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  • Question 1 - A 17-year-old student presents to the genito-urinary medicine (GUM) clinic. She is worried...

    Correct

    • A 17-year-old student presents to the genito-urinary medicine (GUM) clinic. She is worried about a fishy-smelling green vaginal discharge that she has developed. The symptoms have been ongoing for two weeks and include pruritus, dysuria and frequency. Vaginal swabs were taken and revealed a motile flagellate on wet film microscopy.
      What is the causative organism for this patient's symptoms?

      Your Answer: Trichomonas vaginalis

      Explanation:

      Trichomonas vaginalis is a protozoan that causes trichomoniasis, characterized by a green-yellow discharge with a foul odor. Men usually do not show symptoms, while women may experience dysuria, frequent urination, and itching. Treatment involves taking oral metronidazole for seven days. Although complications are rare, pregnant women with trichomoniasis may experience premature labor. The disease is sexually transmitted, so a thorough sexual history should be taken.

      Neisseria gonorrhoeae is a diplococcus that causes gonorrhea, which may be asymptomatic in women but can cause vaginal discharge and painful urination. Treatment involves a single intramuscular injection of ceftriaxone 500 mg.

      Chlamydia trachomatis is an intracellular organism that causes chlamydia, which is often asymptomatic in women but may cause cervicitis, urethritis, or salpingitis. Treatment involves a single oral dose of azithromycin 1 g.

      Candida albicans causes thrush, which is characterized by white curd-like discharge, red and sore vulva, and hyphae visible on microscopy. Treatment involves using clotrimazole in pessary or topical form, with fluconazole used for resistant cases.

      Treponema pallidum causes syphilis, which may present as a painless ulcer in the genital area called a chancre. Treatment involves using benzathine penicillin. While secondary and further stages of syphilis are becoming rare, it is important to seek treatment promptly.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      848.9
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  • Question 2 - A 25-year-old woman presents with an ectopic pregnancy that has been confirmed by...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman presents with an ectopic pregnancy that has been confirmed by ultrasound. However, the ultrasound report only mentions that the ectopic pregnancy is located in the 'left fallopian tube' without providing further details. To ensure appropriate management, you contact the ultrasound department to obtain more specific information. Which location of ectopic pregnancy is most commonly associated with a higher risk of rupture?

      Your Answer: Interstitium

      Correct Answer: Isthmus

      Explanation:

      The risk of rupture is higher in ectopic pregnancies that are located in the isthmus of the fallopian tube. This is because the isthmus is not as flexible as other locations and cannot expand to accommodate the growing embryo/fetus. It should be noted that ectopic pregnancies can occur in various locations, including the ovary, cervix, and even outside the reproductive organs in the peritoneum.

      Understanding Ectopic Pregnancy: The Pathophysiology

      Ectopic pregnancy is a medical condition where the fertilized egg implants outside the uterus, usually in the fallopian tube. According to statistics, 97% of ectopic pregnancies occur in the fallopian tube, with most of them happening in the ampulla. However, if the implantation occurs in the isthmus, it can be more dangerous. The remaining 3% of ectopic pregnancies can occur in the ovary, cervix, or peritoneum.

      During ectopic pregnancy, the trophoblast, which is the outer layer of the fertilized egg, invades the tubal wall, leading to bleeding that may dislodge the embryo. The natural history of ectopic pregnancy involves three possible outcomes: absorption, tubal abortion, or tubal rupture.

      Tubal abortion occurs when the embryo dies, and the body expels it along with the blood. On the other hand, tubal absorption occurs when the tube does not rupture, and the blood and embryo are either shed or converted into a tubal mole and absorbed. However, if the tube ruptures, it can lead to severe bleeding, shock, and even death.

