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  • Question 1 - A 35-year-old woman visits the clinic to receive the outcome of her initial...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old woman visits the clinic to receive the outcome of her initial blood tests after discovering she is pregnant for the first time. She moved to the UK from Ukraine two years ago and did not receive the MMR vaccine during her childhood. Her rubella IgM and IgG tests both show negative results. What guidance would you offer her?

      Your Answer: To keep away from people who might have rubella and receive the MMR vaccine in the postnatal period

      Explanation:

      If a woman who is pregnant lacks immunity to rubella, she should receive the MMR vaccine after giving birth.

      In the absence of any indication that this pregnant woman has been exposed to rubella, she should avoid contact with individuals who may have the disease and receive the MMR vaccine after giving birth, as it cannot be administered during pregnancy. There is no recommended treatment for preventing rubella after exposure based on the clinical history. To prevent complications in future pregnancies, it is important to offer her the MMR vaccine.

      Rubella and Pregnancy: Risks, Features, Diagnosis, and Management

      Rubella, also known as German measles, is a viral infection caused by the togavirus. Thanks to the introduction of the MMR vaccine, it is now rare. However, if contracted during pregnancy, there is a risk of congenital rubella syndrome, which can cause serious harm to the fetus. It is important to note that the incubation period is 14-21 days, and individuals are infectious from 7 days before symptoms appear to 4 days after the onset of the rash.

      The risk of damage to the fetus is highest in the first 8-10 weeks of pregnancy, with a risk as high as 90%. However, damage is rare after 16 weeks. Features of congenital rubella syndrome include sensorineural deafness, congenital cataracts, congenital heart disease (e.g. patent ductus arteriosus), growth retardation, hepatosplenomegaly, purpuric skin lesions, ‘salt and pepper’ chorioretinitis, microphthalmia, and cerebral palsy.

      If a suspected case of rubella in pregnancy arises, it should be discussed immediately with the local Health Protection Unit (HPU) as type/timing of investigations may vary. IgM antibodies are raised in women recently exposed to the virus. It should be noted that it is very difficult to distinguish rubella from parvovirus B19 clinically. Therefore, it is important to also check parvovirus B19 serology as there is a 30% risk of transplacental infection, with a 5-10% risk of fetal loss.

      If a woman is tested at any point and no immunity is demonstrated, they should be advised to keep away from people who might have rubella. Non-immune mothers should be offered the MMR vaccination in the post-natal period. However, MMR vaccines should not be administered to women known to be pregnant or attempting to become pregnant.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
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  • Question 2 - Which one of the following statements regarding the NHS Breast Cancer Screening Programme...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following statements regarding the NHS Breast Cancer Screening Programme is accurate?

      Your Answer: It is targeted at women aged 40-70 years

      Correct Answer: Women are screened every 3 years

      Explanation:

      Breast cancer screening is offered to women aged 50-70 years through the NHS Breast Screening Programme. Mammograms are provided every three years, and women over 70 years are encouraged to make their own appointments. While the effectiveness of breast screening is debated, it is estimated that the programme saves around 1,400 lives annually.

      For those with familial breast cancer, NICE guidelines recommend referral if there is a family history of breast cancer with any of the following: diagnosis before age 40, bilateral breast cancer, male breast cancer, ovarian cancer, Jewish ancestry, sarcoma in a relative under 45 years, glioma or childhood adrenal cortical carcinomas, complicated patterns of multiple cancers at a young age, or paternal history of breast cancer with two or more relatives on the father’s side. Women at increased risk due to family history may be offered screening at a younger age. Referral to a breast clinic is recommended for those with a first-degree relative diagnosed with breast cancer before age 40, a first-degree male relative with breast cancer, a first-degree relative with bilateral breast cancer before age 50, two first-degree relatives or one first-degree and one second-degree relative with breast cancer, or a first- or second-degree relative with breast and ovarian cancer.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
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  • Question 3 - You assess a 27-year-old woman who presents with vaginal bleeding and lower abdominal...

    Incorrect

    • You assess a 27-year-old woman who presents with vaginal bleeding and lower abdominal pain. She had an IUD inserted as emergency contraception two weeks ago after having unprotected intercourse 6 days prior. The pain is described as severe dysmenorrhoea and is more pronounced in the right iliac fossa. She has been experiencing continuous bleeding for the past 6 days, whereas her normal menstrual cycle lasts 28 days with 4 days of bleeding. She has no issues with eating or drinking. On examination, her temperature is 36.5ºC, and her blood pressure is 104/68 mmHg. There is mild tenderness in the right iliac fossa with no guarding. Urine dip shows no abnormalities, and urine hCG is negative. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Ectopic pregnancy

      Correct Answer: Side-effects of IUD

      Explanation:

      The woman’s symptoms are most likely caused by the intrauterine device (IUD), which is known to increase the intensity and discomfort of periods. Ectopic pregnancy and miscarriage are unlikely as the pregnancy test was negative. A urinary tract infection is also unlikely as the urine dip was normal. Although appendicitis should be considered, it does not explain the vaginal bleeding, and the woman’s normal appetite, lack of fever, and mild examination results do not support this diagnosis.

      Intrauterine contraceptive devices include copper IUDs and levonorgestrel-releasing IUS. Both are over 99% effective. The IUD prevents fertilization by decreasing sperm motility, while the IUS prevents endometrial proliferation and thickens cervical mucus. Potential problems include heavier periods with IUDs and initial bleeding with the IUS. There is a small risk of uterine perforation, ectopic pregnancy, and infection. New IUS systems, such as Jaydess® and Kyleena®, have smaller frames and less levonorgestrel, resulting in lower serum levels and different rates of amenorrhea.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
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  • Question 4 - A 27-year-old female patient visits the genitourinary medicine clinic seeking treatment for recurring...

    Correct

    • A 27-year-old female patient visits the genitourinary medicine clinic seeking treatment for recurring genital warts. Which virus is the most probable cause of this condition?

      Your Answer: Human papilloma virus 6 & 11

      Explanation:

      Understanding Genital Warts

      Genital warts, also known as condylomata accuminata, are a common reason for visits to genitourinary clinics. These warts are caused by various types of the human papillomavirus (HPV), with types 6 and 11 being the most common culprits. It is important to note that HPV, particularly types 16, 18, and 33, can increase the risk of cervical cancer.

      The warts themselves are small, fleshy protrusions that are typically 2-5mm in size and may be slightly pigmented. They can cause discomfort, itching, and even bleeding. Treatment options for genital warts include topical podophyllum or cryotherapy, depending on the location and type of lesion. Topical agents are generally used for multiple, non-keratinised warts, while solitary, keratinised warts respond better to cryotherapy. Imiquimod, a topical cream, is often used as a second-line treatment. It is important to note that genital warts can be resistant to treatment, and recurrence is common. However, most anogenital HPV infections clear up on their own within 1-2 years without intervention.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
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  • Question 5 - A 27 year old pregnant woman is currently experiencing a prolonged second stage...

