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  • Question 1 - If a drug is given intravenously at a dose of 1000mg and its...

    Incorrect

    • If a drug is given intravenously at a dose of 1000mg and its concentration is measured to be 50 mg/L, what is the volume of distribution of the drug?

      Your Answer: 50000L

      Correct Answer: 20L

      Explanation:

      The plasma concentration is 50 and the total amount in the body is 1000, therefore the volume of distribution is 20.

      Understanding the Volume of Distribution in Pharmacology

      The volume of distribution (Vd) is a crucial concept in pharmacology that helps determine how a drug distributes in the body. It is also known as the apparent volume of distribution, as it is an abstract volume. The Vd indicates whether a drug concentrates in the plasma of spreads out in the body. Drugs that are highly polar tend to stay in central compartments such as the plasma, resulting in a low Vd. Conversely, drugs that are more lipid-soluble are distributed widely, such as in fat, resulting in a high Vd.

      The Vd is calculated by dividing the amount of drug in the body by the concentration in the plasma. Clinically, the Vd is used to determine the loading dose of a drug required for a desired blood concentration and to estimate blood concentration in the treatment of overdose. The units of Vd are in volume.

      The apparent volume of distribution is dependent on the drug’s lipid of water solubility, plasma protein binding, and tissue binding. Plasma protein binding affects the Vd, as drugs that bind to plasma proteins like albumin have a smaller apparent volume of distribution. This is because they are extracted from plasma and included in drug concentration measurements, which can give a misleading impression of their volume of distribution. Understanding the Vd is essential in pharmacology to ensure the safe and effective use of drugs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      29.6
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - What is the likelihood of a child developing schizophrenia if one of their...

    Incorrect

    • What is the likelihood of a child developing schizophrenia if one of their parents has the condition, based on the Gottesman data?

      Your Answer: 17%

      Correct Answer: 13%

      Explanation:

      Schizophrenia Risk According to Gottesman

      Irving I. Gottesman conducted family and twin studies in European populations between 1920 and 1987 to determine the risk of developing schizophrenia for relatives of those with the disorder. The following table displays Gottesman’s findings, which show the average lifetime risk for each relationship:

      General population: 1%
      First cousin: 2%
      Uncle/aunt: 2%
      Nephew/niece: 4%
      Grandchildren: 5%
      Parents: 6%
      Half sibling: 6%
      Full sibling: 9%
      Children: 13%
      Fraternal twins: 17%
      Offspring of dual matings (both parents had schizophrenia): 46%
      Identical twins: 48%

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      7.3
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - Which of the following is not an example of paramnesia? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is not an example of paramnesia?

      Your Answer: Confabulation

      Correct Answer: Retrograde amnesia

      Explanation:

      The term paramnesia refers to memory disorders where fantasy and reality are confused. There are various types of paramnesias, including déjà vu, jamais vu, confabulation, reduplicative paramnesia, retrospective falsification, and cryptomnesia. Reduplicative paramnesia is a subset of delusional misidentification syndromes, which include Capgras delusion, the Fregoli delusion, and others. A review of reduplicative paramnesia was conducted by Politis in 2012.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
      10.2
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - Which of the following carries a specific licence for nocturnal enuresis in adolescents?...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following carries a specific licence for nocturnal enuresis in adolescents?

      Your Answer: Duloxetine

      Correct Answer: Imipramine

      Explanation:

      Antidepressants (Licensed Indications)

      The following table outlines the specific licensed indications for antidepressants in adults, as per the Maudsley Guidelines and the British National Formulary. It is important to note that all antidepressants are indicated for depression.

      – Nocturnal enuresis in children: Amitriptyline, Imipramine, Nortriptyline
      – Phobic and obsessional states: Clomipramine
      – Adjunctive treatment of cataplexy associated with narcolepsy: Clomipramine
      – Panic disorder and agoraphobia: Citalopram, Escitalopram, Sertraline, Paroxetine, Venlafaxine
      – Social anxiety/phobia: Escitalopram, Paroxetine, Sertraline, Moclobemide, Venlafaxine
      – Generalised anxiety disorder: Escitalopram, Paroxetine, Duloxetine, Venlafaxine
      – OCD: Escitalopram, Fluoxetine, Fluvoxamine, Paroxetine, Sertraline, Clomipramine
      – Bulimia nervosa: Fluoxetine
      – PTSD: Paroxetine, Sertraline

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      6.7
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - Piaget's theory of child development suggests that when a child attempts to feed...

    Correct

    • Piaget's theory of child development suggests that when a child attempts to feed from a bottle for the first time, they must adjust their sucking technique. What is this an example of according to Piaget's theory?

      Your Answer: Accommodation

      Explanation:

      Piaget’s Stages of Development and Key Concepts

      Piaget developed four stages of development that describe how children think and acquire knowledge. The first stage is the Sensorimotor stage, which occurs from birth to 18-24 months. In this stage, infants learn through sensory observation and gain control of their motor functions through activity, exploration, and manipulation of the environment.

      The second stage is the Preoperational stage, which occurs from 2 to 7 years. During this stage, children use symbols and language more extensively, but they are unable to think logically of deductively. They also use a type of magical thinking and animistic thinking.

      The third stage is the Concrete Operational stage, which occurs from 7 to 11 years. In this stage, egocentric thought is replaced by operational thought, which involves dealing with a wide array of information outside the child. Children in this stage begin to use limited logical thought and can serialise, order, and group things into classes on the basis of common characteristics.

      The fourth and final stage is the Formal Operations stage, which occurs from 11 through the end of adolescence. This stage is characterized by the ability to think abstractly, to reason deductively, to define concepts, and also by the emergence of skills for dealing with permutations and combinations.

      Piaget also developed key concepts, including schema, assimilation, and accommodation. A schema is a category of knowledge and the process of obtaining that knowledge. Assimilation is the process of taking new information into an existing schema, while accommodation involves altering a schema in view of additional information.

      Overall, Piaget’s stages of development and key concepts provide a framework for understanding how children learn and acquire knowledge.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychological Development
      14.5
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - What is the experience that the lady in A&E is going through when...

    Correct

    • What is the experience that the lady in A&E is going through when she covers her head with cloth and claims that people can hear her thoughts?

      Your Answer: Thought broadcast

      Explanation:

      First Rank Symptoms: Their Significance in Identifying Schizophrenia

      First rank symptoms were introduced by Kurt Schneider in 1938 as a practical tool for non-psychiatrists to identify schizophrenia. While they are highly suggestive of schizophrenia, they are not pathognomonic and can also be seen in affective and personality disorders. Additionally, there is no evidence to support their prognostic significance.

      A systematic review in 2015 found that first rank symptoms differentiated schizophrenia from nonpsychotic mental health disorders with a sensitivity of 61.8% and a specificity of 94.1%. They also differentiated schizophrenia from other types of psychosis with a sensitivity of 58% and a specificity of 74.7%.

      The first rank symptoms include running commentary, thought echo, voices heard arguing, thought insertion, thought withdrawal, thought broadcast, delusional perception, somatic passivity, made affect, and made volition. While they can be helpful in identifying schizophrenia, they should not be relied upon as the sole diagnostic criteria.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
      10.2
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - Which antipsychotic medication has the strongest binding affinity for D4 receptors? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which antipsychotic medication has the strongest binding affinity for D4 receptors?

      Your Answer: Olanzapine

      Correct Answer: Clozapine

      Explanation:

      Mechanisms of Action of Different Drugs

      Understanding the mechanisms of action of different drugs is crucial for medical professionals. It is a common topic in exams and can earn easy marks if studied well. This article provides a list of drugs and their mechanisms of action in different categories such as antidepressants, anti dementia drugs, mood stabilizers, anxiolytic/hypnotic drugs, antipsychotics, drugs of abuse, and other drugs. For example, mirtazapine is a noradrenaline and serotonin specific antidepressant that works as a 5HT2 antagonist, 5HT3 antagonist, H1 antagonist, alpha 1 and alpha 2 antagonist, and moderate muscarinic antagonist. Similarly, donepezil is a reversible acetylcholinesterase inhibitor used as an anti dementia drug, while valproate is a GABA agonist and NMDA antagonist used as a mood stabilizer. The article also explains the mechanisms of action of drugs such as ketamine, phencyclidine, buprenorphine, naloxone, atomoxetine, varenicline, disulfiram, acamprosate, and sildenafil.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      7.1
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - Which combination of organs is primarily responsible for the first pass effect? ...

    Correct

    • Which combination of organs is primarily responsible for the first pass effect?

      Your Answer: Liver and bowel

      Explanation:

      The First Pass Effect in Psychiatric Drugs

      The first-pass effect is a process in drug metabolism that significantly reduces the concentration of a drug before it reaches the systemic circulation. This phenomenon is related to the liver and gut wall, which absorb and metabolize the drug before it can enter the bloodstream. Psychiatric drugs are not exempt from this effect, and some undergo a significant reduction in concentration before reaching their target site. Examples of psychiatric drugs that undergo a significant first-pass effect include imipramine, fluphenazine, morphine, diazepam, and buprenorphine. On the other hand, some drugs undergo little to no first-pass effect, such as lithium and pregabalin.

      Orally administered drugs are the most affected by the first-pass effect. However, there are other routes of administration that can avoid of partly avoid this effect. These include sublingual, rectal (partly avoids first pass), intravenous, intramuscular, transdermal, and inhalation. Understanding the first-pass effect is crucial in drug development and administration, especially in psychiatric drugs, where the concentration of the drug can significantly affect its efficacy and safety.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      7.5
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - From where does the nerve that originates in the medulla oblongata come? ...

    Correct

    • From where does the nerve that originates in the medulla oblongata come?

      Your Answer: Vagus

      Explanation:

      Overview of Cranial Nerves and Their Functions

      The cranial nerves are a complex system of nerves that originate from the brain and control various functions of the head and neck. There are twelve cranial nerves, each with a specific function and origin. The following table provides a simplified overview of the cranial nerves, including their origin, skull exit, modality, and functions.

      The first cranial nerve, the olfactory nerve, originates from the telencephalon and exits through the cribriform plate. It is a sensory nerve that controls the sense of smell. The second cranial nerve, the optic nerve, originates from the diencephalon and exits through the optic foramen. It is a sensory nerve that controls vision.

      The third cranial nerve, the oculomotor nerve, originates from the midbrain and exits through the superior orbital fissure. It is a motor nerve that controls eye movement, pupillary constriction, and lens accommodation. The fourth cranial nerve, the trochlear nerve, also originates from the midbrain and exits through the superior orbital fissure. It is a motor nerve that controls eye movement.

      The fifth cranial nerve, the trigeminal nerve, originates from the pons and exits through different foramina depending on the division. It is a mixed nerve that controls chewing and sensation of the anterior 2/3 of the scalp. It also tenses the tympanic membrane to dampen loud noises.

      The sixth cranial nerve, the abducens nerve, originates from the pons and exits through the superior orbital fissure. It is a motor nerve that controls eye movement. The seventh cranial nerve, the facial nerve, also originates from the pons and exits through the internal auditory canal. It is a mixed nerve that controls facial expression, taste of the anterior 2/3 of the tongue, and tension on the stapes to dampen loud noises.

      The eighth cranial nerve, the vestibulocochlear nerve, originates from the pons and exits through the internal auditory canal. It is a sensory nerve that controls hearing. The ninth cranial nerve, the glossopharyngeal nerve, originates from the medulla and exits through the jugular foramen. It is a mixed nerve that controls taste of the posterior 1/3 of the tongue, elevation of the larynx and pharynx, and swallowing.

      The tenth cranial nerve, the vagus nerve, also originates from the medulla and exits through the jugular foramen. It is a mixed nerve that controls swallowing, voice production, and parasympathetic supply to nearly all thoracic and abdominal viscera. The eleventh cranial nerve, the accessory nerve, originates from the medulla and exits through the jugular foramen. It is a motor nerve that controls shoulder shrugging and head turning.

      The twelfth cranial nerve, the hypoglossal nerve, originates from the medulla and exits through the hypoglossal canal. It is a motor nerve that controls tongue movement. Overall, the cranial nerves play a crucial role in controlling various functions of the head and neck, and any damage of dysfunction can have significant consequences.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      8.5
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - What is the most frequently occurring side effect of rivastigmine? ...

    Correct

    • What is the most frequently occurring side effect of rivastigmine?

      Your Answer: Nausea

      Explanation:

      Pharmacological management of dementia involves the use of acetylcholinesterase inhibitors (AChE inhibitors) and memantine. AChE inhibitors prevent the breakdown of acetylcholine, which is deficient in Alzheimer’s due to the loss of cholinergic neurons. Donepezil, galantamine, and rivastigmine are commonly used AChE inhibitors in the management of Alzheimer’s. However, gastrointestinal side effects such as nausea and vomiting are common with these drugs.

      Memantine, on the other hand, is an NMDA receptor antagonist that blocks the effects of pathologically elevated levels of glutamate that may lead to neuronal dysfunction. It has a half-life of 60-100 hours and is primarily renally eliminated. Common adverse effects of memantine include somnolence, dizziness, hypertension, dyspnea, constipation, headache, and elevated liver function tests.

      Overall, pharmacological management of dementia aims to improve cognitive function and slow down the progression of the disease. However, it is important to note that these drugs do not cure dementia and may only provide temporary relief of symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      6.7
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - When is the highest risk period for agranulocytosis caused by clozapine? ...

    Correct

    • When is the highest risk period for agranulocytosis caused by clozapine?

