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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 15 year old girl is diagnosed with familial adenomatous polyposis. Which of the following is the most appropriate recommended step in management?
Your Answer: Upper gastrointestinal endoscopy from the age of 15 years
Correct Answer: Surveillance annual flexible sigmoidoscopy from age 13 years until age 30 years
Explanation:Answer: Surveillance annual flexible sigmoidoscopy from age 13 years until age 30 years. Familial adenomatous polyposis (FAP) is the most common adenomatous polyposis syndrome. It is an autosomal dominant inherited disorder characterized by the early onset of hundreds to thousands of adenomatous polyps throughout the colon. If left untreated, all patients with this syndrome will develop colon cancer by age 35-40 years. In addition, an increased risk exists for the development of other malignancies.Most patients with FAP are asymptomatic until they develop cancer. As a result, diagnosing presymptomatic patients is essential.Of patients with FAP, 75%-80% have a family history of polyps and/or colorectal cancer at age 40 years or younger.Nonspecific symptoms, such as unexplained rectal bleeding (haematochezia), diarrhoea, or abdominal pain, in young patients may be suggestive of FAP.In a minority of FAP families a mutation cannot be identified and so annual flexible sigmoidoscopy should be offered to at risk family members from age 13-15 years until age 30, and at three to five year intervals thereafter until age 60 years.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A strict gluten-free diet is a dietary treatment for coeliac disease.Which one of the following statements concerning the gluten-free diet is correct?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Buckwheat is suitable in a gluten-free diet
Explanation:Buckwheat is not wheat. It’s a seed rather than a grain, which means it’s gluten-free and safe for people with celiac disease and non-celiac gluten sensitivity. It is an excellent source of fibre and nutrients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nutrition
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Question 3
Incorrect
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Which of the following is NOT true of the femoral nerve?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: It supplies adductor longus
Explanation:The femoral nerve is the main nerve supply for the thigh muscles including the pectineus, iliacus, sartorius, which flex the hip; and the quadriceps femoris made up of the rectus femoris, vests laterals, vastus medialis and vastus intermedius, which extend the knee. The nerve is derived from the L2, L3 and L4 nerve roots, and supplies cutaneous branches to the anteromedial thigh and the medial side of the leg via the saphenous nerve.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 7-month-old abandoned baby with congenital non-communicating hydrocephalus is hosted by a clinic at its new-born hostel. A CT scan of the baby's brain reveals what might be a blockage of the ventricular system between the third and the fourth ventricles. Which of the following is the most likely blocked structure?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cerebral aqueduct
Explanation:The drainage of cerebral spinal fluid from the third ventricle to the fourth ventricle is carried out by the cerebral aqueduct. The cerebral aqueduct is the narrowest passageway in the entire ventricular system and thus forms the most common site of blockage of flow of cerebrospinal fluid. The interventricular foramen allows passage of CSF to the third ventricle. The foramen of Luschka and Magendie are located on the fourth ventricle and allow passage of CSF to the subarachnoid space from the ventricular system. The pontine cistern is a space located on the ventral aspect of the pons. The cisterna magna is an opening on the subarachnoid space between the pia matter and the arachnoid.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A baby is delivered at 26 weeks. Full course of antenatal steroids was administered. There was a delay in clamping the cord. No respiratory effort is observed, and the heart rate is slow. What should be the next step in management of this case?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 5 inflation breaths
Explanation:Most infants have a good heart rate after birth and establish breathing by about 90 s. If the infant is not breathing adequately aerate the lungs by giving 5 inflation breaths, preferably using air. Until now the infant’s lungs will have been filled with fluid.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neonatology
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Question 6
Incorrect
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Extracellular body fluid as compared with intracellular body fluid:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Is relatively rich in glucose
Explanation:The percentages of body water contained in various fluid compartments add up to total body water (TBW). This water makes up a significant fraction of the human body, both by weight and by volume. Ensuring the right amount of body water is part of fluid balance, an aspect of homeostasis. The extracellular fluid (ECF) includes all fluids outside the cells. This fluid can be divided into three fluid departments: interstitial (in the tissue spaces) fluid, blood plasma and lymph, and specialised compartments called transcellular fluid. The extracellular fluid surrounds all the cells in the body and is in equilibrium with the intracellular fluid. So, its composition must remain fairly constant even though substances are passing into and out of the cells. The interstitial fluid, though called a fluid, is in a reality a gel-like composition made up of: water, proteoglycan molecules and collagen. The extracellular fluid constitutes 40% of total body water, with intracellular fluid making up the remaining 60%. It is relatively rich in glucose.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Fluid And Electrolytes