    Correct

    • A 27 year old pregnant woman is currently experiencing a prolonged second stage of labour due to cephalopelvic disproportion. The midwife is aware of the potential risks to both the mother and foetus and calls for an obstetrician. The obstetrician performs a perineal incision in a mediolateral direction. What is the name of this procedure?

      Your Answer: Episiotomy

      Explanation:

      The procedure being performed is called an episiotomy, which can be done using various techniques. In this case, the medio-lateral approach is being used, which involves making a cut at either the 7 o’clock or 5 o’clock positions. The main reasons for performing this procedure are twofold. Firstly, it helps to prevent the vagina from tearing during childbirth, particularly in cases where the baby’s head is too large for the mother’s pelvis. By making a controlled incision, the risk of the tear extending towards the anus and surrounding muscles is reduced, which could lead to long-term problems such as fecal incontinence. Secondly, the episiotomy creates more space for the baby to pass through, making delivery easier and safer for both the mother and child.

      Understanding Episiotomy

      Episiotomy is a surgical procedure that involves making an incision in the posterior wall of the vagina and perineum during the second stage of labor. This procedure is done to make it easier for the baby to pass through the birth canal. The incision is made in the area between the vagina and anus, and it can be either midline or mediolateral.

      Episiotomy is usually performed when the baby is in distress, and there is a need to speed up the delivery process. It can also be done to prevent tearing of the perineum, which can be more difficult to repair than an episiotomy. However, the procedure is not without risks, and it can lead to complications such as pain, infection, and bleeding.

      In recent years, there has been a decline in the use of episiotomy, as studies have shown that it does not necessarily reduce the risk of tearing or improve healing time. Many healthcare providers now only perform episiotomy when it is medically necessary. It is important for expectant mothers to discuss the use of episiotomy with their healthcare provider and understand the risks and benefits before making a decision.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
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  • Question 6 - A 48-year-old woman comes to the clinic for advice on contraception. She has...

    Correct

    • A 48-year-old woman comes to the clinic for advice on contraception. She has started a new relationship but is uncertain if she needs contraception as she suspects she may be going through menopause. She reports experiencing hot flashes and her last period was 9 months ago. What is the best course of action to recommend?

      Your Answer: Contraception is needed until 12 months after her last period

      Explanation:

      Contraception is still necessary after menopause. Women who are over 50 years old should use contraception for at least 12 months after their last period, while those under 50 years old should use it for at least 24 months after their last period.

      Understanding Menopause and Contraception

      Menopause is a natural biological process that marks the end of a woman’s reproductive years. On average, women in the UK experience menopause at the age of 51. However, prior to menopause, women may experience a period known as the climacteric. During this time, ovarian function starts to decline, and women may experience symptoms such as hot flashes, mood swings, and vaginal dryness.

      It is important for women to understand that they can still become pregnant during the climacteric period. Therefore, it is recommended to use effective contraception until a certain period of time has passed. Women over the age of 50 should use contraception for 12 months after their last period, while women under the age of 50 should use contraception for 24 months after their last period. By understanding menopause and the importance of contraception during the climacteric period, women can make informed decisions about their reproductive health.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
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  • Question 7 - A woman who is 32 weeks pregnant is discovered to have an amniotic...

    Correct

    • A woman who is 32 weeks pregnant is discovered to have an amniotic fluid volume of 440 ml. What is not included in the list of possible diagnoses?

      Your Answer: Tracheo-oesophageal fistula

      Explanation:

      Oligohydramnios is indicated by an amniotic fluid volume of 440ml, while polyhydramnios is associated with tracheo-oesophageal fistula.

      Oligohydramnios is a condition characterized by a decrease in the amount of amniotic fluid present in the womb. The definition of oligohydramnios varies, but it is generally considered to be present when there is less than 500ml of amniotic fluid at 32-36 weeks of gestation or an amniotic fluid index (AFI) that falls below the 5th percentile.

      There are several potential causes of oligohydramnios, including premature rupture of membranes, Potter sequence, bilateral renal agenesis with pulmonary hypoplasia, intrauterine growth restriction, post-term gestation, and pre-eclampsia. These conditions can all contribute to a reduction in the amount of amniotic fluid present in the womb, which can have significant implications for fetal development and health. It is important for healthcare providers to monitor amniotic fluid levels and identify any potential causes of oligohydramnios in order to provide appropriate care and support for both the mother and the developing fetus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
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  • Question 8 - A 21-year-old young woman attends surgery concerned about painful periods. She reports normal...

    Correct

    • A 21-year-old young woman attends surgery concerned about painful periods. She reports normal blood loss and a regular cycle; she is not sexually active. Pelvic examination is normal.
      Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment choice?

      Your Answer: Mefenamic acid

      Explanation:

      According to NICE guidelines, non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) like ibuprofen, naproxen, or mefenamic acid should be the first-line treatment for primary dysmenorrhoea, unless contraindicated. Combined oral contraceptives (COCs) containing ethinylestradiol and norethisterone, norgestimate, or levonorgestrel are also recommended for women who do not wish to conceive. However, for a non-sexually active woman, a non-hormonal drug would be more appropriate. Paracetamol can be prescribed if NSAIDs are not tolerated or contraindicated. Tranexamic acid is useful for menorrhagia, not dysmenorrhoea. The diagnosis of primary dysmenorrhoea is likely if menstrual pain starts 6-12 months after menarche, before menstruation, and lasts up to 72 hours, with non-gynaecological symptoms present, and a normal pelvic examination.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
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  • Question 9 - A 35-year-old woman experiences hypertension during the third trimester of her initial pregnancy....

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman experiences hypertension during the third trimester of her initial pregnancy. Upon conducting a 24-hour urine collection, it is revealed that she has 0.5g protein. Which of the following complications is the least commonly associated with this condition?

      Your Answer: Fetal intrauterine growth retardation

      Correct Answer: Transverse myelitis

      Explanation:

      Transverse myelitis is not linked to pre-eclampsia.

