation:Differentiating between Schizophrenia and other Mental Disorders
Schizophrenia is a mental disorder that is characterized by delusions, hallucinations, abnormal behavior, social withdrawal, blunted emotions, and breaks in thought processes. These symptoms are often accompanied by an irritable or depressed mood. When presented with a patient exhibiting these symptoms, schizophrenia is the most likely diagnosis.
Dissociative identity disorder, on the other hand, is a complex psychological disorder where the individual appears to have two or more distinct personalities that alternate and dictate their behavior. This disorder is associated with severe childhood trauma, which is not present in the case of the patient in question.
Bipolar disorder is characterized by extreme mood swings, ranging from mania to depression. While the patient exhibits some symptoms of depression, they are not displaying symptoms of mania, making bipolar disorder an unlikely diagnosis.
Delirium is a serious disturbance in mental abilities that results in confused thinking and reduced awareness of the environment. While an underlying physical cause should be excluded, the patient’s symptoms are more consistent with a psychotic illness than delirium.
Depression is characterized by continuous low mood, hopelessness, low self-esteem, tearfulness, and irritability. While patients with severe depression may suffer from psychotic episodes, the patient in question is exhibiting symptoms more consistent with schizophrenia, such as knights move thinking and responding to auditory hallucinations.
In conclusion, differentiating between schizophrenia and other mental disorders requires a thorough understanding of the symptoms and their presentation. While some disorders may share similar symptoms, a careful evaluation of the patient’s history and behavior can help determine the correct diagnosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 44
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old woman who is 10 weeks postpartum and currently breastfeeding presents with a complaint of a foul odor in her vaginal area. Upon examination, clue cells are detected. What treatment option would you suggest for this probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Metronidazole 400mg bd for 5 days
Explanation:The recommended treatment for bacterial vaginosis in this patient is metronidazole, but high doses of this medication are not safe for breastfeeding. Fluconazole is used to treat thrush, while azithromycin is used for Chlamydia. Clarithromycin is prescribed for pneumonia, strep throat, and H. pylori infections.
Bacterial vaginosis (BV) is a condition where there is an overgrowth of anaerobic organisms, particularly Gardnerella vaginalis, in the vagina. This leads to a decrease in the amount of lactobacilli, which produce lactic acid, resulting in an increase in vaginal pH. BV is not a sexually transmitted infection, but it is commonly seen in sexually active women. Symptoms include a fishy-smelling vaginal discharge, although some women may not experience any symptoms at all. Diagnosis is made using Amsel’s criteria, which includes the presence of thin, white discharge, clue cells on microscopy, a vaginal pH greater than 4.5, and a positive whiff test. Treatment involves oral metronidazole for 5-7 days, with a cure rate of 70-80%. However, relapse rates are high, with over 50% of women experiencing a recurrence within 3 months. Topical metronidazole or clindamycin may be used as alternatives.
Bacterial vaginosis during pregnancy can increase the risk of preterm labor, low birth weight, chorioamnionitis, and late miscarriage. It was previously recommended to avoid oral metronidazole in the first trimester and use topical clindamycin instead. However, recent guidelines suggest that oral metronidazole can be used throughout pregnancy. The British National Formulary (BNF) still advises against using high-dose metronidazole regimes. Clue cells, which are vaginal epithelial cells covered with bacteria, can be seen on microscopy in women with BV.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 45
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old man with hypertension controlled with lisinopril undergoes blood testing for fatigue. The results show an eGFR >90 ml/min/1.73 m2 (reference range >90 ml/min/1.73 m2) and normal U&Es, and urinalysis is normal. He had a previous USS of the renal tract two years ago which was reported as normal.
Which class of CKD does he belong to?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: No CKD
Explanation:Understanding Chronic Kidney Disease Stages and GFR Categories
Chronic kidney disease (CKD) is a condition characterized by a gradual loss of kidney function over time. To assess the severity of CKD, healthcare professionals use a staging system based on the glomerular filtration rate (GFR), which measures how well the kidneys are filtering waste from the blood.