      Your Answer: 4-18 weeks

      Explanation:

      Agranulocytosis, a potentially life-threatening condition, is a rare side effect of clozapine occurring in approximately 1% of patients. The period of maximum risk for developing agranulocytosis is between 4-18 weeks after starting treatment. It is important for patients taking clozapine to have regular blood tests and be registered with the Clozaril Patient Monitoring Service to monitor for this side effect. It is worth noting that the risk of agranulocytosis is not related to the dose of clozapine. For more information on the treatment of schizophrenia, the book Contemporary Issues in the Treatment of Schizophrenia edited by Shriqui CL and Nasrallah HA may be of interest.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      7.3
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - What is the mechanism of action of sildenafil? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the mechanism of action of sildenafil?

      Your Answer: Potent ligand for the alpha-2-delta subunit of voltage-gated calcium channels in the central nervous system

      Correct Answer: Inhibition of phosphodiesterase

      Explanation:

      Nitrous oxide functions as a vasodilator during penile erection by diffusing through the muscle cell membrane and binding to guanylyl cyclase. This enzyme catalyzes the conversion of GTP to cyclic GMP, which activates a cGMP-dependent protein kinase. This kinase stimulates the uptake of calcium by the endoplasmic reticulum of the muscle cell, leading to muscle relaxation and vasodilation, resulting in an erection.

      To end the erection, cGMP is converted into GMP by a specific phosphodiesterase (PDE). There are ten families of PDEs, with PDE5 being the primary PDE found in vascular smooth muscle. Sildenafil (Viagra) is a specific inhibitor of PDE5, blocking the breakdown of cGMP and prolonging the effects of cGMP, thereby prolonging the erection.

      Mechanisms of Action of Different Drugs

      Understanding the mechanisms of action of different drugs is crucial for medical professionals. It is a common topic in exams and can earn easy marks if studied well. This article provides a list of drugs and their mechanisms of action in different categories such as antidepressants, anti dementia drugs, mood stabilizers, anxiolytic/hypnotic drugs, antipsychotics, drugs of abuse, and other drugs. For example, mirtazapine is a noradrenaline and serotonin specific antidepressant that works as a 5HT2 antagonist, 5HT3 antagonist, H1 antagonist, alpha 1 and alpha 2 antagonist, and moderate muscarinic antagonist. Similarly, donepezil is a reversible acetylcholinesterase inhibitor used as an anti dementia drug, while valproate is a GABA agonist and NMDA antagonist used as a mood stabilizer. The article also explains the mechanisms of action of drugs such as ketamine, phencyclidine, buprenorphine, naloxone, atomoxetine, varenicline, disulfiram, acamprosate, and sildenafil.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      9.7
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - What is a true statement about Turner syndrome? ...

    Correct

    • What is a true statement about Turner syndrome?

      Your Answer: It only affects females

      Explanation:

      The majority of Turner syndrome cases are not inherited and occur due to a failure in the separation of chromosomes during cell division, known as nondisjunction.

      Understanding Turner Syndrome

      Turner syndrome is a genetic disorder that affects only females. It occurs when one of the two X chromosomes is missing of partially missing. This happens randomly and does not increase the risk of the condition in future siblings. Although X-inactivation occurs in females, having only one X chromosome can cause issues as not all genes are inactivated in the inactivated X chromosome.

      The features of Turner syndrome include short stature, a webbed neck, a broad chest with widely spaced nipples, gonadal dysfunction leading to amenorrhea and infertility, congenital heart disease, and hypothyroidism. Despite these physical characteristics, girls with Turner syndrome typically have normal intelligence, with a mean full-scale IQ of 90. However, they may struggle with nonverbal, social, and psychomotor skills. It is important to understand the symptoms and effects of Turner syndrome to provide appropriate care and support for affected individuals.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychological Development
      11.1
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - Which of the following pairs is correctly matched? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following pairs is correctly matched?

      Your Answer: Phenothiazine - Risperidone

      Correct Answer: Butyrophenone - Haloperidol

      Explanation:

      Antipsychotics can be classified in different ways, with the most common being typical (first generation) and atypical (second generation) types. Typical antipsychotics block dopamine (D2) receptors and have varying degrees of M1, Alpha-1, and H1 receptor blockade. Atypical antipsychotics have a lower propensity for extrapyramidal side-effects and are attributed to the combination of relatively lower D2 antagonism with 5HT2A antagonism. They are also classified by structure, with examples including phenothiazines, butyrophenones, thioxanthenes, diphenylbutylpiperidine, dibenzodiazepines, benzoxazoles, thienobenzodiazepine, substituted benzamides, and arylpiperidylindole (quinolone). Studies have found little evidence to support the superiority of atypicals over typicals in terms of efficacy, discontinuation rates, of adherence, with the main difference being the side-effect profile. The Royal College also favors classification by structure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      9.7
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - Which CNS histopathological characteristic is the most distinctive for prion diseases? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which CNS histopathological characteristic is the most distinctive for prion diseases?

      Your Answer: Reactive proliferation of astrocytes

      Correct Answer: Spongiform (vacuolation) change

      Explanation:

      The presence of spongiform (vacuolation) change is a highly specific indicator of prion diseases. While neuronal loss and gliosis are common in many CNS disorders, spongiform change is unique to prion diseases. This change is characterized by the appearance of vacuoles in the deep cortical layers, cerebellar cortex, of subcortical grey matter. Scar formation and acute immune responses are associated with reactive proliferation of astrocytes and microglia, respectively. In contrast, Alzheimer’s dementia is characterized by the presence of amyloid plaques.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      11.4
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - In considering whether it could be right to cheat on a test, a...

    Incorrect

    • In considering whether it could be right to cheat on a test, a high school student says that they feel it would be wrong because they believe the social effect would be to reduce the trust the teacher has in students. Another student says he believes that this would increase trust in students instead.

      What moral framework are both students using?

      Your Answer: Kantian

      Correct Answer: Utilitarian

      Explanation:

      The two main ethical approaches in philosophy are teleological ethics, which focuses on the end result, and deontological ethics, which focuses on an individual’s actions being morally right regardless of the end result. In medicine, deontology is patient-centered, while utilitarianism is society-centered. Deontological ethics judges the moral status of actions according to rules of principles, such as the duty not to harm the patient versus the duty to help them. Kantian ethics is a strict form of deontological ethics that emphasizes behaving as though one’s behavior is creating a universal ethical rule. Utilitarianism is a teleological approach that prioritizes the action that leads to the greatest happiness of the greatest number, regardless of how it is brought about. In medicine, autonomy is one of four ethical principles, along with beneficence, non-maleficence, and justice, that enable patients to choose their own treatment and ensure fairness and equality.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      73.4
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - Which compound in the list below is a secondary amine? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which compound in the list below is a secondary amine?

      Your Answer: Imipramine

      Correct Answer: Nortriptyline

      Explanation:

      Tricyclic Antidepressants: First and Second Generation

      Tricyclic antidepressants are classified into two generations: first generation of tertiary amines, and second generation of secondary amines. The secondary amines are known to have fewer side effects and primarily affect noradrenaline, while the tertiary amines are believed to enhance both serotonin and noradrenaline.

      Secondary amines include Desipramine, Nortriptyline, Protriptyline, and Amoxapine. On the other hand, tertiary amines include Amitriptyline, Lofepramine, Imipramine, Clomipramine, Dosulepin (Dothiepin), Doxepin, Trimipramine, and Butriptyline.

      By understanding the differences between the two generations of tricyclic antidepressants, healthcare professionals can better tailor their treatment plans to their patients’ needs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      6
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 25-year-old man with schizophrenia has ritualistic movements, and posture which is not...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old man with schizophrenia has ritualistic movements, and posture which is not goal directed. He is often observed rocking in the corner of the room. Which of the following does he exhibit?:

      Your Answer:

      Explanation:

      – Catatonia is a psychiatric syndrome characterized by disturbed motor functions, mood, and thought.
      – Key behaviors associated with catatonia include stupor, posturing, waxy flexibility, negativism, automatic obedience, mitmachen, mitgehen, ambitendency, psychological pillow, forced grasping, obstruction, echopraxia, aversion, mannerisms, stereotypies, motor perseveration, echolalia, and logorrhoea.
      – These behaviors are often tested in exam questions.
      – Karl Ludwig Kahlbaum is credited with the original clinical description of catatonia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
      11.8
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - An evaluator asks a child to list all the fruits they know that...

    Correct

    • An evaluator asks a child to list all the fruits they know that start with the letter A. What particular aspect of cognitive function is being evaluated?

      Your Answer: Executive function

      Explanation:

      Verbal fluency can be demonstrated by listing as many animals as possible within a minute using a specific letter.

      The mental state exam assesses various areas of cognition, including orientation, attention/concentration, short term memory, long term memory, and executive function. Standard tests for each area include asking about time, place, and person for orientation, serial 7’s for attention/concentration, digit span for short term memory, delayed recall of name and address for long term memory, and various tasks such as proverbs, similarities, differences, verbal fluency, and cognitive estimates for executive function.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
      20.2
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 3-year-old girl wakes up crying in the middle of the night. This...

    Correct

    • A 3-year-old girl wakes up crying in the middle of the night. This typically occurs shortly after she has fallen asleep. Her parents report that she sits up in bed and appears to be awake but does not acknowledge them. The episodes last for a few minutes before the child falls back asleep. The parents have checked her pulse during these episodes and note that it is very rapid. This started happening around six months ago and lasted for about two weeks before resolving on its own. What is the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Night terrors

      Explanation:

      Night terrors are a type of sleep disorder that typically occur during the first few hours of sleep. They are characterized by sudden and intense feelings of fear, panic, of terror that can cause the person to scream, thrash around, of even try to escape from their bed. Unlike nightmares, which occur during REM sleep and are often remembered upon waking, night terrors occur during non-REM sleep and are usually not remembered. Night terrors are most common in children, but can also occur in adults. They are thought to be caused by a combination of genetic and environmental factors, and may be triggered by stress, anxiety, of sleep deprivation. Treatment for night terrors may include improving sleep hygiene, reducing stress, and in some cases, medication.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      15.3
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - Which of the following is most likely to cause dysgeusia? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is most likely to cause dysgeusia?

      Your Answer: Topiramate

      Correct Answer: Lithium

      Explanation:

      Taste disturbance is known as Dysgeusia in medical terminology and can be caused by various medications. Lithium is a frequently encountered culprit, but other drugs such as certain antidepressants, benzodiazepines, z-drugs, and opiates can also lead to this condition. Additionally, any medication that causes dry mouth may result in taste disturbance. This information is sourced from D Kaufman’s book, Clinical neurology for psychiatrists, published in 2007 on page 38.

      Lithium – Pharmacology

      Pharmacokinetics:
      Lithium salts are rapidly absorbed following oral administration and are almost exclusively excreted by the kidneys unchanged. Blood samples for lithium should be taken 12 hours post-dose.

      Ebstein’s:
      Ebstein’s anomaly is a congenital malformation consisting of a prolapse of the tricuspid valve into the right ventricle. It occurs in 1:20,000 of the general population. Initial data suggested it was more common in those using lithium but this had not held to be true.

      Contraindications:
      Addison’s disease, Brugada syndrome, cardiac disease associated with rhythm disorders, clinically significant renal impairment, untreated of untreatable hypothyroidism, low sodium levels.

      Side-effects:
      Common side effects include nausea, tremor, polyuria/polydipsia, rash/dermatitis, blurred vision, dizziness, decreased appetite, drowsiness, metallic taste, and diarrhea. Side-effects are often dose-related.

      Long-term use is associated with hypothyroidism, hyperthyroidism, hypercalcemia/hyperparathyroidism, irreversible nephrogenic diabetes insipidus, and reduced GFR.

      Lithium-induced diabetes insipidus:
      Treatment options include stopping lithium (if feasible), keeping levels within 0.4-0.8 mmol/L, once-daily dose of the drug taken at bedtime, amiloride, thiazide diuretics, indomethacin, and desmopressin.

      Toxicity:
      Lithium salts have a narrow therapeutic/toxic ratio. Risk factors for lithium toxicity include drugs altering renal function, decreased circulating volume, infections, fever, decreased oral intake of water, renal insufficiency, and nephrogenic diabetes insipidus. Features of lithium toxicity include GI symptoms and neuro symptoms.

      Pre-prescribing:
      Before prescribing lithium, renal function, cardiac function, thyroid function, FBC, and BMI should be checked. Women of childbearing age should be advised regarding contraception, and information about toxicity should be provided.

      Monitoring:
      Lithium blood levels should be checked weekly until stable, and then every 3-6 months once stable. Thyroid and renal function should be checked every 6 months. Patients should be issued with an information booklet, alert card, and record book.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      7
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - Which enzyme converts L-DOPA to dopamine? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which enzyme converts L-DOPA to dopamine?

      Your Answer: Tyrosine hydroxylase

      Correct Answer: DOPA decarboxylase

      Explanation:

      Tyrosine is converted to L-DOPA by the enzyme tyrosine hydroxylase. L-DOPA is then converted to dopamine by the enzyme dopa decarboxylase.

      Neurotransmitters are substances used by neurons to communicate with each other and with target tissues. They are synthesized and released from nerve endings into the synaptic cleft, where they bind to receptor proteins in the cellular membrane of the target tissue. Neurotransmitters can be classified into different types, including small molecules (such as acetylcholine, dopamine, norepinephrine, serotonin, and GABA) and large molecules (such as neuropeptides). They can also be classified as excitatory or inhibitory. Receptors can be ionotropic or metabotropic, and the effects of neurotransmitters can be fast of slow. Some important neurotransmitters include acetylcholine, dopamine, GABA, norepinephrine, and serotonin. Each neurotransmitter has a specific synthesis, breakdown, and receptor type. Understanding neurotransmitters is important for understanding the function of the nervous system and for developing treatments for neurological and psychiatric disorders.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      7.1
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - At what developmental stage, as described by Piaget, would a 3-year-old child engage...