      Pre-eclampsia is a condition that occurs during pregnancy and is characterized by high blood pressure, proteinuria, and edema. It can lead to complications such as eclampsia, neurological issues, fetal growth problems, liver involvement, and cardiac failure. Severe pre-eclampsia is marked by hypertension, proteinuria, headache, visual disturbances, and other symptoms. Risk factors for pre-eclampsia include hypertension in a previous pregnancy, chronic kidney disease, autoimmune disease, diabetes, chronic hypertension, first pregnancy, and age over 40. Aspirin may be recommended for women with high or moderate risk factors. Treatment involves emergency assessment, admission for observation, and medication such as labetalol, nifedipine, or hydralazine. Delivery of the baby is the most important step in management, with timing depending on the individual case.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
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  • Question 10 - A 16-year-old girl comes to the clinic complaining of painful periods. She has...

    Correct

    • A 16-year-old girl comes to the clinic complaining of painful periods. She has been experiencing this for the past two years and reports a normal amount of blood loss. Her periods are regular and there is no abnormal bleeding. She is not sexually active yet. What is the recommended initial treatment?

      Your Answer: Ibuprofen

      Explanation:

      First-line treatment for dysmenorrhoea involves NSAIDs, which work by inhibiting the synthesis of prostaglandins, a major contributor to menstrual pain.

      Dysmenorrhoea is a condition where women experience excessive pain during their menstrual period. There are two types of dysmenorrhoea: primary and secondary. Primary dysmenorrhoea affects up to 50% of menstruating women and is not caused by any underlying pelvic pathology. It usually appears within 1-2 years of the menarche and is thought to be partially caused by excessive endometrial prostaglandin production. Symptoms include suprapubic cramping pains that may radiate to the back or down the thigh, and pain typically starts just before or within a few hours of the period starting. NSAIDs such as mefenamic acid and ibuprofen are effective in up to 80% of women, and combined oral contraceptive pills are used second line for management.

      Secondary dysmenorrhoea, on the other hand, typically develops many years after the menarche and is caused by an underlying pathology. The pain usually starts 3-4 days before the onset of the period. Causes of secondary dysmenorrhoea include endometriosis, adenomyosis, pelvic inflammatory disease, intrauterine devices, and fibroids. Clinical Knowledge Summaries recommend referring all patients with secondary dysmenorrhoea to gynaecology for investigation. It is important to note that the intrauterine system (Mirena) may help dysmenorrhoea, but this only applies to normal copper coils.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
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  • Question 11 - Which of the following is most commonly linked to male infertility? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is most commonly linked to male infertility?

      Your Answer: Hydroceles

      Correct Answer: Varicoceles

      Explanation:

      Infertility may be linked to varicoceles.

      Understanding Varicocele: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Management

      Varicocele is a medical condition characterized by the abnormal enlargement of the veins in the testicles. Although it is often asymptomatic, it can lead to infertility, making it an important condition to address. Varicoceles are more commonly found on the left side of the testicles, with over 80% of cases occurring on this side. The condition is often described as a bag of worms due to the appearance of the affected veins.

      Diagnosis of varicocele is typically done through ultrasound with Doppler studies. This allows doctors to visualize the affected veins and determine the extent of the condition. While conservative management is often recommended, surgery may be necessary if the patient experiences pain or discomfort. However, there is ongoing debate regarding the effectiveness of surgery in treating infertility associated with varicocele.

      Overall, understanding varicocele is important for men who may be experiencing infertility or other symptoms related to the condition. With proper diagnosis and management, it is possible to address the issue and improve overall reproductive health.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
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  • Question 12 - A 23 week pregnant woman presents with offensive vaginal discharge and is diagnosed...

    Correct

    • A 23 week pregnant woman presents with offensive vaginal discharge and is diagnosed with bacterial vaginosis (BV) based on high vaginal swab results. She has no known drug allergies and is in good health otherwise. What treatment options are recommended for her?

      Your Answer: Metronidazole

      Explanation:

      Bacterial vaginosis (BV) is a common vaginal infection that affects many women, with up to 50% of cases being asymptomatic. The main symptom of BV is a fishy-smelling discharge from the vagina.

      In pregnant women, BV can lead to late miscarriage and preterm delivery if left untreated. Therefore, all pregnant women who experience symptoms should receive treatment. This typically involves taking oral metronidazole twice a day for 5-7 days, as a single 2-gram dose is not recommended during pregnancy.

      However, for asymptomatic pregnant women with BV, treatment is considered on a case-by-case basis. This is because research suggests that identifying and treating asymptomatic cases does not necessarily reduce the risk of preterm birth. This information is based on guidelines from NICE CKS.

      Bacterial vaginosis (BV) is a condition where there is an overgrowth of anaerobic organisms, particularly Gardnerella vaginalis, in the vagina. This leads to a decrease in the amount of lactobacilli, which produce lactic acid, resulting in an increase in vaginal pH. BV is not a sexually transmitted infection, but it is commonly seen in sexually active women. Symptoms include a fishy-smelling vaginal discharge, although some women may not experience any symptoms at all. Diagnosis is made using Amsel’s criteria, which includes the presence of thin, white discharge, clue cells on microscopy, a vaginal pH greater than 4.5, and a positive whiff test. Treatment involves oral metronidazole for 5-7 days, with a cure rate of 70-80%. However, relapse rates are high, with over 50% of women experiencing a recurrence within 3 months. Topical metronidazole or clindamycin may be used as alternatives.

      Bacterial vaginosis during pregnancy can increase the risk of preterm labor, low birth weight, chorioamnionitis, and late miscarriage. It was previously recommended to avoid oral metronidazole in the first trimester and use topical clindamycin instead. However, recent guidelines suggest that oral metronidazole can be used throughout pregnancy. The British National Formulary (BNF) still advises against using high-dose metronidazole regimes. Clue cells, which are vaginal epithelial cells covered with bacteria, can be seen on microscopy in women with BV.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
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  • Question 13 - You are having a conversation about contraceptive options with a 17-year-old girl. What...

    Correct

    • You are having a conversation about contraceptive options with a 17-year-old girl. What would be the most appropriate method to suggest?

      Your Answer: Progestogen-only implant (Nexplanon)

      Explanation:

      When it comes to providing contraception to young people, there are legal and ethical considerations to take into account. In the UK, the age of consent for sexual activity is 16 years, but practitioners may still offer advice and contraception to young people they deem competent. The Fraser Guidelines are often used to assess a young person’s competence. Children under the age of 13 are considered unable to consent to sexual intercourse, and consultations regarding this age group should trigger child protection measures automatically.

      It’s important to advise young people to have STI tests 2 and 12 weeks after an incident of unprotected sexual intercourse. Long-acting reversible contraceptive methods (LARCs) are often the best choice for young people, as they may be less reliable in remembering to take medication. However, there are concerns about the effect of progesterone-only injections (Depo-provera) on bone mineral density, and the UKMEC category of the IUS and IUD is 2 for women under the age of 20 years, meaning they may not be the best choice. The progesterone-only implant (Nexplanon) is therefore the LARC of choice for young people.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
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  • Question 14 - A 42-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner for investigation as she and...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner for investigation as she and her male partner have not become pregnant after 24 months of trying to conceive. Her ovarian reserve is normal and pelvic examination is normal. She has no other medical problems and is not on any medication. Her male partner has also had normal investigations and has had no other sexual partners.
      What investigation should be arranged for this patient in primary care?

