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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 79-year-old woman is brought to the clinic by her son. Her memory has been declining for the past few months, and she has been experiencing frequent episodes of urinary incontinence. Additionally, she has been walking with a broad, shuffling gait. A CT head scan reveals bilateral enlargement of the lateral ventricles. You suspect normal pressure hydrocephalus, a condition caused by decreased absorption of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF). What structures are responsible for the absorption of CSF? You refer the patient to a neurologist for further evaluation.
Your Answer: Choroid plexus
Correct Answer: Arachnoid villi
Explanation:The arachnoid villi are responsible for absorbing cerebrospinal fluid into the venous sinuses of the brain. On the other hand, the choroid plexus produces and releases cerebrospinal fluid. The inferior colliculus is involved in the auditory pathway, while the corpus callosum allows communication between the left and right hemispheres of the brain. The pia mater is the innermost layer of the meninges and is impermeable to fluid. Normal pressure hydrocephalus is a condition that presents with gait abnormality, urinary incontinence, and dementia, and is characterized by dilation of the ventricular system on imaging.
Cerebrospinal Fluid: Circulation and Composition
Cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) is a clear, colorless liquid that fills the space between the arachnoid mater and pia mater, covering the surface of the brain. The total volume of CSF in the brain is approximately 150ml, and it is produced by the ependymal cells in the choroid plexus or blood vessels. The majority of CSF is produced by the choroid plexus, accounting for 70% of the total volume. The remaining 30% is produced by blood vessels. The CSF is reabsorbed via the arachnoid granulations, which project into the venous sinuses.
The circulation of CSF starts from the lateral ventricles, which are connected to the third ventricle via the foramen of Munro. From the third ventricle, the CSF flows through the cerebral aqueduct (aqueduct of Sylvius) to reach the fourth ventricle via the foramina of Magendie and Luschka. The CSF then enters the subarachnoid space, where it circulates around the brain and spinal cord. Finally, the CSF is reabsorbed into the venous system via arachnoid granulations into the superior sagittal sinus.
The composition of CSF is essential for its proper functioning. The glucose level in CSF is between 50-80 mg/dl, while the protein level is between 15-40 mg/dl. Red blood cells are not present in CSF, and the white blood cell count is usually less than 3 cells/mm3. Understanding the circulation and composition of CSF is crucial for diagnosing and treating various neurological disorders.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
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Question 2
Correct
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A 25-year-old male is at the doctor's office with his girlfriend, reporting that she sleepwalks at night. During which stage of the sleep cycle is this most likely to happen?
Your Answer: Non-REM stage 3 (N3)
Explanation:Understanding Sleep Stages: The Sleep Doctor’s Brain
Sleep is a complex process that involves different stages, each with its own unique characteristics. The Sleep Doctor’s Brain provides a simplified explanation of the four main sleep stages: N1, N2, N3, and REM.
N1 is the lightest stage of sleep, characterized by theta waves and often associated with hypnic jerks. N2 is a deeper stage of sleep, marked by sleep spindles and K-complexes. This stage represents around 50% of total sleep. N3 is the deepest stage of sleep, characterized by delta waves. Parasomnias such as night terrors, nocturnal enuresis, and sleepwalking can occur during this stage.
REM, or rapid eye movement, is the stage where dreaming occurs. It is characterized by beta-waves and a loss of muscle tone, including erections. The sleep cycle typically follows a pattern of N1 → N2 → N3 → REM, with each stage lasting for different durations throughout the night.
Understanding the different sleep stages is important for maintaining healthy sleep habits and identifying potential sleep disorders. By monitoring brain activity during sleep, the Sleep Doctor’s Brain can provide valuable insights into the complex process of sleep.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
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Question 3
Correct
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A 3 week old infant has been diagnosed with hydrocephalus due to congenital spina bifida. Can you identify the location of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) production?
Your Answer: Choroid plexuses
Explanation:The choroid plexuses, located in the ventricles of the brain, are responsible for the production of CSF. The cerebral aqueduct (or aqueduct of Sylvius) does not have a choroid plexus. The cribriform plate, which is a part of the ethmoid bone, does not produce or secrete anything but a fracture in it can cause CSF leakage into the nose and result in anosmia. The arachnoid granulations (or villi) serve as the communication between the subarachnoid space and the venous sinuses, allowing for the continuous reabsorption of CSF into the bloodstream. The pia mater, which is the innermost layer of the meninges around the brain, encloses the CSF within the subarachnoid space.
Cerebrospinal Fluid: Circulation and Composition
Cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) is a clear, colorless liquid that fills the space between the arachnoid mater and pia mater, covering the surface of the brain. The total volume of CSF in the brain is approximately 150ml, and it is produced by the ependymal cells in the choroid plexus or blood vessels. The majority of CSF is produced by the choroid plexus, accounting for 70% of the total volume. The remaining 30% is produced by blood vessels. The CSF is reabsorbed via the arachnoid granulations, which project into the venous sinuses.
The circulation of CSF starts from the lateral ventricles, which are connected to the third ventricle via the foramen of Munro. From the third ventricle, the CSF flows through the cerebral aqueduct (aqueduct of Sylvius) to reach the fourth ventricle via the foramina of Magendie and Luschka. The CSF then enters the subarachnoid space, where it circulates around the brain and spinal cord. Finally, the CSF is reabsorbed into the venous system via arachnoid granulations into the superior sagittal sinus.
The composition of CSF is essential for its proper functioning. The glucose level in CSF is between 50-80 mg/dl, while the protein level is between 15-40 mg/dl. Red blood cells are not present in CSF, and the white blood cell count is usually less than 3 cells/mm3. Understanding the circulation and composition of CSF is crucial for diagnosing and treating various neurological disorders.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
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Question 4
Correct
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A 29-year-old male visits an acute eye clinic with a complaint of a painful eye. During the examination, the ophthalmologist observes a photophobic red eye and identifies a distinctive lesion, resulting in a quick diagnosis of herpes simplex keratitis.
What is the description of the lesion?Your Answer: Dendritic corneal lesion
Explanation:Keratitis caused by herpes simplex is characterized by dendritic lesions that appear as a branched pattern on fluorescein dye. This is typically seen during slit lamp examination. While severe inflammation may be present, indicated by the presence of an inflammatory exudate of the anterior chamber (hypopyon), this is not specific to herpes simplex and may be associated with other causes of keratitis or anterior uveitis. It’s worth noting that herpes zoster ophthalmicus (HZO) is not caused by herpes simplex, but rather occurs when the dormant shingles virus in the ophthalmic nerve reactivates. Hutchinson’s sign, which is a vesicular rash at the tip of the nose in the context of an acute red eye, is suggestive of HZO. Lastly, it’s important to note that a tear dropped pupil is not a feature of keratitis and may be caused by blunt trauma.
Understanding Herpes Simplex Keratitis
Herpes simplex keratitis is a condition that primarily affects the cornea and is caused by the herpes simplex virus. The most common symptom of this condition is a dendritic corneal ulcer, which can cause a red, painful eye, photophobia, and epiphora. In some cases, visual acuity may also be decreased. Fluorescein staining may show an epithelial ulcer, which can help with diagnosis.
One common treatment for this condition is topical acyclovir, which can help to reduce the severity of symptoms and prevent further complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
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Question 5
Incorrect
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Which one of the following is not a direct branch of the facial nerve?
Your Answer: Buccal
Correct Answer: Auriculotemporal
Explanation:The mandibular nerve gives rise to several branches, including the auriculotemporal nerve, lingual nerve, inferior alveolar nerve, nerve to the mylohyoid, and mental nerve.
The facial nerve is responsible for supplying the muscles of facial expression, the digastric muscle, and various glandular structures. It also contains a few afferent fibers that originate in the genicular ganglion and are involved in taste. Bilateral facial nerve palsy can be caused by conditions such as sarcoidosis, Guillain-Barre syndrome, Lyme disease, and bilateral acoustic neuromas. Unilateral facial nerve palsy can be caused by these conditions as well as lower motor neuron issues like Bell’s palsy and upper motor neuron issues like stroke.
The upper motor neuron lesion typically spares the upper face, specifically the forehead, while a lower motor neuron lesion affects all facial muscles. The facial nerve’s path includes the subarachnoid path, where it originates in the pons and passes through the petrous temporal bone into the internal auditory meatus with the vestibulocochlear nerve. The facial canal path passes superior to the vestibule of the inner ear and contains the geniculate ganglion at the medial aspect of the middle ear. The stylomastoid foramen is where the nerve passes through the tympanic cavity anteriorly and the mastoid antrum posteriorly, and it also includes the posterior auricular nerve and branch to the posterior belly of the digastric and stylohyoid muscle.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old woman visits her doctor complaining of a severe, pulsating headache that began last night and is concentrated at the back of her head. She experiences intense pain when coughing. Her family has a history of Type I Chiari malformation.
The doctor suspects idiopathic intracranial hypertension and conducts a fundoscopy to check for signs of papilloedema. Before using an ophthalmoscope to examine her eyes, the doctor applies a topical medication.
What is the name of the medication used?Your Answer: Topical lidocaine
Correct Answer: Tropicamide
Explanation:Tropicamide is administered before fundoscopy to enlarge the pupils. It functions as a muscarinic receptor antagonist, inhibiting parasympathetic impulses and causing the pupil constrictor response and ciliary muscle to become paralyzed. This results in pupil dilation, which is necessary for optimal visualization of the fundus.
Fluorescein stain is utilized to evaluate the cornea for damage or the presence of foreign objects in the eye.
Pilocarpine, a muscarinic receptor agonist, causes pupillary constriction and should not be used before fundoscopy as it would hinder the visualization of the fundus.
Lidocaine is a local anesthetic that works by blocking fast voltage-gated Na channels in the neuronal cell membrane responsible for signal propagation. There is no need to apply topical lidocaine before fundoscopy.
Mydriasis, which is the enlargement of the pupil, can be caused by various factors such as third nerve palsy, Holmes-Adie pupil, traumatic iridoplegia, phaeochromocytoma, and congenital conditions. Additionally, certain drugs like topical mydriatics such as tropicamide and atropine, sympathomimetic drugs like amphetamines and cocaine, and anticholinergic drugs like tricyclic antidepressants can also cause mydriasis. It is important to note that anisocoria, which is the unequal size of pupils, can also lead to apparent mydriasis when compared to the other pupil.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old woman is seeking your assistance in getting a referral to a clinical geneticist. She has a family history of Huntington's disease, with her grandfather having died from the condition and her father recently being diagnosed. She wants to learn more about the disease and its genetic inheritance. Which of the following statements is accurate?
Your Answer: Huntington's disease is inherited in an autosomal recessive manner
Correct Answer: Huntington's disease is caused by a defect on chromosome 4
Explanation:The cause of Huntington’s disease is a flaw in the huntingtin gene located on chromosome 4, resulting in a degenerative and irreversible neurological disorder. It is inherited in an autosomal dominant pattern and affects both genders equally.