    Correct

    • At what developmental stage, as described by Piaget, would a 3-year-old child engage in symbolic play but struggle with understanding others' perspectives?

      Your Answer: Preoperational

      Explanation:

      The preoperational stage, according to Jean Piaget’s theory of cognitive development, is characterized by children engaging in symbolic play but not yet being able to comprehend logic. Piaget identified four main stages of cognitive development: sensorimotor, preoperational, concrete operational, and formal operational. The sensorimotor stage occurs from birth to two years old, during which the child experiences the world through their senses. The concrete operational stage occurs from seven to eleven years old, during which the child can think logically and is no longer egocentric. The formal operational stage occurs from eleven to sixteen years old, during which the child develops abstract reasoning. It is important to note that the Freudian stage of psychosexual development known as latency is not relevant to Piaget’s theory and is therefore not included in his stages of cognitive development.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      18.3
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - What is meant by formication, an abnormal sensation experienced by some individuals? ...

    Correct

    • What is meant by formication, an abnormal sensation experienced by some individuals?

      Your Answer: Hallucinations of movements just below the skin

      Explanation:

      Formication refers to the sensation of movement under the skin, which can be associated with cocaine abuse and is commonly referred to as the cocaine bug. Autoscopic hallucinations occur when an individual perceives their own body as being projected into external space. Delirium tremens, a symptom of alcohol withdrawal, can cause visual hallucinations such as dark shadows of rats, often appearing as Lilliputian figures.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Descriptive Psychopathology
      16.3
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - Which of the following findings would provide the strongest evidence for a diagnosis...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following findings would provide the strongest evidence for a diagnosis of lithium toxicity in a man who has just started taking lithium and is reporting feeling unwell during a clinic visit?

      Your Answer: Fine tremor

      Correct Answer: Ataxia

      Explanation:

      Lithium – Pharmacology

      Pharmacokinetics:
      Lithium salts are rapidly absorbed following oral administration and are almost exclusively excreted by the kidneys unchanged. Blood samples for lithium should be taken 12 hours post-dose.

      Ebstein’s:
      Ebstein’s anomaly is a congenital malformation consisting of a prolapse of the tricuspid valve into the right ventricle. It occurs in 1:20,000 of the general population. Initial data suggested it was more common in those using lithium but this had not held to be true.

      Contraindications:
      Addison’s disease, Brugada syndrome, cardiac disease associated with rhythm disorders, clinically significant renal impairment, untreated of untreatable hypothyroidism, low sodium levels.

      Side-effects:
      Common side effects include nausea, tremor, polyuria/polydipsia, rash/dermatitis, blurred vision, dizziness, decreased appetite, drowsiness, metallic taste, and diarrhea. Side-effects are often dose-related.

      Long-term use is associated with hypothyroidism, hyperthyroidism, hypercalcemia/hyperparathyroidism, irreversible nephrogenic diabetes insipidus, and reduced GFR.

      Lithium-induced diabetes insipidus:
      Treatment options include stopping lithium (if feasible), keeping levels within 0.4-0.8 mmol/L, once-daily dose of the drug taken at bedtime, amiloride, thiazide diuretics, indomethacin, and desmopressin.

      Toxicity:
      Lithium salts have a narrow therapeutic/toxic ratio. Risk factors for lithium toxicity include drugs altering renal function, decreased circulating volume, infections, fever, decreased oral intake of water, renal insufficiency, and nephrogenic diabetes insipidus. Features of lithium toxicity include GI symptoms and neuro symptoms.

      Pre-prescribing:
      Before prescribing lithium, renal function, cardiac function, thyroid function, FBC, and BMI should be checked. Women of childbearing age should be advised regarding contraception, and information about toxicity should be provided.

      Monitoring:
      Lithium blood levels should be checked weekly until stable, and then every 3-6 months once stable. Thyroid and renal function should be checked every 6 months. Patients should be issued with an information booklet, alert card, and record book.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      10
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - Which of the following diseases is not caused by prions? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following diseases is not caused by prions?

      Your Answer: Fatal familial insomnia

      Correct Answer: Progressive supranuclear palsy

      Explanation:

      Prion Diseases

      Prion diseases are a group of rare and fatal neurodegenerative disorders that affect humans and animals. These diseases are caused by abnormal proteins called prions, which can cause normal proteins in the brain to fold abnormally and form clumps. This leads to damage and death of brain cells, resulting in a range of symptoms such as dementia, movement disorders, and behavioral changes.

      Some of the most well-known prion diseases in humans include Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease, Kuru, Gerstman-Straussler-Scheinker syndrome, and Fatal Familial Insomnia. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease is the most common prion disease in humans, and it can occur sporadically, genetically, of through exposure to contaminated tissue. Kuru is a rare disease that was once prevalent in Papua New Guinea, and it was transmitted through cannibalism. Gerstman-Straussler-Scheinker syndrome is a rare genetic disorder that affects the nervous system, while Fatal Familial Insomnia is a rare inherited disorder that causes progressive insomnia and other neurological symptoms.

      Despite extensive research, there is currently no cure for prion diseases, and treatment is mainly supportive. Prevention measures include avoiding exposure to contaminated tissue and practicing good hygiene.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      12.2
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - What is the defining feature of arched posturing of the head, trunk, and...

    Correct

    • What is the defining feature of arched posturing of the head, trunk, and extremities?

      Your Answer: Opisthotonus

      Explanation:

      Extrapyramidal side-effects (EPSE’s) are a group of side effects that affect voluntary motor control, commonly seen in patients taking antipsychotic drugs. EPSE’s include dystonias, parkinsonism, akathisia, and tardive dyskinesia. They can be frightening and uncomfortable, leading to problems with non-compliance and can even be life-threatening in the case of laryngeal dystonia. EPSE’s are thought to be due to antagonism of dopaminergic D2 receptors in the basal ganglia. Symptoms generally occur within the first few days of treatment, with dystonias appearing quickly, within a few hours of administration of the first dose. Newer antipsychotics tend to produce less EPSE’s, with clozapine carrying the lowest risk and haloperidol carrying the highest risk. Akathisia is the most resistant EPSE to treat. EPSE’s can also occur when antipsychotics are discontinued (withdrawal dystonia).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      181
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - During an evaluation, it appears difficult to obtain a straightforward response from your...

    Incorrect

    • During an evaluation, it appears difficult to obtain a straightforward response from your elderly client. They do eventually provide an answer, but only after an extended conversation about the intricacies of the topic, including precise and detailed information about each aspect. What is this occurrence referred to as?

      Your Answer: Overinclusive thinking

      Correct Answer: Circumstantiality

      Explanation:

      Different types of thought disorders are associated with specific personality traits of mental illnesses. Circumstantiality involves taking a long and detailed route to get to the initial point. Loosening of association makes it difficult to follow how one idea connects to the previous one, resulting in derailment. Overinclusive thinking blurs the boundaries between words and concepts, causing unrelated ideas to be associated with each other. Tangentiality involves answers that are related to the question but do not directly answer it.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Assessment
      13.1
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - What is the cause of Balint's syndrome? ...

    Correct

    • What is the cause of Balint's syndrome?

      Your Answer: Bilateral parieto-occipital lobe dysfunction

      Explanation:

      Parietal Lobe Dysfunction: Types and Symptoms

      The parietal lobe is a part of the brain that plays a crucial role in processing sensory information and integrating it with other cognitive functions. Dysfunction in this area can lead to various symptoms, depending on the location and extent of the damage.

      Dominant parietal lobe dysfunction, often caused by a stroke, can result in Gerstmann’s syndrome, which includes finger agnosia, dyscalculia, dysgraphia, and right-left disorientation. Non-dominant parietal lobe dysfunction, on the other hand, can cause anosognosia, dressing apraxia, spatial neglect, and constructional apraxia.

      Bilateral damage to the parieto-occipital lobes, a rare condition, can lead to Balint’s syndrome, which is characterized by oculomotor apraxia, optic ataxia, and simultanagnosia. These symptoms can affect a person’s ability to shift gaze, interact with objects, and perceive multiple objects at once.

      In summary, parietal lobe dysfunction can manifest in various ways, and understanding the specific symptoms can help diagnose and treat the underlying condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      7.7
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - Which adverse drug reaction has the quickest onset? ...

    Correct

    • Which adverse drug reaction has the quickest onset?

      Your Answer: Type I

      Explanation:

      Immunologic Adverse Drug Reactions

      Immunologic adverse drug reactions account for a small percentage of all adverse drug reactions, ranging from 5 to 10%. These reactions are classified using the Gell and Coombs system, which categorizes them into four groups: Type I, Type II, Type III, and Type IV reactions.

      Type I reactions occur when a drug-IgE complex binds to mast cells, leading to the release of histamine and other inflammatory mediators. These reactions typically cause anaphylaxis, urticaria, and bronchospasm and occur within minutes to hours after exposure.

      Type II reactions occur when an IgG of IgM antibody binds to a cell that has been altered by a drug-hapten. These reactions often manifest as blood abnormalities, such as thrombocytopenia and neutropenia, and their timing is variable.

      Type III reactions occur when drug-antibody complexes activate the complement system, leading to fever, rash, urticaria, and vasculitis. These reactions occur 1 to 3 weeks after exposure.

      Type IV reactions arise when the MHC system presents drug molecules to T cells, resulting in allergic contact dermatitis and rashes. These reactions occur 2 to 7 days after cutaneous exposure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      4.8
      Seconds
  • Question 31 - What is the accomplishment of the concrete operational stage in human development, as...

    Incorrect

    • What is the accomplishment of the concrete operational stage in human development, as per Piaget's theory?

      Your Answer: Secondary Circular Reactions

      Correct Answer: Syllogistic reasoning

      Explanation:

      Piaget’s Stages of Development and Key Concepts

      Piaget developed four stages of development that describe how children think and acquire knowledge. The first stage is the Sensorimotor stage, which occurs from birth to 18-24 months. In this stage, infants learn through sensory observation and gain control of their motor functions through activity, exploration, and manipulation of the environment.

      The second stage is the Preoperational stage, which occurs from 2 to 7 years. During this stage, children use symbols and language more extensively, but they are unable to think logically of deductively. They also use a type of magical thinking and animistic thinking.

      The third stage is the Concrete Operational stage, which occurs from 7 to 11 years. In this stage, egocentric thought is replaced by operational thought, which involves dealing with a wide array of information outside the child. Children in this stage begin to use limited logical thought and can serialise, order, and group things into classes on the basis of common characteristics.

      The fourth and final stage is the Formal Operations stage, which occurs from 11 through the end of adolescence. This stage is characterized by the ability to think abstractly, to reason deductively, to define concepts, and also by the emergence of skills for dealing with permutations and combinations.

      Piaget also developed key concepts, including schema, assimilation, and accommodation. A schema is a category of knowledge and the process of obtaining that knowledge. Assimilation is the process of taking new information into an existing schema, while accommodation involves altering a schema in view of additional information.

      Overall, Piaget’s stages of development and key concepts provide a framework for understanding how children learn and acquire knowledge.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychological Development
      30.7
      Seconds
  • Question 32 - What is the accurate statement about renowned psychologists and their associated theories? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the accurate statement about renowned psychologists and their associated theories?

      Your Answer: Carl Jung is associated with hysteria

      Correct Answer: Margaret Mahler is associated with separation-individuation

      Explanation:

      Historical Figures in Psychology

      Melanie Klein is known for developing play therapy, which involves interpreting the symbolic meaning of a child’s actions during play and relating them to their feelings towards their parents. Margaret Mahler, on the other hand, focused on the development of the ego within the context of object relationships. She emphasized how interpersonal relationships become internalized within the self, rather than the gratification of instincts of biological needs. Mahler coined the term separation-individuation to describe the process by which internal maps of the self and others are formed during the first three years of life.

      Transactional analysis, developed by Dr. Eric Berne in the 1960s, is based on the idea that we have three parts to our personality (child, adult, and parent) and that these converse with one another in transactions. Finally, Jean-Martin Charcot and Pierre Janet are both associated with hysteria, with Charcot being known for his work with hypnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • History Of Psychiatry
      12
      Seconds
  • Question 33 - During which phase does the acquisition of the concept of conservation of length...

    Correct

    • During which phase does the acquisition of the concept of conservation of length typically occur?

      Your Answer: Concrete operational

      Explanation:

      Piaget’s Stages of Development and Key Concepts

      Piaget developed four stages of development that describe how children think and acquire knowledge. The first stage is the Sensorimotor stage, which occurs from birth to 18-24 months. In this stage, infants learn through sensory observation and gain control of their motor functions through activity, exploration, and manipulation of the environment.

      The second stage is the Preoperational stage, which occurs from 2 to 7 years. During this stage, children use symbols and language more extensively, but they are unable to think logically of deductively. They also use a type of magical thinking and animistic thinking.

      The third stage is the Concrete Operational stage, which occurs from 7 to 11 years. In this stage, egocentric thought is replaced by operational thought, which involves dealing with a wide array of information outside the child. Children in this stage begin to use limited logical thought and can serialise, order, and group things into classes on the basis of common characteristics.

      The fourth and final stage is the Formal Operations stage, which occurs from 11 through the end of adolescence. This stage is characterized by the ability to think abstractly, to reason deductively, to define concepts, and also by the emergence of skills for dealing with permutations and combinations.

      Piaget also developed key concepts, including schema, assimilation, and accommodation. A schema is a category of knowledge and the process of obtaining that knowledge. Assimilation is the process of taking new information into an existing schema, while accommodation involves altering a schema in view of additional information.

