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  • Question 1 - A 35-year-old man is brought to the Accident and Emergency Department after having...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man is brought to the Accident and Emergency Department after having a blackout. He was walking down the street when he felt nauseated, dizzy and sweaty. He collapsed and lost consciousness for one minute. A friend says that he was pale and had some jerking of his limbs for 10 seconds, but he did not bite his tongue and there was no history of urinary incontinence. He recovered immediately, with no confusion or disorientation. Examination and the electrocardiogram (ECG) are normal. He is otherwise usually fit and well and on no regular medications.
      What further investigation is required to make a diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Computerised tomography (CT) of the brain

      Correct Answer: No investigation

      Explanation:

      When to Investigate Transient Loss of Consciousness: A Guide for Clinicians

      Transient loss of consciousness (LOC) can be a concerning symptom for patients and clinicians alike. However, not all cases require extensive investigation. According to the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) guidelines, patients presenting with a transient LOC should undergo a thorough history, examination, and electrocardiogram (ECG). If these are normal and the patient meets certain criteria, further work-up may not be necessary.

      For example, uncomplicated vasovagal syncope can be diagnosed if there are no features suggesting an alternative diagnosis and if the patient experiences the 3 Ps of posture-prolonged standing, provoking factors, and prodromal symptoms. Doppler ultrasonography of the carotids would only be indicated if there was suspicion of carotid artery stenosis, while a single syncopal episode is not an indication for a computed tomography (CT) scan of the brain.

      Electroencephalogram (EEG) may be considered if the history is suggestive of epilepsy, but it should not be routinely used in the work-up for transient LOC. Features strongly suggestive of epilepsy include a bitten tongue, head turning to one side during transient LOC, no memory of abnormal behavior witnessed by someone else, unusual posturing, prolonged limb jerking, confusion following the event, and prodromal déjà vu or jamais vu. If any of these are present, the patient should be reviewed by a specialist within 2 weeks, who would then make a decision regarding EEG.

      In summary, a thorough evaluation is necessary for all patients presenting with a transient LOC. However, if the patient meets certain criteria and there are no features suggesting an alternative diagnosis, further investigation may not be required.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 2 - As the on-call duty doctor, you are in your room when a receptionist...

    Incorrect

    • As the on-call duty doctor, you are in your room when a receptionist rushes in, alarmed that an elderly woman has been hit by a car in the surgery car park. The receptionist calls an ambulance while you quickly assess the patient. The patient's airway is clear, with spontaneous breathing at a rate of 18 breaths per minute and oxygen saturation of 98% on room air. The patient is hemodynamically stable with a heart rate of 70 beats per minute and blood pressure of 138/86 mmHg. The patient is lethargic, but responds to voice and exhibits abnormal flexion in response to pain. The patient mumbles incomprehensible sounds when asked questions. What is the patient's Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score based on your assessment?

      Your Answer: 10

      Correct Answer: 8

      Explanation:

      What is the patient’s GCS based on the assessment that he is drowsy, but his eyes open to voice and exhibits abnormal flexion to pain, and mutters incomprehensible sounds in response to questions?
      GCS score is 7.

      Understanding the Glasgow Coma Scale for Adults

      The Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) is a tool used to assess the level of consciousness in adults who have suffered a brain injury or other neurological condition. It is based on three components: motor response, verbal response, and eye opening. Each component is scored on a scale from 1 to 6, with a higher score indicating a better level of consciousness.

      The motor response component assesses the patient’s ability to move in response to stimuli. A score of 6 indicates that the patient is able to obey commands, while a score of 1 indicates no movement at all.

      The verbal response component assesses the patient’s ability to communicate. A score of 5 indicates that the patient is fully oriented, while a score of 1 indicates no verbal response at all.

      The eye opening component assesses the patient’s ability to open their eyes. A score of 4 indicates that the patient is able to open their eyes spontaneously, while a score of 1 indicates no eye opening at all.

      The GCS score is expressed as a combination of the scores from each component, with the motor response score listed first, followed by the verbal response score, and then the eye opening score. For example, a GCS score of 13, M5 V4 E4 at 21:30 would indicate that the patient had a motor response score of 5, a verbal response score of 4, and an eye opening score of 4 at 9:30 PM.

      Overall, the Glasgow Coma Scale is a useful tool for healthcare professionals to assess the level of consciousness in adults with neurological conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 3 - Liam, 35, is admitted to the Emergency Department after a fall down the...

    Incorrect

    • Liam, 35, is admitted to the Emergency Department after a fall down the stairs at home. Upon examination, it is observed that he has bruising around the eyes and behind the ears. What does this indicate?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Basilar skull fracture

      Explanation:

      The classic signs associated with basilar skull fractures are periorbital bruising, which is bruising around the eye also known as Raccoon eyes, and post-auricular bruising, which is bruising of the mastoid also known as Battle’s sign. Therefore, the correct answer for this question is basilar skull fracture.

      NICE Guidelines for Investigating Head Injuries in Adults

      Head injuries can be serious and require prompt medical attention. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has provided clear guidelines for healthcare professionals to determine which adult patients need further investigation with a CT head scan. Patients who require immediate CT head scans include those with a Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score of less than 13 on initial assessment, suspected open or depressed skull fractures, signs of basal skull fractures, post-traumatic seizures, focal neurological deficits, and more than one episode of vomiting.

      For patients with any loss of consciousness or amnesia since the injury, a CT head scan within 8 hours is recommended for those who are 65 years or older, have a history of bleeding or clotting disorders, experienced a dangerous mechanism of injury, or have more than 30 minutes of retrograde amnesia of events immediately before the head injury. Additionally, patients on warfarin who have sustained a head injury with no other indications for a CT head scan should also receive a scan within 8 hours of the injury.

      It is important for healthcare professionals to follow these guidelines to ensure that patients receive appropriate and timely care for their head injuries. By identifying those who require further investigation, healthcare professionals can provide the necessary treatment and support to prevent further complications and improve patient outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 4 - A 20-year-old male college student visits the first seizure clinic after his roommate...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old male college student visits the first seizure clinic after his roommate expresses concern that he had a seizure early in the morning following a night out. This is the first seizure he has ever experienced. He does not consume alcohol or use recreational drugs, but he did feel sleep-deprived and dizzy before the seizure. The roommate provides a video that shows the seizure to be tonic-clonic in nature, affecting the arms and legs, with no incontinence, tongue-biting, or postictal drowsiness. Blood tests, lumbar puncture, CT head, MRI brain, and electroencephalogram (EEG) are all normal.