      In conclusion, understanding the pathophysiology of ectopic pregnancy is crucial in diagnosing and managing this potentially life-threatening condition. Early detection and prompt treatment can help prevent complications and improve outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      256.4
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  • Question 3 - A 65-year-old male with non-Hodgkin lymphoma (NHL) presents to the emergency department complaining...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old male with non-Hodgkin lymphoma (NHL) presents to the emergency department complaining of fever, chills, and feeling generally unwell. Upon examination, his temperature is 38.6ºC, pulse rate is 116 beats/min, blood pressure is 102/62 mmHg, and respiratory rate is 24 beats/min. Crackles and bronchial breathing are heard in the left upper zone of his chest. A urine dip is negative for leucocytes and blood tests reveal a neutrophil count of 0.4. He received his last cycle of chemotherapy 10 days ago. What is the most appropriate antibiotic treatment to initiate for this patient?

      Your Answer: Intravenous piperacillin with tazobactam (Tazocin)

      Explanation:

      Neutropenic sepsis is a serious condition that requires immediate treatment with antibiotics. Piperacillin with tazobactam (Tazocin) is the preferred antibiotic for this condition, even before neutropenia is confirmed on blood testing. This combination works by breaking down the cell walls of bacteria and preventing bacterial resistance to piperacillin. However, if a patient is unable to tolerate Tazocin, alternative antibiotics should be considered based on local guidelines or microbiology advice.

      Amoxicillin with clavulanic acid and gentamicin are other antibiotics that can be used for severe infections, but they are not the best choice for neutropenic sepsis. Aztreonam and vancomycin can be used in combination when Tazocin is not an option, but a third antibiotic may be necessary for additional coverage. It is important to note that gentamicin should be used with caution due to the risk of kidney damage and ototoxicity.

      Neutropenic Sepsis: A Common Complication of Cancer Therapy

      Neutropenic sepsis is a frequent complication of cancer therapy, particularly chemotherapy. It typically occurs within 7-14 days after chemotherapy and is characterized by a neutrophil count of less than 0.5 * 109 in patients undergoing anticancer treatment who exhibit a temperature higher than 38ºC or other signs or symptoms consistent with clinically significant sepsis.

      To prevent neutropenic sepsis, patients who are likely to have a neutrophil count of less than 0.5 * 109 as a result of their treatment should be offered a fluoroquinolone. In the event of neutropenic sepsis, antibiotics must be initiated immediately, without waiting for the white blood cell count.

      According to NICE guidelines, empirical antibiotic therapy should begin with piperacillin with tazobactam (Tazocin) immediately. While some units may add vancomycin if the patient has central venous access, NICE does not support this approach. After initial treatment, patients are typically assessed by a specialist and risk-stratified to determine if they may be able to receive outpatient treatment.

      If patients remain febrile and unwell after 48 hours, an alternative antibiotic such as meropenem may be prescribed, with or without vancomycin. If patients do not respond after 4-6 days, the Christie guidelines suggest ordering investigations for fungal infections (e.g. HRCT) rather than blindly initiating antifungal therapy. In selected patients, G-CSF may be beneficial.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      296.4
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  • Question 4 - A 16-year-old male comes to your clinic and asks for the contraceptive pill....

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old male comes to your clinic and asks for the contraceptive pill. He appears to have Gillick competency, but he reveals that his girlfriend is 24 and a teacher at a nearby private school. He confirms that she is not pregnant and that her last period was 3 weeks ago. He specifically requests that you do not inform anyone, including his mother who is also a patient of yours. How do you proceed?

      Your Answer: Inform her that you need to tell social services and child protection due to the age and position of trust of her boyfriend. Try to get her consent. If she refuses then accept you can't tell anyone as she has demonstrated Gillick competency

      Correct Answer: Inform her that you need to tell social services and child protection due to the age and position of trust of her boyfriend. Try to get her consent but explain you will still need to tell them if she doesn't consent

      Explanation:

      According to the GMC guidelines in good medical practice for individuals aged 0-18 years, it is important to disclose information regarding any abusive or seriously harmful sexual activity involving a child or young person. This includes situations where the young person is too immature to understand or consent, there are significant differences in age, maturity, or power between sexual partners, the young person’s sexual partner holds a position of trust, force or the threat of force, emotional or psychological pressure, bribery or payment is used to engage in sexual activity or keep it secret, drugs or alcohol are used to influence a young person to engage in sexual activity, or the person involved is known to the police or child protection agencies for having abusive relationships with children or young people.