      Overall, Piaget’s stages of development and key concepts provide a framework for understanding how children learn and acquire knowledge.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychological Development
      18.8
      Seconds
  • Question 34 - A researcher studying obesity in adolescents is interested in creating a medication that...

    Incorrect

    • A researcher studying obesity in adolescents is interested in creating a medication that suppresses hunger. Which neuropeptide transmitter would be the target for developing an antagonist drug?

      Your Answer: Substance P

      Correct Answer: Neuropeptide Y

      Explanation:

      Neuropeptide Y is a neuropeptide that stimulates appetite and is a target for developing antagonists in obesity research. Angiotensin is a peptide hormone involved in controlling blood pressure through vasoconstriction. Cholecystokinin has been linked to schizophrenia, eating disorders, movement disorders, anxiety, and panic attacks. Neurotensin is hypothesized to be involved in schizophrenia due to its co-existence with dopamine in some axon terminals. Substance P is primarily associated with pain perception.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological Examination
      8.2
      Seconds
  • Question 35 - Which lobe is commonly linked to executive aprosody dysfunction? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which lobe is commonly linked to executive aprosody dysfunction?

      Your Answer: Dominant frontal

      Correct Answer: Non-dominant frontal

      Explanation:

      Understanding Prosody and Aprosodias

      Prosody refers to the emotional tone of language, which is conveyed through the melodious quality and inflections in the voice. It is affected by various psychiatric and neuropsychiatric illnesses, and disorders in the ability to express of understand the emotional overlay of speech are called aprosodias. Aprosodias are typically caused by dysfunction in areas of the non-dominant hemisphere, usually the right side of the brain.

      Executive aprosody, which is the ability to express emotions in speech, can be tested by asking the patient to repeat a neutral sentence with different emotions. It is affected by lesions of the right premotor cortex of the basal ganglia. On the other hand, receptive aprosody, which is the ability to understand emotions in speech, can be tested by asking the patient to identify the emotion conveyed in a neutral sentence with different emotional inflections. It is affected by lesions of the posterior superior right temporal lobe.

      Abnormalities of prosody are not specific to any particular disorder, but patients with severe depression, schizophrenia, and pervasive developmental disorders often present with characteristic abnormalities of prosody. For instance, severely depressed patients may have a monotonous, affect-neutral pattern of speech, while patients with schizophrenia may present with abnormal modulation of emphasis and volume of unusual accents. Patients with autism and Asperger’s disorder may have speech patterns that are monotonous, robotic, of singsong in quality.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
      9.9
      Seconds
  • Question 36 - A 56-year-old woman experiences a stroke caused by a ruptured berry aneurysm in...

    Correct

    • A 56-year-old woman experiences a stroke caused by a ruptured berry aneurysm in the right middle cerebral artery. She frequently collides with objects but denies any visual impairment.
      What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Anton syndrome

      Explanation:

      Anton-Babinski syndrome, also known as Anton syndrome of Anton’s blindness, is a rare condition caused by brain damage in the occipital lobe. Individuals with this syndrome are unable to see due to cortical blindness, but they insist that they can see despite evidence to the contrary. This is because they confabulate, of make up explanations for their inability to see. The syndrome is typically a result of a stroke, but can also occur after a head injury.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      10.9
      Seconds
  • Question 37 - From which embryonic structure does the thalamus originate? ...

    Incorrect

    • From which embryonic structure does the thalamus originate?

      Your Answer: Telencephalon

      Correct Answer: Diencephalon

      Explanation:

      Neurodevelopment: Understanding Brain Development

      The development of the central nervous system begins with the neuroectoderm, a specialized region of ectoderm. The embryonic brain is divided into three areas: the forebrain (prosencephalon), midbrain (mesencephalon), and hindbrain (rhombencephalon). The prosencephalon further divides into the telencephalon and diencephalon, while the hindbrain subdivides into the metencephalon and myelencephalon.

      The telencephalon, of cerebrum, consists of the cerebral cortex, underlying white matter, and the basal ganglia. The diencephalon includes the prethalamus, thalamus, hypothalamus, subthalamus, epithalamus, and pretectum. The mesencephalon comprises the tectum, tegmentum, ventricular mesocoelia, cerebral peduncles, and several nuclei and fasciculi.

      The rhombencephalon includes the medulla, pons, and cerebellum, which can be subdivided into a variable number of transversal swellings called rhombomeres. In humans, eight rhombomeres can be distinguished, from caudal to rostral: Rh7-Rh1 and the isthmus. Rhombomeres Rh7-Rh4 form the myelencephalon, while Rh3-Rh1 form the metencephalon.

      Understanding neurodevelopment is crucial in comprehending brain development and its complexities. By studying the different areas of the embryonic brain, we can gain insight into the formation of the central nervous system and its functions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      12.3
      Seconds
  • Question 38 - What is the term used to describe the decrease in anxiety that occurs...

    Incorrect

    • What is the term used to describe the decrease in anxiety that occurs during flooding therapy?

      Your Answer: Tolerance

      Correct Answer: Habituation

      Explanation:

      Flooding as a Treatment for Phobias

      Flooding is a treatment method for phobias that involves directly confronting the fear and remaining in the situation until the anxiety subsides. This process is called habituation and is different from systematic desensitization. However, flooding can be challenging for patients as it produces high levels of anxiety, which can cause them to leave the situation before the fear response is extinguished. As a result, desensitization is generally preferred over flooding as a treatment method for phobias.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      8.1
      Seconds
  • Question 39 - As per the classification of the Registrar General, how are married mothers who...

    Incorrect

    • As per the classification of the Registrar General, how are married mothers who are unemployed categorized?

      Your Answer: As unskilled workers

      Correct Answer: According to their husband's occupation

      Explanation:

      Social Class Determination and the Registrar General’s Classification System

      The Registrar General’s classification system, which was implemented in 1911, has been a useful tool in categorizing population groups. However, it can pose challenges when classifying individuals who are unemployed, part-time workers, of retirees.

      Traditionally, social class has been determined by occupation, with professionals, landowners, and higher managerial positions falling under Class I. Class II includes intermediate occupations, while skilled workers are classified under Class III. Semi-skilled workers are categorized under Class IV, and unskilled workers fall under Class V.

      However, students and retirees do not fit neatly into this classification system. They are often excluded from the traditional social class structure and are instead given their own category. This highlights the limitations of the Registrar General’s classification system and the need for more inclusive and comprehensive methods of categorizing population groups.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      22.6
      Seconds
  • Question 40 - What term describes the increase in standardised intelligence test scores that has been...

    Incorrect

    • What term describes the increase in standardised intelligence test scores that has been observed over time?

      Your Answer: Testing effect

      Correct Answer: Flynn effect

      Explanation:

      The Dunning-Kruger effect refers to a phenomenon where individuals with lower levels of skill of knowledge tend to overestimate their abilities, leading them to believe they are more competent than they actually are.

      The Flynn Effect is the term used to describe the increase in standardised intelligence test scores over time. Research conducted by Flynn showed that IQ scores increased by 13.8 points between 1932 and 1978, which equates to a 0.3-point increase per year of approximately 3 points per decade. More recent studies have also supported the Flynn effect, with IQ score gains observed between 1972 and 2006. This means that an individual is likely to achieve a higher IQ score on an earlier version of a test than on the current version. In fact, the test will overestimate an individual’s IQ score by an average of 0.3 points per year between the year in which the test was normed and the year in which the test was administered.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
      7.8
      Seconds
  • Question 41 - Which of the following symptoms is not classified as a first rank symptom?...

    Correct

    • Which of the following symptoms is not classified as a first rank symptom?

      Your Answer: Gustatory hallucinations

      Explanation:

      First Rank Symptoms: Their Significance in Identifying Schizophrenia

      First rank symptoms were introduced by Kurt Schneider in 1938 as a practical tool for non-psychiatrists to identify schizophrenia. While they are highly suggestive of schizophrenia, they are not pathognomonic and can also be seen in affective and personality disorders. Additionally, there is no evidence to support their prognostic significance.

      A systematic review in 2015 found that first rank symptoms differentiated schizophrenia from nonpsychotic mental health disorders with a sensitivity of 61.8% and a specificity of 94.1%. They also differentiated schizophrenia from other types of psychosis with a sensitivity of 58% and a specificity of 74.7%.

      The first rank symptoms include running commentary, thought echo, voices heard arguing, thought insertion, thought withdrawal, thought broadcast, delusional perception, somatic passivity, made affect, and made volition. While they can be helpful in identifying schizophrenia, they should not be relied upon as the sole diagnostic criteria.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
      5.3
      Seconds
  • Question 42 - A 65-year-old female complains of memory decline over the past year. She has...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old female complains of memory decline over the past year. She has no other medical issues and is not on any medications.
      What is the most common symptom of dysfunction in the frontal lobe?

      Your Answer: Inability to generate a list rapidly

      Explanation:

      A visual field defect can be caused by pathology in the occipital, temporal, of parietal lobes. Homonymous hemianopia is associated with occipital lobe dysfunction, superior quadrantanopia with temporal lobe dysfunction, and inferior quadrantanopia with parietal lobe dysfunction.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cognitive Assessment
      13.3
      Seconds
  • Question 43 - What waveform represents a frequency range of 8-12Hz? ...

    Incorrect

    • What waveform represents a frequency range of 8-12Hz?

      Your Answer: Theta

      Correct Answer: Alpha

      Explanation:

      Electroencephalography

      Electroencephalography (EEG) is a clinical test that records the brain’s spontaneous electrical activity over a short period of time using multiple electrodes placed on the scalp. It is mainly used to rule out organic conditions and can help differentiate dementia from other disorders such as metabolic encephalopathies, CJD, herpes encephalitis, and non-convulsive status epilepticus. EEG can also distinguish possible psychotic episodes and acute confusional states from non-convulsive status epilepticus.

      Not all abnormal EEGs represent an underlying condition, and psychotropic medications can affect EEG findings. EEG abnormalities can also be triggered purposely by activation procedures such as hyperventilation, photic stimulation, certain drugs, and sleep deprivation.

      Specific waveforms are seen in an EEG, including delta, theta, alpha, sigma, beta, and gamma waves. Delta waves are found frontally in adults and posteriorly in children during slow wave sleep, and excessive amounts when awake may indicate pathology. Theta waves are generally seen in young children, drowsy and sleeping adults, and during meditation. Alpha waves are seen posteriorly when relaxed and when the eyes are closed, and are also seen in meditation. Sigma waves are bursts of oscillatory activity that occur in stage 2 sleep. Beta waves are seen frontally when busy of concentrating, and gamma waves are seen in advanced/very experienced meditators.

      Certain conditions are associated with specific EEG changes, such as nonspecific slowing in early CJD, low voltage EEG in Huntington’s, diffuse slowing in encephalopathy, and reduced alpha and beta with increased delta and theta in Alzheimer’s.

      Common epileptiform patterns include spikes, spike/sharp waves, and spike-waves. Medications can have important effects on EEG findings, with clozapine decreasing alpha and increasing delta and theta, lithium increasing all waveforms, lamotrigine decreasing all waveforms, and valproate having inconclusive effects on delta and theta and increasing beta.

      Overall, EEG is a useful tool in clinical contexts for ruling out organic conditions and differentiating between various disorders.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      5.3
      Seconds
  • Question 44 - Which adult and child attachment style pairs are mismatched? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which adult and child attachment style pairs are mismatched?

      Your Answer: Disorganised - Unresolved

      Correct Answer: Enmeshed - Obsessed

      Explanation:

      Attachment (Ainsworth)

      Psychologist Mary Ainsworth developed the ‘Strange Situation procedure’ to study and categorize attachment in children aged 12 to 18 months. The procedure involves seven steps, including two separations and two reunions, and takes place in one room. The child’s attachment is classified into one of three styles: secure, anxious-resistant, and anxious-avoidant. A fourth category, disorganized, is sometimes observed. Ainsworth suggested that the child’s attachment style is determined by the primary caregiver’s behavior.

      Mary Main later developed the Adult Attachment Interview and identified four categories of attachment in adults that correspond to those observed in the strange situation. The distribution of adult attachment styles correlates with those of the strange situation, with 70% of children and adults having secure attachment. Attachment styles also seem to be passed on to subsequent generations.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychological Development
      15.2
      Seconds
  • Question 45 - Which component is included in the Papez circuit? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which component is included in the Papez circuit?

      Your Answer: Olive nucleus

      Correct Answer: Hippocampus

      Explanation:

      The Papez Circuit: A Neural Pathway for Emotion

      James Papez was the first to describe a neural pathway in the brain that mediates the process of emotion. This pathway is known as the ‘Papez circuit’ and is located on the medial surface of the brain. It is bilateral, symmetrical, and links the cortex to the hypothalamus.

      According to Papez, information about emotion passes through several structures in the brain, including the hippocampus, the Mammillary bodies of the hypothalamus, the anterior nucleus of the thalamus, the cingulate cortex, and the entorhinal cortex. Finally, the information passes through the hippocampus again, completing the circuit.

      The Papez circuit was one of the first descriptions of the limbic system, which is responsible for regulating emotions, motivation, and memory. Understanding the Papez circuit and the limbic system has important implications for understanding and treating emotional disorders such as anxiety and depression.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      9.1
      Seconds
  • Question 46 - What is a true statement about drugs utilized for treating dementia? ...

    Correct

    • What is a true statement about drugs utilized for treating dementia?

      Your Answer: Memantine is an NMDA antagonist

      Explanation:

      Due to its extended half-life, Donepezil is administered once daily and functions as an acetylcholinesterase inhibitor.