      Your Answer: Screen for anti-sperm antibodies

      Correct Answer: Test for chlamydia

      Explanation:

      Investigations for Male Infertility: Which Tests are Necessary?

      Testing for chlamydia is an important part of the initial screening investigations for primary infertility, according to The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) guidance. This test should be carried out in primary care prior to referring the couple to secondary care fertility services. On the other hand, screening for gonorrhoea does not form part of these investigations, as it does not tend to affect a patient’s ability to conceive and does not usually remain asymptomatic in affected individuals. Anti-sperm antibodies can be used in secondary care as part of the investigation for couples who are struggling to conceive. However, it would not usually be done in primary care. The NICE guidance on fertility management in men advises that couples who have been trying to conceive after one year of regular intercourse should be referred to fertility services. Watching and waiting would not be appropriate in this situation, as the couple has been trying to conceive for 24 months. Finally, a testicular biopsy is indicated for investigation of potential testicular carcinoma or for sperm retrieval for in-vitro fertilisation procedures. This patient has a normal testicular examination and there is no indication for a testicular biopsy at this point.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
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  • Question 15 - Which one of the following statements regarding endometriosis is false? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following statements regarding endometriosis is false?

      Your Answer: Around 10% of women have a degree of endometriosis

      Correct Answer: Laparoscopic findings correlate well with the severity of symptoms and can guide treatment

      Explanation:

      Understanding Endometriosis

      Endometriosis is a common condition where endometrial tissue grows outside of the uterus. It affects around 10% of women of reproductive age and can cause chronic pelvic pain, painful periods, painful intercourse, and subfertility. Other symptoms may include urinary problems and painful bowel movements. Diagnosis is typically made through laparoscopy, and treatment options depend on the severity of symptoms.

      First-line treatments for symptomatic relief include NSAIDs and/or paracetamol. If these do not help, hormonal treatments such as the combined oral contraceptive pill or progestogens may be tried. If symptoms persist or fertility is a priority, referral to secondary care may be necessary. Secondary treatments may include GnRH analogues or surgery. For women trying to conceive, laparoscopic excision or ablation of endometriosis plus adhesiolysis is recommended, as well as ovarian cystectomy for endometriomas.

      It is important to note that there is poor correlation between laparoscopic findings and severity of symptoms, and that there is little role for investigation in primary care. If symptoms are significant, referral for a definitive diagnosis is recommended.

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      • Reproductive Medicine
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  • Question 16 - A 28-year-old woman visits her doctor after missing her progestogen-only pill, Noriday, this...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman visits her doctor after missing her progestogen-only pill, Noriday, this morning. She usually takes it at 9am, but it's now 12:30 pm. What guidance should the doctor provide?

      Your Answer: Take missed pill as soon as possible and no further action needed

      Correct Answer: Take missed pill as soon as possible and advise condom use until pill taking re-established for 48 hours

      Explanation:

      Progestogen Only Pill: What to Do When You Miss a Pill

      The progestogen only pill (POP) has simpler rules for missed pills compared to the combined oral contraceptive pill. It is important to note that the rules for the two types of pills should not be confused. The traditional POPs (Micronor, Noriday, Nogeston, Femulen) and Cerazette (desogestrel) have the following guidelines for missed pills:

      – If the pill is less than 3 hours late, no action is required, and you can continue taking the pill as normal.
      – If the pill is more than 3 hours late (i.e., more than 27 hours since the last pill was taken), action is needed.
      – If the pill is less than 12 hours late, no action is required, and you can continue taking the pill as normal.
      – If the pill is more than 12 hours late (i.e., more than 36 hours since the last pill was taken), action is needed.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
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  • Question 17 - A 32-year-old woman presents to the gynaecology clinic with her partner, reporting 2...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old woman presents to the gynaecology clinic with her partner, reporting 2 years of unsuccessful attempts at conceiving. Neither she nor her partner have any children from previous relationships. The patient has a medical history of polycystic ovarian syndrome. On examination, her vital signs are within normal limits and her BMI is 24 kg/m². What is the recommended initial approach to enhance fertility?

      Your Answer: Clomifene

      Explanation:

      Clomifene is the recommended first-line treatment for infertility in patients with PCOS. This patient has been diagnosed with PCOS, which can cause infertility and other symptoms such as hirsutism. Clomifene works by inducing ovulation and has been shown to improve fertility outcomes in these patients.

      Goserelin is not a suitable treatment for infertility in PCOS patients. It is a gonadotrophin-releasing hormone agonist used for conditions such as prostate carcinoma, endometriosis, and dysfunctional uterine bleeding. In-vitro fertilisation is not typically the first option for improving fertility in PCOS patients and is usually considered later on.

      While metformin is an important drug in the management of PCOS, it is not the primary treatment for improving fertility. It is often prescribed in combination with clomifene to address metabolic issues associated with PCOS. However, clomifene is the key drug for improving overall fertility outcomes in these patients.

      Managing Polycystic Ovarian Syndrome

      Polycystic ovarian syndrome (PCOS) is a condition that affects a significant percentage of women of reproductive age. The exact cause of PCOS is not fully understood, but it is associated with high levels of luteinizing hormone and hyperinsulinemia. Management of PCOS is complex and varies depending on the individual’s symptoms. Weight reduction is often recommended, and a combined oral contraceptive pill may be used to regulate menstrual cycles and manage hirsutism and acne. If these symptoms do not respond to the pill, topical eflornithine or medications like spironolactone, flutamide, and finasteride may be used under specialist supervision.

      Infertility is another common issue associated with PCOS. Weight reduction is recommended, and the management of infertility should be supervised by a specialist. There is ongoing debate about the most effective treatment for infertility in patients with PCOS. Clomifene is often used, but there is a potential risk of multiple pregnancies with anti-oestrogen therapies like clomifene. Metformin is also used, either alone or in combination with clomifene, particularly in patients who are obese. Gonadotrophins may also be used to stimulate ovulation. The Royal College of Obstetricians and Gynaecologists (RCOG) published an opinion paper in 2008 and concluded that on current evidence, metformin is not a first-line treatment of choice in the management of PCOS.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
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  • Question 18 - At her booking appointment, a 29-year-old pregnant woman reports a history of pre-eclampsia...