Huntington’s disease is a genetic disorder that causes progressive and incurable neurodegeneration. It is inherited in an autosomal dominant manner and is caused by a trinucleotide repeat expansion of CAG in the huntingtin gene on chromosome 4. This can result in the phenomenon of anticipation, where the disease presents at an earlier age in successive generations. The disease leads to the degeneration of cholinergic and GABAergic neurons in the striatum of the basal ganglia, which can cause a range of symptoms.
Typically, symptoms of Huntington’s disease develop after the age of 35 and can include chorea, personality changes such as irritability, apathy, and depression, intellectual impairment, dystonia, and saccadic eye movements. Unfortunately, there is currently no cure for Huntington’s disease, and it usually results in death around 20 years after the initial symptoms develop.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
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Question 8
Correct
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A 50-year-old man comes to your clinic complaining of progressive dysarthria, dysphagia, facial and tongue weakness, and emotional lability. During the examination, you observe an exaggerated jaw jerk reflex. Which cranial nerve is responsible for this efferent pathway of the reflex?
Your Answer: Mandibular division of the trigeminal nerve
Explanation:The efferent limb of the jaw jerk reflex is controlled by the mandibular division of the trigeminal nerve (CN V3). This nerve supplies sensation to the lower face and buccal membranes of the mouth, as well as providing secretory-motor function to the parotid gland. In conditions with pathology above the spinal cord, such as pseudobulbar palsy, the jaw jerk reflex can become hyperreflexic as an upper motor sign. The ophthalmic division of the trigeminal nerve (CN V1) and the maxillary division of the trigeminal nerve (CN V2) are not responsible for the efferent limb of the jaw jerk reflex, as they provide sensory function to other areas of the face.
Cranial nerves are a set of 12 nerves that emerge from the brain and control various functions of the head and neck. Each nerve has a specific function, such as smell, sight, eye movement, facial sensation, and tongue movement. Some nerves are sensory, some are motor, and some are both. A useful mnemonic to remember the order of the nerves is Some Say Marry Money But My Brother Says Big Brains Matter Most, with S representing sensory, M representing motor, and B representing both.
In addition to their specific functions, cranial nerves also play a role in various reflexes. These reflexes involve an afferent limb, which carries sensory information to the brain, and an efferent limb, which carries motor information from the brain to the muscles. Examples of cranial nerve reflexes include the corneal reflex, jaw jerk, gag reflex, carotid sinus reflex, pupillary light reflex, and lacrimation reflex. Understanding the functions and reflexes of the cranial nerves is important in diagnosing and treating neurological disorders.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A young man presents with loss of fine-touch and vibration sensation on the right side of his body. He also shows a loss of proprioception on the same side. What anatomical structure is likely to have been damaged?
Your Answer: Left dorsal column
Correct Answer: Right dorsal column
Explanation:Spinal cord lesions can affect different tracts and result in various clinical symptoms. Motor lesions, such as amyotrophic lateral sclerosis and poliomyelitis, affect either upper or lower motor neurons, resulting in spastic paresis or lower motor neuron signs. Combined motor and sensory lesions, such as Brown-Sequard syndrome, subacute combined degeneration of the spinal cord, Friedrich’s ataxia, anterior spinal artery occlusion, and syringomyelia, affect multiple tracts and result in a combination of spastic paresis, loss of proprioception and vibration sensation, limb ataxia, and loss of pain and temperature sensation. Multiple sclerosis can involve asymmetrical and varying spinal tracts and result in a combination of motor, sensory, and ataxia symptoms. Sensory lesions, such as neurosyphilis, affect the dorsal columns and result in loss of proprioception and vibration sensation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 75-year-old woman has experienced a TIA during her hospital stay. An ultrasound revealed an 80% blockage in one of her carotid arteries, leading to a carotid endarterectomy. After the procedure, the doctor examines the patient and notices that when asked to stick out her tongue, it deviates towards the left side.
Which cranial nerve has been affected in this scenario?Your Answer: Left hypoglossal nerve
Correct Answer: Right hypoglossal nerve
Explanation:When the hypoglossal nerve is damaged, the tongue deviates towards the side of the lesion. This is because the genioglossus muscle, which normally pushes the tongue to the opposite side, is weakened. In the case of a carotid endarterectomy, the hypoglossal nerve may be damaged as it passes through the hypoglossal canal and down the neck. A good memory aid is the tongue never lies as it points towards the side of the lesion. The correct answer in this case is the right hypoglossal nerve, as the patient’s tongue deviates towards the right. Lesions of the left glossopharyngeal nerve, right glossopharyngeal nerve, left hypoglossal nerve, and left trigeminal nerve would result in different symptoms and are therefore incorrect answers.
Cranial nerves are a set of 12 nerves that emerge from the brain and control various functions of the head and neck. Each nerve has a specific function, such as smell, sight, eye movement, facial sensation, and tongue movement. Some nerves are sensory, some are motor, and some are both. A useful mnemonic to remember the order of the nerves is Some Say Marry Money But My Brother Says Big Brains Matter Most, with S representing sensory, M representing motor, and B representing both.
In addition to their specific functions, cranial nerves also play a role in various reflexes. These reflexes involve an afferent limb, which carries sensory information to the brain, and an efferent limb, which carries motor information from the brain to the muscles. Examples of cranial nerve reflexes include the corneal reflex, jaw jerk, gag reflex, carotid sinus reflex, pupillary light reflex, and lacrimation reflex. Understanding the functions and reflexes of the cranial nerves is important in diagnosing and treating neurological disorders.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
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Question 11
Correct
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A teenage boy is undergoing a procedure to remove an abscess on his back. While being put under general anesthesia, he is administered fentanyl intravenously for pain relief.
What characteristics of fentanyl make it a preferable choice in this situation over other opioids such as morphine?Your Answer: Fentanyl is more lipophilic and therefore has a faster onset
Explanation:Fentanyl analgesic onset is faster than morphine because of its higher lipophilicity, allowing it to penetrate the CNS more rapidly.
When inducing anesthesia, it is crucial to have a quick-acting analgesic to minimize the physical response to intubation. Fentanyl’s greater lipophilicity enables it to cross the blood-brain barrier more efficiently, resulting in a faster effect on the CNS.
Both fentanyl and morphine bind to opioid receptors in the CNS, producing their effects.
Due to its higher potency, fentanyl requires a smaller dosage than morphine.
As a synthetic opioid, fentanyl causes less nausea and vomiting.
Understanding Opioids: Types, Receptors, and Clinical Uses
Opioids are a class of chemical compounds that act upon opioid receptors located within the central nervous system (CNS). These receptors are G-protein coupled receptors that have numerous actions throughout the body. There are three clinically relevant groups of opioid receptors: mu (µ), kappa (κ), and delta (δ) receptors. Endogenous opioids, such as endorphins, dynorphins, and enkephalins, are produced by specific cells within the CNS and their actions depend on whether µ-receptors or δ-receptors and κ-receptors are their main target.
Drugs targeted at opioid receptors are the largest group of analgesic drugs and form the second and third steps of the WHO pain ladder of managing analgesia. The choice of which opioid drug to use depends on the patient’s needs and the clinical scenario. The first step of the pain ladder involves non-opioids such as paracetamol and non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs. The second step involves weak opioids such as codeine and tramadol, while the third step involves strong opioids such as morphine, oxycodone, methadone, and fentanyl.
The strength, routes of administration, common uses, and significant side effects of these opioid drugs vary. Weak opioids have moderate analgesic effects without exposing the patient to as many serious adverse effects associated with strong opioids. Strong opioids have powerful analgesic effects but are also more liable to cause opioid-related side effects such as sedation, respiratory depression, constipation, urinary retention, and addiction. The sedative effects of opioids are also useful in anesthesia with potent drugs used as part of induction of a general anesthetic.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
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Question 12
Correct
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Ben, an 18-year-old male, attends his follow up shoulder clinic appointment following a traumatic football injury.
Dr. Patel, the orthopaedic surgeon, carries out a shoulder examination and notes winging of the right scapula.
Which muscle is impacted?Your Answer: Serratus anterior
Explanation:The serratus anterior muscle is supplied by the long thoracic nerve.
Muscle Innervation Action
Accessory nerve Trapezius Upper fibres elevate scapula, middle fibres retract scapula, and lower fibres pull scapula inferiorly
Axillary nerve Deltoid Major abductor of the arm
Dorsal scapular nerve Levator scapulae Elevates scapula
Dorsal scapular nerve Rhomboid major Rotate and retract scapulaThe Long Thoracic Nerve and its Role in Scapular Winging
The long thoracic nerve is derived from the ventral rami of C5, C6, and C7, which are located close to their emergence from intervertebral foramina. It runs downward and passes either anterior or posterior to the middle scalene muscle before reaching the upper tip of the serratus anterior muscle. From there, it descends on the outer surface of this muscle, giving branches into it.
One of the most common symptoms of long thoracic nerve injury is scapular winging, which occurs when the serratus anterior muscle is weakened or paralyzed. This can happen due to a variety of reasons, including trauma, surgery, or nerve damage. In addition to long thoracic nerve injury, scapular winging can also be caused by spinal accessory nerve injury (which denervates the trapezius) or a dorsal scapular nerve injury.
Overall, the long thoracic nerve plays an important role in the function of the serratus anterior muscle and the stability of the scapula. Understanding its anatomy and function can help healthcare professionals diagnose and treat conditions that affect the nerve and its associated muscles.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
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Question 13
Correct
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A 52-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of feeling unsteady when walking for the past 4 days. He has also experienced tripping over his feet multiple times in the last few months, particularly with his left foot. Upon examination, there are no changes in tone, sensation, power, or reflexes, but there is a lack of coordination in his left lower limb and dysdiadochokinesis in his left upper limb. You refer him urgently to a neurologist and request an immediate MRI head scan. The scan reveals a mass in the left cerebellar hemisphere that is invading the fourth ventricle, causing asymmetry of the cisterna magna and impaired drainage of the fourth ventricle. What is the mechanism that allows cerebrospinal fluid to flow from the fourth ventricle into the cisterna magna?
Your Answer: Median aperture (foramen of Magendie)
Explanation:The correct answer is the median aperture, also known as the foramen of Magendie. This aperture allows cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) to drain from the fourth ventricle into the subarachnoid space.
The third ventricle is located in the midline between the thalami of the two hemispheres and communicates with the lateral ventricles via the interventricular foramina. The fourth ventricle receives CSF from the third ventricle through the cerebral aqueduct of Sylvius.
CSF leaves the fourth ventricle through one of four openings: the median aperture, which drains into the cisterna magna; either of the two lateral apertures, which drain into the cerebellopontine angle cistern; or the central canal at the obex, which runs through the center of the spinal cord.
The patient in the question has presented with left-sided cerebellar signs, including lack of coordination in the left foot and dysdiadochokinesis on the same side. These symptoms suggest a left-sided cerebellar lesion, which was confirmed on imaging. Other cerebellar signs include gait ataxia, scanning speech, and intention tremors.