      Pharmacological management of dementia involves the use of acetylcholinesterase inhibitors (AChE inhibitors) and memantine. AChE inhibitors prevent the breakdown of acetylcholine, which is deficient in Alzheimer’s due to the loss of cholinergic neurons. Donepezil, galantamine, and rivastigmine are commonly used AChE inhibitors in the management of Alzheimer’s. However, gastrointestinal side effects such as nausea and vomiting are common with these drugs.

      Memantine, on the other hand, is an NMDA receptor antagonist that blocks the effects of pathologically elevated levels of glutamate that may lead to neuronal dysfunction. It has a half-life of 60-100 hours and is primarily renally eliminated. Common adverse effects of memantine include somnolence, dizziness, hypertension, dyspnea, constipation, headache, and elevated liver function tests.

      Overall, pharmacological management of dementia aims to improve cognitive function and slow down the progression of the disease. However, it is important to note that these drugs do not cure dementia and may only provide temporary relief of symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      22.4
      Seconds
  • Question 47 - What is the stage of sleep that is identified by hypnic jerks and...

    Incorrect

    • What is the stage of sleep that is identified by hypnic jerks and theta waves on the EEG?

      Your Answer: REM

      Correct Answer: Stage I

      Explanation:

      Sleep Stages

      Sleep is divided into two distinct states called rapid eye movement (REM) and non-rapid eye movement (NREM). NREM is subdivided into four stages.

      Sleep stage
      Approx % of time spent in stage
      EEG findings
      Comment

      I
      5%
      Theta waves (4-7 Hz)
      The dozing off stage. Characterized by hypnic jerks: spontaneous myoclonic contractions associated with a sensation of twitching of falling.

      II
      45%
      Theta waves, K complexes and sleep spindles (short bursts of 12-14 Hz activity)
      Body enters a more subdued state including a drop in temperature, relaxed muscles, and slowed breathing and heart rate. At the same time, brain waves show a new pattern and eye movement stops.

      III
      15%
      Delta waves (0-4 Hz)
      Deepest stage of sleep (high waking threshold). The length of stage 3 decreases over the course of the night.

      IV
      15%
      Mixed, predominantly beta
      High dream activity.

      The percentage of REM sleep decreases with age.

      It takes the average person 15-20 minutes to fall asleep, this is called sleep latency (characterised by the onset of stage I sleep). Once asleep one descends through stages I-II and then III-IV (deep stages). After about 90 minutes of sleep one enters REM. The rest of the sleep comprises of cycles through the stages. As the sleep progresses the periods of REM become greater and the periods of NREM become less. During an average night’s sleep one spends 25% of the sleep in REM and 75% in NREM.

      REM sleep has certain characteristics that separate it from NREM

      Characteristics of REM sleep

      – Autonomic instability (variability in heart rate, respiratory rate, and BP)
      – Loss of muscle tone
      – Dreaming
      – Rapid eye movements
      – Penile erection

      Deafness:

      (No information provided on deafness in relation to sleep stages)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      10
      Seconds
  • Question 48 - What is the most frequent adverse effect of atomoxetine? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the most frequent adverse effect of atomoxetine?

      Your Answer: Hypoaesthesia

      Correct Answer: Headache

      Explanation:

      ADHD medications can be classified into stimulant and non-stimulant drugs. The therapeutic effects of these drugs are believed to be mediated through the action of noradrenaline in the prefrontal cortex. Common side effects of these drugs include decreased appetite, insomnia, nervousness, headache, and nausea. Stimulant drugs like dexamphetamine, methylphenidate, and lisdexamfetamine inhibit the reuptake of dopamine and noradrenaline. Non-stimulant drugs like atomoxetine, guanfacine, and clonidine work by increasing noradrenaline levels in the synaptic cleft through different mechanisms. The most common side effects of these drugs are decreased appetite, somnolence, headache, and abdominal pain.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      6.6
      Seconds
  • Question 49 - What test can be used to detect constructional apraxia? ...

    Incorrect

    • What test can be used to detect constructional apraxia?

      Your Answer: Sentence completion test

      Correct Answer: Clock drawing test

      Explanation:

      Individuals with constructional apraxia are unable to replicate drawings of arrange objects to create patterns of designs.

      Clock Drawing Test: A Screening Tool for Cognitive Dysfunction

      The clock drawing test is a widely used screening tool for cognitive dysfunction. It involves asking the patient to draw a clock on a piece of paper, placing the numbers on the clock face and drawing the hands to indicate 10 minutes past 11. This simple task assesses a range of cognitive functions, including visuospatial ability, motor function, attention, and comprehension.

      The test is quick and easy to administer, making it a useful tool for healthcare professionals to identify potential cognitive impairment in patients. The clock drawing test has been shown to be effective in detecting cognitive dysfunction in a variety of conditions, including Alzheimer’s and Parkinson’s disease.

      The image below illustrates examples of clocks drawn correctly by healthy controls and those drawn by patients with Alzheimer’s and Parkinson’s disease. By comparing the drawings, healthcare professionals can quickly identify potential cognitive dysfunction and take appropriate action.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
      13.6
      Seconds
  • Question 50 - What is a true statement about the Brief Psychiatric Rating Scale? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is a true statement about the Brief Psychiatric Rating Scale?

      Your Answer: It relies entirely on clinical observation

      Correct Answer: Uncooperativeness is rated as part of the scale

      Explanation:

      The Brief Psychiatric Rating Scale assesses the level of cooperation with the interview, utilizing a combination of self-report and clinical observation. Due to its reliance on these methods, it cannot be conducted via telephone.

      Brief Psychiatric Rating Scale: An Instrument for Evaluating Psychopathology in Psychiatric Patients

      The Brief Psychiatric Rating Scale (BPRS) is a widely used tool for assessing psychopathology in psychiatric patients. It was developed in the 1960s by Overall and Gorham, using factor analysis, to evaluate the severity of schizophrenic states and provide clinicians with a quick way to assess patient change. Initially, the BPRS consisted of 16 items, but two more items were added to create the standard 18-item version. Later, an expanded 24-item version was introduced to measure additional aspects of schizophrenia, such as bizarre behavior, self-neglect, suicidality, elevated mood, motor hyperactivity, and distractibility.

      The BPRS is rated by a clinician, who assesses each item on a 7-point scale of severity. Higher scores indicate greater severity of symptoms. The assessment relies on a combination of self-report and observation. Several variables are rated based on observation, while the rest are assessed through a short interview. The total score severity, using the 18-item version, has been estimated as mildly ill (31), moderately ill (41), and markedly ill (53). The administration of the BPRS can take 10-40 minutes, and versions have been validated for use in both children and older adults. As it is clinician-administered, the BPRS does not require patients to be able to read of write.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
      18
      Seconds
  • Question 51 - On average, what percentage of people would score lower than 100 on an...

    Incorrect

    • On average, what percentage of people would score lower than 100 on an IQ test?

      Your Answer: 40%

      Correct Answer: 50%

      Explanation:

      The Wechsler Adult Intelligence Scale (WAIS) is a widely used intelligence test in clinical settings, designed for individuals aged 16 to 90. Its counterpart for children is the Wechsler Intelligence Scale for Children (WISC). The current version of WAIS, WAIS-IV, consists of four index scores, each comprising several subsets. These are the Verbal Comprehension Index, Perceptual Reasoning Index, Working Memory Index, and Processing Speed Index. The results are presented as two scores: Full Scale IQ and General Ability Index. The average score is 100, with a standard deviation of 15. However, the test becomes less accurate at the extremes of IQ (70-130). About 3% of people score below 70, which is the general cut-off for a significant learning disability.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
      6.9
      Seconds
  • Question 52 - A 45-year-old man, currently unemployed, has been experiencing frequent panic attacks over the...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old man, currently unemployed, has been experiencing frequent panic attacks over the past few months. These attacks seem to be triggered by social situations and he has become increasingly isolated as a result. He has a history of childhood trauma and has never sought help for it before.
      He begins a form of therapy that involves individual sessions with a therapist, group therapy, and access to crisis support via phone. The therapy focuses on identifying and managing his emotions, improving his social skills in the group setting, and developing healthy coping mechanisms for times of stress.
      What type of therapy is being described in this scenario?

      Your Answer: Dialectical behaviour therapy

      Explanation:

      The therapy being discussed is dialectical behaviour therapy (DBT), which was created by Marsha Linehan, who had a personality disorder diagnosis and multiple hospital admissions. DBT involves mindfulness practice and the development of interpersonal skills through individual and group therapy sessions. All of the therapies mentioned are recognized treatments for personality disorders. Cognitive analytic therapy focuses on past relationships and object relations, while mentalisation-based therapy aims to improve mentalisation capacity through individual and group therapy. Schema-focused therapy builds on CBT to challenge cognitive coping strategies, and transference-focused therapy uses the therapist-client relationship to assess internal representations of past relational experiences.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Advanced Psychological Processes And Treatments
      25.1
      Seconds
  • Question 53 - What substance acts as a partial agonist on nicotinic receptors? ...

    Incorrect

    • What substance acts as a partial agonist on nicotinic receptors?

      Your Answer: Bupropion

      Correct Answer: Varenicline

      Explanation:

      Varenicline is a medication that helps people quit smoking by partially activating specific nicotine receptors in the body.

      Mechanisms of Action of Different Drugs

      Understanding the mechanisms of action of different drugs is crucial for medical professionals. It is a common topic in exams and can earn easy marks if studied well. This article provides a list of drugs and their mechanisms of action in different categories such as antidepressants, anti dementia drugs, mood stabilizers, anxiolytic/hypnotic drugs, antipsychotics, drugs of abuse, and other drugs. For example, mirtazapine is a noradrenaline and serotonin specific antidepressant that works as a 5HT2 antagonist, 5HT3 antagonist, H1 antagonist, alpha 1 and alpha 2 antagonist, and moderate muscarinic antagonist. Similarly, donepezil is a reversible acetylcholinesterase inhibitor used as an anti dementia drug, while valproate is a GABA agonist and NMDA antagonist used as a mood stabilizer. The article also explains the mechanisms of action of drugs such as ketamine, phencyclidine, buprenorphine, naloxone, atomoxetine, varenicline, disulfiram, acamprosate, and sildenafil.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      8.3
      Seconds
  • Question 54 - What is a true statement about varenicline? ...

    Correct

    • What is a true statement about varenicline?

      Your Answer: It is recommended by NICE for smoking cessation

      Explanation:

      Champix is a medication that contains varenicline, which acts as a partial agonist at nicotinic receptors.

      Varenicline for Smoking Cessation: Safety and Efficacy

      Varenicline is a medication used to aid smoking cessation by reducing cravings and pleasurable effects of tobacco products. It has a high affinity for the alpha 4 beta 2 nicotinic receptor and is recommended by NICE for smoking cessation. Varenicline is safe to use in cases of liver dysfunction as it undergoes very little hepatic metabolism. It has been found to be nearly 80% more effective than bupropion and more effective than 24-hour nicotine replacement therapy in two large randomized controlled trials. The initial course of treatment could last 12 weeks, with an additional 12 weeks offered to those who have successfully quit smoking. However, varenicline has been observed to exacerbate underlying psychiatric illness, including depression, and is associated with changes in behavior of thinking, anxiety, psychosis, mood swings, aggressive behavior, suicidal ideation, and behavior. Patients with a psychiatric history should be closely monitored while taking varenicline. One randomized controlled trial has challenged this concern. The FDA has issued a safety announcement that varenicline may be associated with a small, increased risk of certain cardiovascular adverse events in patients with cardiovascular disease. The very common side effects of varenicline include nasopharyngitis, abnormal dreams, insomnia, headache, and nausea.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      4.3
      Seconds
  • Question 55 - Which of the five major personality traits assesses an individual's concern for and...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the five major personality traits assesses an individual's concern for and ability to understand others?

      Your Answer: Openness to experience

      Correct Answer: Agreeableness

      Explanation:

      Agreeableness pertains to an individual’s prioritization of social harmony, often demonstrated through traits such as generosity, consideration, trust, and helpfulness. Conscientiousness refers to an individual’s level of self-discipline. Extraversion pertains to an individual’s engagement with the external world. Neuroticism describes an individual’s emotional stability, rather than the Freudian concept of neuroticism. Openness to experience pertains to an individual’s inclination towards intellectual curiosity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Advanced Psychological Processes And Treatments
      16.2
      Seconds
  • Question 56 - Which of the following factors has not been found to offer protection against...

    Correct

    • Which of the following factors has not been found to offer protection against suicide?

      Your Answer: Having siblings

      Explanation:

      Marital status, having both parents alive and in a stable relationship, and having young offspring have all been found to be protective factors against suicide. However, while being a twin has been linked to a lower risk of suicide, having siblings does not appear to have the same effect.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Epidemiology
      17.4
      Seconds
  • Question 57 - What is the closest estimate of heritability in bipolar disorder? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the closest estimate of heritability in bipolar disorder?

      Your Answer: 30%

      Correct Answer: 50%

      Explanation:

      Heritability: Understanding the Concept

      Heritability is a concept that is often misunderstood. It is not a measure of the extent to which genes cause a condition in an individual. Rather, it is the proportion of phenotypic variance attributable to genetic variance. In other words, it tells us how much of the variation in a condition seen in a population is due to genetic factors. Heritability is calculated using statistical techniques and can range from 0.0 to 1.0. For human behavior, most estimates of heritability fall in the moderate range of .30 to .60.

      The quantity (1.0 – heritability) gives the environment ability of the trait. This is the proportion of phenotypic variance attributable to environmental variance. The following table provides estimates of heritability for major conditions:

      Condition Heritability estimate (approx)
      ADHD 85%
      Autism 70%
      Schizophrenia 55%
      Bipolar 55%
      Anorexia 35%
      Alcohol dependence 35%
      Major depression 30%
      OCD 25%

      It is important to note that heritability tells us nothing about individuals. It is a population-level measure that helps us understand the relative contributions of genetic and environmental factors to a particular condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      6.1
      Seconds
  • Question 58 - What is the name of the dural reflection that acts as a boundary...