      What is the recommended duration for this patient to refrain from driving?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 6 months

      Explanation:

      After a first unprovoked or isolated seizure, patients with normal brain imaging and EEG cannot drive for a period of 6 months. However, if the seizure is most likely a result of vasovagal syncope due to exhaustion and sleep deprivation, it may not be an epileptic seizure and may not have associated symptoms such as incontinence, tongue-biting or postictal confusion. In such cases, the patient must still adhere to the 6-month driving ban. The options of 1 month and 3 months are incorrect as they are not valid periods for a driving ban for any type of seizure.

      The DVLA has guidelines for drivers with neurological disorders. Those with epilepsy/seizures must not drive and must inform the DVLA. The length of time off driving varies depending on the type and frequency of seizures. Those with syncope may need time off driving depending on the cause and number of episodes. Those with other conditions such as stroke, craniotomy, pituitary tumor, narcolepsy/cataplexy, and chronic neurological disorders should inform the DVLA and may need time off driving.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 5 - A 68-year-old woman presents with a 4-month history of heaviness and discomfort in...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old woman presents with a 4-month history of heaviness and discomfort in her upper legs, which is present after walking for more than 5 minutes. She used to enjoy walking regularly, but now finds it difficult to participate. However, she is still able to drive to her part-time job as a receptionist. She has a history of hypertension and was recently started on medication. She quit smoking 3 years ago. On examination, her blood pressure is 150/85 mmHg. Her pulse is 64 and regular. Her peripheral pulses are palpable, but the capillary return in her toes is slow. Neurological examination of her arms and legs is normal, except for diminished ankle jerks and reduced vibration sense distally.
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lumbar canal stenosis

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis of Progressive Exertional Leg Pain: A Review of Possible Conditions

      Progressive exertional leg pain can be a symptom of various medical conditions. In this article, we will review some of the possible differential diagnoses for this symptom.

      Lumbar Canal Stenosis
      Lumbar canal stenosis is a degenerative condition associated with the ageing spine, resulting in narrowing of the central spinal canal, lateral recess or neural foramina. It is usually due to progressive hypertrophy of the facet joints and disc degeneration. It is a syndrome of buttock or leg pain, with or without back pain, associated with a narrow space available for the neural and vascular elements in the lumbar spine.

      Metabolic Muscle Disease
      This is a diverse group of hereditary muscle disorders caused by specific enzymatic defects due to defective genes. Disorders of muscle energy metabolism result in skeletal muscle dysfunction. Most metabolic myopathies are considered primary inborn errors of metabolism and are associated with enzymatic defects that affect the ability of muscle fibres to maintain energy and adenosine triphosphate (ATP) concentrations. These include abnormalities of glycogen, lipid, purine or mitochondrial biochemistry.

      Idiopathic Parkinson’s Disease
      Idiopathic Parkinson’s disease (IPD) commonly presents with tremor, stiffness, slowness and balance/gait issues. In addition, PD classically displays a unilateral onset. This patient has no resting symptoms suggestive of IPD.

      Hypothyroid Muscle Disease
      Hypothyroidism is associated with proximal myopathy. There is commonly proximal muscle weakness and raised creatine kinase (CK). Patients may suffer muscle cramping, proximal symmetrical muscle weakness, muscle stiffness and exercise intolerance. Reduced reflexes/ankle reflexes are commonly seen.

      Abdominal Aortic Stenosis
      This refers to narrowing of the aorta during its course in the abdomen. This would produce bilateral vascular claudication symptoms, due to reduced blood flow distal to the stenosis. The progressive exertional leg pain described here could be in keeping with vascular claudication.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 6 - A 10-year-old boy presents to the General Practitioner with his father who reports...

    Incorrect

    • A 10-year-old boy presents to the General Practitioner with his father who reports that he has been falling behind at school. His teachers have noticed that multiple times during lessons he appears to be 'staring into space' for about ten seconds at a time, during which there is twitching of his arms. He does not remember these episodes. He is referred for an electroencephalography (EEG) which shows spike-and-wave complexes during an episode. He is started on a new medication.
      Which of the following is the most likely treatment?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ethosuximide

      Explanation:

      When it comes to treating absence seizures, ethosuximide is the preferred first-line option for women and girls who may become pregnant. Boys and men can be treated with either ethosuximide or sodium valproate. Absence seizures are most common in children and young people, and are characterized by brief episodes of fixed gaze and possible arm or leg movements. An EEG can confirm the presence of spike-and-wave complexes during an attack. Sodium valproate may be used for boys and men, but should be avoided in women of childbearing potential due to the risk of birth defects. Carbamazepine is not effective for absence seizures, but is the first-line treatment for focal seizures. Lamotrigine may be used as a second-line option if other treatments are not effective or well-tolerated. In cases of status epilepticus, intravenous lorazepam is the preferred treatment in a hospital setting, but buccal midazolam or rectal diazepam can be used if intravenous access is not available.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 7 - A 67-year-old man presents to the medical team with a 4-day history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old man presents to the medical team with a 4-day history of fever, headache, and dysphasia. He reports feeling generally unwell. On examination, he has a GCS of 14 with no peripheral focal neurology and normal pupillary reactions. Bibasal crepitations and an ejection systolic murmur are heard on auscultation. His abdomen is soft and nontender. A chest radiograph is unremarkable, but a CT brain scan reveals an intracranial abscess. What is the most appropriate diagnostic test to aid in further diagnosis for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Echocardiogram

      Explanation:

      Distant abscesses can be caused by infective embolic plaques in patients with infective endocarditis, including brain abscesses. To aid in the diagnosis of infective endocarditis, an echocardiogram is the most appropriate next investigation for this patient, given their examination findings. While a CT of the chest and abdomen may be necessary if the underlying cause remains unknown, it is less important with a normal chest radiograph and abdominal examination. Bronchoscopy, lower limb imaging, and EEG are not currently necessary.

      Understanding Brain Abscesses

      Brain abscesses can occur due to various reasons such as sepsis from middle ear or sinuses, head injuries, and endocarditis. The symptoms of brain abscesses depend on the location of the abscess, with those in critical areas presenting earlier. Brain abscesses can cause a considerable mass effect in the brain, leading to raised intracranial pressure. Symptoms of brain abscesses include dull and persistent headaches, fever, focal neurology, nausea, papilloedema, and seizures.

      To diagnose brain abscesses, doctors may perform imaging with CT scanning. Treatment for brain abscesses involves surgery, where a craniotomy is performed to remove the abscess cavity. However, the abscess may reform because the head is closed following abscess drainage. Intravenous antibiotics such as 3rd-generation cephalosporin and metronidazole are also administered. Additionally, intracranial pressure management with dexamethasone may be necessary.