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 30-day-old female was diagnosed with a case of breast milk jaundice. She has no other symptoms. Which is the most suitable next step of management?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Continue breastfeeding
Explanation:Breast feeding should be continued for babies with breast milk jaundice as this is a benign condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 6 year old presents with fever and multiple vesicles on his back. What is the single most appropriate next step?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: None
Explanation:This clinical picture is typical of chickenpox, which is treated with antihistamines and calamine lotion. In the case of fever, acetaminophen can be used. Generally treatment is purely for symptomatic relief.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 9
Incorrect
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Haemolytic uremic syndrome is associated with which of the given laboratory findings?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Low platelet count
Explanation:Haemolytic uremic syndrome belongs to a heterogeneous group of disorders characterized by a triad of thrombocytopenia, microangiopathic haemolytic anaemia, and acute kidney injury. It is one of the most common causes of renal injury in children. The clinical findings are due to thrombotic microangiopathy, which leads to arterioles and capillary wall thickening along with endothelial swelling and detachment. The significant laboratory findings include increased white cell count, raised serum urea and creatinine, increased serum LDH, decreased platelet count, haematuria, and proteinuria.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephro-urology
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Question 10
Incorrect
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An 11-year-old boy was brought to the hospital by his mother, who says that occasionally he tilts his head towards his right shoulder. She also remarked that his left eye seemed to move up suddenly when he looked towards his nose. Which of the following extraocular muscles is most likely to be affected in this child?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Superior oblique
Explanation:From the given scenario, the extraocular muscle affected in the child is superior oblique muscle. Point to remember:All of the extraocular muscles are supplied by the oculomotor nerve (3rd cranial nerve), except superior oblique (trochlear nerve/4th cranial nerve) and lateral rectus (abducens nerve/6th cranial nerve).The superior oblique muscle causes the eye to move downwards and medially. The unopposed inferior oblique, in this case, causes the eye to deviate upwards and medially. Children tend to tilt their head (torticollis) to the side opposite to the affected eye with their chin down toward the shoulder, and their face turned away from the affected side to decrease the diplopia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 10-month-old boy was brought to the emergency department with bilateral watery discharge from both eyes with occasional mucoid discharge. The presentation is highly suggestive of a nasolacrimal duct dysfunction.Which of the following would be the most appropriate advice to be given to the boy's parents?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer:
Explanation:The most appropriate management would be to reassure the parents, as nasolacrimal duct dysfunction in most infants tends to resolve spontaneously.Note:Nasolacrimal duct blockage occurs in up to 5% of new-borns. 90% of these babies spontaneously resolve in the first year of life. They do not require urgent ophthalmological review, as often advice and reassurance for parents suffice for up to the age of 18 months old or so. A lump can often be seen in the nasolacrimal region following the accumulation of mucous. This does not need to be treated with antibiotics unless there are signs of acute infection.Other options:- The child does not require urgent ophthalmology review as there are no signs of severe infection. Watery eyes often lead to mucous production, which is a common non-worrying sign.- A course of topical antibiotics: Watery eyes often lead to mucous production, which is distinct from pus discharge. Unnecessary topical antibiotics can cause secondary red eyes as well as give parents false expectations for the resolution of the symptoms and signs.- A course of topical and oral antibiotics: Watery eyes often lead to mucous production, which is distinct from pus discharge. Unnecessary topical and oral antibiotics can cause secondary red eyes as well as give parents false expectations for the resolution of the symptoms and signs.- Reassurance is necessary. However, the advice that the child most likely will need a surgical procedure to resolve this is incorrect. Reassurance, but include advice that the child most likely will need a surgical procedure to resolve this is incorrect as 90% of infants that have these symptoms and signs resolve within the first year of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 12 year old female presents at her local emergency room with a complete loss of consciousness, intercostal retractions, no residual signs and no post-ictal phase. She later went on to have a full recovery. From the list of options, choose the most probable diagnosis.
