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  • Question 1 - Which of the following is the site of secretion of intrinsic factor: ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is the site of secretion of intrinsic factor:

      Your Answer: Stomach

      Explanation:

      Intrinsic factor is essential for the absorption of the small amounts of vitamin B12 normally present in the diet from the terminal ileum. The parietal cells of the stomach produce intrinsic factor, and following a gastrectomy, the absorption of vitamin B12 will be markedly reduced, and a deficiency state will exist.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Physiology
      6.8
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - You've been summoned to the resuscitation area to assist a patient who is...

    Incorrect

    • You've been summoned to the resuscitation area to assist a patient who is having a seizure. As part of the treatment protocol, a benzodiazepine dose is given.Which of the following statements about the use of benzodiazepines in seizures is correct?

      Your Answer: Most patients require multiple doses to terminate their seizure

      Correct Answer: Lorazepam can be given by the rectal route

      Explanation:

      A single dose of IV benzodiazepine will terminate the seizure in 60 to 80 percent of patients who present with seizures.Because benzodiazepines are lipid-soluble, they cross the blood-brain barrier quickly. This explains their quick onset of action.As a first-line treatment, IV lorazepam should be given. If IV lorazepam is not available, IV diazepam can be used instead, and buccal midazolam can be used if intravenous access cannot be established quickly. Lorazepam can be administered via the rectal route, but it is less reliable and has a lower absorption rate and bioavailability.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • CNS Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      27.1
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - At rest, skeletal muscle accounts for between 15-20% of cardiac output and accounts...

    Correct

    • At rest, skeletal muscle accounts for between 15-20% of cardiac output and accounts for around 50% of body weight. This can increase to nearly 80% of cardiac output during exercise. Skeletal muscle circulation is highly controlled and has a number of specialized adaptations as a result of this high degree of disparity during exercise, in combination with the diversity in the size of skeletal muscle around the body.What is the primary mechanism for boosting skeletal muscle blood flow during exercise?

      Your Answer: Metabolic hyperaemia

      Explanation:

      In skeletal muscle, blood flow is closely related to metabolic rate. Due to the contraction of precapillary sphincters, most capillaries are blocked off from the rest of the circulation at rest and are not perfused. This causes an increase in vascular tone and vessel constriction. As metabolic activity rises, this develops redundancy in the system, allowing it to cope with greater demand. During exercise, metabolic hyperaemia, which is induced by the release of K+, CO2, and adenosine, recruits capillaries. Sympathetic vasoconstriction in the active muscles is overridden by this. Simultaneously, blood flow in non-working muscles is restricted, preserving cardiac output. During exercise, muscle contractions pump blood through the venous system, raising the pressure differential between arterioles and venules and boosting blood flow via capillaries.Capillary angiogenesis is evident when muscles are used repeatedly (e.g. endurance training). It is a long-term effect, not a quick fix for increased blood flow.The local partial pressure of alveolar oxygen is the primary intrinsic control of pulmonary blood flow (pAO2). Low pAO2 promotes arteriole vasoconstriction and vice versa. The hypoxic pulmonary vasoconstriction (HPV) reflex allows blood flow to be diverted away from poorly ventilated alveoli and towards well-ventilated alveoli in order to maximize gaseous exchange.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Physiology
      • Physiology
      56.9
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - Which of the following is NOT a typical feature of benzodiazepine toxicity: ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is NOT a typical feature of benzodiazepine toxicity:

      Your Answer: Hyperventilation

      Explanation:

      Features of benzodiazepine toxicity include: drowsiness, ataxia, dysarthria, nystagmus, occasionally respiratory depression and coma

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthesia
      • Pharmacology
      12.3
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - External haemorrhoids may cause anal pain. When explaining to your patient why it...

    Correct

    • External haemorrhoids may cause anal pain. When explaining to your patient why it does so, which of the following nerves will you point out as being affected?

      Your Answer: Pudendal nerve

      Explanation:

      The pain associated with external haemorrhoids is carried by a branch of the pudendal nerve, specifically the somatic fibres (S2-S4). It innervates the external anal sphincter and most of the skin over the perineum.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      14.9
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A patient complains of stomach ache. You see a midline scar in the...

    Incorrect

    • A patient complains of stomach ache. You see a midline scar in the epigastric area when you examine the abdomen. Upon further interrogation, the patient reveals that she had a subtotal gastrectomy for recurring stomach ulcers several years ago. The stomach mucosa secretes a variety of vital compounds, and her ability to secrete some of these molecules has been harmed as a result of his surgery.The stomach mucous neck cells secrete which of the following substances?