      Overall, brain abscesses are a serious condition that requires prompt medical attention. Understanding the symptoms and treatment options can help individuals seek medical help early and improve their chances of recovery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 8 - A 35-year-old man visits the Neurology Clinic after being referred by his General...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man visits the Neurology Clinic after being referred by his General Practitioner for experiencing numbness and tingling in his left arm. He also reports an incident of visual blurring and pain in his left eye about six months ago.
      What is the most suitable type of cross-sectional scan to determine the cause of this man's symptoms?
      Choose the ONE most appropriate investigation from the options provided.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) brain and spine with contrast

      Explanation:

      Imaging Modalities for Multiple Sclerosis Diagnosis

      To diagnose multiple sclerosis, imaging modalities are necessary to assess for acute demyelination and anatomical changes in the grey and white matter. The preferred imaging modality is magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) with contrast, which can visualize acute inflammatory changes and demyelinating lesions. Dopamine Active Transfer scan (DaTscan) is not useful for multiple sclerosis diagnosis but can confirm Parkinson’s disease. Computed tomography (CT) with contrast is best for vascular lesions, while CT without contrast is only appropriate for acute trauma. MRI without contrast is the second-best option but cannot differentiate between acute and chronic lesions. Both brain and spine should be imaged to avoid missing the lesion responsible for the patient’s symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 9 - A 40-year-old male visits his GP complaining of pain in his foot and...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old male visits his GP complaining of pain in his foot and lower limb that worsens at night. He reports that the pain alleviates when he dangles his leg over the bed's edge. Upon further inquiry, he mentions experiencing 'pins and needles' in his fingers, which feel cold. The patient has no medical history but is a heavy smoker, consuming 25 cigarettes per day. What is the probable diagnosis based on the given information?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Buerger's disease

      Explanation:

      Buerger’s disease (thromboangiitis obliterans) is the likely diagnosis for a young male smoker experiencing symptoms similar to limb ischaemia. This non-atherosclerotic vasculitis primarily affects medium-sized arteries and is most common in young male smokers. Symptoms include cold sensation or paraesthesia in the limbs or fingers, rest pain, and possible ulceration or gangrene. Granulomatosis with polyangiitis and peripheral vascular disease are important differentials to consider, but unlikely in this case. Sickle cell anaemia and vitamin B12 deficiency are also less likely explanations for the symptoms.

      Understanding Buerger’s Disease

      Buerger’s disease, also known as thromboangiitis obliterans, is a type of vasculitis that affects the small and medium-sized blood vessels. This condition is strongly linked to smoking and can cause a range of symptoms, including extremity ischemia, intermittent claudication, ischaemic ulcers, superficial thrombophlebitis, and Raynaud’s phenomenon.

      Individuals with Buerger’s disease may experience reduced blood flow to their limbs, which can lead to pain, numbness, and tingling sensations. This can make it difficult to walk or perform other activities, and may even result in the development of ulcers or sores on the skin.

      Superficial thrombophlebitis, or inflammation of the veins close to the surface of the skin, is another common symptom of Buerger’s disease. This can cause redness, swelling, and tenderness in the affected area.

      Raynaud’s phenomenon, which is characterized by the narrowing of blood vessels in the fingers and toes, is also associated with Buerger’s disease. This can cause the affected areas to turn white or blue and feel cold and numb.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 10 - A 65-year-old patient with a history of migraines presents to you after being...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old patient with a history of migraines presents to you after being discharged from the stroke unit following a posterior circulation stroke. She is distressed as she believes there was a considerable delay in her diagnosis. Initially diagnosed with a severe migraine, she was not referred to the hospital until her symptoms persisted for several days.

      What is the primary symptom that typically presents in a posterior circulation stroke?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Dizziness

      Explanation:

      Dizziness is the most prevalent indication of a posterior circulation stroke, although other symptoms such as double vision, disorientation, visual disturbance, confusion, and memory loss are also significant. Roughly 33% of posterior circulation strokes are misdiagnosed as migraines, which can cause temporary neurological deficits even without a headache. Additionally, individuals who suffer from migraines are more likely to experience a headache as a result of brain ischemia, which can further complicate the diagnosis. Patients who experience new vertigo or headaches, dizziness, or a change in the nature of their migraines should be evaluated for a posterior circulation stroke.

      Understanding Stroke: A Basic Overview

      Stroke is a significant cause of morbidity and mortality, with over 150,000 cases reported annually in the UK alone. It is the fourth leading cause of death in the country, killing twice as many women as breast cancer each year. However, the prevention and treatment of strokes have undergone significant changes in the past decade. What was once considered an untreatable condition is now viewed as a brain attack that requires emergency assessment to determine if patients can benefit from new treatments such as thrombolysis.

      A stroke, also known as a cerebrovascular accident (CVA), occurs when there is a sudden interruption in the vascular supply of the brain. This interruption can lead to irreversible damage as neural tissue is entirely dependent on aerobic metabolism. There are two main types of strokes: ischaemic and haemorrhagic. Ischaemic strokes occur when there is a blockage in the blood vessel that stops blood flow, while haemorrhagic strokes happen when a blood vessel bursts, leading to a reduction in blood flow.

      Symptoms of a stroke include motor weakness, speech problems, swallowing difficulties, visual field defects, and balance problems. The Oxford Stroke Classification is a formal system used to classify strokes based on initial symptoms. Patients with suspected stroke require emergency neuroimaging to determine if they are suitable for thrombolytic therapy to treat early ischaemic strokes. If the stroke is haemorrhagic, neurosurgical consultation should be considered for advice on further management.

      In conclusion, understanding the basics of stroke is crucial in identifying and managing the condition. Early intervention and treatment can significantly improve outcomes for patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 11 - A 56-year-old man comes to the clinic with a continuous tremor. During the...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old man comes to the clinic with a continuous tremor. During the examination, it is observed that his arms have a tremor of 6-8 Hz, which worsens when he stretches them out. His father also had a similar condition. What is the most appropriate initial treatment option?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Propranolol

      Explanation:

      The patient’s symptoms are consistent with essential tremor, an autosomal dominant condition that worsens with outstretched arms but improves with alcohol and propranolol. Propranolol is typically the initial treatment option.

      Understanding Essential Tremor

      Essential tremor, also known as benign essential tremor, is a genetic condition that typically affects both upper limbs. The most common symptom is a postural tremor, which worsens when the arms are outstretched. However, the tremor can be improved by rest and alcohol consumption. Essential tremor is also the leading cause of head tremors, known as titubation.