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Partial generalized seizure
Explanation:The symptoms of a partial generalized seizure are consistent with this patient.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 13
Incorrect
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An 8 year old male child presents with frequent and recurrent headaches and a history of dark-coloured urine. He has a blood pressure of 150/100 mmHg and normal serum urea and creatinine levels. Urine microscopy reveals erythrocytes and erythrocyte casts. His 24-hour urine protein is about 2 g. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Acute nephritic syndrome
Explanation:The child most likely has nephritic syndrome which is characterised by a reduced renal function, proteinuria of non-nephrotic range, haematuria, erythrocyte casts, and oedema. Polyarteritis nodosa usually occurs in middle-aged men but can also be seen in young children. It is accompanied by severe systemic manifestations such as fever, malaise, weight loss and myalgia.Renal cell carcinoma usually presents around 55 years with the classic triad of haematuria, loin pain and a unilateral mass in the flank.Polycystic kidney disease usually presents in adult life with acute loin pain and palpation of masses in the flanks.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephro-urology
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Question 14
Incorrect
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An 8-year-old boy who recently migrated from Nigeria was seen in A&E department with a six-week history of progressive swelling of his jaw, fever, night sweats, and weight loss. His mother reported an episode of sore throat in the past which was treated with antibiotics, but he developed a rash subsequently. Other than that, there was no other significant past medical history. On examination, a painless, nontender 4x3cm mass was found that was fixed and hard. The only other examination finding of note was rubbery symmetrical cervical lymphadenopathy.Which of the following translocation would most likely be found on biopsy karyotyping?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: t(8;14)
Explanation:Burkitt lymphoma is associated with the c-myc gene translocation, usually t(8;14). Burkitt lymphoma is a rare high-grade non-Hodgkin lymphoma endemic to west Africa and the mosquito belt. It has a close association with the contraction of Epstein-Barr virus (EBV). Burkitt lymphoma often presents with symmetrical painless lymphadenopathy, systemic B symptoms (fever, sweats, and weight loss), central nervous system involvement, and bone marrow infiltration. Classically in the textbooks, the patient also develops a large jaw tumour.Other aforementioned options are ruled out because:1. t(9;22)-Chronic myeloid leukaemia2. t(15;17)-Acute promyelocytic leukaemia3. t(14;18)-Follicular Lymphoma4. t(11;14)-Mantle Cell Lymphoma
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology And Oncology
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 7 year old boy who had significant dry spells in the past presented with a recent history of wetting himself. Which of the following is the most appropriate management?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Desmopressin
Explanation:As this boy has experienced significant dry spells in the past, it is unlikely that a structural abnormality is causing the enuresis. The only therapies that have been shown to be effective in randomized trials are alarm therapy and treatment with desmopressin acetate or imipramine. Bladder training exercises are not recommended. Desmopressin acetate is the preferred medication for treating children with enuresis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genitourinary
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 15-year-old child with learning difficulties is referred to the endocrine clinic for review. His lab results show hypocalcaemia and increased serum concentration of parathyroid hormone. On examination, there is subcutaneous calcification and a short fifth metacarpal in each hand.What is the treatment of choice in this case?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Calcium and vitamin D supplementation
Explanation:This child has pseudo hypoparathyroidism. It is a heterogeneous group of rare endocrine disorders characterized by normal renal function and resistance to the action of parathyroid hormone (PTH), manifesting with hypocalcaemia, hyperphosphatemia, and increased serum concentration of PTH.Patients with pseudo hypoparathyroidism type 1a present with a characteristic phenotype collectively called Albright hereditary osteodystrophy (AHO). The constellation of findings includes the following:Short statureStocky habitusObesityDevelopmental delayRound faceDental hypoplasiaBrachymetacarpalsBrachymetatarsalsSoft tissue calcification/ossificationThe goals of therapy are to maintain serum total and ionized calcium levels within the reference range to avoid hypercalcaemia and to suppress PTH levels to normal. This is important because elevated PTH levels in patients with PHP can cause increased bone remodelling and lead to hyper-parathyroid bone disease.The goals of pharmacotherapy are to correct calcium deficiency, to prevent complications, and to reduce morbidity. Intravenous calcium is the initial treatment for all patients with severe symptomatic hypocalcaemia. Administration of oral calcium and 1alpha-hydroxylated vitamin D metabolites, such as calcitriol, remains the mainstay of treatment and should be initiated in every patient with a diagnosis of pseudo hypoparathyroidism.