    Correct

    • At her booking appointment, a 29-year-old pregnant woman reports a history of pre-eclampsia in her previous pregnancy. To decrease the risk of intrauterine growth retardation, what medication should be initiated at 12-14 weeks gestation?

      Your Answer: Low dose aspirin

      Explanation:

      What is the effectiveness of secondary prevention measures for women with pre-eclampsia? A-level research has shown that low-dose aspirin, when started at 12-14 weeks’ gestation, is more effective than a placebo in reducing the occurrence of pre-eclampsia in high-risk women. This treatment also reduces perinatal mortality and the risk of babies being born small for gestational age. While low molecular weight heparin may reduce placental insufficiency in pre-eclampsia, there is currently a lack of long-term safety studies. Labetalol and methyldopa are commonly used antihypertensive drugs for acute management of pre-eclampsia, but they are not given prophylactically and do not reduce intrauterine growth retardation. Unfractionated heparin has also not been proven to prevent the development of uteroplacental insufficiency.

      Hypertension during pregnancy is a common occurrence that requires careful management. In normal pregnancies, blood pressure tends to decrease in the first trimester and then gradually increase to pre-pregnancy levels by term. However, in cases of hypertension during pregnancy, the systolic blood pressure is usually above 140 mmHg or the diastolic blood pressure is above 90 mmHg. Additionally, an increase of more than 30 mmHg systolic or 15 mmHg diastolic from the initial readings may also indicate hypertension.

      There are three categories of hypertension during pregnancy: pre-existing hypertension, pregnancy-induced hypertension (PIH), and pre-eclampsia. Pre-existing hypertension refers to a history of hypertension before pregnancy or elevated blood pressure before 20 weeks gestation. PIH occurs in the second half of pregnancy and resolves after birth. Pre-eclampsia is characterized by hypertension and proteinuria, and may also involve edema.

      The management of hypertension during pregnancy involves the use of antihypertensive medications such as labetalol, nifedipine, and hydralazine. In cases of pre-existing hypertension, ACE inhibitors and angiotensin II receptor blockers should be stopped immediately and alternative medications should be prescribed. Women who are at high risk of developing pre-eclampsia should take aspirin from 12 weeks until the birth of the baby. It is important to carefully monitor blood pressure and proteinuria levels during pregnancy to ensure the health of both the mother and the baby.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
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  • Question 19 - A woman who is 32 weeks pregnant has been diagnosed with syphilis during...

    Incorrect

    • A woman who is 32 weeks pregnant has been diagnosed with syphilis during her routine booking visit bloods. What is the best course of action for management?

      Your Answer: IM human normal immunoglobulin (HNIG)

      Correct Answer: IM benzathine penicillin G

      Explanation:

      Management of Syphilis

      Syphilis can be effectively managed with intramuscular benzathine penicillin as the first-line treatment. In cases where penicillin cannot be used, doxycycline may be used as an alternative. After treatment, nontreponemal titres such as rapid plasma reagin (RPR) or Venereal Disease Research Laboratory (VDRL) should be monitored to assess the response. A fourfold decline in titres is often considered an adequate response to treatment.

      It is important to note that the Jarisch-Herxheimer reaction may occur following treatment. This reaction is characterized by fever, rash, and tachycardia after the first dose of antibiotic. Unlike anaphylaxis, there is no wheezing or hypotension. The reaction is thought to be due to the release of endotoxins following bacterial death and typically occurs within a few hours of treatment. However, no treatment is needed other than antipyretics if required.

      In summary, the management of syphilis involves the use of intramuscular benzathine penicillin or doxycycline as an alternative. Nontreponemal titres should be monitored after treatment, and the Jarisch-Herxheimer reaction may occur but does not require treatment unless symptomatic.

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      • Reproductive Medicine
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  • Question 20 - A 30-year-old woman presents with a history of heavy periods since menarche at...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old woman presents with a history of heavy periods since menarche at the age of 13. She has never sought medical attention for this issue but has now decided to address it. Her menstrual cycle is regular with a 28-day cycle, and she experiences heavy bleeding for 7 days, with 4 days of blood clots and flooding. The patient has never been pregnant and does not plan to have children. She is currently in a sexually active relationship and uses condoms for contraception. There is no significant medical or family history. Blood tests and a pelvic ultrasound scan are normal. What is the most appropriate management plan for this patient?

      Your Answer: Combined oral contraceptive pill

      Correct Answer: Insertion of intra-uterine system (IUS)

      Explanation:

      The recommended first-line treatment for menorrhagia is the intra-uterine system (IUS), which has a high success rate in stopping bleeding and only requires one insertion procedure. Additionally, it provides reliable contraception. Conversely, the copper coil may exacerbate menorrhagia symptoms. While medication such as the progesterone-only pill or combined oral contraceptive pill can be used, they are not the first choice. It would be an extreme measure to refer a woman of child-bearing age for a hysterectomy, especially when there are less invasive and reversible options available to treat menorrhagia, even if the patient expresses no desire for children.

      Managing Heavy Menstrual Bleeding

      Heavy menstrual bleeding, also known as menorrhagia, is a condition where a woman experiences excessive blood loss during her menstrual cycle. While it was previously defined as total blood loss of over 80 ml per cycle, the management of menorrhagia now depends on the woman’s perception of what is excessive. In the past, hysterectomy was a common treatment for heavy periods, but the approach has changed significantly since the 1990s.

      To manage menorrhagia, a full blood count should be performed in all women. If symptoms suggest a structural or histological abnormality, a routine transvaginal ultrasound scan should be arranged. For women who do not require contraception, mefenamic acid or tranexamic acid can be used. If there is no improvement, other drugs can be tried while awaiting referral.

      For women who require contraception, options include the intrauterine system (Mirena), combined oral contraceptive pill, and long-acting progestogens. Norethisterone can also be used as a short-term option to rapidly stop heavy menstrual bleeding. The flowchart below shows the management of menorrhagia.

      [Insert flowchart here]

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      • Reproductive Medicine
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  • Question 21 - A 27-year-old female patient who is 10-weeks pregnant visits the GP clinic with...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old female patient who is 10-weeks pregnant visits the GP clinic with a painless rash on her left leg that has been expanding outwardly in a circular pattern. She mentions that the rash appeared 3 weeks after returning from a hiking trip in the western part of the United States. Lyme disease is confirmed through serological testing, but doxycycline cannot be prescribed due to her pregnancy. What is the best alternative treatment option for this patient?