      When it comes to managing essential tremor, the first-line treatment is propranolol. This medication can help reduce the severity of the tremors. In some cases, primidone may also be used to manage the condition. It’s important to note that essential tremor is a lifelong condition, but with proper management, individuals can lead a normal life. By understanding the symptoms and treatment options, those with essential tremor can take control of their condition and improve their quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 12 - An 83-year-old woman with a history of hypertension and atrial fibrillation arrives at...

    Incorrect

    • An 83-year-old woman with a history of hypertension and atrial fibrillation arrives at the emergency department with dysarthria and left-sided weakness that she noticed earlier today. During the examination, left-sided hemiparesis is observed, and her blood glucose level is 6.5 mmol/L. What is the next appropriate investigation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Non-contrast CT head

      Explanation:

      Assessment and Investigations for Stroke

      Whilst diagnosing a stroke may be straightforward in some cases, it can be challenging when symptoms are vague. The FAST screening tool, which stands for Face/Arms/Speech/Time, is a well-known tool used by the general public to identify stroke symptoms. However, medical professionals use a validated tool called the ROSIER score, recommended by the Royal College of Physicians. The ROSIER score assesses for loss of consciousness or syncope, seizure activity, and new, acute onset of asymmetric facial, arm, or leg weakness, speech disturbance, or visual field defect. A score of greater than zero indicates a likely stroke.

      When investigating suspected stroke, a non-contrast CT head scan is the first line radiological investigation. The key question to answer is whether the stroke is ischaemic or haemorrhagic, as this determines the appropriate management. Ischaemic strokes may show areas of low density in the grey and white matter of the territory, while haemorrhagic strokes typically show areas of hyperdense material surrounded by low density. It is important to identify the type of stroke promptly, as thrombolysis and thrombectomy play an increasing role in acute stroke management. In rare cases, a third pathology such as a tumour may also be detected.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 13 - A 50-year-old woman presents with a two-month history of neck and right arm...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman presents with a two-month history of neck and right arm pain, which is exacerbated by neck flexion. She has a medical history of knee osteoarthritis, obesity, and depression. Upon examination, there is no apparent muscle weakness or atrophy in the right arm, but there is some sensory loss in the middle finger and palm of the hand. Which nerve root is most likely to be affected by the impingement?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: C7

      Explanation:

      Understanding Dermatomes: Major Landmarks and Mnemonics

      Dermatomes are areas of skin that are innervated by a single spinal nerve. Understanding dermatomes is important in diagnosing and treating various neurological conditions. The major dermatome landmarks are listed, along with helpful mnemonics to remember them.

      Starting from the top of the body, the C2 dermatome covers the posterior half of the skull, resembling a cap. Moving down to C3, it covers the area of a high turtleneck shirt. C4 covers the area of a low-collar shirt. The C5 dermatome runs along the ventral axial line of the upper limb, while C6 covers the thumb and index finger. To remember this, make a 6 with your left hand by touching the tip of the thumb and index finger together.

      Moving down to C7, it covers the middle finger and palm of the hand. C8 covers the ring and little finger. The T4 dermatome covers the area of the nipples, while T5 covers the inframammary fold. T6 covers the xiphoid process, and T10 covers the umbilicus. To remember this, think of BellybuT-TEN.

      The L1 dermatome covers the inguinal ligament, which can be remembered by thinking of L for ligament, 1 for 1nguinal. L4 covers the knee caps, and to remember this, think of being down on all fours. L5 covers the big toe and dorsum of the foot (except the lateral aspect), and can be remembered by thinking of it as the largest of the five toes. Finally, the S1 dermatome covers the lateral foot and small toe, while S2 and S3 cover the genitalia.

      Understanding dermatomes and their landmarks can aid in diagnosing and treating various neurological conditions. The mnemonics provided can help in remembering these important landmarks.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 14 - A 21-year-old man is brought to the hospital after experiencing a generalized seizure....

    Incorrect

    • A 21-year-old man is brought to the hospital after experiencing a generalized seizure. He complains of feeling ill with a fever and headache for the past 48 hours, and his mother notes that he has been unusually irritable lately. The patient has no prior medical history. During the examination, there is mild nuchal rigidity and hyperreflexia in the lower limbs. A CT scan of the head reveals bilateral hypodensities in the temporal lobes. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Herpes simplex encephalitis

      Explanation:

      Consider herpes simplex encephalitis as the possible cause for the observed temporal lobe changes on the CT head.

      Understanding Herpes Simplex Encephalitis

      Herpes simplex encephalitis is a common topic in medical exams. This viral infection affects the temporal lobes of the brain, causing symptoms such as fever, headache, seizures, and vomiting. Focal features like aphasia may also be present. It is important to note that peripheral lesions, such as cold sores, are not related to the presence of HSV encephalitis.

      HSV-1 is responsible for 95% of cases in adults and typically affects the temporal and inferior frontal lobes. Diagnosis is made through CSF analysis, PCR for HSV, and imaging studies like CT or MRI. EEG patterns may also show lateralized periodic discharges at 2 Hz.

      Treatment involves intravenous aciclovir, and prompt initiation of treatment is crucial for a good prognosis. If treatment is started early, the mortality rate is around 10-20%. However, if left untreated, the mortality rate can approach 80%.

      In summary, understanding the symptoms, pathophysiology, and treatment of herpes simplex encephalitis is important for medical professionals and students alike. Early recognition and treatment can greatly improve outcomes for patients with this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 15 - An ambulance brings a 70-year-old man to the emergency department with suspected stroke....

    Incorrect

    • An ambulance brings a 70-year-old man to the emergency department with suspected stroke. Upon examination, the man's speech is non-fluent, but his comprehension is intact. He experiences difficulty repeating a phrase. What is the most probable location of the lesion?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Frontal lobe

      Explanation:

      The patient in the scenario has non-fluent speech, normal comprehension, and impaired repetition, which is indicative of Broca’s dysphasia. This type of speech abnormality is associated with a lesion in the frontal lobe affecting Broca’s area. When responding to a conversation, the signal travels from the ear to Wernicke’s area for comprehension, then along the arcuate fasciculus to Broca’s area for speech coordination. A lesion in the cerebellum, occipital lobe, parietal lobe, or temporal lobe would not be associated with Broca’s dysphasia.

      Understanding the Different Types of Aphasia

      Aphasia is a language disorder that affects a person’s ability to communicate effectively. There are different types of aphasia, each with its own set of symptoms and causes. Wernicke’s aphasia is caused by a lesion in the superior temporal gyrus, which is responsible for forming speech before sending it to Broca’s area. This type of aphasia results in sentences that make no sense, word substitution, and neologisms, but speech remains fluent. On the other hand, Broca’s aphasia is caused by a lesion in the inferior frontal gyrus, resulting in non-fluent, laboured, and halting speech. Repetition is impaired, but comprehension is normal.