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 13 year old girl presented with signs of shortness of breath, chest pain, non-productive cough, oedema of the lower extremities and cyanosis of the fingertips. She has a history of a ventricular septal defect not surgically corrected. The most probable cause of these symptoms is:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Shunt reversal
Explanation:A ventricular septal defect (VSD) is a common form of congenital heart defects and is characterised by the presence of a hole in the wall that separates the right from the left ventricle. Medium or large defects can cause many complications. One of these complication is Eisenmenger syndrome, characterised by reversal of the shunt (from left-to-right shunt into a right-to-left) ,cyanosis and pulmonary hypertension.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 18
Incorrect
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Which of the following conditions do NOT result in polyuria?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hyperkalaemia
Explanation:Polyuria is defined as a total increase in the urine output or > 2L/m2 of daily urine produced in children. Polyuria can be a symptom of a vast number of medical conditions. The commonest and most important disease having polyuria as the main symptom is diabetes mellitus. Nephrogenic and central diabetes insipidus also results in polyuria along with polydipsia. Other conditions that lead to an increase in the urine output are renal failure, acute tubular necrosis, and exposure to high altitude. Hyperkalaemia does not result in polyuria; rather hypokalaemia can be an associated finding with polyuria in the case of diuretic abuse.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephro-urology
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A cohort study is being designed to look at the relationship between smoking and prostate cancer. What is the usual outcome measure in a cohort study?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Relative risk
Explanation:A cohort study is a particular form of longitudinal study that samples a cohort (a group of people who share a defining characteristic, typically those who experienced a common event in a selected period, such as birth or graduation), performing a cross-section at intervals through time. The relative risk (RR) or risk ratio is the ratio of the probability of an outcome in an exposed group to the probability of an outcome in an unexposed group. Relative risk is used in the statistical analysis of the data of experimental, cohort and cross-sectional studies, to estimate the strength of the association between treatments or risk factors, and outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Epidemiology And Statistics
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A female 4-week-old baby was admitted with jaundice. Her appetite for breast milk is preserved and she is playing actively and well without any other disturbances. What is the most probable cause of jaundice?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Breast milk Jaundice
Explanation:Breast milk jaundice is thought to be associated with one or more abnormalities in the maternal milk itself. Breast milk jaundice syndrome generally needs no therapy if serum bilirubin concentrations remain below 270 mmol/l in healthy full-term infants. When the serum bilirubin concentration is above 270 mmol/l and rising, temporary interruption of breastfeeding may be indicated.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 6-year-old male was brought to the OPD with complaints of weight loss and fatigue for the last few months. On examination he was pale and had hepatosplenomegaly. A full blood count was ordered and it revealed immature white blood cells. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Leukaemia
Explanation:The age of the patient and the presence of immature white blood cells are suggestive of leukaemia. Hodgkin’s disease is unlikely in this age group and it usually presents with lymphadenopathy. In HIV, immature white blood cells are not present in the blood.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology And Oncology
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Question 22
Incorrect