    Correct

    • What is the name of the dural reflection that acts as a boundary between the cerebellum and the occipital lobes of the cerebrum?

      Your Answer: Tentorium cerebelli

      Explanation:

      Dura Mater

      The dura mater is one of the three membranes, known as meninges, that cover the brain and spinal cord. It is the outermost and most fibrous layer, with the pia mater and arachnoid mater making up the remaining layers. The pia mater is the innermost layer.

      The dura mater is folded at certain points, including the falx cerebri, which separates the two cerebral hemispheres of the brain, the tentorium cerebelli, which separates the cerebellum from the cerebrum, the falx cerebelli, which separates the cerebellar hemispheres, and the sellar diaphragm, which covers the pituitary gland and forms a roof over the hypophyseal fossa.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      11.5
      Seconds
  • Question 59 - What is the primary neurotransmitter in the brain that has an inhibitory effect?...

    Incorrect

    • What is the primary neurotransmitter in the brain that has an inhibitory effect?

      Your Answer: Glutamate

      Correct Answer: GABA

      Explanation:

      Neurotransmitters are substances used by neurons to communicate with each other and with target tissues. They are synthesized and released from nerve endings into the synaptic cleft, where they bind to receptor proteins in the cellular membrane of the target tissue. Neurotransmitters can be classified into different types, including small molecules (such as acetylcholine, dopamine, norepinephrine, serotonin, and GABA) and large molecules (such as neuropeptides). They can also be classified as excitatory or inhibitory. Receptors can be ionotropic or metabotropic, and the effects of neurotransmitters can be fast of slow. Some important neurotransmitters include acetylcholine, dopamine, GABA, norepinephrine, and serotonin. Each neurotransmitter has a specific synthesis, breakdown, and receptor type. Understanding neurotransmitters is important for understanding the function of the nervous system and for developing treatments for neurological and psychiatric disorders.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      6.2
      Seconds
  • Question 60 - What combination of substances is included in Suboxone? ...

    Correct

    • What combination of substances is included in Suboxone?

      Your Answer: Naloxone and buprenorphine

      Explanation:

      Suboxone vs. Subutex: What’s the Difference?

      Suboxone and Subutex are both medications used to treat opioid addiction. However, there are some key differences between the two.

      Suboxone is a combination of buprenorphine and naloxone. The naloxone is added to prevent people from injecting the medication, as this was a common problem with pure buprenorphine tablets. If someone tries to inject Suboxone, the naloxone will cause intense withdrawal symptoms. However, if the tablet is swallowed as directed, the naloxone is not absorbed by the gut and does not cause any problems.

      Subutex, on the other hand, contains only buprenorphine and does not include naloxone. This means that it may be more likely to be abused by injection, as there is no deterrent to prevent people from doing so.

      Overall, both Suboxone and Subutex can be effective treatments for opioid addiction, but Suboxone may be a safer choice due to the addition of naloxone.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      15.2
      Seconds
  • Question 61 - What is the active ingredient in Subutex? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the active ingredient in Subutex?

      Your Answer: Naloxone and buprenorphine

      Correct Answer: Buprenorphine only

      Explanation:

      Suboxone vs. Subutex: What’s the Difference?

      Suboxone and Subutex are both medications used to treat opioid addiction. However, there are some key differences between the two.

      Suboxone is a combination of buprenorphine and naloxone. The naloxone is added to prevent people from injecting the medication, as this was a common problem with pure buprenorphine tablets. If someone tries to inject Suboxone, the naloxone will cause intense withdrawal symptoms. However, if the tablet is swallowed as directed, the naloxone is not absorbed by the gut and does not cause any problems.

      Subutex, on the other hand, contains only buprenorphine and does not include naloxone. This means that it may be more likely to be abused by injection, as there is no deterrent to prevent people from doing so.

      Overall, both Suboxone and Subutex can be effective treatments for opioid addiction, but Suboxone may be a safer choice due to the addition of naloxone.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      12
      Seconds
  • Question 62 - At what age does the transition from the holophrastic stage to the telegraphic...

    Incorrect

    • At what age does the transition from the holophrastic stage to the telegraphic stage typically occur in children's linguistic development?

      Your Answer: 24 months

      Correct Answer: 18 months

      Explanation:

      Linguistic Development and Risk Factors for Delayed Speech and Language

      The development of language skills is an important aspect of a child’s growth. The prelinguistic period, from birth to 12 months, is marked by crying, babbling, and echolalia. From 6 to 12 months, a child responds to their name and can differentiate between angry and friendly tones. By 18 to 24 months, a child can use up to 40-50 words, mainly nouns, and starts to combine words in short phrases. By 36 to 48 months, a child has a vocabulary of 900-1000 words, can use plurals and past tense, and can handle three-word sentences easily.

      However, there are risk factors associated with delayed speech and language development. These include a positive family history, male gender, twins, lower maternal education, childhood illness, being born late in the family order, young mother at birth, and low socioeconomic status. of these, a positive family history is considered the most reliable risk factor. It is important to monitor a child’s language development and seek professional help if there are concerns about delayed speech and language.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychological Development
      12.2
      Seconds
  • Question 63 - What is the meaning of animus in the context of Jungian therapy? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the meaning of animus in the context of Jungian therapy?

      Your Answer: The personification of those aspects of ourselves which are unacceptable

      Correct Answer: The unconscious male aspect present in every female

      Explanation:

      According to Jung, every individual possesses a concealed bisexuality. He referred to the feminine traits within a man as anima and the masculine traits within a woman as animus. The shadow represents the embodiment of our undesirable characteristics, while the persona is the facade we present to society.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dynamic Psychopathology
      11.5
      Seconds
  • Question 64 - In which type of condition of disease are Hirano bodies typically observed? ...

    Incorrect

    • In which type of condition of disease are Hirano bodies typically observed?

      Your Answer: Binswanger disease

      Correct Answer: Alzheimer's

      Explanation:

      Hirano bodies are a nonspecific indication of neurodegeneration and are primarily observed in.

      Alzheimer’s disease is characterized by both macroscopic and microscopic changes in the brain. Macroscopic changes include cortical atrophy, ventricular dilation, and depigmentation of the locus coeruleus. Microscopic changes include the presence of senile plaques, neurofibrillary tangles, gliosis, degeneration of the nucleus of Meynert, and Hirano bodies. Senile plaques are extracellular deposits of beta amyloid in the gray matter of the brain, while neurofibrillary tangles are intracellular inclusion bodies that consist primarily of hyperphosphorylated tau. Gliosis is marked by increases in activated microglia and reactive astrocytes near the sites of amyloid plaques. The nucleus of Meynert degenerates in Alzheimer’s, resulting in a decrease in acetylcholine in the brain. Hirano bodies are actin-rich, eosinophilic intracytoplasmic inclusions which have a highly characteristic crystalloid fine structure and are regarded as a nonspecific manifestation of neuronal degeneration. These changes in the brain contribute to the cognitive decline and memory loss seen in Alzheimer’s disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      8
      Seconds
  • Question 65 - Which base pairs are found within DNA? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which base pairs are found within DNA?

      Your Answer: Adenine and guanine

      Correct Answer: Guanine and cytosine

      Explanation:

      Genomics: Understanding DNA, RNA, Transcription, and Translation

      Deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) is a molecule composed of two chains that coil around each other to form a double helix. DNA is organised into chromosomes, and each chromosome is made up of DNA coiled around proteins called histones. RNA, on the other hand, is made from a long chain of nucleotide units and is usually single-stranded. RNA is transcribed from DNA by enzymes called RNA polymerases and is central to protein synthesis.

      Transcription is the synthesis of RNA from a DNA template, and it consists of three main steps: initiation, elongation, and termination. RNA polymerase binds at a sequence of DNA called the promoter, and the transcriptome is the collection of RNA molecules that results from transcription. Translation, on the other hand, refers to the synthesis of polypeptides (proteins) from mRNA. Translation takes place on ribosomes in the cell cytoplasm, where mRNA is read and translated into the string of amino acid chains that make up the synthesized protein.

      The process of translation involves messenger RNA (mRNA), transfer RNA (tRNA), and ribosomal RNA (rRNA). Transfer RNAs, of tRNAs, connect mRNA codons to the amino acids they encode, while ribosomes are the structures where polypeptides (proteins) are built. Like transcription, translation also consists of three stages: initiation, elongation, and termination. In initiation, the ribosome assembles around the mRNA to be read and the first tRNA carrying the amino acid methionine. In elongation, the amino acid chain gets longer, and in termination, the finished polypeptide chain is released.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      17.6
      Seconds
  • Question 66 - What type of delusion is considered a first rank symptom? ...

    Incorrect

    • What type of delusion is considered a first rank symptom?

      Your Answer: Grandiose delusions

      Correct Answer: Delusional perception

      Explanation:

      First Rank Symptoms: Their Significance in Identifying Schizophrenia

      First rank symptoms were introduced by Kurt Schneider in 1938 as a practical tool for non-psychiatrists to identify schizophrenia. While they are highly suggestive of schizophrenia, they are not pathognomonic and can also be seen in affective and personality disorders. Additionally, there is no evidence to support their prognostic significance.

      A systematic review in 2015 found that first rank symptoms differentiated schizophrenia from nonpsychotic mental health disorders with a sensitivity of 61.8% and a specificity of 94.1%. They also differentiated schizophrenia from other types of psychosis with a sensitivity of 58% and a specificity of 74.7%.

      The first rank symptoms include running commentary, thought echo, voices heard arguing, thought insertion, thought withdrawal, thought broadcast, delusional perception, somatic passivity, made affect, and made volition. While they can be helpful in identifying schizophrenia, they should not be relied upon as the sole diagnostic criteria.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
      8.7
      Seconds
  • Question 67 - What is the accurate statement about the pathology of Huntington's disease? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the accurate statement about the pathology of Huntington's disease?

      Your Answer: It is characterised by Papp-Lantos bodies

      Correct Answer: There is marked atrophy of the caudate and putamen

      Explanation:

      Huntington’s Disease: Genetics and Pathology

      Huntington’s disease is a genetic disorder that follows an autosomal dominant pattern of inheritance. It is caused by a mutation in the Huntington gene, which is located on chromosome 4. The mutation involves an abnormal expansion of a trinucleotide repeat sequence (CAG), which leads to the production of a toxic protein that damages brain cells.

      The severity of the disease and the age of onset are related to the number of CAG repeats. Normally, the CAG sequence is repeated less than 27 times, but in Huntington’s disease, it is repeated many more times. The disease shows anticipation, meaning that it tends to worsen with each successive generation.

      The symptoms of Huntington’s disease typically begin in the third of fourth decade of life, but in rare cases, they can appear in childhood of adolescence. The most common symptoms include involuntary movements (chorea), cognitive decline, and psychiatric disturbances.

      The pathological hallmark of Huntington’s disease is the gross bilateral atrophy of the head of the caudate and putamen, which are regions of the brain involved in movement control. The EEG of patients with Huntington’s disease shows a flattened trace, indicating a loss of brain activity.

      Macroscopic pathological findings include frontal atrophy, marked atrophy of the caudate and putamen, and enlarged ventricles. Microscopic findings include neuronal loss and gliosis in the cortex, neuronal loss in the striatum, and the presence of inclusion bodies in the neurons of the cortex and striatum.

      In conclusion, Huntington’s disease is a devastating genetic disorder that affects the brain and causes a range of motor, cognitive, and psychiatric symptoms. The disease is caused by a mutation in the Huntington gene, which leads to the production of a toxic protein that damages brain cells. The pathological changes in the brain include atrophy of the caudate and putamen, neuronal loss, and the presence of inclusion bodies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      7.1
      Seconds
  • Question 68 - The substance that boosts hunger and is produced by the hypothalamus is: ...

    Incorrect

    • The substance that boosts hunger and is produced by the hypothalamus is:

      Your Answer: Ghrelin

      Correct Answer: Neuropeptide Y

      Explanation:

      Appetite Control Hormones

      The regulation of appetite is influenced by various hormones in the body. Neuropeptide Y, which is produced by the hypothalamus, stimulates appetite. On the other hand, leptin, which is produced by adipose tissue, suppresses appetite. Ghrelin, which is mainly produced by the gut, increases appetite. Cholecystokinin (CCK), which is also produced by the gut, reduces appetite. These hormones play a crucial role in maintaining a healthy balance of food intake and energy expenditure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      4.4
      Seconds
  • Question 69 - Which nuclei in the hypothalamus are responsible for the production and release of...

    Incorrect

    • Which nuclei in the hypothalamus are responsible for the production and release of dopamine that is transported to the pituitary gland through the infundibulum?

      Your Answer: Ventromedial

      Correct Answer: Arcuate

      Explanation:

      Functions of the Hypothalamus

      The hypothalamus is a vital part of the brain that plays a crucial role in regulating various bodily functions. It receives and integrates sensory information about the internal environment and directs actions to control internal homeostasis. The hypothalamus contains several nuclei and fiber tracts, each with specific functions.

      The suprachiasmatic nucleus (SCN) is responsible for regulating circadian rhythms. Neurons in the SCN have an intrinsic rhythm of discharge activity and receive input from the retina. The SCN is considered the body’s master clock, but it has multiple connections with other hypothalamic nuclei.