      Conduction aphasia is caused by a stroke affecting the arcuate fasiculus, the connection between Wernicke’s and Broca’s area. Speech is fluent, but repetition is poor, and the person is aware of the errors they are making. Comprehension is normal. Global aphasia is the most severe type, affecting all three areas and resulting in severe expressive and receptive aphasia. However, the person may still be able to communicate using gestures.

      Understanding the different types of aphasia is crucial in providing appropriate treatment and support for individuals with this language disorder. It is important to note that dysarthria is different from aphasia and refers to a motor speech disorder.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 16 - A 78-year-old man is undergoing evaluation for a possible cognitive impairment and movement...

    Incorrect

    • A 78-year-old man is undergoing evaluation for a possible cognitive impairment and movement disorder. Various scans have been ordered to aid in the assessment. The scan results are as follows: MRI head shows normal age-related changes, while the SPECT scan reveals decreased dopaminergic activity in the substantia nigra. Based on this information, what is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Parkinson's disease

      Explanation:

      Neurodegenerative diseases are characterized by the progressive loss of neurons in the brain, leading to a range of symptoms. Parkinson’s disease is a common example, which affects the basal ganglia and causes movement disorders such as bradykinesia, muscle rigidity, tremor, and postural instability. Alzheimer’s dementia, on the other hand, is associated with atrophy of the medial temporal lobe and temporoparietal cortex, but does not typically involve movement disorders. Huntington’s disease primarily affects the striatum, leading to a loss of striatal volume and the characteristic symptom of chorea – jerky, uncontrollable limb movements. Multi-system atrophy is a rare condition that affects both the basal ganglia and cerebellum, leading to autonomic dysfunction, ataxia, and Parkinsonism, but cognitive impairment is not typically seen.

      Parkinson’s disease is a progressive neurodegenerative condition that occurs when dopaminergic neurons in the substantia nigra degenerate. This leads to a classic triad of symptoms, including bradykinesia, tremor, and rigidity, which are typically asymmetrical. The disease is more common in men and is usually diagnosed around the age of 65. Bradykinesia is characterized by a poverty of movement, shuffling steps, and difficulty initiating movement. Tremors are most noticeable at rest and typically occur in the thumb and index finger. Rigidity can be either lead pipe or cogwheel, and other characteristic features include mask-like facies, flexed posture, and micrographia. Psychiatric features such as depression, dementia, and sleep disturbances may also occur. Diagnosis is usually clinical, but if there is difficulty differentiating between essential tremor and Parkinson’s disease, 123I‑FP‑CIT single photon emission computed tomography (SPECT) may be considered.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 17 - A 57-year-old woman presents for follow-up. She developed a blistering rash under her...

    Incorrect

    • A 57-year-old woman presents for follow-up. She developed a blistering rash under her left breast that spread to her back about 4 weeks ago, and was diagnosed with shingles. However, she has been experiencing intense shooting pains and tenderness in the affected area since then, despite trying both paracetamol and ibuprofen. What would be the most suitable course of action for managing her symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Amitriptyline

      Explanation:

      The woman is suffering from post-herpetic neuralgia and NICE suggests starting treatment with amitriptyline, duloxetine, gabapentin, or pregabalin.

      Understanding Neuropathic Pain and its Management

      Neuropathic pain is a type of pain that occurs due to damage or disruption of the nervous system. It is a complex condition that is often difficult to treat and does not respond well to standard painkillers. Examples of neuropathic pain include diabetic neuropathy, post-herpetic neuralgia, trigeminal neuralgia, and prolapsed intervertebral disc.

      To manage neuropathic pain, the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) updated their guidance in 2013. The first-line treatment options include amitriptyline, duloxetine, gabapentin, or pregabalin. If the first-line drug treatment does not work, patients may try one of the other three drugs. Unlike standard painkillers, drugs for neuropathic pain are typically used as monotherapy, meaning that if they do not work, patients should switch to a different drug rather than adding another one.

      Tramadol may be used as rescue therapy for exacerbations of neuropathic pain, while topical capsaicin may be used for localized neuropathic pain, such as post-herpetic neuralgia. Pain management clinics may also be useful for patients with resistant problems. However, it is important to note that for some specific conditions, such as trigeminal neuralgia, the guidance may vary, and carbamazepine may be used as a first-line treatment. Overall, understanding neuropathic pain and its management is crucial for improving the quality of life for patients suffering from this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 18 - An 85-year-old woman with hypercholesterolaemia, ischaemic heart disease and hypertension complains to her...

    Incorrect

    • An 85-year-old woman with hypercholesterolaemia, ischaemic heart disease and hypertension complains to her General Practitioner of tingling and numbness in both feet that has been worsening over a period of six months.
      Examination reveals that she has an altered pinprick sensation over both feet and absent ankle reflexes. Her urea and electrolyte levels are normal. Her blood glucose is normal and there is no history of alcohol ingestion. She is, however, taking a number of medications for the secondary presentation of her vascular problems.
      Which of the following medications is most likely to have caused her symptoms?
      Select the SINGLE most appropriate medication from the list below.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Simvastatin

      Explanation:

      Medication Analysis for Peripheral Neuropathy: Simvastatin, Bendroflumethiazide, Clopidogrel, Ramipril, and Spironolactone

      Peripheral neuropathy is a condition characterized by numbness and tingling in the extremities, often accompanied by a loss of ankle reflexes. Statins, such as simvastatin, are a known risk factor for peripheral neuropathy, with onset ranging from the first dose to years of use. Bendroflumethiazide, on the other hand, is not associated with neuropathy but can cause electrolyte imbalances leading to central neurological disturbances. Clopidogrel, an anti-platelet medication, is unlikely to contribute to peripheral neuropathy. Ramipril, a blood-pressure-lowering medication, can cause cough and dizziness but would not lead to peripheral neuropathy. Spironolactone, a diuretic, can cause hyperkalemia but would not lead to peripheral neuropathy. It is important to consider medication use when evaluating patients with peripheral neuropathy symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 19 - A 67-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of generalised weakness that has...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of generalised weakness that has been ongoing for the past six months. During the examination, fasciculation and weakness are observed in both arms with absent reflexes. Additionally, increased tone and exaggerated reflexes are noted in the lower limbs. Sensation is normal and there are no cerebellar signs. Based on these findings, what is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis

      Explanation:

      If you experience fasciculations, it may be a sign of motor neuron disease, specifically amyotrophic lateral sclerosis, which is the most prevalent type.