A GFR of >90 without other evidence of kidney disease indicates normal renal function. However, if the GFR falls below this level, the patient may be classified into one of the following stages:
– CKD stage 2: GFR 60-89 ml/min/1.73 m2 (mildly decreased)
– CKD stage 3a: GFR 45-59 ml/min/1.73 m2 (mildly to moderately decreased)
– CKD stage 3b: GFR 30-44 ml/min/1.73 m2 (moderately to severely decreased)
– CKD stage 4: GFR 15-29 ml/min/1.73 m2 (severely decreased)
– CKD stage 5: GFR <15 ml/min/1.73 m2 (kidney failure) To further assess the risk of adverse outcomes, the 2008 NICE guideline on CKD recommends subdividing stage 3 into 3a and 3b and adding the suffix P to denote significant proteinuria at any stage. Significant proteinuria is defined as a urinary albumin:creatinine ratio (ACR) of 30 mg/mmol or higher. Understanding the GFR categories and CKD stages can help healthcare professionals diagnose and manage CKD, as well as educate patients on their kidney function and potential risks. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine/Urology
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Question 46
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old man with a past medical history of polyarthralgia, back pain, and diarrhea presents with a 3 cm red lesion on his shin that is beginning to ulcerate. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pyoderma gangrenosum
Explanation:It is probable that this individual is suffering from ulcerative colitis, a condition that is commonly linked to arthritis in large joints, sacroiliitis, and pyoderma gangrenosum.
Understanding Pyoderma Gangrenosum
Pyoderma gangrenosum is a rare inflammatory disorder that causes painful skin ulceration. While it can affect any part of the skin, it is most commonly found on the lower legs. This condition is classified as a neutrophilic dermatosis, which means that it is characterized by the infiltration of neutrophils in the affected tissue. The exact cause of pyoderma gangrenosum is unknown in 50% of cases, but it can be associated with inflammatory bowel disease, rheumatological conditions, haematological disorders, and other diseases.
The initial symptoms of pyoderma gangrenosum may start suddenly with a small pustule, red bump, or blood-blister. The skin then breaks down, resulting in an ulcer that is often painful. The edge of the ulcer is typically described as purple, violaceous, and undermined. In some cases, systemic symptoms such as fever and myalgia may also be present. Diagnosis is often made by the characteristic appearance, associations with other diseases, the presence of pathergy, histology results, and ruling out other potential causes.
Management of pyoderma gangrenosum typically involves oral steroids as first-line treatment due to the potential for rapid progression. Other immunosuppressive therapies such as ciclosporin and infliximab may also be used in difficult cases. It is important to note that any surgery should be postponed until the disease process is controlled on immunosuppression to avoid worsening the condition. Understanding pyoderma gangrenosum and seeking prompt medical attention can help manage this rare and painful condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 47
Incorrect
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What is the most commonly associated condition with primary sclerosing cholangitis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ulcerative colitis
Explanation:Understanding Primary Sclerosing Cholangitis
Primary sclerosing cholangitis is a condition that affects the bile ducts, causing inflammation and fibrosis. The cause of this disease is unknown, but it is often associated with ulcerative colitis, with 4% of UC patients having PSC and 80% of PSC patients having UC. Crohn’s disease and HIV are also less common associations. Symptoms of PSC include cholestasis, jaundice, pruritus, right upper quadrant pain, and fatigue. Diagnosis is typically made through endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP) or magnetic resonance cholangiopancreatography (MRCP), which show multiple biliary strictures giving a ‘beaded’ appearance. A liver biopsy may also be performed, but it has a limited role in diagnosis. Complications of PSC include cholangiocarcinoma in 10% of cases and an increased risk of colorectal cancer.
Overall, understanding primary sclerosing cholangitis is important for early diagnosis and management of the disease. With proper treatment and monitoring, patients can manage their symptoms and reduce the risk of complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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Question 48
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old female patient visits the GP clinic complaining of left eye redness, a sensation of grittiness, and a foreign body feeling in the left eye for the past three days. She also reports experiencing significant photophobia and a watering eye. The patient has a history of using contact lenses. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Keratitis
Explanation:Keratitis, which is likely caused by contact lens wear, is characterized by a red eye, sensitivity to light, and a feeling of grittiness. Episcleritis typically does not cause pain or light sensitivity. Blepharitis is inflammation of the eyelid and does not typically result in light sensitivity. Conjunctivitis usually causes minimal pain or light sensitivity.