      Body temperature control is mainly under the control of the preoptic, anterior, and posterior nuclei, which have temperature-sensitive neurons. As the temperature goes above 37ºC, warm-sensitive neurons are activated, triggering parasympathetic activity to promote heat loss. As the temperature goes below 37ºC, cold-sensitive neurons are activated, triggering sympathetic activity to promote conservation of heat.

      The hypothalamus also plays a role in regulating prolactin secretion. Dopamine is tonically secreted by dopaminergic neurons that project from the arcuate nucleus of the hypothalamus into the anterior pituitary gland via the tuberoinfundibular pathway. The dopamine that is released acts on lactotrophic cells through D2-receptors, inhibiting prolactin synthesis. In the absence of pregnancy of lactation, prolactin is constitutively inhibited by dopamine. Dopamine antagonists result in hyperprolactinemia, while dopamine agonists inhibit prolactin secretion.

      In summary, the hypothalamus is a complex structure that regulates various bodily functions, including circadian rhythms, body temperature, and prolactin secretion. Dysfunction of the hypothalamus can lead to various disorders, such as sleep-rhythm disorder, diabetes insipidus, hyperprolactinemia, and obesity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      45
      Seconds
  • Question 70 - What is the one year prevalence of social anxiety disorder according to the...

    Incorrect

    • What is the one year prevalence of social anxiety disorder according to the US National Comorbidity study for individuals of all ages?

      Your Answer: 4%

      Correct Answer: 7.40%

      Explanation:

      The US National Comorbidity study reports a 7.4% prevalence of social phobia within a year. Men have a lifetime prevalence of 4% for specific phobia, while women have a lifetime prevalence of 13%. Obsessive compulsive disorder has a one year prevalence of 2.1%. Men have a one year prevalence of 1.7% for agoraphobia without panic disorder. All diagnoses are based on DSM-IIIR criteria.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Epidemiology
      6.9
      Seconds
  • Question 71 - A client acknowledges the need for positive change and expresses willingness to quit...

    Incorrect

    • A client acknowledges the need for positive change and expresses willingness to quit smoking, but has not yet taken any action. What stage of the transtheoretical model is the client in?

      Your Answer: Contemplation

      Correct Answer: Determination

      Explanation:

      Stages of Change in the Transtheoretical Model

      The Transtheoretical Model outlines five stages of change that individuals go through when making behavioural changes. The first stage is precontemplation, where a person is not yet ready to consider change. The second stage is contemplation, where a person is ready to think about change but has not yet taken action. The third stage is determination, where a person is preparing to make plans for change but has not yet implemented them. The fourth stage is action, where a person has implemented changes. Finally, the fifth stage is maintenance, where a person works to ensure that the changes become habitual. It is important to note that acting out is not considered a stage in this model.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Psychological Treatments
      12.2
      Seconds
  • Question 72 - Which syndrome was named after a renowned European performer known for their rapid...

    Incorrect

    • Which syndrome was named after a renowned European performer known for their rapid costume changes?

      Your Answer: Capgras syndrome

      Correct Answer: Fregoli syndrome

      Explanation:

      Delusional misidentification is a phenomenon that includes various disorders, such as the Fregoli syndrome, Capgras syndrome, Cotard syndrome, Ganser syndrome, and Othello syndrome. The Fregoli syndrome is characterized by the delusion of doubles, named after the Italian actor Leopoldo Fregoli, who was famous for playing multiple characters in his shows. Capgras syndrome, named after the French psychiatrist Joseph Capgras, involves the delusion that a close family member of friend has been replaced by an identical-looking impostor. Cotard syndrome, named after the French neurologist Jules Cotard, is a rare disorder in which individuals believe that they are dead. Ganser syndrome, named after the German psychiatrist Sigbert Josef Maria Ganser, is a disorder in which individuals give absurd of approximate answers to questions. Finally, Othello syndrome, named after the Shakespearean character, is a psychiatric disorder in which individuals hold a strong delusional belief that their partner is being unfaithful without significant proof.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • History Of Psychiatry
      6.8
      Seconds
  • Question 73 - In which region of the brain are most dopamine neurons found? ...

    Incorrect

    • In which region of the brain are most dopamine neurons found?

      Your Answer: Locus coeruleus

      Correct Answer: Substantia nigra

      Explanation:

      Neurotransmitters are substances used by neurons to communicate with each other and with target tissues. They are synthesized and released from nerve endings into the synaptic cleft, where they bind to receptor proteins in the cellular membrane of the target tissue. Neurotransmitters can be classified into different types, including small molecules (such as acetylcholine, dopamine, norepinephrine, serotonin, and GABA) and large molecules (such as neuropeptides). They can also be classified as excitatory or inhibitory. Receptors can be ionotropic or metabotropic, and the effects of neurotransmitters can be fast of slow. Some important neurotransmitters include acetylcholine, dopamine, GABA, norepinephrine, and serotonin. Each neurotransmitter has a specific synthesis, breakdown, and receptor type. Understanding neurotransmitters is important for understanding the function of the nervous system and for developing treatments for neurological and psychiatric disorders.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      6.6
      Seconds
  • Question 74 - Which of the following should be avoided when treating akathisia? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following should be avoided when treating akathisia?

      Your Answer: Cyproheptadine

      Correct Answer: Lamotrigine

      Explanation:

      Extrapyramidal side-effects (EPSE’s) are a group of side effects that affect voluntary motor control, commonly seen in patients taking antipsychotic drugs. EPSE’s include dystonias, parkinsonism, akathisia, and tardive dyskinesia. They can be frightening and uncomfortable, leading to problems with non-compliance and can even be life-threatening in the case of laryngeal dystonia. EPSE’s are thought to be due to antagonism of dopaminergic D2 receptors in the basal ganglia. Symptoms generally occur within the first few days of treatment, with dystonias appearing quickly, within a few hours of administration of the first dose. Newer antipsychotics tend to produce less EPSE’s, with clozapine carrying the lowest risk and haloperidol carrying the highest risk. Akathisia is the most resistant EPSE to treat. EPSE’s can also occur when antipsychotics are discontinued (withdrawal dystonia).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      11.8
      Seconds
  • Question 75 - Which one of the following statements is accurate regarding psychiatric disorders in the...

    Correct

    • Which one of the following statements is accurate regarding psychiatric disorders in the elderly population?

      Your Answer: Sulpiride should be avoided in breastfeeding mothers

      Explanation:

      Puerperal psychosis does not have a specific set of symptoms, syndrome, of course, and about one in 500 live births are affected by it. During the episode of in recurrences, a bipolar pattern is often observed, and there is a higher incidence of puerperal attacks in women with manic-depressive rather than schizophrenic disorders. Suicide threats are common, but the risk of suicide is lower in parous mothers than in nulliparous women. Antipsychotics excreted in breast milk are unlikely to be harmful, but animal studies suggest potential adverse effects on the developing nervous system, and sulpiride should be avoided during breastfeeding. If standard psychotropic treatments fail, electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) may be considered, and it is particularly effective in postpartum psychosis. The onset of postpartum psychoses is usually rapid, occurring between two and 14 days after delivery, and almost any psychotic symptom may be present.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      20.3
      Seconds
  • Question 76 - How can the behavior of a rat in pressing a lever for food...

    Correct

    • How can the behavior of a rat in pressing a lever for food pellets be described when it stops pressing the lever after several attempts without receiving any pellets?

      Your Answer: Extinction

      Explanation:

      The term ‘extinction’ has distinct connotations in classical conditioning and operant conditioning. In operant conditioning, it denotes the waning of an operant response due to the absence of reinforcement. In classical conditioning, it signifies a decrease in a conditioned response (such as salivation) when a conditioned stimulus (such as a bell ringing) is repeatedly presented without the unconditioned stimulus (such as food) that it was previously associated with.

      Operant Conditioning: Reinforcement, Punishment, and More

      Operant conditioning, also known as instrumental learning, is a theory of learning developed by B.F. Skinner. It suggests that people learn by interacting with their environment. Reinforcement and punishment are key concepts in operant conditioning. A reinforcer is a stimulus of event that increases the likelihood of a behavior being repeated. Reinforcement can be positive of negative. Positive reinforcement occurs when a behavior is strengthened by adding a rewarding stimulus, while negative reinforcement occurs when a behavior is strengthened by removing an unpleasant stimulus. A punisher is a stimulus that decreases the likelihood of a behavior being repeated. Positive punishment occurs when a behavior is reduced in frequency by adding an unpleasant stimulus, while negative punishment occurs when a behavior is reduced in frequency by removing a pleasant stimulus.

      Primary reinforcers are instinctual desires such as food, water, social approval, and sex. Secondary reinforcers, also known as conditioned reinforcers, are not innately appreciated and people have to learn to like them through classical conditioning of other methods. Secondary reinforcers include things such as money. Different patterns of reinforcement have different influences on the response. There are five main reinforcement schedules: fixed interval, variable interval, fixed ratio, variable ratio, and random. Variable ratio schedules are most resistant to extinction.

      Shaping and chaining are techniques used when an exact behavior cannot be performed and so cannot be rewarded. Shaping involves rewarding successive, increasingly accurate approximations to the behavior, while chaining involves breaking a complex task into smaller, more manageable sections. Escape conditioning refers to a situation whereby an aversive situation is removed after a response. It is a form of negative reinforcement. Habituation refers to the phenomenon whereby there is a decrease in response to a stimulus over time. Covert sensitization is a technique used whereby someone learns to use mental imagery to associate a behavior with a negative consequence.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      11.8
      Seconds
  • Question 77 - For what purpose is the Gudjonsson Scale primarily used in assessment? ...

    Incorrect

    • For what purpose is the Gudjonsson Scale primarily used in assessment?

      Your Answer: Sexual deviance

      Correct Answer: Suggestibility

      Explanation:

      The Gudjonsson Suggestibility Scale

      The Gudjonsson Suggestibility Scale is a tool used to measure suggestibility in individuals. It involves reading a story to participants, who are then asked to recall as much as they can remember. Afterward, participants are asked 20 questions related to the story, 15 of which are misleading. Once the questions have been answered, participants are given negative feedback on their performance and told that they made several errors. They are then asked to repeat the questions to obtain more accurate answers. Based on the participants’ responses to the misleading questions, a total suggestibility score can be calculated. This scale is useful in understanding how easily individuals can be influenced of manipulated by external factors.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      5.9
      Seconds
  • Question 78 - Which individual brought clozapine into clinical use? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which individual brought clozapine into clinical use?

      Your Answer: Cade

      Correct Answer: Kane

      Explanation:

      Imipramine antidepressant effects were discovered by Kuhn. Kane introduced clozapine into clinical practice after conducting a successful double-blind multicenter trial comparing it with chlorpromazine in treatment-resistant schizophrenia. Charpentier synthesized chlorpromazine, while Klein discovered the use of iproniazid. Cade discovered the beneficial effect of lithium in treating mania.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • History Of Psychiatry
      9.5
      Seconds
  • Question 79 - According to Kohlberg, which of the following corresponds to the 3rd stage of...

    Correct

    • According to Kohlberg, which of the following corresponds to the 3rd stage of moral development?

      Your Answer: Interpersonal accord and conformity

      Explanation:

      Kohlberg’s Six Stages of Moral Development

      Kohlberg’s theory of moral development consists of six stages that can be categorized into three levels. The first level is the preconventional stage, which is characterized by obedience and punishment orientation, where the focus is on the direct consequences of actions and unquestioning deference to power. The second stage is the self-interest orientation, where right behavior is defined purely by what is in the individual’s own interest.

      The second level is the conventional stage, which is characterized by interpersonal accord and conformity, where the focus is on how the individual will appear to others. The behavior should accord with a consensus view on what is good. The second stage is the authority and social order obedience driven, where what is lawful is judged to be morally right. Right behavior is dictated by societal rules, and there is a greater respect for social order and the need for laws.

      The third level is the postconventional stage, which is characterized by the social contract orientation, where individual rights determine behavior. The individual views laws and rules as flexible tools for improving human purposes. The fourth stage is the universal ethical principles orientation, where the right action is the one that is consistent with abstract reasoning using universal ethical principles.

      It is important to note that the age ranges for Kohlberg’s developmental stages are rough guides, and sources vary widely. Kohlberg developed his stage theory following an experiment he conducted on 72 boys aged 10-16. However, the theory is criticized as sexist as it only included boys.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychological Development
      13.3
      Seconds
  • Question 80 - A 45-year-old man presents with a persistent abnormal movement of his neck. He...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old man presents with a persistent abnormal movement of his neck. He experiences opisthotonos, retrocollis and mild blepharospasm, which worsen when walking of stressed and are not alleviated by alcohol. He has a history of paranoid schizophrenia for the past eight years and has been treated with various antipsychotics. Currently, he is stable on clozapine. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Tardive dystonia

      Explanation:

      The symptoms described are consistent with tardive dystonia, which is commonly observed in younger patients who have been exposed to neuroleptic medication. Orofacial dyskinesia is more frequently seen in older patients. The symptoms do not suggest Huntington’s chorea of non-epileptic seizures, as the latter typically do not persist. Friedreich’s ataxia typically presents with muscle weakness and lack of coordination. Tourette’s syndrome is unlikely to cause such severe motor neurological symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Diagnosis
      16.9
      Seconds
  • Question 81 - At what threshold does the membrane potential of a cell need to reach...

    Incorrect

    • At what threshold does the membrane potential of a cell need to reach in order to trigger an action potential?

      Your Answer: +45 mV

      Correct Answer: -55 mV

      Explanation:

      Understanding Action Potentials in Neurons and Muscle Cells

      The membrane potential is a crucial aspect of cell physiology, and it exists across the plasma membrane of most cells. However, in neurons and muscle cells, this membrane potential can change over time. When a cell is not stimulated, it is in a resting state, and the inside of the cell is negatively charged compared to the outside. This resting membrane potential is typically around -70mV, and it is maintained by the Na/K pump, which maintains a high concentration of Na outside and K inside the cell.