      Understanding Motor Neuron Disease: Signs and Diagnosis

      Motor neuron disease is a neurological condition that affects both upper and lower motor neurons. It is a rare condition that usually presents after the age of 40 and can manifest in different patterns such as amyotrophic lateral sclerosis, progressive muscular atrophy, and bulbar palsy. The diagnosis of motor neuron disease is based on clinical features, including the presence of fasciculations, the absence of sensory signs, and the combination of upper and lower motor neuron signs. Wasting of the small hand muscles and tibialis anterior is also common.

      Other features that can help diagnose motor neuron disease include the absence of external ocular muscle involvement, the absence of cerebellar signs, and preserved abdominal reflexes. Sphincter dysfunction, if present, is usually a late feature. While vague sensory symptoms may occur early in the disease, sensory signs are typically absent.

      Nerve conduction studies can help exclude a neuropathy, while electromyography shows a reduced number of action potentials with increased amplitude. MRI is usually performed to exclude other conditions such as cervical cord compression and myelopathy. Understanding the signs and diagnosis of motor neuron disease is crucial for early detection and management of the condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 20 - A 51-year-old man comes to see the GP complaining of leg twitching and...

    Incorrect

    • A 51-year-old man comes to see the GP complaining of leg twitching and cramps that have been going on for a year. He also reports difficulty swallowing both liquids and food. The patient has no prior medical history. During the examination, the GP observes tongue fasciculations and hypophonia. Based on these findings, what conditions should be considered for further investigation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Motor neuron disease

      Explanation:

      Bulbar onset motor neuron disease can be identified by the presence of tongue fasciculations.

      While benign fasciculation syndrome can also cause tongue fasciculations, the overall clinical picture suggests a more serious underlying condition. Other factors may be misleading in making a diagnosis.

      Understanding Motor Neuron Disease: Signs and Diagnosis

      Motor neuron disease is a neurological condition that affects both upper and lower motor neurons. It is a rare condition that usually presents after the age of 40 and can manifest in different patterns such as amyotrophic lateral sclerosis, progressive muscular atrophy, and bulbar palsy. The diagnosis of motor neuron disease is based on clinical features, including the presence of fasciculations, the absence of sensory signs, and the combination of upper and lower motor neuron signs. Wasting of the small hand muscles and tibialis anterior is also common.

      Other features that can help diagnose motor neuron disease include the absence of external ocular muscle involvement, the absence of cerebellar signs, and preserved abdominal reflexes. Sphincter dysfunction, if present, is usually a late feature. While vague sensory symptoms may occur early in the disease, sensory signs are typically absent.

      Nerve conduction studies can help exclude a neuropathy, while electromyography shows a reduced number of action potentials with increased amplitude. MRI is usually performed to exclude other conditions such as cervical cord compression and myelopathy. Understanding the signs and diagnosis of motor neuron disease is crucial for early detection and management of the condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 21 - A 67-year-old woman presents to the Memory Clinic with a 9-month history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old woman presents to the Memory Clinic with a 9-month history of cognitive decline. Her daughter mentions that she has difficulty remembering basic tasks and is becoming more confused and forgetful than usual. Her daughter noticed a change in her personality and has caught her leaving the stove on and wandering outside alone on multiple occasions.
      Given the likely diagnosis, which of the following is the most appropriate initial step in this patient’s management?
      Select the SINGLE most appropriate management from the list below.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Stop drugs that may be exacerbating memory problems or confusion (anticholinergics, central nervous system drugs)

      Explanation:

      Managing Frontotemporal Dementia: Treatment Options and Referrals

      Frontotemporal dementia (FTD) is a progressive neurodegenerative disorder that affects behavior, language, and executive function. While there is no cure for FTD, management strategies can help alleviate symptoms and provide support for patients and their families.

      One important step in managing FTD is to stop any drugs that may be exacerbating memory problems or confusion, such as anticholinergics or central nervous system drugs. Multidisciplinary health and social care is also crucial, involving referrals to geriatric medicine, psychiatry, psychology, social work, occupational therapy, speech and language therapy, physiotherapy, and community nursing.

      However, certain treatment options should be avoided or used with caution in FTD patients. Benzodiazepines, for example, are associated with cognitive worsening and fall-related injuries. Anticholinesterase inhibitors, typically used in mild to moderate Alzheimer’s disease, have shown disappointing results in FTD patients who do not have cholinergic loss. Memantine, used in moderate to severe Alzheimer’s disease, has not been shown to be effective in FTD and may even have a detrimental effect on cognition in some individuals.

      Antipsychotics should only be used cautiously and when other options have failed, as FTD patients are at higher risk of extrapyramidal side effects. Overall, a personalized and coordinated approach to FTD management is essential for optimizing patient outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 22 - A 45-year-old man presents to the General Practitioner complaining of leg weakness. Other...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old man presents to the General Practitioner complaining of leg weakness. Other than a recent cold 1 month ago, he has been feeling well and has no significant medical history. On examination, it is noted that he has reduced power in his legs as well as reduced knee and ankle reflexes. His lower peripheral sensation was intact. What investigation can be done to confirm the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lumbar puncture

      Explanation:

      Diagnostic Tests for Guillain-Barré Syndrome

      Guillain–Barré syndrome (GBS) is a rare autoimmune disorder that affects the peripheral nervous system. To confirm a diagnosis of GBS, several diagnostic tests may be performed.

      Lumbar puncture (LP) is often done to confirm GBS and rule out an infection in the meninges. An LP in GBS would show a rise in protein with a normal white-blood-cell count, found in 66% of patients with GBS.

      Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) of the whole spine is unlikely to show GBS-specific abnormalities in the early stages of the disease, as it starts in the peripheral nervous system.

      Blood cultures are not diagnostic of GBS, as the presence of Campylobacter jejuni (often the trigger for GBS) is unlikely to be detected four weeks after the infection.

      Computed tomography (CT) of the head is not useful in diagnosing GBS, as the pathology is in the peripheral nervous system, and an abnormality in the brain would not be seen on imaging.

      Electromyography (EMG) is not typically performed in GBS diagnosis. Instead, nerve conduction studies may be performed, which could show decreased motor nerve-conduction velocity (due to demyelination), prolonged distal motor latency, and increased F-wave latency.

      In conclusion, a combination of clinical presentation, lumbar puncture, and nerve conduction studies can help diagnose Guillain-Barré syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 23 - A 32-year-old woman comes to the clinic reporting several strange experiences. She explains...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman comes to the clinic reporting several strange experiences. She explains feeling as though her environment is not real, almost like a dream. Additionally, she has been informed that she begins to smack her lips, although she has no memory of doing so. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Focal impaired awareness seizure

      Explanation:

      Focal aware seizures do not affect consciousness or awareness, and may involve automatic, repetitive actions such as lip smacking.