      Your Answer: Hydrochloric acid

      Correct Answer: Bicarbonate

      Explanation:

      Foveolar cells, also known as gastric mucous-neck cells, are cells that line the stomach mucosa and are found in the necks of the gastric pits. Mucus and bicarbonate are produced by these cells, which prevent the stomach from digesting itself. At pH 4, the mucous allows the acid to penetrate the lining, while below pH 4, the acid is unable to do so. Viscous fingering is the term for this procedure.The table below summarizes the many cell types found in the stomach, as well as the substances secreted by each cell type and the function of the secretion:Cell type/ Substance secreted/ Function of secretionParietal cells/ Hydrochloric acid/ Kills microbes and activates pepsinogenParietal cells/ Intrinsic factor/Binds to vitamin B12 and facilitates its absorptionChief cells/ Pepsinogen/ Protein digestionChief cells/ Gastric lipase/ Fat digestionG-cells/ Gastrin/ Stimulates gastric acid secretionEnterochromaffin-like cells (ECL cells) /Histamine/ Stimulates gastric acid secretionMucous-neck cells/ Mucous and bicarbonate/ Protects stomach epithelium from acidD-cells/ Somatostatin/ Inhibits gastric acid secretion

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal Physiology
      • Physiology
      109.4
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A patient with pronounced tremor, muscle contractions, muscle spasms, and slowness of movement...

    Correct

    • A patient with pronounced tremor, muscle contractions, muscle spasms, and slowness of movement is brought in by his family. He has a long history of mental health issues for which he is currently treated with a variety of medications.Which of the medications listed below is most likely to be the cause of these side effects?

      Your Answer: Haloperidol

      Explanation:

      Acute dyskinesias and dystonic reactions, tardive dyskinesia (rhythmic, involuntary movements of the tongue, face, and jaw), Parkinsonism (tremor, bradykinesia, and rigidity), akinesia, akathisia, and neuroleptic malignant syndrome are all examples of extrapyramidal side effects. They are caused by dopamine depletion or blockade in the basal ganglia; this lack of dopamine frequently mimics idiopathic extrapyramidal pathologies.The first-generation antipsychotics, which are strong dopamine D2 receptor antagonists, are the drugs most commonly associated with extrapyramidal side effects. Haloperidol and fluphenazine are the two drugs in this class that are most commonly associated with extrapyramidal side effects. Extrapyramidal adverse effects are less common in second-generation antipsychotics (e.g., olanzapine) than in first-generation antipsychotics.Other drugs are linked to extrapyramidal symptoms as well, but at a lower rate. Some antidepressants, lithium, various anticonvulsants, antiemetics, and, in rare cases, oral contraceptive agents are among them.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • CNS Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      10.3
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 40-year-old man has been admitted for alcohol detoxification. You are asked to...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old man has been admitted for alcohol detoxification. You are asked to review the patient's treatment chart and notice that he has been prescribed Pabrinex by one of your colleagues.Out of the following, which vitamin is not found in Pabrinex?

      Your Answer: Vitamin B1

      Correct Answer: Vitamin B12

      Explanation:

      Pabrinex is indicated in patients that require rapid therapy for severe depletion or malabsorption of water-soluble vitamins B and C, particularly in alcoholism detoxification. Pabrinex has the following: 1. Thiamine (vitamin B1) 2. Riboflavin (vitamin B2)3. Nicotinamide (Vitamin B3, niacin and nicotinic acid)4. Pyridoxine (vitamin B6)5. Ascorbic acid (vitamin C)6. GlucoseSuspected or established Wernicke’s encephalopathy is treated by intravenous infusion of Pabrinex/ The dose is 2-3 pairs three times a day for three to five days, followed by one pair once daily for an additional three to five days or for as long as improvement continues.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Fluids & Electrolytes
      • Pharmacology
      22.3
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - In patients who are not at risk of hypercapnic respiratory failure but are...

    Correct

    • In patients who are not at risk of hypercapnic respiratory failure but are requiring oxygen, the oxygen saturations should be maintained at which of the following?

      Your Answer: 94 - 98%

      Explanation:

      Oxygen saturation should be 94 – 98% in most acutely ill patients with a normal or low arterial carbon dioxide (PaCO2). In some clinical situations, however, like cardiac arrest and carbon monoxide poisoning, it is more appropriate to aim for the highest possible oxygen saturation until the patient is stable.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      • Respiratory
      12.9
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A patient who has a nerve injury has sparing of the upper half...

    Correct

    • A patient who has a nerve injury has sparing of the upper half of the orbicularis oculi muscle but not the lower half. Which branch of the facial nerve supplies the lower half of the orbicularis oculi?

      Your Answer: Zygomatic branch

      Explanation:

      The facial nerve divides into five terminal branches once in the parotid gland. 1. The temporal branch innervates muscles in the temple, forehead and supraorbital areas.2. The zygomatic branch innervates muscles in the infraorbital area, the lateral nasal area and the upper lip.3. The buccal branch innervates muscles in the cheek, the upper lip and the corner of the mouth. 4. The marginal mandibular branch innervates muscles of the lower lip and chin. 5. The cervical branch innervates the platysma muscle.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Cranial Nerve Lesions
      26.6
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Gastrointestinal (1/1) 100%
Physiology (2/3) 67%
CNS Pharmacology (1/2) 50%
Pharmacology (3/5) 60%
Cardiovascular Physiology (1/1) 100%
Anaesthesia (1/1) 100%
Abdomen (1/1) 100%
Anatomy (2/2) 100%
Gastrointestinal Physiology (0/1) 0%
Fluids & Electrolytes (0/1) 0%
Respiratory (1/1) 100%
Cranial Nerve Lesions (1/1) 100%
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