Cerebrospinal Fluid: Circulation and Composition
Cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) is a clear, colorless liquid that fills the space between the arachnoid mater and pia mater, covering the surface of the brain. The total volume of CSF in the brain is approximately 150ml, and it is produced by the ependymal cells in the choroid plexus or blood vessels. The majority of CSF is produced by the choroid plexus, accounting for 70% of the total volume. The remaining 30% is produced by blood vessels. The CSF is reabsorbed via the arachnoid granulations, which project into the venous sinuses.
The circulation of CSF starts from the lateral ventricles, which are connected to the third ventricle via the foramen of Munro. From the third ventricle, the CSF flows through the cerebral aqueduct (aqueduct of Sylvius) to reach the fourth ventricle via the foramina of Magendie and Luschka. The CSF then enters the subarachnoid space, where it circulates around the brain and spinal cord. Finally, the CSF is reabsorbed into the venous system via arachnoid granulations into the superior sagittal sinus.
The composition of CSF is essential for its proper functioning. The glucose level in CSF is between 50-80 mg/dl, while the protein level is between 15-40 mg/dl. Red blood cells are not present in CSF, and the white blood cell count is usually less than 3 cells/mm3. Understanding the circulation and composition of CSF is crucial for diagnosing and treating various neurological disorders.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
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Question 14
Incorrect
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As a third year medical student in an outpatient department with a dermatology consultant, you are evaluating a 27-year-old patient who is unresponsive to current hyperhidrosis treatment. The consultant suggests starting botox injections to prevent sweating. Can you explain the mechanism of action of botulinum toxin at the neuromuscular junction?
Your Answer: Blocks acetylcholine receptors on postsynaptic membrane
Correct Answer: Inhibits vesicles containing acetylcholine binding to presynaptic membrane
Explanation:Botulinum Toxin and its Mechanism of Action
Botulinum toxin is becoming increasingly popular in the medical field for treating various conditions such as cervical dystonia and achalasia. The toxin works by binding to the presynaptic cleft on the neurotransmitter and forming a complex with the attached receptor. This complex then invaginates the plasma membrane of the presynaptic cleft around the attached toxin. Once inside the cell, the toxin cleaves an important cytoplasmic protein that is required for efficient binding of the vesicles containing acetylcholine to the presynaptic membrane. This prevents the release of acetylcholine across the neurotransmitter.
It is important to note that the blockage of Ca2+ channels on the presynaptic membrane occurs in Lambert-Eaton syndrome, which is associated with small cell carcinoma of the lung and is a paraneoplastic syndrome. However, this is not related to the mechanism of action of botulinum toxin.
The effects of botox typically last for two to six months. Once complete denervation has occurred, the synapse produces new axonal terminals which bind to the motor end plate in a process called neurofibrillary sprouting. This allows for interrupted release of acetylcholine. Overall, botulinum toxin is a powerful tool in the medical field for treating various conditions by preventing the release of acetylcholine across the neurotransmitter.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A patient visiting the neurology outpatient clinic presents with a motor deficit. The neurologist observes muscle fasciculations, flaccid weakness, and decreased reflexes.
What is the location of the lesion?Your Answer: Motor cortex
Correct Answer: Peripheral nerve
Explanation:A lower motor neuron lesion can be identified by a decrease in reflex response.
When a lower motor neuron lesion occurs, it can result in reduced tone, weakness, and muscle fasciculations. These neurons originate in the anterior horn of the spinal cord and connect with the neuromuscular junction.
On the other hand, if the corticospinal tract is affected in the motor cortex, internal capsule, midbrain, or medulla, it would cause an upper motor neuron pattern of weakness. This would be characterized by hypertonia, brisk reflexes, and an upgoing plantar reflex response.
Reflexes are automatic responses that our body makes in response to certain stimuli. These responses are controlled by the nervous system and do not require conscious thought. There are several common reflexes that are associated with specific roots in the spinal cord. For example, the ankle reflex is associated with the S1-S2 root, while the knee reflex is associated with the L3-L4 root. Similarly, the biceps reflex is associated with the C5-C6 root, and the triceps reflex is associated with the C7-C8 root. Understanding these reflexes can help healthcare professionals diagnose and treat certain conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
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Question 16
Correct
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A 28-year-old patient arrives at the emergency department with a fever, neck stiffness, photophobia, and a non-blanching rash. Despite being vaccinated, they are experiencing these symptoms. During a lumbar puncture, the fluid obtained is turbid, with low glucose and an elevated opening pressure. What is the probable causative organism responsible for this patient's condition?
Your Answer: Streptococcus pneumoniae
Explanation:The most common cause of meningitis in adults is Streptococcus pneumoniae, which is also the likely pathogen in this patient’s case. His symptoms and lumbar puncture results suggest bacterial meningitis, with turbid fluid, raised opening pressure, and low glucose. While Escherichia coli is a common cause of meningitis in infants under 3 months, it is less likely in a 29-year-old. Haemophilus influenzae B is also an unlikely cause in this patient, who is up-to-date with their vaccinations and beyond the age range for this pathogen. Staphylococcus pneumoniae is a rare but serious cause of pneumonia, but not as likely as Streptococcus pneumoniae to be the cause of this patient’s symptoms.
Aetiology of Meningitis in Adults
Meningitis is a condition that can be caused by various infectious agents such as bacteria, viruses, and fungi. However, this article will focus on bacterial meningitis. The most common bacteria that cause meningitis in adults is Streptococcus pneumoniae, which can develop after an episode of otitis media. Another bacterium that can cause meningitis is Neisseria meningitidis. Listeria monocytogenes is more common in immunocompromised patients and the elderly. Lastly, Haemophilus influenzae type b is also a known cause of meningitis in adults. It is important to identify the causative agent of meningitis to provide appropriate treatment and prevent complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
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Question 17
Correct
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A young woman presents with a bilateral intention tremor. She is also found to have a range of other bilateral deficits, including dysdiadochokinesia, ataxia, nystagmus, and dysarthria. Which anatomical structure has likely been affected?
Your Answer: Cerebellar vermis
Explanation:The individual has a defect in the cerebellar vermis, which is located between the two hemispheres of the cerebellum. As a result, they are experiencing bilateral cerebellar abnormalities, which is evident from their symptoms. Vermin lesions can be caused by conditions such as Joubert Syndrome, Dandy Walker malformation, and rhombencephalosynapsis. On the other hand, lesions in the spinocerebellar tract or one side of the cerebellar hemisphere would cause unilateral, ipsilateral symptoms, making these options incorrect.
Spinal cord lesions can affect different tracts and result in various clinical symptoms. Motor lesions, such as amyotrophic lateral sclerosis and poliomyelitis, affect either upper or lower motor neurons, resulting in spastic paresis or lower motor neuron signs. Combined motor and sensory lesions, such as Brown-Sequard syndrome, subacute combined degeneration of the spinal cord, Friedrich’s ataxia, anterior spinal artery occlusion, and syringomyelia, affect multiple tracts and result in a combination of spastic paresis, loss of proprioception and vibration sensation, limb ataxia, and loss of pain and temperature sensation. Multiple sclerosis can involve asymmetrical and varying spinal tracts and result in a combination of motor, sensory, and ataxia symptoms. Sensory lesions, such as neurosyphilis, affect the dorsal columns and result in loss of proprioception and vibration sensation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 29-year-old female comes to see you with a complaint of double vision when she looks to the left. Upon examination, you observe that her right eye adducts minimally while her left eye abducts with nystagmus. She reports no issues with her hearing or speech and is able to comprehend your instructions. You suspect that a brain lesion may be responsible for her symptoms.
What is the probable location of the lesion?Your Answer: Arcuate fasciculus
Correct Answer: Medial longitudinal fasciculus
Explanation:Internuclear ophthalmoplegia is caused by a lesion in the medial longitudinal fasciculus. This patient is experiencing impaired adduction of the right eye and horizontal nystagmus of the left eye upon abduction due to a lesion on the right side.
Wernicke’s aphasia, on the other hand, is caused by a lesion in the superior temporal gyrus and results in fluent speech with impaired comprehension. This patient does not exhibit any speech or comprehension issues.
A lesion in the occipital lobe can cause homonymous hemianopia with macular sparing, cortical blindness, or visual agnosia, but it does not cause nystagmus or impaired adduction.
Broca’s aphasia, caused by a lesion in the inferior frontal gyrus, results in non-fluent, halting speech, but comprehension remains intact. This patient’s speech is unaffected.
Conduction aphasia, caused by a lesion in the arcuate fasciculus, results in poor repetition despite fluent speech and normal comprehension. This is not the case for this patient.
Understanding Internuclear Ophthalmoplegia
Internuclear ophthalmoplegia is a condition that affects the horizontal movement of the eyes. It is caused by a lesion in the medial longitudinal fasciculus (MLF), which is responsible for interconnecting the IIIrd, IVth, and VIth cranial nuclei. This area is located in the paramedian region of the midbrain and pons. The main feature of this condition is impaired adduction of the eye on the same side as the lesion, along with horizontal nystagmus of the abducting eye on the opposite side.
The most common causes of internuclear ophthalmoplegia are multiple sclerosis and vascular disease. It is important to note that this condition can also be a sign of other underlying neurological disorders.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
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Question 19
Correct
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A 75-year-old woman complains of faecal incontinence and displays weakened anal sphincter muscles upon examination. What are the primary nerve root values for the nerves that provide the external anal sphincter?
Your Answer: S2,3,4
Explanation:To prevent fecal matter from reaching the floor, the external anal sphincter receives nerve supply from the pudendal nerve’s inferior rectal branch, which originates from S2, S3, and S4 root values.
Anatomy of the Anal Sphincter
The anal sphincter is composed of two muscles: the internal anal sphincter and the external anal sphincter. The internal anal sphincter is made up of smooth muscle and is continuous with the circular muscle of the rectum. It surrounds the upper two-thirds of the anal canal and is supplied by sympathetic nerves. On the other hand, the external anal sphincter is composed of striated muscle and surrounds the internal sphincter but extends more distally. It is supplied by the inferior rectal branch of the pudendal nerve (S2 and S3) and the perineal branch of the S4 nerve roots.
In summary, the anal sphincter is a complex structure that plays a crucial role in maintaining continence. The internal and external anal sphincters work together to control the passage of feces and gas through the anus. Understanding the anatomy of the anal sphincter is important for diagnosing and treating conditions that affect bowel function.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
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Question 20
Correct
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A 35-year-old woman presents with a 2-month history of headaches and double vision. Her headaches are worse upon waking and when coughing or straining, and she has also experienced nausea and vomiting. She has a medical history of atrial fibrillation and takes apixaban.
During the examination, a right dilated, fixed pupil is observed, but her visual fields are intact. The rest of the examination is unremarkable.
Which cranial nerve is most likely affected in this case?Your Answer: Right CN III palsy
Explanation:The correct answer is right CNIII palsy. The patient is likely experiencing raised intracranial pressure, which commonly affects the parasympathetic fibers of the oculomotor nerve responsible for pupillary constriction. In this case, the right pupil is dilated and fixed, indicating that the right oculomotor nerve is affected. The oculomotor nerve also innervates all eye muscles except the superior oblique and lateral rectus muscles.