      Epilepsy is classified based on three key features: where seizures begin in the brain, level of awareness during a seizure, and other features of seizures. Focal seizures, previously known as partial seizures, start in a specific area on one side of the brain. The level of awareness can vary in focal seizures, and they can be further classified as focal aware, focal impaired awareness, or awareness unknown. Focal seizures can also be motor, non-motor, or have other features such as aura. Generalized seizures involve networks on both sides of the brain at the onset, and consciousness is lost immediately. They can be further subdivided into motor and non-motor types. Unknown onset is used when the origin of the seizure is unknown. Focal to bilateral seizures start on one side of the brain in a specific area before spreading to both lobes and were previously known as secondary generalized seizures.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 24 - You see a 61-year-old man with backache.
    Which ONE of the following may indicate...

    Incorrect

    • You see a 61-year-old man with backache.
      Which ONE of the following may indicate a potentially serious pathology and hence requires referral as an emergency?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Perineal anaesthesia

      Explanation:

      Back pain can have various causes, some of which may require urgent medical attention. Perineal anaesthesia, which involves numbness in the perineal, buttock, and inner thigh areas, is a red flag for back pain and may indicate cauda equina syndrome. This condition involves compression or damage to the tail of the spinal cord and requires urgent magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) for diagnosis. Other symptoms of cauda equina syndrome include severe or progressive back pain, new urinary or fecal incontinence, and lower limb weakness. Unilateral leg pain that is worse than low back pain may suggest sciatica, which can be managed conservatively without red flags. Pain radiating to the buttock on one side may also indicate nerve root irritation and can be managed in primary care if there are no red flags. However, new back pain in patients under 20 or over 55 years old should be taken seriously and may require urgent referral for further investigation. Localized neurological signs may indicate nerve root irritation, but do not necessarily require emergency referral. Red flags for back pain, such as constant, non-mechanical pain, thoracic pain, past history of malignant tumor, prolonged use of corticosteroids, and unexplained weight loss, require thorough work-up and consideration of imaging and specialist referral.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 25 - A 28-year-old female patient arrives at the Emergency Department at 37 weeks gestation...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old female patient arrives at the Emergency Department at 37 weeks gestation with blurred vision and severe headache. She reports upper abdominal pain for the last few hours. Upon examination, her blood pressure is 160/110 mmHg and urinalysis shows proteinuria. While taking her medical history, she experiences a tonic-clonic seizure. What is the appropriate pharmacological treatment to stop this seizure?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Intravenous magnesium sulfate

      Explanation:

      When a seizure is suspected to be caused by eclampsia, the recommended first-line treatment is intravenous magnesium sulfate, given as a loading dose followed by an infusion. In the case of convulsive status epilepticus, intravenous lorazepam is the preferred in-hospital treatment, with phenytoin as an alternative if lorazepam is ineffective. Glucose may be administered if hypoglycemia is a contributing factor. It is not appropriate to administer oral medications to a patient with a decreased level of consciousness. (Adapted from BMJ Best Practice – Pre-eclampsia)

      Understanding Eclampsia and its Treatment

      Eclampsia is a condition that occurs when seizures develop in association with pre-eclampsia, a pregnancy-induced hypertension that is characterized by proteinuria and occurs after 20 weeks of gestation. To prevent seizures in patients with severe pre-eclampsia and treat seizures once they develop, magnesium sulphate is commonly used. However, it is important to note that this medication should only be given once a decision to deliver has been made. In cases of eclampsia, an IV bolus of 4g over 5-10 minutes should be given, followed by an infusion of 1g/hour. During treatment, it is crucial to monitor urine output, reflexes, respiratory rate, and oxygen saturations. Respiratory depression can occur, and calcium gluconate is the first-line treatment for magnesium sulphate-induced respiratory depression. Treatment should continue for 24 hours after the last seizure or delivery, as around 40% of seizures occur post-partum. Additionally, fluid restriction is necessary to avoid the potentially serious consequences of fluid overload.

      In summary, understanding the development of eclampsia and its treatment is crucial in managing this potentially life-threatening condition. Magnesium sulphate is the primary medication used to prevent and treat seizures, but it should only be given once a decision to deliver has been made. Monitoring vital signs and urine output is essential during treatment, and calcium gluconate should be readily available in case of respiratory depression. Finally, fluid restriction is necessary to avoid complications associated with fluid overload.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 26 - An 80-year-old man with a known history of mixed type dementia (Alzheimer's and...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old man with a known history of mixed type dementia (Alzheimer's and vascular) is evaluated in memory clinic due to a recent decline in his memory and cognition. His mini-mental state score is 12 and he is started on memantine. What is the mechanism of action of memantine?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: NMDA antagonist

      Explanation:

      Memantine is an NMDA receptor antagonist and is not a cholinesterase inhibitor like donepezil and rivastigmine. While memantine does act at the serotonin and dopamine receptors, it acts as an antagonist and agonist respectively, rather than the options given.

      Managing Alzheimer’s Disease: Non-Pharmacological and Pharmacological Approaches

      Alzheimer’s disease is a type of dementia that progressively affects the brain and is the most common form of dementia in the UK. To manage this condition, there are both non-pharmacological and pharmacological approaches available.

      Non-pharmacological management involves offering a range of activities that promote wellbeing and are tailored to the patient’s preferences. Group cognitive stimulation therapy is recommended for patients with mild to moderate dementia, while group reminiscence therapy and cognitive rehabilitation are also options to consider.

      Pharmacological management involves the use of medications. The three acetylcholinesterase inhibitors (donepezil, galantamine, and rivastigmine) are options for managing mild to moderate Alzheimer’s disease. Memantine, an NMDA receptor antagonist, is considered a second-line treatment and is recommended for patients with moderate Alzheimer’s who are intolerant of or have a contraindication to acetylcholinesterase inhibitors. It can also be used as an add-on drug to acetylcholinesterase inhibitors for patients with moderate or severe Alzheimer’s or as monotherapy in severe Alzheimer’s.

      When managing non-cognitive symptoms, NICE does not recommend antidepressants for mild to moderate depression in patients with dementia. Antipsychotics should only be used for patients at risk of harming themselves or others or when the agitation, hallucinations, or delusions are causing them severe distress.