      Failing to disclose this information or simply prescribing contraception and waiting for a review can put both the patient and other students at the boyfriend’s school in harm’s way due to his position of trust. While informing the boyfriend or his school may breach confidentiality and not address the issue of his job and relationship, it is important to take appropriate action to protect the safety and well-being of the young person involved.

      When it comes to providing contraception to young people, there are legal and ethical considerations to take into account. In the UK, the age of consent for sexual activity is 16 years, but practitioners may still offer advice and contraception to young people they deem competent. The Fraser Guidelines are often used to assess a young person’s competence. Children under the age of 13 are considered unable to consent to sexual intercourse, and consultations regarding this age group should trigger child protection measures automatically.

      It’s important to advise young people to have STI tests 2 and 12 weeks after an incident of unprotected sexual intercourse. Long-acting reversible contraceptive methods (LARCs) are often the best choice for young people, as they may be less reliable in remembering to take medication. However, there are concerns about the effect of progesterone-only injections (Depo-provera) on bone mineral density, and the UKMEC category of the IUS and IUD is 2 for women under the age of 20 years, meaning they may not be the best choice. The progesterone-only implant (Nexplanon) is therefore the LARC of choice for young people.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      200.6
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  • Question 5 - A 57-year-old man is admitted to the Intensive Care Unit (ICU) with acute...

    Incorrect

    • A 57-year-old man is admitted to the Intensive Care Unit (ICU) with acute pancreatitis caused by excessive alcohol consumption. His abdominal sepsis is complicated by multi-organ failure. He is currently receiving mechanical ventilation, inotropic support, and continuous haemodialysis in the ICU. What evidence-based strategies have been shown to decrease mortality in cases of sepsis?

      Your Answer: Administration of high-dose steroids

      Correct Answer: Maintenance of the patient’s blood sugar level between 4.4 and 6 mmol/l

      Explanation:

      Critical Care Management Strategies

      Maintaining the patient’s blood sugar level between 4.4 and 6 mmol/l is crucial in critical care management. Stress and severe illness can reduce insulin secretion, leading to hyperglycemia. Intravenous infusion of short-acting insulin is recommended to achieve this goal. However, in some cases, a range of 5-9 mmol/l may be necessary.

      Blood transfusion to maintain a haemoglobin level above 100 g/l is not recommended in critically ill patients. Studies show that it does not improve patient outcomes and may lead to potential complications. A haemoglobin level of 70-90 g/l is considered acceptable in the absence of ischaemic heart disease.

      High-dose steroids are not routinely recommended in septic shock management. However, they may be considered in patients with increasing vasopressor requirements and failure of other therapeutic strategies. Low-dose steroids have also not shown significant reduction in mortality rates.

      Nursing the patient semi-recumbent (sitting at 30-45 degrees) instead of completely flat is recommended to reduce the risk of ventilator-associated pneumonia. This position helps to prevent aspiration and promotes better lung function.

      Critical Care Management Strategies for Patients in ICU

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
      197.3
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  • Question 6 - A 33-year-old woman, accompanied by her husband, visits her GP with unusual behaviour....

    Incorrect

    • A 33-year-old woman, accompanied by her husband, visits her GP with unusual behaviour. Her husband reports that the changes have occurred mostly in the past week and he has never seen this behaviour before. He describes finding her walking around the house and talking to people who are not there. During the consultation, the patient appears distracted and occasionally smiles and waves at the wall behind the GP. There is no personal or family history of psychiatric illness. The patient does not seem distressed and politely asks if she can leave as she believes the appointment is a waste of time.