Left CNIII palsy is not the correct answer as it would present with different symptoms, including an abducted, laterally rotated, and depressed eye with ptosis of the upper eyelid. This is not observed in this patient’s examination. Additionally, in raised intracranial pressure, the parasympathetic fibers are affected first, so other clinical signs may not be present.
Left CNVI palsy is also not the correct answer as it would present with horizontal diplopia and defective abduction of the left eye due to the left lateral rectus muscle being affected. This is not observed in this patient’s examination.
Right CNII palsy is not the correct answer as it affects vision and would present with monocular blindness, which is not observed in this patient.
Cranial nerves are a set of 12 nerves that emerge from the brain and control various functions of the head and neck. Each nerve has a specific function, such as smell, sight, eye movement, facial sensation, and tongue movement. Some nerves are sensory, some are motor, and some are both. A useful mnemonic to remember the order of the nerves is Some Say Marry Money But My Brother Says Big Brains Matter Most, with S representing sensory, M representing motor, and B representing both.
In addition to their specific functions, cranial nerves also play a role in various reflexes. These reflexes involve an afferent limb, which carries sensory information to the brain, and an efferent limb, which carries motor information from the brain to the muscles. Examples of cranial nerve reflexes include the corneal reflex, jaw jerk, gag reflex, carotid sinus reflex, pupillary light reflex, and lacrimation reflex. Understanding the functions and reflexes of the cranial nerves is important in diagnosing and treating neurological disorders.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
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Question 21
Incorrect
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Sarah is a 63-year-old woman who has been experiencing gradual visual changes for the past 2 years. Recently, she has noticed a decline in her peripheral vision and has been running into objects.
During the examination, her eyes do not appear red. Ophthalmoscopy reveals bilateral cupping with a cup to disc ratio of 0.8. Tonometry shows a pressure of 26mmHg in her left eye and 28mmHg in her right eye.
After trying brinzolamide, latanoprost, and brimonidine, which were not well tolerated due to side effects, what is the mechanism of action of the best alternative medication?Your Answer: Decrease uveoscleral outflow
Correct Answer: Decrease aqueous humour production
Explanation:Timolol, a beta blocker, is an effective treatment for primary open-angle glaucoma as it reduces the production of aqueous humor in the eye. This condition is caused by a gradual increase in intraocular pressure due to poor drainage within the trabecular meshwork, resulting in gradual vision loss. The first-line treatments for primary open-angle glaucoma include beta blockers, prostaglandin analogues, carbonic anhydrase inhibitors, and alpha-2-agonists. However, if a patient is unable to tolerate carbonic anhydrase inhibitors, prostaglandin analogues, or alpha-2-agonists, beta blockers like timolol are the remaining option. Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors reduce aqueous humor production, prostaglandin analogues increase uveoscleral outflow, and alpha-2-agonists have a dual action of reducing humor production and increasing outflow. It is important to note that increasing aqueous humor production and reducing uveoscleral outflow are not effective treatments for glaucoma.
Primary open-angle glaucoma is a type of optic neuropathy that is associated with increased intraocular pressure (IOP). It is classified based on whether the peripheral iris is covering the trabecular meshwork, which is important in the drainage of aqueous humour from the anterior chamber of the eye. In open-angle glaucoma, the iris is clear of the meshwork, but the trabecular network offers increased resistance to aqueous outflow, causing increased IOP. This condition affects 0.5% of people over the age of 40 and its prevalence increases with age up to 10% over the age of 80 years. Both males and females are equally affected. The main causes of primary open-angle glaucoma are increasing age and genetics, with first-degree relatives of an open-angle glaucoma patient having a 16% chance of developing the disease.
Primary open-angle glaucoma is characterised by a slow rise in intraocular pressure, which is symptomless for a long period. It is typically detected following an ocular pressure measurement during a routine examination by an optometrist. Signs of the condition include increased intraocular pressure, visual field defect, and pathological cupping of the optic disc. Case finding and provisional diagnosis are done by an optometrist, and referral to an ophthalmologist is done via the GP. Final diagnosis is made through investigations such as automated perimetry to assess visual field, slit lamp examination with pupil dilatation to assess optic nerve and fundus for a baseline, applanation tonometry to measure IOP, central corneal thickness measurement, and gonioscopy to assess peripheral anterior chamber configuration and depth. The risk of future visual impairment is assessed using risk factors such as IOP, central corneal thickness (CCT), family history, and life expectancy.
The majority of patients with primary open-angle glaucoma are managed with eye drops that aim to lower intraocular pressure and prevent progressive loss of visual field. According to NICE guidelines, the first line of treatment is a prostaglandin analogue (PGA) eyedrop, followed by a beta-blocker, carbonic anhydrase inhibitor, or sympathomimetic eyedrop as a second line of treatment. Surgery or laser treatment can be tried in more advanced cases. Reassessment is important to exclude progression and visual field loss and needs to be done more frequently if IOP is uncontrolled, the patient is high risk, or there
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 94-year-old male, previously diagnosed with Parkinson's disease, passed away due to aspirational pneumonia and underwent a post-mortem examination. As part of the examination, a histological analysis of the basal ganglia was conducted. What types of inclusion bodies are anticipated to be observed?
Your Answer: Amyloid bodies
Correct Answer: Lewy bodies
Explanation:Lewy bodies are commonly associated with Parkinson’s disease, but they can also be present in other conditions. These bodies are characterized by the presence of neuromelanin pigment and are typically found in the remaining Dopaminergic neurons in the substantia nigra pars compacta (SNc). They can be identified through staining for various proteins, including a-synuclein and ubiquitin. While their exact function is not yet fully understood, it is believed that Lewy bodies may play a role in managing proteins that are not properly broken down due to protein dysfunction.
Parkinson’s disease is a progressive neurodegenerative disorder that occurs due to the degeneration of dopaminergic neurons in the substantia nigra. This leads to a classic triad of symptoms, including bradykinesia, tremor, and rigidity, which are typically asymmetrical. The disease is more common in men and is usually diagnosed around the age of 65. Bradykinesia is characterized by a poverty of movement, shuffling steps, and difficulty initiating movement. Tremors are most noticeable at rest and typically occur in the thumb and index finger. Rigidity can be either lead pipe or cogwheel, and other features include mask-like facies, flexed posture, and drooling of saliva. Psychiatric features such as depression, dementia, and sleep disturbances may also occur. Diagnosis is usually clinical, but if there is difficulty differentiating between essential tremor and Parkinson’s disease, 123I‑FP‑CIT single photon emission computed tomography (SPECT) may be considered.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
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Question 23
Correct
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A 57-year-old man with a long-standing history of type 2 diabetes and hypertension visited his physician for a routine check-up. Due to his prolonged diabetes history, the physician referred the man for an eye examination to detect any diabetes-related conditions. The ophthalmology clinic report revealed a slight increase in the intraocular pressure. Although the man reported no vision problems, the physician recommended starting treatment with a medication to reduce the risk of future vision damage, warning the patient that the drug may darken his eye color. What is the drug's mechanism of action prescribed by the doctor?
Your Answer: Improves uveoscleral outflow
Explanation:Latanoprost is a medication used to treat glaucoma by increasing the outflow of aqueous humor. Diabetic patients are at risk of various eye-related complications, including glaucoma. Chronic closed-angle glaucoma is common in diabetic patients due to the proliferation of blood vessels in the iris, which blocks the drainage pathway of aqueous humor. Treatment is necessary to reduce intraocular pressure and prevent damage to the optic nerve. Acetazolamide works by reducing intraocular pressure, while carbachol and pilocarpine activate muscarinic cholinergic receptors to open the trabecular meshwork pathway. Epinephrine administration produces alpha-1-agonist effects. Prostaglandin analogs such as latanoprost, bimatoprost, and travoprost are the only medications used to reduce intraocular pressure that cause darkening of the iris, but they do not affect the formation of aqueous humor.
Primary open-angle glaucoma is a type of optic neuropathy that is associated with increased intraocular pressure (IOP). It is classified based on whether the peripheral iris is covering the trabecular meshwork, which is important in the drainage of aqueous humour from the anterior chamber of the eye. In open-angle glaucoma, the iris is clear of the meshwork, but the trabecular network offers increased resistance to aqueous outflow, causing increased IOP. This condition affects 0.5% of people over the age of 40 and its prevalence increases with age up to 10% over the age of 80 years. Both males and females are equally affected. The main causes of primary open-angle glaucoma are increasing age and genetics, with first-degree relatives of an open-angle glaucoma patient having a 16% chance of developing the disease.
Primary open-angle glaucoma is characterised by a slow rise in intraocular pressure, which is symptomless for a long period. It is typically detected following an ocular pressure measurement during a routine examination by an optometrist. Signs of the condition include increased intraocular pressure, visual field defect, and pathological cupping of the optic disc. Case finding and provisional diagnosis are done by an optometrist, and referral to an ophthalmologist is done via the GP. Final diagnosis is made through investigations such as automated perimetry to assess visual field, slit lamp examination with pupil dilatation to assess optic nerve and fundus for a baseline, applanation tonometry to measure IOP, central corneal thickness measurement, and gonioscopy to assess peripheral anterior chamber configuration and depth. The risk of future visual impairment is assessed using risk factors such as IOP, central corneal thickness (CCT), family history, and life expectancy.
The majority of patients with primary open-angle glaucoma are managed with eye drops that aim to lower intraocular pressure and prevent progressive loss of visual field. According to NICE guidelines, the first line of treatment is a prostaglandin analogue (PGA) eyedrop, followed by a beta-blocker, carbonic anhydrase inhibitor, or sympathomimetic eyedrop as a second line of treatment. Surgery or laser treatment can be tried in more advanced cases. Reassessment is important to exclude progression and visual field loss and needs to be done more frequently if IOP is uncontrolled, the patient is high risk, or there
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
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Question 24
Correct
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A 65-year-old male arrives at the emergency department with a sudden onset of numbness on the lateral aspect of his calf and an inability to dorsiflex his foot. Which nerve is most likely affected in this presentation?
Your Answer: Common peroneal nerve
Explanation:The most frequent reason for foot drop is a lesion in the common peroneal nerve.
The common peroneal nerve is responsible for providing sensation to the posterolateral part of the leg and controlling the anterior and lateral compartments of the lower leg. If it is compressed or damaged, it can result in foot drop.
While the sciatic nerve divides into the common peroneal nerve, it would cause additional symptoms.
The femoral nerve only innervates the upper thigh and inner leg, so it would not cause foot drop.
The tibial nerve is the other branch of the sciatic nerve and controls the muscles in the posterior compartment of the leg.
The posterior femoral cutaneous nerve is responsible for providing sensation to the skin of the posterior aspect of the thigh.
Understanding Foot Drop: Causes and Examination
Foot drop is a condition that occurs when the foot dorsiflexors become weak. This can be caused by various factors, including a common peroneal nerve lesion, L5 radiculopathy, sciatic nerve lesion, superficial or deep peroneal nerve lesion, or central nerve lesions. However, the most common cause is a common peroneal nerve lesion, which is often due to compression at the neck of the fibula. This can be triggered by certain positions, prolonged confinement, recent weight loss, Baker’s cysts, or plaster casts to the lower leg.