      It is important to note that donepezil is relatively contraindicated in patients with bradycardia, and adverse effects may include insomnia. By utilizing both non-pharmacological and pharmacological approaches, patients with Alzheimer’s disease can receive comprehensive care and management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 27 - A 50-year-old male comes to the emergency department at 3am complaining of an...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old male comes to the emergency department at 3am complaining of an excruciating one-sided headache. He reports the pain is unbearable and situated behind his right eye. During the examination, his right eye appears red and watery, with a small pupil, and the patient seems restless. Upon further inquiry, he reveals that he has been experiencing these headaches every night for a few weeks. What medication can be administered for long-term prevention of these headaches?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Verapamil

      Explanation:

      Verapamil is utilized to prevent cluster headaches in the long term, while sumatriptan is employed as an immediate rescue therapy in conjunction with high-flow oxygen. It is important to carefully read the question to ensure the correct medication is selected. Propranolol is used for migraine prevention, while sertraline, an SSRI, is used to treat depression and has a similar mechanism of action to sumatriptan.

      Cluster headaches are a type of headache that is known to be extremely painful. They are called cluster headaches because they tend to occur in clusters that last for several weeks, usually once a year. These headaches are more common in men and smokers, and alcohol and sleep patterns may trigger an attack. The pain typically occurs once or twice a day, lasting between 15 minutes to 2 hours. The pain is intense and sharp, usually around one eye, and is accompanied by redness, lacrimation, lid swelling, and nasal stuffiness. Some patients may also experience miosis and ptosis.

      To manage cluster headaches, 100% oxygen or subcutaneous triptan can be used for acute treatment, with response rates of 80% and 75% respectively within 15 minutes. Verapamil is the drug of choice for prophylaxis, and a tapering dose of prednisolone may also be effective. It is recommended to seek specialist advice from a neurologist if a patient develops cluster headaches, especially with respect to neuroimaging. Some neurologists use the term trigeminal autonomic cephalgia to group a number of conditions including cluster headache, paroxysmal hemicrania, and short-lived unilateral neuralgiform headache with conjunctival injection and tearing (SUNCT). Patients with these conditions should be referred for specialist assessment as specific treatment may be required, such as indomethacin for paroxysmal hemicrania.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 28 - You assess a 26-year-old male patient who presents with complaints of leg weakness....

    Incorrect

    • You assess a 26-year-old male patient who presents with complaints of leg weakness. He reports feeling healthy except for experiencing a recent episode of diarrhea three weeks ago. The patient has no significant medical history. During your examination, you observe decreased strength in his legs, normal sensation, and reduced reflexes in the knee and ankle. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Guillain-Barre syndrome

      Explanation:

      Understanding Guillain-Barre Syndrome: Symptoms and Features

      Guillain-Barre syndrome is a condition that affects the peripheral nervous system and is caused by an immune-mediated demyelination. It is often triggered by an infection, with Campylobacter jejuni being a common culprit. The initial symptoms of the illness include back and leg pain, which is experienced by around 65% of patients. The characteristic feature of Guillain-Barre syndrome is a progressive, symmetrical weakness of all the limbs, with the weakness typically starting in the legs and ascending upwards. Reflexes are reduced or absent, and sensory symptoms tend to be mild, with very few sensory signs.

      Other features of Guillain-Barre syndrome may include a history of gastroenteritis, respiratory muscle weakness, cranial nerve involvement, diplopia, bilateral facial nerve palsy, oropharyngeal weakness, and autonomic involvement. Autonomic involvement may manifest as urinary retention or diarrhea. Less common findings may include papilloedema, which is thought to be secondary to reduced CSF resorption.

      To diagnose Guillain-Barre syndrome, a lumbar puncture may be performed, which can reveal a rise in protein with a normal white blood cell count (albuminocytologic dissociation) in 66% of cases. Nerve conduction studies may also be conducted, which can show decreased motor nerve conduction velocity due to demyelination, prolonged distal motor latency, and increased F wave latency. Understanding the symptoms and features of Guillain-Barre syndrome is crucial for prompt diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 29 - A 55-year-old male patient visits the GP clinic complaining of weakness in his...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old male patient visits the GP clinic complaining of weakness in his right leg for the past three days. During the examination, it was observed that there was a weakness in the right knee flexion, but the knee extension was intact. Additionally, there was a weakness in the dorsal and plantar flexion of the right ankle, as well as the right flexor hallucis longus. The right ankle jerk was lost, but the knee-jerk was intact, and the plantar response was downgoing. Based on the most probable nerve that is damaged in this patient, what are the nerve roots that supply this nerve?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: L4-5, S1-3

      Explanation:

      The sciatic nerve is innervated by spinal nerves L4-5, S1-3. The patient exhibits weakness in all muscle groups below the knee, with an intact knee jerk but weak ankle jerk, indicating damage to the sciatic nerve. The iliohypogastric nerve is supplied by T12-L1, while the genitofemoral nerve is supplied by L1-2.

      Understanding Sciatic Nerve Lesion

      The sciatic nerve is a major nerve in the body that is supplied by the L4-5, S1-3 vertebrae. It divides into two branches, the tibial and common peroneal nerves, which supply the hamstring and adductor muscles. A sciatic nerve lesion can cause paralysis of knee flexion and all movements below the knee, as well as sensory loss below the knee. However, knee jerk reflexes remain intact while ankle and plantar reflexes are lost.

      There are several causes of sciatic nerve lesions, including fractures of the neck of the femur, posterior hip dislocation, and trauma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 30 - A 32-year-old woman presents to the Eye Hospital Emergency Department with a 4-day...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman presents to the Eye Hospital Emergency Department with a 4-day history of blurred vision and left-eye pain worse on movement. On examination, there is decreased visual acuity and impaired colour vision in the left eye and a left relative afferent pupillary defect. Fundoscopy reveals a mildly swollen left optic disc. Intraocular pressure is 20 mmHg in the left eye. Her past medical history includes type II diabetes mellitus and hyperlipidemia. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Optic neuritis

      Explanation:

      Understanding Optic Neuritis: Symptoms and Differential Diagnosis

      Optic neuritis is a condition that can be either idiopathic or secondary to multiple sclerosis. Patients with optic neuritis typically experience periocular pain associated with eye movement, as well as a loss of color vision. Visual field defects, such as a central scotoma, can also occur. If the other eye is uninvolved, there is typically a relative afferent pupillary defect.

      It is important to differentiate optic neuritis from other conditions that can cause similar symptoms. A stroke, for example, would not typically cause eye pain or affect color vision. Acute-angle-closure glaucoma can also be ruled out if intraocular pressure is within the normal range. Cerebral venous thrombosis would usually cause sudden painless loss of vision with severe retinal hemorrhages on fundoscopy. In cases of raised intracranial pressure, papilledema would be seen in both optic discs.

      Overall, understanding the symptoms and differential diagnosis of optic neuritis is crucial for proper diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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