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6 day old twins are being exclusively breastfed. They are both jaundiced, requiring admission for phototherapy, and have lost 12% and 13% of their birthweights, respectively. They both have serum sodium levels of 145 mmol/L. What is the best advice about fluid management over the next 48 h?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Continue breast-feeding but give full top-ups via bottle/cup feeding
Explanation:Excessive weight loss is generally indicative of suboptimal feeding, and infants with excessive weight loss are potentially dehydrated or at risk of dehydration.Jaundice associated with suboptimal breastfeeding-this is classically associated with weight loss >10% and a vicious cycle of sleepiness that in turn leads to further poor feeding. In the absence of clinical signs of dehydration, no evidence suggests that overhydration is helpful. If the infant is dehydrated, hydration should be given as clinically indicated. However, if the infant can tolerate oral feeding, oral hydration with a breast milk substitute is likely to be superior to intravenous hydration because it reduces enterohepatic circulation of bilirubin and helps wash bilirubin out of the bowel.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
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Question 23
Incorrect
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In males, precocious puberty may be defined as the development of secondary sexual characteristics before which of the following ages?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 9 years of age
Explanation:Precocious Puberty is the development of secondary sexual characteristics before the age of 8 in females, and 9 in males. The first sign of early puberty in males is testicular enlargement, followed by growth of the penis and the scrotum at least a year after. Precocious puberty in boys in uncommon and usually has an organic cause leading to excess secretion of testosterone. These can be gonadotrophin dependent in the case of an inter cranial lesion, where the testes would be bilaterally enlarged, or from excess production from the adrenal gland in the case of adrenal hyperplasia or a tumour.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 24
Incorrect
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An asymptomatic 5-month old boy was referred to the paediatric cardiology department after his GP noted an ejection systolic murmur and thrill at the upper left sternal edge. SpO2 saturation is at 98%, and an ECG reveals an R/S ratio >1 in the V1 lead.What is the most probable diagnosis for this child?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pulmonary Stenosis
Explanation:The most probable diagnosis in this patient would be pulmonary stenosis. Pulmonary Stenosis:Pulmonary valve murmurs are heard in the upper left sternal edge, associated with a thrill but no desaturation in the absence of an additional shunt. The ECG changes suggest right ventricular hypertrophy. Pulmonary stenosis is often well tolerated in childhood unless severe. These should be monitored with serial echocardiography, and balloon pulmonary valvoplasty should be considered once the pressure gradient reaches 64 mmHg.Other options:- Atrial septal defect: While atrial septal defects are associated with right ventricular outflow tract murmurs, they would not cause a thrill.- Patent ductus arteriosus: PDA murmurs can be audible in the left upper sternal edge, but would normally be audible in the left infraclavicular area and be continuous rather than ejection systolic. This left to right shunt would not cause desaturation but does cause left-sided volume loading and hence left-sided ECG changes.- Tetralogy of Fallot: Ventricular septal defect, overriding aorta, subpulmonary stenosis, and right ventricular hypertrophy. This would often cause a ULSE murmur with a thrill and RVH on ECG. However, this degree of obstruction would cause shunting from right to left, and this child would be desaturated.- Ventricular septal defect: Isolated ventricular septal defects cause pansystolic murmurs at the left lower sternal edge. They would have left-sided ECG changes and normal saturations (in the absence of pulmonary hypertension).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 25
Incorrect
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Which of the given neural tube defects occur in association with Arnold-Chiari malformation type II?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Myelomeningocele
Explanation:Arnold-Chiari malformation type II is one of the congenital hindbrain abnormalities that leads to a disruption of the relationship between different hindbrain structures. It is characterized by congenital hydrocephalus, herniation of cerebellar tonsils into the pinal canal with an enlarged 4th ventricle, spina bifida associated with myelomeningocele, and various levels of denervation atrophy of the muscles of the lower limb. The association of type II Arnold-Chiari with myelomeningocele carries importance from an etiological perspective, forming the basis of CSF escape theory.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology And Neurodisability