      Your Answer: Minocycline

      Correct Answer: Amoxicillin

      Explanation:

      Understanding Lyme Disease

      Lyme disease is a bacterial infection caused by Borrelia burgdorferi and is transmitted through tick bites. The early symptoms of Lyme disease include erythema migrans, a characteristic bulls-eye rash that appears at the site of the tick bite. This rash is painless, slowly increases in size, and can be more than 5 cm in diameter. Other early symptoms include headache, lethargy, fever, and joint pain.

      If erythema migrans is present, Lyme disease can be diagnosed clinically, and antibiotics should be started immediately. The first-line test for Lyme disease is an enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA) to detect antibodies to Borrelia burgdorferi. If the ELISA is negative but Lyme disease is still suspected, it should be repeated 4-6 weeks later. If Lyme disease is suspected in patients who have had symptoms for 12 weeks or more, an immunoblot test should be done.

      Tick bites can cause significant anxiety, but routine antibiotic treatment is not recommended by NICE. If the tick is still present, it should be removed using fine-tipped tweezers, and the area should be washed. In cases of suspected or confirmed Lyme disease, doxycycline is the preferred treatment for early disease, while ceftriaxone is used for disseminated disease. A Jarisch-Herxheimer reaction may occur after initiating therapy, which can cause fever, rash, and tachycardia.

      In summary, Lyme disease is a bacterial infection transmitted through tick bites. Early symptoms include erythema migrans, headache, lethargy, fever, and joint pain. Diagnosis is made through clinical presentation and ELISA testing, and treatment involves antibiotics. Tick bites do not require routine antibiotic treatment, and ticks should be removed using fine-tipped tweezers.

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      • Reproductive Medicine
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  • Question 22 - A 35-year-old woman presents with postcoital bleeding and intermenstrual bleeding. She reports a...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman presents with postcoital bleeding and intermenstrual bleeding. She reports a history of chlamydia infection in her early 20s but has been in a monogamous relationship for the past five years. Pelvic examination six months ago was normal, with an unremarkable and easily located cervix. However, the sample was positive for human papillomavirus (HPV) and demonstrates high-grade dyskaryosis.
      Which of the following is the most appropriate diagnostic test?

      Your Answer: Colposcopy and biopsy within four weeks

      Correct Answer: Colposcopy and biopsy within two weeks

      Explanation:

      Understanding Cervical Cancer and Abnormal Smear Test Results

      Cervical cancer is a common malignancy in women worldwide and can be detected through routine cervical screening. An abnormal Papanicolaou (‘smear’) test result is the most common finding in patients with cervical cancer. Physical symptoms may include abnormal vaginal bleeding, vaginal discomfort, malodorous discharge, and dysuria. Referral for colposcopy and biopsy should be made within two weeks for patients with symptoms of cervical cancer. Women with a cervical cytology result of moderate, high-grade dyskaryosis, suspected invasive cancer or glandular neoplasia should also be referred for colposcopy within two weeks. Cervical cauterisation with silver nitrate is not associated with the development of cervical cancer and is used to treat cervical ectropion. Endocervical swab for Chlamydia spp. may be necessary for women presenting with mucopurulent cervicitis. Understanding these guidelines and symptoms can help with early detection and treatment of cervical cancer.

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      • Reproductive Medicine
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  • Question 23 - A 38-year-old woman presents with menorrhagia and is diagnosed with a 1.5 cm...

    Correct

    • A 38-year-old woman presents with menorrhagia and is diagnosed with a 1.5 cm uterine fibroid that is not distorting the uterine cavity. She has two children and desires ongoing contraception, but is currently relying solely on condoms. What is the recommended initial treatment for her menorrhagia?

      Your Answer: Intrauterine system

      Explanation:

      Medical treatment can be attempted for uterine fibroids that are smaller than 3 cm and do not distort the uterine cavity. This may include options such as an intrauterine system, tranexamic acid, or COCP. The NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries suggest starting with an intrauterine system, which can also serve as a form of contraception.

      Understanding Uterine Fibroids

      Uterine fibroids are non-cancerous growths that develop in the uterus. They are more common in black women and are thought to occur in around 20% of white women in their later reproductive years. Fibroids are usually asymptomatic, but they can cause menorrhagia, which can lead to iron-deficiency anaemia. Other symptoms include lower abdominal pain, bloating, and urinary symptoms. Fibroids may also cause subfertility.

      Diagnosis is usually made through transvaginal ultrasound. Asymptomatic fibroids do not require treatment, but periodic monitoring is recommended. Menorrhagia secondary to fibroids can be managed with various treatments, including the levonorgestrel intrauterine system, NSAIDs, tranexamic acid, and hormonal therapies.

      Medical treatment to shrink or remove fibroids may include GnRH agonists or ulipristal acetate, although the latter is not currently recommended due to concerns about liver toxicity. Surgical options include myomectomy, hysteroscopic endometrial ablation, hysterectomy, and uterine artery embolization.

      Fibroids generally regress after menopause, but complications such as subfertility and iron-deficiency anaemia can occur. Red degeneration, which is haemorrhage into the tumour, is a common complication during pregnancy.

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  • Question 24 - A 7-year-old boy presents to the emergency department with a non-painful, partially rigid...

    Incorrect

    • A 7-year-old boy presents to the emergency department with a non-painful, partially rigid erection. He mentions noticing it after playing at school in the morning but did not inform anyone. His mother noticed the erection while helping him get ready for his evening soccer practice. The child has no medical or surgical history and is not on any regular medications. What is the initial investigation that should be performed in this case?

      Your Answer: Ultrasound of testes

      Correct Answer: Cavernosal blood gas

      Explanation:

      Cavernosal blood gas analysis is a crucial investigation for patients presenting with priapism. In this case, the patient has a partially erect, non-painful penis that has persisted for over 4 hours, indicating non-ischaemic priapism. This type of priapism is caused by large volume arterial inflow to the penis from trauma or congenital malformation. Confirming whether the priapism is ischaemic or non-ischaemic through cavernosal blood gas analysis is essential for appropriate management. Ischaemic priapism is a medical emergency that requires aspiration of blood from the cavernosa, while non-ischaemic priapism can be managed with observation initially. In paediatric patients, a doppler ultrasound may be a better alternative to cavernosal blood gases due to the potential trauma of the procedure.

      A CT pelvis is not recommended in this case as it would expose the child to unnecessary radiation. Instead, a doppler ultrasound can be used to investigate the arterial/venous blood flow in the penis. A clotting screen may be useful if the patient has a history of bleeding problems or a family history of haemoglobinopathies. However, it should not delay cavernosal blood gas analysis as it is crucial to confirm the type of priapism. Testicular ultrasound is not a useful imaging modality for investigating priapism. If an imaging modality is required to assess penile blood flow, a doppler ultrasound is the preferred option.

