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  • Question 1 - A 30 year old man presents to ED after a road traffic accident....

    Incorrect

    • A 30 year old man presents to ED after a road traffic accident. Free intraperitoneal fluid is found on FAST (Focussed assessment for sonography in trauma) done in the supine position. Which of these is most likely to be affected?

      Your Answer: Rectouterine recess

      Correct Answer: Hepatorenal recess

      Explanation:

      Fluid accumulates most often in the hepatorenal pouch (of Morrison) in a supine patient. The hepatorenal pouch is located behind the liver and anterior to the right kidney and is the lowest space in the peritoneal cavity in the supine position.Although the vesicouterine and rectouterine spaces are also potential spaces for fluid accumulation, fluid accumulation in them occur in the erect position.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      33.7
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - The common bile duct drains into the duodenum in which of the following...

    Correct

    • The common bile duct drains into the duodenum in which of the following regions:

      Your Answer: Second part of the duodenum

      Explanation:

      As the common bile duct descends, it passes posterior to the first part of the duodenum before joining with the pancreatic duct from the pancreas, forming the hepatopancreatic ampulla (ampulla of Vater) at the major duodenal papilla, located in the second part of the duodenum. Surrounding the ampulla is the sphincter of Oddi, a collection of smooth muscle which can open to allow bile and pancreatic fluid to empty into the duodenum.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      15
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - Which of the following statement is correct with regards to the female urethra?...

    Correct

    • Which of the following statement is correct with regards to the female urethra?

      Your Answer: The urethra opens in the vestibule that lies between the labia minora.

      Explanation:

      The urethra in women is short (about 4 cm long), and begins at the base of the bladder. Its course runs inferiorly through the urogenital diaphragm, then into the perineum. It then opens in the vestibule which lies between the labia minora. The inferior aspect of the urethra is bound to the anterior surface of the vagina. The urethral opening is anterior to the vaginal opening in the vestibule. As the urethra passes through the pelvic floor, it is surrounded by the external urethral sphincter.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      28.8
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - You note that the prostate of a 60-year-old patient is enlarged during the...

    Incorrect

    • You note that the prostate of a 60-year-old patient is enlarged during the examination. You suspect BPH. Anatomically, the prostate has four main lobes. Which of the lobes is affected by benign prostatic hypertrophy?

      Your Answer: Posterior lobe

      Correct Answer: Median lobe

      Explanation:

      Benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH), also known as benign prostatic hypertrophy, is characterized by an enlarged prostate gland. The prostate is divided into four major lobes. The median lobe is the most commonly affected by benign prostatic enlargement, resulting in urethral obstruction and urine symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      11.9
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - The lymph drainage of the anal canal above the pectinate line is initially...

    Incorrect

    • The lymph drainage of the anal canal above the pectinate line is initially to the:

      Your Answer: External iliac nodes

      Correct Answer: Internal iliac nodes

      Explanation:

      Above the pectinate line, the anal canal drains to the internal iliac lymph nodes which subsequently drain to the lumbar (para-aortic) nodes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      16.4
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - Which of the following is where the rectovesical fascia is located: ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is where the rectovesical fascia is located:

      Your Answer: Between the rectum and the posterior fornix and cervix

      Correct Answer: Between the fundus of the bladder and the ampulla of the rectum

      Explanation:

      In a triangular area between the vasa deferentia, the bladder and rectum are separated only by rectovesical fascia, commonly known as Denonvillier’s fascia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      18.1
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - Regarding the penis, which of the following statements is CORRECT: ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding the penis, which of the following statements is CORRECT:

      Your Answer: Sensation to the penis is supplied by the genital branch of the genitofemoral nerve.

      Correct Answer: The corpus spongiosum is ventral in the erect penis.

      Explanation:

      Because the anatomical position of the penis is erect, the paired corpora cavernosa are defined as dorsal in the body of the penis and the single corpus spongiosum as ventral. The nerves and vessels lie superficial to the corpus cavernosum. The urethra lies within the corpus spongiosum.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      17.5
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - External haemorrhoids may cause anal pain. When explaining to your patient why it...

    Incorrect

    • External haemorrhoids may cause anal pain. When explaining to your patient why it does so, which of the following nerves will you point out as being affected?

      Your Answer: Genitofemoral nerve

      Correct Answer: Pudendal nerve

      Explanation:

      The pain associated with external haemorrhoids is carried by a branch of the pudendal nerve, specifically the somatic fibres (S2-S4). It innervates the external anal sphincter and most of the skin over the perineum.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      13.5
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - You are taking care of a 55-year-old male patient with a direct inguinal...

    Incorrect

    • You are taking care of a 55-year-old male patient with a direct inguinal hernia. In explaining his hernia, which of the following layers was compromised and had resulted in his condition?

      Your Answer: Internal oblique muscle

      Correct Answer: Transversalis fascia

      Explanation:

      Direct inguinal hernias are most often caused by a weakness in the muscles of the abdominal wall that develops over time, or are due to straining or heavy lifting. A direct inguinal hernia protrudes through the Transversalis fascia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      16.7
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 45-year-old obese patient goes to the emergency department with a fever and...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old obese patient goes to the emergency department with a fever and significant right upper quadrant pain. The pain radiates to her right shoulder tip.  Murphy's sign is positive and acute cholecystitis is diagnosed. The pain referred to the shoulder tip is caused by one of the following nerves:

      Your Answer: Phrenic nerve

      Explanation:

      Gallbladder inflammation can cause pain in the right upper quadrant and right shoulder, which is caused by irritation of the diaphragmatic peritoneum. Pain from areas supplied by the phrenic nerve is often referred to other somatic regions served by spinal nerves C3-C5.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      15.7
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Abdomen (3/10) 30%
Anatomy (3/10) 30%
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