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 17-year-old boy presents to the clinic complaining of increased weight but low energy. History reveals that he has also experienced low libido and has difficulty maintaining erections. Serum testosterone levels are checked. In the human body, the secretion of testosterone is stimulated by which of the following?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Luteinising Hormone
Explanation:The hypothalamus and pituitary gland control how much testosterone the testes produce and secrete. The hypothalamus sends a signal to the pituitary gland to release gonadotrophic substances (follicle stimulating hormone and luteinizing hormone). Luteinizing hormone (LH) stimulates testosterone production.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 27
Incorrect
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Which of the following IV blood products is most likely to cause an urticarial reaction?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Fresh frozen plasma
Explanation:Transfusion with blood products carries a risk of acute and more chronic adverse reactions. These reactions can either be immune mediated due to a component mismatch, or non immune, underpinned by bacterial or viral contamination. Reactions range from very mild such as urticaria, to life threatening in the case of transfusion-related acute lung injury. In transfusion with packed red blood cells, the most common adverse event is pyrexia, while urticaria is the most common adverse event that follows infusion with FFP.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology And Oncology
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Question 28
Incorrect
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Which of the following vaccinations is contraindicated in patients with malignancy undergoing chemotherapy?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Rubella
Explanation:MMR vaccine is a live vaccine. It contains measles, mumps and rubella. These vaccines should be avoided during chemotherapy and for 6 months after.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 10-year-old girl was brought to the clinic with complaints of a rash around her left wrist. Her mother recalls that the rash started to appear after the child started wearing a new bracelet for the past one week. What is this type of hypersensitivity reaction?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Type 4
Explanation:According to the Gell and Coombs classification of hypersensitivity reactions, the scenario provided is a type 4 (delayed) reaction.These reactions are mediated by T lymphocytes and cause contact dermatitis. Nickel, commonly found in cheap jewellery, is a common cause of contact dermatitis.Note:There are two main types of contact dermatitis:- Irritant contact dermatitis: It is a common, non-allergic reaction due to weak acids or alkalis (e.g. detergents). These are often seen on the hands. They present typically with erythema, and rarely, crusting and vesicles.- Allergic contact dermatitis: These are type IV hypersensitivity reactions and are often seen on the head following hair dyes.They typically present as acute weeping eczema which predominately affects the margins of the hairline rather than the hairy scalp itself. Treatment is usually with a potent topical steroid.Other options:- Allergic rhinitis is an example of a type 1 (immediate) reaction. It is an IgE mediated. It is a hypersensitivity to a previously innocuous substance.- Type 2 reactions are mediated by IgG and IgM, which binds to a cell, causing cell death. Goodpasture syndrome is an example of a type 2 hypersensitivity reaction.- Immune complexes mediate type 3 reactions. Rheumatoid arthritis is an example of a type 3 hypersensitivity reaction.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A premature neonate at 28 weeks gestation suffers from right sided intraventricular haemorrhage with no ventricular dilation while on the ventilator. What advice should ideally be given to the parents in this situation?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: It is probable that there will be no significant long-term effects but his development will be closely followed just in case
Explanation:There are four types of IVH. These are called grades and are based on the degree of bleeding.Grades 1 and 2 involve a smaller amount of bleeding. Most of the time, there are no long-term problems as a result of the bleeding. Grade 1 is also referred to as germinal matrix haemorrhage (GMH).Grades 3 and 4 involve more severe bleeding. The blood presses on (grade 3) or directly involves (grade 4) brain tissue. Grade 4 is also called an intraparenchymal haemorrhage. Blood clots can form and block the flow of cerebrospinal fluid. This can lead to increased fluid in the brain (hydrocephalus).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neonatology
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