      Understanding Priapism: Causes, Symptoms, and Management

      Priapism is a medical condition characterized by a persistent penile erection that lasts longer than four hours and is not associated with sexual stimulation. There are two types of priapism: ischaemic and non-ischaemic, each with a different pathophysiology. Ischaemic priapism is caused by impaired vasorelaxation, resulting in reduced vascular outflow and trapping of de-oxygenated blood within the corpus cavernosa. Non-ischaemic priapism, on the other hand, is due to high arterial inflow, often caused by fistula formation due to congenital or traumatic mechanisms.

      Priapism can affect individuals of all ages, with a bimodal distribution of age at presentation, with peaks between 5-10 years and 20-50 years of age. The incidence of priapism has been estimated at up to 5.34 per 100,000 patient-years. There are various causes of priapism, including idiopathic, sickle cell disease or other haemoglobinopathies, erectile dysfunction medication, trauma, and drug use (both prescribed and recreational).

      Patients with priapism typically present acutely with a persistent erection lasting over four hours and pain localized to the penis. A history of haemoglobinopathy or medication use may also be present. Cavernosal blood gas analysis and Doppler or duplex ultrasonography can be used to differentiate between ischaemic and non-ischaemic priapism and assess blood flow within the penis. Treatment for ischaemic priapism is a medical emergency and includes aspiration of blood from the cavernosa, injection of a saline flush, and intracavernosal injection of a vasoconstrictive agent. Non-ischaemic priapism, on the other hand, is not a medical emergency and is usually observed as a first-line option.

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  • Question 25 - A 28-year-old female visits her GP with complaints of recurring lower abdominal pain....

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old female visits her GP with complaints of recurring lower abdominal pain. The pain occurs every month, around midcycle, and lasts for 1-2 days. She experiences a cramping sensation and there is no associated vaginal bleeding. She reports feeling well otherwise during these episodes and denies any gastrointestinal issues or changes to her menstrual cycle. Physical examination today is unremarkable. What is the probable cause of her symptoms?

      Your Answer: Mittelschmerz

      Explanation:

      If a woman experiences pelvic pain during ovulation but does not have any vaginal bleeding, it may be Mittelschmerz. This type of pain is typically felt in the middle of the menstrual cycle. It is unlikely that a young patient with normal examination and intermittent abdominal pain during ovulation has ovarian malignancy. Additionally, there are no symptoms of hirsutism or changes to periods that suggest PCOS, nor are there any gastrointestinal symptoms that suggest IBS.

      Understanding Mittelschmerz: Abdominal Pain Associated with Ovulation

      Mittelschmerz, which translates to middle pain, is a type of abdominal pain that occurs during ovulation in approximately 20% of women. The exact cause of this mid-cycle pain is not fully understood, but there are several theories. One theory suggests that the pain is caused by the leakage of follicular fluid containing prostaglandins during ovulation. Another theory suggests that the growth of the follicle stretches the surface of the ovary, leading to pain.

      The pain associated with Mittelschmerz typically presents suddenly in either iliac fossa and then spreads to the pelvic area. The pain is usually not severe and can last from minutes to hours. It is self-limiting and resolves within 24 hours of onset. The pain may switch sides from month to month, depending on the site of ovulation.

      There are no specific tests to confirm Mittelschmerz, and it is diagnosed clinically after taking a full history and examination to exclude other conditions. Abdominal and pelvic examinations typically do not reveal any abnormal signs.

      Mittelschmerz is not harmful and can be managed with simple analgesia. Understanding this condition can help women recognize and manage the pain associated with ovulation.

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  • Question 26 - Which of the following is not an absolute contraindication to using combined oral...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is not an absolute contraindication to using combined oral contraceptive pills for women?

      Your Answer: Continuous use before, during and after a total knee replacement

      Correct Answer: Breast feeding a 10-week-old baby

      Explanation:

      Breastfeeding is classified as UKMEC category 4 if done for less than 6 weeks after giving birth, but it is categorized as UKMEC category 2 if done after this period.

      The decision to prescribe the combined oral contraceptive pill is now based on the UK Medical Eligibility Criteria (UKMEC), which categorizes potential contraindications and cautions on a four-point scale. UKMEC 1 indicates no restrictions for use, while UKMEC 2 suggests that the benefits outweigh the risks. UKMEC 3 indicates that the disadvantages may outweigh the advantages, and UKMEC 4 represents an unacceptable health risk. Examples of UKMEC 3 conditions include controlled hypertension, a family history of thromboembolic disease in first-degree relatives under 45 years old, and current gallbladder disease. Examples of UKMEC 4 conditions include a history of thromboembolic disease or thrombogenic mutation, breast cancer, and uncontrolled hypertension. Diabetes mellitus diagnosed over 20 years ago is classified as UKMEC 3 or 4 depending on severity. In 2016, breast feeding between 6 weeks and 6 months postpartum was changed from UKMEC 3 to UKMEC 2.

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      • Reproductive Medicine
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  • Question 27 - A 25-year-old woman has given birth to her first child. During delivery, the...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman has given birth to her first child. During delivery, the midwife had to perform McRoberts manoeuvre due to shoulder dystocia, but there were no other complications. After the placenta was delivered, the midwife discovered a perineal tear that involved the external anal sphincter (EAS) but did not extend to the internal anal sphincter (IAS) or rectal mucosa. What is the best course of action for management?

      Your Answer: Repair in theatre by a suitably trained clinician as it is a second degree tear

      Correct Answer: Repair in theatre by a suitably trained clinician as it is a third degree tear

      Explanation:

      The patient has suffered a third degree perineal tear that has extended beyond the perineal mucosa and muscle, involving the EAS but not the rectal mucosa. Therefore, it is classified as a third degree tear. The appropriate course of action is to repair the tear in theatre by a clinician who is suitably trained. Repairing the tear on the ward by a midwife is not an option as it is a third degree tear. Similarly, repairing it in theatre by a clinician trained for fourth degree tears is not necessary. It is important to note that first degree tears do not require repair, but in this case, as it is a third degree tear, not repairing it would not be appropriate as it may not heal properly.

      Perineal tears are a common occurrence during childbirth, and the Royal College of Obstetricians and Gynaecologists (RCOG) has developed guidelines to classify them based on their severity. First-degree tears are superficial and do not require any repair, while second-degree tears involve the perineal muscle and require suturing by a midwife or clinician. Third-degree tears involve the anal sphincter complex and require repair in theatre by a trained clinician, with subcategories based on the extent of the tear. Fourth-degree tears involve the anal sphincter complex and rectal mucosa and also require repair in theatre by a trained clinician.