To diagnose foot drop, a thorough examination is necessary. If the patient has an isolated peroneal neuropathy, there will be weakness of foot dorsiflexion and eversion, and reflexes will be normal. Weakness of hip abduction is suggestive of an L5 radiculopathy. Bilateral symptoms, fasciculations, or other abnormal neurological findings are indications for specialist referral.
If foot drop is diagnosed, conservative management is appropriate. Patients should avoid leg crossing, squatting, and kneeling. Symptoms typically improve over 2-3 months.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 27-year-old male patient has a pelvic chondrosarcoma excision surgery, resulting in the sacrifice of the obturator nerve. Which muscle is the least likely to be affected by this procedure?
Your Answer: Pectineus
Correct Answer: Sartorius
Explanation:The accessory obturator nerve supplies the pectineus muscle in the population.
Anatomy of the Obturator Nerve
The obturator nerve is formed by branches from the ventral divisions of L2, L3, and L4 nerve roots, with L3 being the main contributor. It descends vertically in the posterior part of the psoas major muscle and emerges from its medial border at the lateral margin of the sacrum. After crossing the sacroiliac joint, it enters the lesser pelvis and descends on the obturator internus muscle to enter the obturator groove. The nerve lies lateral to the internal iliac vessels and ureter in the lesser pelvis and is joined by the obturator vessels lateral to the ovary or ductus deferens.
The obturator nerve supplies the muscles of the medial compartment of the thigh, including the external obturator, adductor longus, adductor brevis, adductor magnus (except for the lower part supplied by the sciatic nerve), and gracilis. The cutaneous branch, which is often absent, supplies the skin and fascia of the distal two-thirds of the medial aspect of the thigh when present.
The obturator canal connects the pelvis and thigh and contains the obturator artery, vein, and nerve, which divides into anterior and posterior branches. Understanding the anatomy of the obturator nerve is important in diagnosing and treating conditions that affect the medial thigh and pelvic region.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
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Question 26
Correct
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A patient in their 50s presents to the doctor with a history of head trauma. During the neurological examination, the doctor performs a corneal reflex test and observes an absence of the reflex, but the patient is able to blink voluntarily. What area of the skull is likely to have a lesion?
Your Answer: Superior orbital fissure
Explanation:The ophthalmic nerve, which is responsible for the sensation of the eyeball and the corneal reflex, passes through the superior orbital fissure. This location makes anatomical sense as it is closer to the eyes. The foramen ovale, foramen rotundum, internal acoustic meatus, and jugular foramen are incorrect options as they do not innervate the eyes or are located further away from them.
Cranial nerves are a set of 12 nerves that emerge from the brain and control various functions of the head and neck. Each nerve has a specific function, such as smell, sight, eye movement, facial sensation, and tongue movement. Some nerves are sensory, some are motor, and some are both. A useful mnemonic to remember the order of the nerves is Some Say Marry Money But My Brother Says Big Brains Matter Most, with S representing sensory, M representing motor, and B representing both.
In addition to their specific functions, cranial nerves also play a role in various reflexes. These reflexes involve an afferent limb, which carries sensory information to the brain, and an efferent limb, which carries motor information from the brain to the muscles. Examples of cranial nerve reflexes include the corneal reflex, jaw jerk, gag reflex, carotid sinus reflex, pupillary light reflex, and lacrimation reflex. Understanding the functions and reflexes of the cranial nerves is important in diagnosing and treating neurological disorders.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
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Question 27
Correct
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A 55-year-old woman is recuperating after a challenging mastectomy and axillary lymph node dissection for breast cancer. She reports experiencing shoulder discomfort, and upon examination, her scapula is visibly winged. Which of the following is the most probable root cause of the loss of innervation?
Your Answer: Serratus anterior
Explanation:Winging of the scapula is usually caused by long thoracic nerve injury, which may occur during axillary dissection. Rhomboid damage is a rare cause.
The Long Thoracic Nerve and its Role in Scapular Winging
The long thoracic nerve is derived from the ventral rami of C5, C6, and C7, which are located close to their emergence from intervertebral foramina. It runs downward and passes either anterior or posterior to the middle scalene muscle before reaching the upper tip of the serratus anterior muscle. From there, it descends on the outer surface of this muscle, giving branches into it.
One of the most common symptoms of long thoracic nerve injury is scapular winging, which occurs when the serratus anterior muscle is weakened or paralyzed. This can happen due to a variety of reasons, including trauma, surgery, or nerve damage. In addition to long thoracic nerve injury, scapular winging can also be caused by spinal accessory nerve injury (which denervates the trapezius) or a dorsal scapular nerve injury.
Overall, the long thoracic nerve plays an important role in the function of the serratus anterior muscle and the stability of the scapula. Understanding its anatomy and function can help healthcare professionals diagnose and treat conditions that affect the nerve and its associated muscles.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
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Question 28
Correct
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A 40-year-old man visits his GP with his wife who is worried about his behavior. Upon further inquiry, the wife reveals that her husband has been displaying erratic and impulsive behavior for the past 4 months. She also discloses that he inappropriately touched a family friend, which is out of character for him. When asked about his medical history, the patient mentions that he used to be an avid motorcyclist but had a severe accident 6 months ago, resulting in a month-long hospital stay. He denies experiencing flashbacks and reports generally good mood. What is the most probable cause of his symptoms?
Your Answer: Frontal lobe injury
Explanation:Disinhibition can be a result of frontal lobe lesions.
Based on his recent accident, it is probable that the man has suffered from a frontal lobe injury. Such injuries can cause changes in behavior, including impulsiveness and a lack of inhibition.
If the injury were to the occipital lobe, it would likely result in vision loss.
The patient’s denial of flashbacks and positive mood make it unlikely that he has PTSD.
Injuries to the parietal and temporal lobes can lead to communication difficulties and sensory perception problems.
Brain lesions can be localized based on the neurological disorders or features that are present. The gross anatomy of the brain can provide clues to the location of the lesion. For example, lesions in the parietal lobe can result in sensory inattention, apraxias, astereognosis, inferior homonymous quadrantanopia, and Gerstmann’s syndrome. Lesions in the occipital lobe can cause homonymous hemianopia, cortical blindness, and visual agnosia. Temporal lobe lesions can result in Wernicke’s aphasia, superior homonymous quadrantanopia, auditory agnosia, and prosopagnosia. Lesions in the frontal lobes can cause expressive aphasia, disinhibition, perseveration, anosmia, and an inability to generate a list. Lesions in the cerebellum can result in gait and truncal ataxia, intention tremor, past pointing, dysdiadokinesis, and nystagmus.
In addition to the gross anatomy, specific areas of the brain can also provide clues to the location of a lesion. For example, lesions in the medial thalamus and mammillary bodies of the hypothalamus can result in Wernicke and Korsakoff syndrome. Lesions in the subthalamic nucleus of the basal ganglia can cause hemiballism, while lesions in the striatum (caudate nucleus) can result in Huntington chorea. Parkinson’s disease is associated with lesions in the substantia nigra of the basal ganglia, while lesions in the amygdala can cause Kluver-Bucy syndrome, which is characterized by hypersexuality, hyperorality, hyperphagia, and visual agnosia. By identifying these specific conditions, doctors can better localize brain lesions and provide appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
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Question 29
Correct
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A 67-year-old man visits his GP complaining of alterations in his vision. In addition to decreased sharpness, he describes object distortion, difficulty discerning colors, and occasional flashes of light. He has a history of smoking (40-pack-year) and a high BMI. Based on these symptoms, what is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Age-related macular degeneration
Explanation:Age-related macular degeneration (AMD) is characterized by a decrease in visual acuity, altered perception of colors and shades, and photopsia (flashing lights). The risk of developing AMD is higher in individuals who are older and have a history of smoking.
As a natural part of the aging process, presbyopia can cause difficulty with near vision. Smoking increases the likelihood of developing cataracts, which can result in poor visual acuity and reduced contrast sensitivity. However, symptoms such as distortion and flashing lights are not typically associated with cataracts. Similarly, retinal detachment is unlikely given the patient’s risk factors and lack of distortion and perception issues. Since there is no mention of diabetes mellitus in the patient’s history, diabetic retinopathy is not a plausible explanation.
Age-related macular degeneration (ARMD) is a common cause of blindness in the UK, characterized by degeneration of the central retina (macula) and the formation of drusen. The risk of ARMD increases with age, smoking, family history, and conditions associated with an increased risk of ischaemic cardiovascular disease. ARMD is classified into dry and wet forms, with the latter carrying the worst prognosis. Clinical features include subacute onset of visual loss, difficulties in dark adaptation, and visual hallucinations. Signs include distortion of line perception, the presence of drusen, and well-demarcated red patches in wet ARMD. Investigations include slit-lamp microscopy, colour fundus photography, fluorescein angiography, indocyanine green angiography, and ocular coherence tomography. Treatment options include a combination of zinc with anti-oxidant vitamins for dry ARMD and anti-VEGF agents for wet ARMD. Laser photocoagulation is also an option, but anti-VEGF therapies are usually preferred.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
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Question 30
Correct
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A 43-year-old woman visits the GP with her spouse. She reports experiencing dryness in her eyes for the past four months. You suspect that the gland responsible for tear production may be impaired.
What is the venous drainage of this gland?Your Answer: Superior ophthalmic vein
Explanation:The superior ophthalmic vein is where the lacrimal gland drains its venous blood. The lacrimal gland is a gland that produces tears in response to emotional events or conjunctival irritation. The submandibular gland drains its venous blood into the anterior facial vein, which is located deep to the marginal mandibular nerve. The basilic vein is one of the main pathways for venous drainage in the arm and hand, connecting to the palmar venous arch distally and the axillary vein proximally. The retromandibular vein is formed by the union of the maxillary vein and the superficial temporal vein, and it is the venous drainage of the parotid gland. The inferior mesenteric vein, along with the superior mesenteric vein, is responsible for draining the colon.
The Lacrimation Reflex
The lacrimation reflex is a response to conjunctival irritation or emotional events. When the conjunctiva is irritated, it sends signals via the ophthalmic nerve to the superior salivary center. From there, efferent signals pass via the greater petrosal nerve (parasympathetic preganglionic fibers) and the deep petrosal nerve (postganglionic sympathetic fibers) to the lacrimal apparatus. The parasympathetic fibers relay in the pterygopalatine ganglion, while the sympathetic fibers do not synapse.
This reflex is important for maintaining the health of the eye by keeping it moist and protecting it from foreign particles. It is also responsible for the tears that are shed during emotional events, such as crying. The lacrimal gland, which produces tears, is innervated by the secretomotor parasympathetic fibers from the pterygopalatine ganglion. The nasolacrimal duct, which carries tears from the eye to the nose, opens anteriorly in the inferior meatus of the nose. Overall, the lacrimal system plays a crucial role in maintaining the health and function of the eye.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
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Question 31
Correct
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A 50-year-old male comes to the emergency department complaining of left sided vision loss, headache and scalp tenderness. During the examination, he has a fever of 38.5°C, jaw claudication and a relative afferent pupillary defect is observed. The medical team suspects giant cell arteritis and initiates high dose prednisone treatment.