      The patient takes loratadine 10 mg once daily for hay-fever, salbutamol and beclomethasone inhalers for asthma, and has recently started a combined oral contraceptive pill for contraception. She is also taking a course of prednisolone tablets following a recent exacerbation of her asthma. Which medication is most likely to be causing her symptoms?

      Your Answer: Loratadine

      Correct Answer: Prednisolone

      Explanation:

      When a person experiences sudden onset psychosis after taking corticosteroids, it is important to consider the possibility of steroid-induced psychosis. Although both the beclomethasone inhaler and prednisolone are corticosteroids, the higher dose of prednisolone makes it the more likely culprit for the patient’s symptoms.

      Understanding Psychosis

      Psychosis is a term used to describe a person’s experience of perceiving things differently from those around them. This can manifest in various ways, including hallucinations, delusions, thought disorganization, alogia, tangentiality, clanging, and word salad. Associated features may include agitation/aggression, neurocognitive impairment, depression, and thoughts of self-harm. Psychotic symptoms can occur in a range of conditions, such as schizophrenia, depression, bipolar disorder, puerperal psychosis, brief psychotic disorder, neurological conditions, and drug use. The peak age of first-episode psychosis is around 15-30 years.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      153.7
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  • Question 7 - A 32-year-old primigravida woman is 41 weeks pregnant and has been offered a...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old primigravida woman is 41 weeks pregnant and has been offered a vaginal examination and membrane sweeping at her antenatal visit. Despite these efforts, she has not gone into labor after 6 hours. Upon examination, her cervix is firm, 1 cm dilated, 1.5 cm in length, and in the middle position. The fetal head station is -3, but there have been no complications during the pregnancy. What should be the next appropriate step?

      Your Answer: Caesarian section

      Correct Answer: Vaginal prostaglandin gel

      Explanation:

      If the Bishop score is less than or equal to 6, the recommended method for inducing labor is through vaginal PGE2 or oral misoprostol. In this case, since the Bishop score was less than 5, labor is unlikely without induction. One option could be to repeat a membrane sweep, but the most appropriate course of action would be to use a vaginal prostaglandin gel.

      Induction of labour is a process where labour is artificially started and is required in about 20% of pregnancies. It is indicated in cases of prolonged pregnancy, prelabour premature rupture of the membranes, maternal medical problems, diabetic mother over 38 weeks, pre-eclampsia, obstetric cholestasis, and intrauterine fetal death. The Bishop score is used to assess whether induction of labour is necessary and includes cervical position, consistency, effacement, dilation, and fetal station. A score of less than 5 indicates that labour is unlikely to start without induction, while a score of 8 or more indicates a high chance of spontaneous labour or response to interventions made to induce labour.

      Possible methods of induction include membrane sweep, vaginal prostaglandin E2, oral prostaglandin E1, maternal oxytocin infusion, amniotomy, and cervical ripening balloon. The NICE guidelines recommend vaginal prostaglandins or oral misoprostol if the Bishop score is less than or equal to 6, while amniotomy and an intravenous oxytocin infusion are recommended if the score is greater than 6.

      The main complication of induction of labour is uterine hyperstimulation, which refers to prolonged and frequent uterine contractions that can interrupt blood flow to the intervillous space and result in fetal hypoxemia and acidemia. Uterine rupture is a rare but serious complication. Management includes removing vaginal prostaglandins and stopping the oxytocin infusion if one has been started, and considering tocolysis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      127.4
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - Which of the following is passed down in an autosomal dominant manner? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is passed down in an autosomal dominant manner?

      Your Answer: Down’s syndrome

      Correct Answer: Neurofibromatosis

      Explanation:

      Genetic Disorders

      Neurofibromatosis is a genetic disorder that is inherited in an autosomal dominant manner, meaning that only one copy of the abnormal gene is needed to develop the condition. Beta thalassaemia, on the other hand, is a recessively inherited disorder. If an individual has one copy of the abnormal gene, they are said to have thalassaemia minor, while those with two copies develop thalassaemia major. Prader-Willi syndrome is a chromosomal disorder that is characterized by insatiable appetite, hyperglycaemia, and short stature. Finally, Down’s syndrome is another chromosomal disorder that affects individuals.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      84.3
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  • Question 9 - A 39-year-old woman experiences lower back pain that travels down her left leg...