Understanding Keratitis: Inflammation of the Cornea
Keratitis is a condition that refers to the inflammation of the cornea. While conjunctivitis is a common eye infection that is not usually serious, microbial keratitis can be sight-threatening and requires urgent evaluation and treatment. The causes of keratitis can vary, with bacterial infections typically caused by Staphylococcus aureus and Pseudomonas aeruginosa commonly seen in contact lens wearers. Fungal and amoebic infections can also cause keratitis, with acanthamoebic keratitis accounting for around 5% of cases. Parasitic infections such as onchocercal keratitis can also cause inflammation of the cornea.
Other factors that can cause keratitis include viral infections such as herpes simplex keratitis, environmental factors like photokeratitis (e.g. welder’s arc eye), and exposure keratitis. Clinical features of keratitis include a red eye with pain and erythema, photophobia, a foreign body sensation, and the presence of hypopyon. Referral is necessary for contact lens wearers who present with a painful red eye, as an accurate diagnosis can only be made with a slit-lamp examination.
Management of keratitis involves stopping the use of contact lenses until symptoms have fully resolved, as well as the use of topical antibiotics such as quinolones. Cycloplegic agents like cyclopentolate can also be used for pain relief. Complications of keratitis can include corneal scarring, perforation, endophthalmitis, and visual loss. Understanding the causes and symptoms of keratitis is important for prompt diagnosis and treatment to prevent serious complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 49
Incorrect
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You are invited to a meeting at a nearby daycare center. There has been a rise in the number of children contracting hand, foot, and mouth disease and a plan is being developed to address this issue. What is the most efficient measure to decrease the occurrence of hand, foot, and mouth disease?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hand hygiene
Explanation:Hand hygiene is the most crucial step in addressing MRSA, although a comprehensive approach is necessary.
Understanding MRSA and Screening for Infection
Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) is a type of bacteria that can cause serious infections and is particularly dangerous in hospital settings. To prevent the spread of MRSA, certain patients should be screened for the infection, including those awaiting elective admissions and all emergency admissions starting in 2011. Screening involves taking a nasal swab and checking for skin lesions or wounds. If a patient is found to be a carrier of MRSA, treatment involves using antibiotics such as vancomycin, teicoplanin, or linezolid. However, some strains may develop resistance to these antibiotics, so newer options like linezolid, quinupristin/dalfopristin combinations, and tigecycline should be reserved for resistant cases. It is important to suppress MRSA from carriers to prevent the spread of infection. This can be done through the use of mupirocin and chlorhexidine gluconate. By understanding MRSA and screening for infection, healthcare providers can take steps to prevent the spread of this dangerous bacteria.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 50
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old man presented to the GP surgery multiple times with a persistent conjunctivitis in one eye. Despite being treated with chloramphenicol and steroid eye drops, the symptoms did not improve. After three weeks, he visited the eye casualty with a constantly teary, painless, and red right eye. Upon examination, it was found that he had decreased visual acuity and mild proptosis in the affected eye. What is the probable diagnosis for this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Orbital lymphoma
Explanation:If a patient has chronic unilateral conjunctivitis that is not responding to treatment, it could be a sign of orbital lymphoma.
Orbital lymphoma typically has a slow onset of symptoms, which is why it is the most appropriate answer in this situation. If the red eye persists despite treatment, it is important to investigate further to rule out any serious underlying conditions. The other options listed are not applicable as they are associated with a painful red eye.
Conjunctivitis is a common eye problem that is often seen in primary care. It is characterized by red, sore eyes with a sticky discharge. There are two types of infective conjunctivitis: bacterial and viral. Bacterial conjunctivitis is identified by a purulent discharge and eyes that may be stuck together in the morning. On the other hand, viral conjunctivitis is characterized by a serous discharge and recent upper respiratory tract infection, as well as preauricular lymph nodes.
In most cases, infective conjunctivitis is a self-limiting condition that resolves without treatment within one to two weeks. However, topical antibiotic therapy is often offered to patients, such as Chloramphenicol drops given every two to three hours initially or Chloramphenicol ointment given four times a day initially. Alternatively, topical fusidic acid can be used, especially for pregnant women, and treatment is twice daily.
For contact lens users, topical fluoresceins should be used to identify any corneal staining, and treatment should be the same as above. During an episode of conjunctivitis, contact lenses should not be worn, and patients should be advised not to share towels. School exclusion is not necessary.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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:
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Average Question Time (
Mins)