      There are several risk factors for perineal tears, including being a first-time mother, having a large baby, experiencing a precipitant labour, and having a shoulder dystocia or forceps delivery. It is important for healthcare providers to be aware of these risk factors and to provide appropriate care and management during childbirth to minimize the risk of perineal tears. By following the RCOG guidelines and providing timely and effective treatment, healthcare providers can help ensure the best possible outcomes for both mother and baby.

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  • Question 28 - A 35 year old woman who is 30 weeks pregnant presents with malaise,...

    Correct

    • A 35 year old woman who is 30 weeks pregnant presents with malaise, headaches and vomiting. She is admitted to the obstetrics ward after a routine blood pressure measurement was 190/95 mmHg. Examination reveals right upper quadrant abdominal pain and brisk tendon reflexes. The following blood tests are shown:

      Hb 85 g/l
      WBC 6 * 109/l
      Platelets 89 * 109/l
      Bilirubin 2.8 µmol/l
      ALP 215 u/l
      ALT 260 u/l
      γGT 72 u/l
      LDH 846 u/I

      A peripheral blood film is also taken which shows polychromasia and schistocytes. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: HELLP syndrome

      Explanation:

      The symptoms of HELLP syndrome, a severe form of pre-eclampsia, include haemolysis (H), elevated liver enzymes (EL), and low platelets (LP). A patient with this condition may experience malaise, nausea, vomiting, and headache, as well as hypertension with proteinuria and epigastric and/or upper abdominal pain. The patient in this case meets the requirements for a diagnosis of HELLP syndrome.

      Liver Complications During Pregnancy

      During pregnancy, there are several liver complications that may arise. One of the most common is intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy, which occurs in about 1% of pregnancies and is typically seen in the third trimester. Symptoms include intense itching, especially in the palms and soles, as well as elevated bilirubin levels. Treatment involves the use of ursodeoxycholic acid for relief and weekly liver function tests. Women with this condition are usually induced at 37 weeks to prevent stillbirth, although maternal morbidity is not typically increased.

      Another rare complication is acute fatty liver of pregnancy, which may occur in the third trimester or immediately after delivery. Symptoms include abdominal pain, nausea and vomiting, headache, jaundice, and hypoglycemia. Severe cases may result in pre-eclampsia. ALT levels are typically elevated, and support care is the primary management until delivery can be performed once the patient is stabilized.

      Finally, conditions such as Gilbert’s and Dubin-Johnson syndrome may be exacerbated during pregnancy. Additionally, HELLP syndrome, which stands for haemolysis, elevated liver enzymes, and low platelets, is a serious complication that can occur in the third trimester and requires immediate medical attention. Overall, it is important for pregnant women to be aware of these potential liver complications and to seek medical attention if any symptoms arise.

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  • Question 29 - A 55-year-old woman has been asked to come back for a follow-up cervical...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old woman has been asked to come back for a follow-up cervical smear by her GP. She had a cervical smear done 18 months ago which revealed the presence of high-risk HPV but no abnormal cytology. The follow-up cervical smear has returned negative for high-risk HPV. What is the best course of action for managing this patient?

      Your Answer: Repeat cervical smear in 3 years

      Correct Answer: Repeat cervical smear in 5 years

      Explanation:

      If the 1st repeat smear at 12 months for cervical cancer screening is now negative for hrHPV, the patient should return to routine recall, which is repeating the cervical smear in 5 years. Cytological examination of the smear is not necessary as the NHS now follows an HPV first system. Referral for colposcopy is also not indicated unless there is evidence of dyskaryosis or inadequate smears. Repeating the cervical smear in 3 years is not appropriate for a 50-year-old patient, and repeating the smear after 12 months is only necessary if the most recent smear is positive for hrHPV with no cytological abnormalities.

      The cervical cancer screening program has evolved to include HPV testing, which allows for further risk stratification. A negative hrHPV result means a return to normal recall, while a positive result requires cytological examination. Abnormal cytology results lead to colposcopy, while normal cytology results require a repeat test at 12 months. Inadequate samples require a repeat within 3 months, and two consecutive inadequate samples lead to colposcopy. Treatment for CIN typically involves LLETZ or cryotherapy. Individuals who have been treated for CIN should be invited for a test of cure repeat cervical sample 6 months after treatment.

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  • Question 30 - A 30-year-old woman is prescribed a 7-day course of erythromycin for cellulitis. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old woman is prescribed a 7-day course of erythromycin for cellulitis. She is in good health and uses the progesterone-only pill for birth control. She is concerned about the potential interaction between her antibiotic and contraceptive pill. What advice should she be given regarding her contraception?

      Your Answer: Advise using additional barrier contraceptives for the duration of the antibiotic course, but continue to take the pill

      Correct Answer: Reassurance that no additional precautions are needed

      Explanation:

      It was once believed that taking antibiotics while on any form of contraceptive pill could reduce the pill’s effectiveness. However, it is now known that broad-spectrum antibiotics do not interact with the progesterone-only pill, and therefore no extra precautions are necessary. The only exception is enzyme-inducing antibiotics like rifampicin, which may affect the pill’s efficacy. Additionally, if an antibiotic causes vomiting or diarrhea, it may also affect the pill’s effectiveness, but this is true for any form of vomiting or diarrhea. Therefore, the correct advice is to reassure patients that no additional precautions are needed. Advising the use of barrier contraceptives or ceasing the pill is incorrect, as there is no evidence to support these actions.

      Counselling for Women Considering the Progestogen-Only Pill

      Women who are considering taking the progestogen-only pill (POP) should receive counselling on various aspects of the medication. One of the most common potential adverse effects is irregular vaginal bleeding. When starting the POP, immediate protection is provided if it is commenced up to and including day 5 of the cycle. If it is started later, additional contraceptive methods such as condoms should be used for the first 2 days. If switching from a combined oral contraceptive (COC), immediate protection is provided if the POP is continued directly from the end of a pill packet.

      It is important to take the POP at the same time every day, without a pill-free break, unlike the COC. If a pill is missed by less than 3 hours, it should be taken as normal. If it is missed by more than 3 hours, the missed pill should be taken as soon as possible, and extra precautions such as condoms should be used until pill taking has been re-established for 48 hours. Diarrhoea and vomiting do not affect the POP, but assuming pills have been missed and following the above guidelines is recommended. Antibiotics have no effect on the POP, unless they alter the P450 enzyme system, such as rifampicin. Liver enzyme inducers may reduce the effectiveness of the POP.

      In addition to these specific guidelines, women should also have a discussion on sexually transmitted infections (STIs) when considering the POP. It is important for women to receive comprehensive counselling on the POP to ensure they are aware of its potential effects and how to use it effectively.

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Reproductive Medicine (14/30) 47%
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