    Incorrect

    • A 39-year-old woman experiences lower back pain that travels down her left leg while doing DIY work. She reports a severe, sharp, stabbing pain that worsens with movement. During the clinical examination, a positive straight leg raise test is observed on the left side, but there are no other notable findings. The patient is given appropriate pain relief. What is the most appropriate next step in managing this condition?

      Your Answer: Refer for MRI

      Correct Answer: Arrange physiotherapy

      Explanation:

      A prolapsed disc is suspected based on the patient’s symptoms. However, even if an MRI scan confirms this diagnosis, the initial management would remain the same as most patients respond well to conservative treatment like physiotherapy.

      Understanding Prolapsed Disc and its Features

      A prolapsed lumbar disc is a common cause of lower back pain that can lead to neurological deficits. It is characterized by clear dermatomal leg pain, which is usually worse than the back pain. The pain is often aggravated when sitting. The features of the prolapsed disc depend on the site of compression. For instance, L3 nerve root compression can cause sensory loss over the anterior thigh, weak quadriceps, reduced knee reflex, and a positive femoral stretch test. On the other hand, L4 nerve root compression can lead to sensory loss in the anterior aspect of the knee, weak quadriceps, reduced knee reflex, and a positive femoral stretch test.

      The management of prolapsed disc is similar to that of other musculoskeletal lower back pain. It involves analgesia, physiotherapy, and exercises. According to NICE, the first-line treatment for back pain without sciatica symptoms is NSAIDs +/- proton pump inhibitors, rather than neuropathic analgesia. If the symptoms persist after 4-6 weeks, referral for consideration of MRI is appropriate. Understanding the features of prolapsed disc can help in the diagnosis and management of this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      116.9
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  • Question 10 - A 60-year-old man with a previous diagnosis of multiple endocrine neoplasia type 2...

    Correct

    • A 60-year-old man with a previous diagnosis of multiple endocrine neoplasia type 2 (MEN 2) presents to you 2 days after having undergone a total thyroidectomy. He reports experiencing cramps in his calves and thighs and tingling around his lips. Upon examination, you observe positive Chvostek’s sign and Trousseau sign. Further investigations reveal his serum calcium level to be 2 mmol/l and his serum phosphate level to be 1.8 mmol/l. What is the most likely explanation for these findings?

      Your Answer: Acquired hypoparathyroidism

      Explanation:

      Differential diagnosis of hypocalcaemia and hyperphosphataemia

      Acquired hypoparathyroidism is a likely cause of the biochemical abnormalities observed in a patient who recently underwent a total thyroidectomy. This condition results from damage to the parathyroid glands during surgery, leading to insufficient secretion of parathyroid hormone and subsequent hypocalcaemia and hyperphosphataemia. Other potential causes of these abnormalities include chronic renal failure and vitamin D deficiency, but these do not match the patient’s clinical history. Pseudohypoparathyroidism, a rare genetic disorder characterized by target tissue resistance to parathyroid hormone, is not a likely explanation either. Pseudopseudohypoparathyroidism, another rare inherited disorder that mimics the physical features of pseudohypoparathyroidism without the biochemical changes, is not relevant to this case. Therefore, acquired hypoparathyroidism is the most probable diagnosis, and appropriate management should include calcium and vitamin D supplementation, as well as monitoring for potential complications such as seizures and tetany.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      142.8
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Gynaecology (1/3) 33%
Medicine (1/1) 100%
Acute Medicine And Intensive Care (0/1) 0%
Psychiatry (0/1) 0%
Obstetrics (0/1) 0%
Clinical Sciences (0/1) 0%
Musculoskeletal (0/1) 0%
Endocrinology (1/1) 100%
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