What structural abnormality is responsible for the relative afferent pupillary defect?Your Answer: Ischaemic optic neuropathy
Explanation:A relative afferent pupillary defect is a sign that there may be an optic nerve lesion or a severe retinal disease. In cases of giant cell arteritis (GCA), an inflammatory process of the blood vessels in the head can lead to ischaemic optic neuropathy, which can cause a RAPD. However, blindness, corneal opacity, and photophobia alone are not enough to cause a RAPD. While optic neuritis can also result in a RAPD, this is not typically seen in GCA and may instead indicate a first presentation of multiple sclerosis.
A relative afferent pupillary defect, also known as the Marcus-Gunn pupil, can be identified through the swinging light test. This condition is caused by a lesion that is located anterior to the optic chiasm, which can be found in the optic nerve or retina. When light is shone on the affected eye, it appears to dilate while the normal eye remains unchanged.
The causes of a relative afferent pupillary defect can vary. For instance, it may be caused by a detachment of the retina or optic neuritis, which is often associated with multiple sclerosis. The pupillary light reflex pathway involves the afferent pathway, which starts from the retina and goes through the optic nerve, lateral geniculate body, and midbrain. The efferent pathway, on the other hand, starts from the Edinger-Westphal nucleus in the midbrain and goes through the oculomotor nerve.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
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Question 32
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old man is having an inguinal hernia repair done with local anaesthesia. During the surgery, the surgeon comes across a bleeding site and uses diathermy to manage it. After a minute or so, the patient reports feeling a burning pain from the heat at the surgical site. Which type of nerve fibers are responsible for transmitting this signal?
Your Answer: A α fibres
Correct Answer: C fibres
Explanation:Mechanothermal stimuli are transmitted slowly through C fibres, while A α fibres transmit motor proprioception information, A β fibres transmit touch and pressure information, and B fibres are responsible for autonomic functions.
Neurons and Synaptic Signalling
Neurons are the building blocks of the nervous system and are made up of dendrites, a cell body, and axons. They can be classified by their anatomical structure, axon width, and function. Neurons communicate with each other at synapses, which consist of a presynaptic membrane, synaptic gap, and postsynaptic membrane. Neurotransmitters are small chemical messengers that diffuse across the synaptic gap and activate receptors on the postsynaptic membrane. Different neurotransmitters have different effects, with some causing excitation and others causing inhibition. The deactivation of neurotransmitters varies, with some being degraded by enzymes and others being reuptaken by cells. Understanding the mechanisms of neuronal communication is crucial for understanding the functioning of the nervous system.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
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Question 33
Incorrect
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A pregnant woman arrives at the ER with a concern about her facial appearance since waking up this morning. What signs would indicate a diagnosis of Bell's palsy, specifically a unilateral LMN lesion of the facial nerve?
Your Answer: Unilateral facial weakness sparing the forehead and unilateral failure of eye closure
Correct Answer: Unilateral facial weakness involving the forehead and unilateral failure of eye closure
Explanation:When the facial nerve is unilaterally damaged, only the same side of the face is affected because this nerve does not cross over. Despite the fact that the facial nerve also transmits taste signals from the front two-thirds of the tongue, a lower motor neuron (LMN) injury only impacts the nerve’s motor function. This results in weakened facial expression muscles. The muscles in the forehead receive some innervation from the opposite side, so a LMN injury affects the forehead, while an upper motor neuron (UMN) injury does not affect the forehead.
The facial nerve has a nucleus located in the ventrolateral pontine tegmentum, and its axons exit the ventral pons medial to the spinal trigeminal nucleus. Lesions affecting the corticobulbar tract are known as upper motor neuron lesions, while those affecting the individual branches of the facial nerve are lower motor neuron lesions. The lower motor neurons of the facial nerve can leave from either the left or right posterior or anterior facial motor nucleus, with the temporal branch receiving input from both hemispheres of the cerebral cortex, while the zygomatic, buccal, mandibular, and cervical branches receive input from only the contralateral hemisphere.
In the case of an upper motor neuron lesion in the left hemisphere, the right mid- and lower-face would be paralyzed, while the forehead would remain unaffected. This is because the anterior facial motor nucleus receives only contralateral cortical input, while the posterior component receives input from both hemispheres. However, a lower motor neuron lesion affecting either the left or right side would paralyze the entire side of the face, as both the anterior and posterior routes on that side would be affected. This is because the nerves no longer have a means to receive compensatory contralateral input at a downstream decussation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
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Question 34
Incorrect
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Which one of the following structures is not closely related to the carotid sheath?
Your Answer: Hypoglossal nerve
Correct Answer: Anterior belly of digastric muscle
Explanation:The carotid sheath is connected to sternohyoid and sternothyroid at its lower end. The superior belly of omohyoid crosses the sheath at the cricoid cartilage level. The sternocleidomastoid muscle covers the sheath above this level. The vessels pass beneath the posterior belly of digastric and stylohyoid above the hyoid bone. The hypoglossal nerve crosses the sheath diagonally at the hyoid bone level.
The common carotid artery is a major blood vessel that supplies the head and neck with oxygenated blood. It has two branches, the left and right common carotid arteries, which arise from different locations. The left common carotid artery originates from the arch of the aorta, while the right common carotid artery arises from the brachiocephalic trunk. Both arteries terminate at the upper border of the thyroid cartilage by dividing into the internal and external carotid arteries.
The left common carotid artery runs superolaterally to the sternoclavicular joint and is in contact with various structures in the thorax, including the trachea, left recurrent laryngeal nerve, and left margin of the esophagus. In the neck, it passes deep to the sternocleidomastoid muscle and enters the carotid sheath with the vagus nerve and internal jugular vein. The right common carotid artery has a similar path to the cervical portion of the left common carotid artery, but with fewer closely related structures.
Overall, the common carotid artery is an important blood vessel with complex anatomical relationships in both the thorax and neck. Understanding its path and relations is crucial for medical professionals to diagnose and treat various conditions related to this artery.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
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Question 35
Correct
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When conducting minor surgery on the scalp, which region is considered a hazardous area in terms of infection spreading to the central nervous system (CNS)?
Your Answer: Loose areolar tissue
Explanation:The risk of infection spreading easily makes this area highly dangerous. The emissary veins that drain this region could facilitate the spread of sepsis to the cranial cavity.
Patients with head injuries should be managed according to ATLS principles and extracranial injuries should be managed alongside cranial trauma. Different types of traumatic brain injury include extradural hematoma, subdural hematoma, and subarachnoid hemorrhage. Primary brain injury may be focal or diffuse, while secondary brain injury occurs when cerebral edema, ischemia, infection, tonsillar or tentorial herniation exacerbates the original injury. Management may include IV mannitol/furosemide, decompressive craniotomy, and ICP monitoring. Pupillary findings can provide information on the location and severity of the injury.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
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Question 36
Incorrect
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An 80-year-old man is brought to the emergency department by his daughter. She found him on the floor and noticed slow and shallow breathing. He has a past medical history of asthma and hypertension.
His arterial blood sample is sent for blood gas analysis. The results return within minutes and show the following:
PaCO2 High
PaO2 Low
pH 7.27
Which one of the following medications could be causing these arterial blood gas results?Your Answer: Salbutamol
Correct Answer: Opioids
Explanation:Opioid overdose can cause respiratory acidosis due to the resulting respiratory depression. This can lead to an increase in pCO2 and a decrease in pO2, which is similar to type 2 respiratory failure. As a result, ABG may show respiratory acidosis due to the accumulation of CO2.
It is important to note that paracetamol does not typically cause respiratory depression.
To manage opioid-induced respiratory depression, naloxone is commonly used. This medication acts as a partial opioid receptor antagonist and counteracts the effects of opioids.
Doxapram, on the other hand, is a respiratory stimulant and is not used in the treatment of respiratory depression caused by opioids.
Understanding Opioids: Types, Receptors, and Clinical Uses
Opioids are a class of chemical compounds that act upon opioid receptors located within the central nervous system (CNS). These receptors are G-protein coupled receptors that have numerous actions throughout the body. There are three clinically relevant groups of opioid receptors: mu (µ), kappa (κ), and delta (δ) receptors. Endogenous opioids, such as endorphins, dynorphins, and enkephalins, are produced by specific cells within the CNS and their actions depend on whether µ-receptors or δ-receptors and κ-receptors are their main target.
Drugs targeted at opioid receptors are the largest group of analgesic drugs and form the second and third steps of the WHO pain ladder of managing analgesia. The choice of which opioid drug to use depends on the patient’s needs and the clinical scenario. The first step of the pain ladder involves non-opioids such as paracetamol and non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs. The second step involves weak opioids such as codeine and tramadol, while the third step involves strong opioids such as morphine, oxycodone, methadone, and fentanyl.
The strength, routes of administration, common uses, and significant side effects of these opioid drugs vary. Weak opioids have moderate analgesic effects without exposing the patient to as many serious adverse effects associated with strong opioids. Strong opioids have powerful analgesic effects but are also more liable to cause opioid-related side effects such as sedation, respiratory depression, constipation, urinary retention, and addiction. The sedative effects of opioids are also useful in anesthesia with potent drugs used as part of induction of a general anesthetic.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
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Question 37
Correct
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A female patient experiences scapular winging after undergoing a Patey mastectomy. What could be the probable reason behind this?
Your Answer: Damage to the long thoracic nerve during axillary dissection
Explanation:The long thoracic nerve is responsible for providing the serratus anterior muscle with its nerve supply. This nerve runs along the surface of the serratus anterior and can be at risk of damage during nodal dissection. While the pectoralis minor muscle is typically divided during a Patey mastectomy (which is now uncommon), it is unlikely to cause scapular winging on its own.
The Long Thoracic Nerve and its Role in Scapular Winging
The long thoracic nerve is derived from the ventral rami of C5, C6, and C7, which are located close to their emergence from intervertebral foramina. It runs downward and passes either anterior or posterior to the middle scalene muscle before reaching the upper tip of the serratus anterior muscle. From there, it descends on the outer surface of this muscle, giving branches into it.
One of the most common symptoms of long thoracic nerve injury is scapular winging, which occurs when the serratus anterior muscle is weakened or paralyzed. This can happen due to a variety of reasons, including trauma, surgery, or nerve damage. In addition to long thoracic nerve injury, scapular winging can also be caused by spinal accessory nerve injury (which denervates the trapezius) or a dorsal scapular nerve injury.
Overall, the long thoracic nerve plays an important role in the function of the serratus anterior muscle and the stability of the scapula. Understanding its anatomy and function can help healthcare professionals diagnose and treat conditions that affect the nerve and its associated muscles.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
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Question 38
Incorrect
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A 78-year-old male presents to the emergency department with a suspected acute ischaemic stroke. Upon examination, the male displays pendular nystagmus, hypotonia, and an intention tremor primarily in his left hand. During testing, he exhibits hypermetria with his left hand. What is the probable site of the lesion?
Your Answer: Right motor cortex (frontal lobe)
Correct Answer: Left cerebellum
Explanation:Unilateral cerebellar damage results in ipsilateral symptoms, as seen in the patient in this scenario who is experiencing nystagmus, hypotonia, intention tremor, and hypermetria on the left side following a suspected ischemic stroke. This contrasts with cerebral hemisphere damage, which typically causes contralateral symptoms. A stroke in the left motor cortex, for example, would result in weakness on the right side of the body and face. The right cerebellum is an incorrect answer as it would cause symptoms on the same side of the body, while a stroke in the right motor cortex would cause weakness on the left side. Damage to the occipital lobes, responsible for vision, on the right side would lead to left-sided visual symptoms.
Cerebellar syndrome is a condition that affects the cerebellum, a part of the brain responsible for coordinating movement and balance. When there is damage or injury to one side of the cerebellum, it can cause symptoms on the same side of the body. These symptoms can be remembered using the mnemonic DANISH, which stands for Dysdiadochokinesia, Dysmetria, Ataxia, Nystagmus, Intention tremour, Slurred staccato speech, and Hypotonia.
There are several possible causes of cerebellar syndrome, including genetic conditions like Friedreich’s ataxia and ataxic telangiectasia, neoplastic growths like cerebellar haemangioma, strokes, alcohol use, multiple sclerosis, hypothyroidism, and certain medications or toxins like phenytoin or lead poisoning. In some cases, cerebellar syndrome may be a paraneoplastic condition, meaning it is a secondary effect of an underlying cancer like lung cancer. It is important to identify the underlying cause of cerebellar syndrome in order to provide appropriate treatment and management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
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Question 39
Incorrect
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A 58-year-old male presents to the GP with back pain. He tells you the pain started three weeks ago after helping a friend move where he was lifting lots of heavy boxes. He says the pain radiates down the lateral aspect of his right thigh and often feels a tingling sensation in this area. On clinical examination you find reduced sensation below the right knee but the knee reflex is intact. You suspect he may have damaged his sciatic nerve.
Which other feature are you most likely to find?Your Answer: Sensory loss at medial thigh
Correct Answer: Absent plantar reflex
Explanation:When a patient experiences a loss of ankle and plantar reflexes but retains their knee jerk reflex, it may indicate a sciatic nerve lesion. The sciatic nerve is responsible for innervating the hamstring and adductor muscles and is supplied by L4-5 and S1-3. Other symptoms of sciatic nerve damage include paralysis of knee flexion and sensory loss below the knee.
If a patient presents with a Trendelenburg sign, it may indicate an injury to the superior gluteal nerve. This nerve is responsible for thigh abduction by gluteus medius, and damage to it can cause weakness and a compensatory tilt of the body to the weakened gluteal side.
Tinel’s sign is a feature of carpel tunnel syndrome and occurs when the median nerve is tapped at the wrist, causing tingling or electric-like sensations over the distribution of the median nerve.
Damage to the obturator nerve can result in sensory loss at the medial thigh. This nerve is typically damaged in an anterior hip dislocation.
Understanding Sciatic Nerve Lesion
The sciatic nerve is a major nerve that is supplied by the L4-5, S1-3 vertebrae and divides into the tibial and common peroneal nerves. It is responsible for supplying the hamstring and adductor muscles. When the sciatic nerve is damaged, it can result in a range of symptoms that affect both motor and sensory functions.
Motor symptoms of sciatic nerve lesion include paralysis of knee flexion and all movements below the knee. Sensory symptoms include loss of sensation below the knee. Reflexes may also be affected, with ankle and plantar reflexes lost while the knee jerk reflex remains intact.
There are several causes of sciatic nerve lesion, including fractures of the neck of the femur, posterior hip dislocation, and trauma.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
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Question 40
Correct
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At which stage does the aorta divide into the left and right common iliac arteries?
Your Answer: L4
Explanation:The point of bifurcation of the aorta is typically at the level of L4, which is a consistent location and is frequently assessed in examinations.
Anatomical Planes and Levels in the Human Body
The human body can be divided into different planes and levels to aid in anatomical study and medical procedures. One such plane is the transpyloric plane, which runs horizontally through the body of L1 and intersects with various organs such as the pylorus of the stomach, left kidney hilum, and duodenojejunal flexure. Another way to identify planes is by using common level landmarks, such as the inferior mesenteric artery at L3 or the formation of the IVC at L5.
In addition to planes and levels, there are also diaphragm apertures located at specific levels in the body. These include the vena cava at T8, the esophagus at T10, and the aortic hiatus at T12. By understanding these planes, levels, and apertures, medical professionals can better navigate the human body during procedures and accurately diagnose and treat various conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
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Question 41
Correct
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A 63-year-old man is being evaluated on the medical ward after undergoing surgery to remove a suspicious thyroid nodule. His vital signs are stable, his pain is adequately managed, and he is able to consume soft foods and drink oral fluids. He reports feeling generally fine, but has observed a hoarseness in his voice.
What is the probable reason for his hoarseness?Your Answer: Damage to recurrent laryngeal nerve
Explanation:Hoarseness is often linked to recurrent laryngeal nerve injury, which can affect the opening of the vocal cords by innervating the posterior arytenoid muscles. This type of damage can result from surgery, such as thyroidectomy, or compression from tumors. On the other hand, glossopharyngeal nerve damage is more commonly associated with swallowing difficulties. Since the patient is able to consume food orally, a dry throat is unlikely to be the cause of her hoarseness. While intubation trauma could cause vocal changes, the absence of pain complaints makes it less likely. Additionally, the lack of other symptoms suggests that an upper respiratory tract infection is not the cause.
The Recurrent Laryngeal Nerve: Anatomy and Function
The recurrent laryngeal nerve is a branch of the vagus nerve that plays a crucial role in the innervation of the larynx. It has a complex path that differs slightly between the left and right sides of the body. On the right side, it arises anterior to the subclavian artery and ascends obliquely next to the trachea, behind the common carotid artery. It may be located either anterior or posterior to the inferior thyroid artery. On the left side, it arises left to the arch of the aorta, winds below the aorta, and ascends along the side of the trachea.
Both branches pass in a groove between the trachea and oesophagus before entering the larynx behind the articulation between the thyroid cartilage and cricoid. Once inside the larynx, the recurrent laryngeal nerve is distributed to the intrinsic larynx muscles (excluding cricothyroid). It also branches to the cardiac plexus and the mucous membrane and muscular coat of the oesophagus and trachea.
Damage to the recurrent laryngeal nerve, such as during thyroid surgery, can result in hoarseness. Therefore, understanding the anatomy and function of this nerve is crucial for medical professionals who perform procedures in the neck and throat area.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
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Question 42
Correct
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A 55-year-old male comes to the GP complaining of recent changes in his vision. He became aware of this while reading a book. He denies any ocular discomfort, redness, or vision loss. During the eye examination, you observe that his right eye is elevated and turned outward.
What other symptom is commonly linked to the probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Vertical diplopia
Explanation:Fourth nerve palsy is characterized by vertical diplopia, which is often noticed when reading or going downstairs. The trochlear nerve lesion causes the affected eye to appear upward and rotate out when looking straight ahead. On the other hand, third nerve palsy causes ptosis, where the upper eyelid droops, and the affected eye is in a ‘down and out’ position. Exophthalmos, or bulging of the eye, is a symptom of Grave’s disease, a type of thyrotoxicosis. Other symptoms of Grave’s disease include ophthalmoplegia, thyroid acropachy, and pretibial myxoedema. Mydriasis, or pupil dilation, can be caused by third nerve palsy, drugs like cocaine, and a phaeochromocytoma.
Understanding Fourth Nerve Palsy
Fourth nerve palsy is a condition that affects the superior oblique muscle, which is responsible for depressing the eye and moving it inward. One of the main features of this condition is vertical diplopia, which is double vision that occurs when looking straight ahead. This is often noticed when reading a book or going downstairs. Another symptom is subjective tilting of objects, also known as torsional diplopia. Patients may also develop a head tilt, which they may or may not be aware of. When looking straight ahead, the affected eye appears to deviate upwards and is rotated outwards. Understanding the symptoms of fourth nerve palsy can help individuals seek appropriate treatment and management for this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
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Question 43
Incorrect
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Which one of the following structures lies posterior to the femoral nerve in the femoral triangle?
Your Answer: None of the above
Correct Answer: Iliacus
Explanation:The femoral nerve is located in front of the iliacus muscle within the femoral triangle. Meanwhile, the iliacus and pectineus muscles are situated behind the femoral sheath.
The femoral nerve is a nerve that originates from the spinal roots L2, L3, and L4. It provides innervation to several muscles in the thigh, including the pectineus, sartorius, quadriceps femoris, and vastus lateralis, medialis, and intermedius. Additionally, it branches off into the medial cutaneous nerve of the thigh, saphenous nerve, and intermediate cutaneous nerve of the thigh. The femoral nerve passes through the psoas major muscle and exits the pelvis by going under the inguinal ligament. It then enters the femoral triangle, which is located lateral to the femoral artery and vein.
To remember the femoral nerve’s supply, a helpful mnemonic is don’t MISVQ scan for PE. This stands for the medial cutaneous nerve of the thigh, intermediate cutaneous nerve of the thigh, saphenous nerve, vastus, quadriceps femoris, and sartorius, with the addition of the pectineus muscle. Overall, the femoral nerve plays an important role in the motor and sensory functions of the thigh.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
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Question 44
Correct
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A 61-year-old man visits his physician complaining of persistent faecal incontinence. During a digital rectal exam, the physician observes a weakened external anal sphincter and suspects a nerve lesion may be the cause.
Which nerve is responsible for supplying the external anal sphincter?Your Answer: Inferior rectal branch of the pudendal nerve
Explanation:The inferior rectal branch of the pudendal nerve is responsible for supplying innervation to the external anal sphincter, which is a striated muscle under voluntary control. In contrast, the internal anal sphincter is composed of smooth muscle and is controlled involuntarily by the autonomic nervous system. The perineal nerve, which is the largest terminal branch of the pudendal nerve, originates from the S2, S3, and S4 nerve roots of the sacral plexus and provides muscular branches to both superficial and deep perineal muscles, as well as the external urethral sphincter.
Anatomy of the Anal Sphincter
The anal sphincter is composed of two muscles: the internal anal sphincter and the external anal sphincter. The internal anal sphincter is made up of smooth muscle and is continuous with the circular muscle of the rectum. It surrounds the upper two-thirds of the anal canal and is supplied by sympathetic nerves. On the other hand, the external anal sphincter is composed of striated muscle and surrounds the internal sphincter but extends more distally. It is supplied by the inferior rectal branch of the pudendal nerve (S2 and S3) and the perineal branch of the S4 nerve roots.
In summary, the anal sphincter is a complex structure that plays a crucial role in maintaining continence. The internal and external anal sphincters work together to control the passage of feces and gas through the anus. Understanding the anatomy of the anal sphincter is important for diagnosing and treating conditions that affect bowel function.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
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Question 45
Correct
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A 46-year-old man was in a car accident a week ago and suffered a concussion. He now experiences ongoing diplopia, which is more noticeable when looking down at a book or going downstairs. Upon examination, his right eye is rotated upwards and inwards, with limited movement in depression and adduction. Both pupils are equal and reactive. What is the probable cause of his diplopia?
Your Answer: 4th nerve palsy
Explanation:If you experience worsened vision while going down stairs, it may be a sign of 4th nerve palsy. This condition is characterized by limited depression and adduction of the eye, as well as persistent diplopia when looking down. It is often caused by head trauma, which can damage the long course of the trochlear nerve.
People with 4th nerve palsy may tilt their heads away from the affected eye to compensate for the condition. This helps supply the superior oblique nerve, which aids in adduction and intorsion.
Other conditions that can cause eye movement problems include 3rd nerve palsy, which may be caused by aneurysms or diabetes complications, and 6th nerve palsy, which prevents the affected eye from abducting. Horner syndrome, which is characterized by ptosis, anhidrosis, and miosis, may also affect eye movement and is often associated with Pancoast tumors.
Understanding Fourth Nerve Palsy
Fourth nerve palsy is a condition that affects the superior oblique muscle, which is responsible for depressing the eye and moving it inward. One of the main features of this condition is vertical diplopia, which is double vision that occurs when looking straight ahead. This is often noticed when reading a book or going downstairs. Another symptom is subjective tilting of objects, also known as torsional diplopia. Patients may also develop a head tilt, which they may or may not be aware of. When looking straight ahead, the affected eye appears to deviate upwards and is rotated outwards. Understanding the symptoms of fourth nerve palsy can help individuals seek appropriate treatment and management for this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
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Question 46
Incorrect
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Which of the following surgical procedures will have the most significant long-term effect on a patient's calcium metabolism?
Your Answer: Cholecystectomy
Correct Answer: Extensive small bowel resection
Explanation:Maintaining Calcium Balance in the Body
Calcium ions are essential for various physiological processes in the body, and the largest store of calcium is found in the skeleton. The levels of calcium in the body are regulated by three hormones: parathyroid hormone (PTH), vitamin D, and calcitonin.
PTH increases calcium levels and decreases phosphate levels by increasing bone resorption and activating osteoclasts. It also stimulates osteoblasts to produce a protein signaling molecule that activates osteoclasts, leading to bone resorption. PTH increases renal tubular reabsorption of calcium and the synthesis of 1,25(OH)2D (active form of vitamin D) in the kidney, which increases bowel absorption of calcium. Additionally, PTH decreases renal phosphate reabsorption.
Vitamin D, specifically the active form 1,25-dihydroxycholecalciferol, increases plasma calcium and plasma phosphate levels. It increases renal tubular reabsorption and gut absorption of calcium, as well as osteoclastic activity. Vitamin D also increases renal phosphate reabsorption in the proximal tubule.
Calcitonin, secreted by C cells of the thyroid, inhibits osteoclast activity and renal tubular absorption of calcium.
Although growth hormone and thyroxine play a small role in calcium metabolism, the primary regulation of calcium levels in the body is through PTH, vitamin D, and calcitonin. Maintaining proper calcium balance is crucial for overall health and well-being.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
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Question 47
Correct
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A 75-year-old man comes to the GP complaining of double vision that has been present for 3 days. He has a medical history of diabetes mellitus. During the examination, it was observed that his right eye was completely drooping and in a 'down and out' position. Additionally, his right pupil was slightly larger than his left pupil.
Based on these findings, which cranial nerve is most likely to be affected in this patient?Your Answer: Oculomotor nerve
Explanation:When the third cranial nerve is affected, it can result in ptosis (drooping of the upper eyelid) and an down and out eye appearance. This is because the oculomotor nerve controls several muscles that are responsible for eye movements. The levator palpebrae superioris muscle, which lifts the upper eyelid, becomes paralyzed, causing ptosis. The pupillary sphincter muscle, which constricts the pupil, also becomes paralyzed, resulting in dilation of the affected pupil. The paralysis of the medial rectus, superior rectus, inferior rectus, and inferior oblique muscles causes the eye to move downward and outward due to the unopposed action of the other muscles controlling eye movements (the lateral rectus and superior oblique muscles, controlled by the sixth and fourth cranial nerves, respectively).
If the optic nerve is damaged, it can lead to vision problems as it is responsible for transmitting visual information from the retina to the brain. A trochlear nerve palsy can cause double vision that is worse when looking downward. Damage to the ophthalmic nerve, which is the first branch of the trigeminal nerve, can cause neuralgia (nerve pain) and an absent corneal reflex. An abducens nerve palsy can cause a horizontal gaze palsy that is more pronounced when looking at objects in the distance.
Understanding Third Nerve Palsy: Causes and Features
Third nerve palsy is a neurological condition that affects the third cranial nerve, which controls the movement of the eye and eyelid. The condition is characterized by the eye being deviated ‘down and out’, ptosis, and a dilated pupil. In some cases, it may be referred to as a ‘surgical’ third nerve palsy due to the dilation of the pupil.
There are several possible causes of third nerve palsy, including diabetes mellitus, vasculitis (such as temporal arteritis or SLE), uncal herniation through tentorium if raised ICP, posterior communicating artery aneurysm, and cavernous sinus thrombosis. In some cases, it may also be a false localizing sign. Weber’s syndrome, which is characterized by an ipsilateral third nerve palsy with contralateral hemiplegia, is caused by midbrain strokes. Other possible causes include amyloid and multiple sclerosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
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Question 48
Correct
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A 68-year-old male comes to the emergency department complaining of double vision. He has a history of diabetes. During the examination, it is observed that his left eye is pointing downwards and outwards, and he is unable to move it. What is the probable cause of this?
Your Answer: Oculomotor nerve palsy
Explanation:The eye can move in three different planes – vertical, horizontal, and torsional. Torsion can be further divided into intorsion and extorsion. The six extraocular muscles are responsible for these movements. The medial rectus adducts, while the lateral rectus abducts. The superior rectus primarily elevates and controls intorsion, while the inferior rectus primarily depresses and controls extorsion.
The superior and inferior oblique muscles are responsible for torsion movements. The superior oblique controls intorsion and depression, while the inferior oblique controls extorsion.
Most of the extraocular muscles are innervated by the oculomotor nerve, except for the superior oblique (innervated by the trochlear nerve) and the lateral rectus (innervated by the abducens nerve).
When considering the options for a question, we can exclude the optic nerve and long ciliary nerve as they are not involved in eye movement. Trochlear nerve palsy would result in impaired intorsion, while abducens nerve palsy would result in impaired abduction. However, a down and out eye is typically associated with oculomotor nerve palsy.
Cranial nerves are a set of 12 nerves that emerge from the brain and control various functions of the head and neck. Each nerve has a specific function, such as smell, sight, eye movement, facial sensation, and tongue movement. Some nerves are sensory, some are motor, and some are both. A useful mnemonic to remember the order of the nerves is Some Say Marry Money But My Brother Says Big Brains Matter Most, with S representing sensory, M representing motor, and B representing both.
In addition to their specific functions, cranial nerves also play a role in various reflexes. These reflexes involve an afferent limb, which carries sensory information to the brain, and an efferent limb, which carries motor information from the brain to the muscles. Examples of cranial nerve reflexes include the corneal reflex, jaw jerk, gag reflex, carotid sinus reflex, pupillary light reflex, and lacrimation reflex. Understanding the functions and reflexes of the cranial nerves is important in diagnosing and treating neurological disorders.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
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Question 49
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old male has been suffering from chronic pain for many years due to an industrial accident he had in his thirties. The WHO defines chronic pain as pain that persists for how long?
Your Answer: 6 months
Correct Answer: 12 weeks
Explanation:Chronic pain is defined by the WHO as pain that lasts for more than 12 weeks. Therefore, the correct answer is 12 weeks, and all other options are incorrect.
Guidelines for Managing Chronic Pain
Chronic pain is defined as pain that lasts for more than 12 weeks and can include conditions such as musculoskeletal pain, neuropathic pain, vascular insufficiency, and degenerative disorders. In 2013, the Scottish Intercollegiate Guidelines Network (SIGN) produced guidelines for the management of chronic, non-cancer related pain.
Non-pharmacological interventions are recommended by SIGN, including self-management information, exercise, manual therapy, and transcutaneous electrical nerve stimulation (TENS). Exercise has been shown to be effective in improving chronic pain, and specific support such as referral to an exercise program is recommended. Manual therapy is particularly effective for spinal pain, while TENS can also be helpful.
Pharmacological interventions may be necessary, but if medications are not effective after 2-4 weeks, they are unlikely to be effective. For neuropathic pain, SIGN recommends gabapentin or amitriptyline as first-line treatments. NICE also recommends pregabalin or duloxetine as first-line treatments. For fibromyalgia, duloxetine or fluoxetine are recommended.
If patients are using more than 180 mg/day morphine equivalent, experiencing significant distress, or rapidly escalating their dose without pain relief, SIGN recommends referring them to specialist pain management services.
Overall, the management of chronic pain requires a comprehensive approach that includes both non-pharmacological and pharmacological interventions, as well as referral to specialist services when necessary.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
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Question 50
Incorrect
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An 85-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with a recent onset of confusion. Her daughter reports that she had a fall at home last month and hit her head but did not seek medical attention as she appeared to be fine. A CT scan of her head reveals a hyper-dense crescent-shaped area in the left hemisphere. What is the likely diagnosis, and between which meningeal layers is the blood collecting?
Your Answer: Subarachnoid space
Correct Answer: Arachnoid mater
Explanation:The middle layer of the meninges is called the arachnoid mater. In an elderly patient with a history like the one described, a subacute subdural hematoma is likely the cause. This occurs when blood collects in the space between the dura mater and arachnoid mater. The arachnoid mater is a very thin layer that is attached to the inside of the dura mater and separated from the innermost layer (pia mater) by the subarachnoid space. Acromion and bone are incorrect answers as they are not related to the meninges, and pia mater is incorrect because it is the innermost layer of the meninges that is attached to the brain and spinal cord.
The Three Layers of Meninges
The meninges are a group of membranes that cover the brain and spinal cord, providing support to the central nervous system and the blood vessels that supply it. These membranes can be divided into three distinct layers: the dura mater, arachnoid mater, and pia mater.
The outermost layer, the dura mater, is a thick fibrous double layer that is fused with the inner layer of the periosteum of the skull. It has four areas of infolding and is pierced by small areas of the underlying arachnoid to form structures called arachnoid granulations. The arachnoid mater forms a meshwork layer over the surface of the brain and spinal cord, containing both cerebrospinal fluid and vessels supplying the nervous system. The final layer, the pia mater, is a thin layer attached directly to the surface of the brain and spinal cord.
The meninges play a crucial role in protecting the brain and spinal cord from injury and disease. However, they can also be the site of serious medical conditions such as subdural and subarachnoid haemorrhages. Understanding the structure and function of the meninges is essential for diagnosing and treating these conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
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