      To trigger an action potential, the membrane potential must be raised to around -55mV. This can occur when a neurotransmitter binds to the postsynaptic neuron and opens some ion channels. Once the membrane potential reaches -55mV, a cascade of events is initiated, leading to the opening of a large number of Na channels and causing the cell to depolarize. As the membrane potential reaches around +40 mV, the Na channels close, and the K gates open, allowing K to flood out of the cell and causing the membrane potential to fall back down. This process is irreversible and is critical for the transmission of signals in neurons and the contraction of muscle cells.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      5.5
      Seconds
  • Question 82 - What is the outcome of bilateral dysfunction in the medial temporal lobes? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the outcome of bilateral dysfunction in the medial temporal lobes?

      Your Answer: Balint's syndrome

      Correct Answer: Klüver-Bucy syndrome

      Explanation:

      Periods of hypersomnia and altered behavior are characteristic of Kleine-Levin syndrome.

      Kluver-Bucy Syndrome: Causes and Symptoms

      Kluver-Bucy syndrome is a neurological disorder that results from bilateral medial temporal lobe dysfunction, particularly in the amygdala. This condition is characterized by a range of symptoms, including hyperorality (a tendency to explore objects with the mouth), hypersexuality, docility, visual agnosia, and dietary changes.

      The most common causes of Kluver-Bucy syndrome include herpes, late-stage Alzheimer’s disease, frontotemporal dementia, trauma, and bilateral temporal lobe infarction. In some cases, the condition may be reversible with treatment, but in others, it may be permanent and require ongoing management. If you of someone you know is experiencing symptoms of Kluver-Bucy syndrome, it is important to seek medical attention promptly to determine the underlying cause and develop an appropriate treatment plan.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      7.9
      Seconds
  • Question 83 - Which of the following is not considered a known factor that increases the...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is not considered a known factor that increases the risk of lithium toxicity?

      Your Answer: Hepatic impairment

      Explanation:

      Lithium – Pharmacology

      Pharmacokinetics:
      Lithium salts are rapidly absorbed following oral administration and are almost exclusively excreted by the kidneys unchanged. Blood samples for lithium should be taken 12 hours post-dose.

      Ebstein’s:
      Ebstein’s anomaly is a congenital malformation consisting of a prolapse of the tricuspid valve into the right ventricle. It occurs in 1:20,000 of the general population. Initial data suggested it was more common in those using lithium but this had not held to be true.

      Contraindications:
      Addison’s disease, Brugada syndrome, cardiac disease associated with rhythm disorders, clinically significant renal impairment, untreated of untreatable hypothyroidism, low sodium levels.

      Side-effects:
      Common side effects include nausea, tremor, polyuria/polydipsia, rash/dermatitis, blurred vision, dizziness, decreased appetite, drowsiness, metallic taste, and diarrhea. Side-effects are often dose-related.

      Long-term use is associated with hypothyroidism, hyperthyroidism, hypercalcemia/hyperparathyroidism, irreversible nephrogenic diabetes insipidus, and reduced GFR.

      Lithium-induced diabetes insipidus:
      Treatment options include stopping lithium (if feasible), keeping levels within 0.4-0.8 mmol/L, once-daily dose of the drug taken at bedtime, amiloride, thiazide diuretics, indomethacin, and desmopressin.

      Toxicity:
      Lithium salts have a narrow therapeutic/toxic ratio. Risk factors for lithium toxicity include drugs altering renal function, decreased circulating volume, infections, fever, decreased oral intake of water, renal insufficiency, and nephrogenic diabetes insipidus. Features of lithium toxicity include GI symptoms and neuro symptoms.

      Pre-prescribing:
      Before prescribing lithium, renal function, cardiac function, thyroid function, FBC, and BMI should be checked. Women of childbearing age should be advised regarding contraception, and information about toxicity should be provided.

      Monitoring:
      Lithium blood levels should be checked weekly until stable, and then every 3-6 months once stable. Thyroid and renal function should be checked every 6 months. Patients should be issued with an information booklet, alert card, and record book.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      9.2
      Seconds
  • Question 84 - Which of the following exerts its effect by stabilizing sodium channels? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following exerts its effect by stabilizing sodium channels?

      Your Answer: Memantine

      Correct Answer: Phenytoin

      Explanation:

      Phenytoin, carbamazepine, and lamotrigine stabilize Na channels, while valproate, benzodiazepines, and z-drugs act on GABA receptors. Topiramate has a dual action by combining both mechanisms. The exact way in which GABA receptors are affected is not fully understood, as gabapentin does not bind to them of affect GABA synthesis of uptake. Instead, gabapentin binds to various sites in the brain associated with voltage-gated calcium channels, particularly alpha-2-delta-1, which appears to inhibit the release of excitatory neurotransmitters in the presynaptic area.

      Mechanisms of Action of Different Drugs

      Understanding the mechanisms of action of different drugs is crucial for medical professionals. It is a common topic in exams and can earn easy marks if studied well. This article provides a list of drugs and their mechanisms of action in different categories such as antidepressants, anti dementia drugs, mood stabilizers, anxiolytic/hypnotic drugs, antipsychotics, drugs of abuse, and other drugs. For example, mirtazapine is a noradrenaline and serotonin specific antidepressant that works as a 5HT2 antagonist, 5HT3 antagonist, H1 antagonist, alpha 1 and alpha 2 antagonist, and moderate muscarinic antagonist. Similarly, donepezil is a reversible acetylcholinesterase inhibitor used as an anti dementia drug, while valproate is a GABA agonist and NMDA antagonist used as a mood stabilizer. The article also explains the mechanisms of action of drugs such as ketamine, phencyclidine, buprenorphine, naloxone, atomoxetine, varenicline, disulfiram, acamprosate, and sildenafil.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      9.6
      Seconds
  • Question 85 - What is the term used to describe the disciplinary action of taking away...

    Incorrect

    • What is the term used to describe the disciplinary action of taking away a child's train set for hitting their friend?

      Your Answer: Positive punishment

      Correct Answer: Negative punishment

      Explanation:

      The objective is to decrease the occurrence of the conduct through punishment, which involves taking away a pleasurable stimulus (the train set).

      Operant Conditioning: Reinforcement, Punishment, and More

      Operant conditioning, also known as instrumental learning, is a theory of learning developed by B.F. Skinner. It suggests that people learn by interacting with their environment. Reinforcement and punishment are key concepts in operant conditioning. A reinforcer is a stimulus of event that increases the likelihood of a behavior being repeated. Reinforcement can be positive of negative. Positive reinforcement occurs when a behavior is strengthened by adding a rewarding stimulus, while negative reinforcement occurs when a behavior is strengthened by removing an unpleasant stimulus. A punisher is a stimulus that decreases the likelihood of a behavior being repeated. Positive punishment occurs when a behavior is reduced in frequency by adding an unpleasant stimulus, while negative punishment occurs when a behavior is reduced in frequency by removing a pleasant stimulus.

      Primary reinforcers are instinctual desires such as food, water, social approval, and sex. Secondary reinforcers, also known as conditioned reinforcers, are not innately appreciated and people have to learn to like them through classical conditioning of other methods. Secondary reinforcers include things such as money. Different patterns of reinforcement have different influences on the response. There are five main reinforcement schedules: fixed interval, variable interval, fixed ratio, variable ratio, and random. Variable ratio schedules are most resistant to extinction.

      Shaping and chaining are techniques used when an exact behavior cannot be performed and so cannot be rewarded. Shaping involves rewarding successive, increasingly accurate approximations to the behavior, while chaining involves breaking a complex task into smaller, more manageable sections. Escape conditioning refers to a situation whereby an aversive situation is removed after a response. It is a form of negative reinforcement. Habituation refers to the phenomenon whereby there is a decrease in response to a stimulus over time. Covert sensitization is a technique used whereby someone learns to use mental imagery to associate a behavior with a negative consequence.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      17
      Seconds
  • Question 86 - Classical conditioning is associated with the term? ...

    Incorrect

    • Classical conditioning is associated with the term?

      Your Answer: Reward

      Correct Answer: Stimulus

      Explanation:

      Classical Conditioning: A Learning Theory by Ivan Pavlov

      Classical conditioning is a learning theory developed by Ivan Pavlov. It suggests that events that occur together are associated and acquire a similar meaning. Unlike operant conditioning, which focuses on responses to behavior, classical conditioning looks at responses to stimuli. In classical conditioning, animals behave as if they have learned to associate a stimulus with a significant event. Pavlov demonstrated that innate responses, such as a dog salivating when it sees food, can be associated with a neutral stimulus, such as ringing a bell, so that ringing the bell can cause salivation even in the absence of food.

      Important terms used in classical conditioning include stimulus generalization and discrimination, higher order conditioning, spontaneous recovery, and aversive conditioning. Extinction is the laboratory analogue of exposure therapy for anxiety disorders, while Counterconditioning involves pairing a feared conditioned stimulus with a positive outcome. Incubation occurs in fear responses, and reciprocal inhibition is a technique that aims to replace an undesired response with a desired one by counterconditioning. Some stimuli are more prone to conditioning than others, which is referred to as stimulus/biological preparedness.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      13.2
      Seconds
  • Question 87 - Which of the options below does not have an effect on GABA? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the options below does not have an effect on GABA?

      Your Answer: Zopiclone

      Correct Answer: Phenytoin

      Explanation:

      The mechanism of action of phenytoin involves the stabilization of sodium channels.

      Mechanisms of Action of Different Drugs

      Understanding the mechanisms of action of different drugs is crucial for medical professionals. It is a common topic in exams and can earn easy marks if studied well. This article provides a list of drugs and their mechanisms of action in different categories such as antidepressants, anti dementia drugs, mood stabilizers, anxiolytic/hypnotic drugs, antipsychotics, drugs of abuse, and other drugs. For example, mirtazapine is a noradrenaline and serotonin specific antidepressant that works as a 5HT2 antagonist, 5HT3 antagonist, H1 antagonist, alpha 1 and alpha 2 antagonist, and moderate muscarinic antagonist. Similarly, donepezil is a reversible acetylcholinesterase inhibitor used as an anti dementia drug, while valproate is a GABA agonist and NMDA antagonist used as a mood stabilizer. The article also explains the mechanisms of action of drugs such as ketamine, phencyclidine, buprenorphine, naloxone, atomoxetine, varenicline, disulfiram, acamprosate, and sildenafil.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      9.8
      Seconds
  • Question 88 - A 65-year-old patient with a history of treatment-resistant schizophrenia has been stabilized on...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old patient with a history of treatment-resistant schizophrenia has been stabilized on clozapine, but is experiencing clinical deterioration with a serum clozapine level below 1000 µg/L. What medication should be added if the patient's clozapine serum levels remain above this value?

      Your Answer: Sodium valproate

      Explanation:

      If serum clozapine levels remain elevated, it is recommended to add anticonvulsant cover due to the increased risk of seizures and EEG changes. While some clinicians may advocate for higher clozapine levels, there is limited evidence to support this practice. Amisulpride can be used to augment clozapine, but it is not necessary in this situation. Beta-blockers are used to treat persistent tachycardia caused by clozapine, while hyoscine hydrobromide is used to manage clozapine-associated hypersalivation. Loperamide is unlikely to be needed as clozapine is known to cause constipation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      11.8
      Seconds
  • Question 89 - A teenager with schizophrenia is admitted to the ward. They are assessed and...

    Incorrect

    • A teenager with schizophrenia is admitted to the ward. They are assessed and appear to have both positive and negative symptoms. Which of the following assessment tools would be most useful in monitoring their psychotic symptoms?

      Your Answer: ACE-R

      Correct Answer: PANSS

      Explanation:

      Schizophrenia Assessment Tools: Brief Psychiatric Rating Scale (BPRS) and Positive and Negative Symptom Scale (PANSS)

      As a language model AI, I am familiar with the rating scales used to assess individuals with schizophrenia. Two of the most commonly used scales are the Brief Psychiatric Rating Scale (BPRS) and the Positive and Negative Symptom Scale (PANSS). While there are many other scales available, these two are particularly important for exam purposes. The BPRS is a tool used to assess the severity of symptoms in individuals with schizophrenia, including positive symptoms such as hallucinations and delusions, as well as negative symptoms such as apathy and social withdrawal. The PANSS, on the other hand, is a more comprehensive tool that assesses both positive and negative symptoms, as well as general psychopathology. Both scales are useful in helping clinicians to evaluate the severity of symptoms in individuals with schizophrenia and to monitor their progress over time.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
      10.7
      Seconds
  • Question 90 - How can the pattern of inheritance that exhibits a knight's move be described?...

    Incorrect

    • How can the pattern of inheritance that exhibits a knight's move be described?

      Your Answer: Y-linked

      Correct Answer: X-linked recessive

      Explanation:

      Inheritance Patterns:

      Autosomal Dominant Conditions:
      – Can be transmitted from one generation to the next (vertical transmission) through all forms of transmission observed (male to male, male to female, female to female).
      – Males and females are affected in equal proportions.
      – Usually, one parent is an affected heterozygote and the other is an unaffected homozygote.
      – If only one parent is affected, there is a 50% chance that a child will inherit the mutated gene.

      Autosomal Recessive Conditions:
      – Males and females are affected in equal proportions.
      – Two copies of the gene must be mutated for a person to be affected.
      – Both parents are usually unaffected heterozygotes.
      – Two unaffected people who each carry one copy of the mutated gene have a 25% chance with each pregnancy of having a child affected by the disorder.

      X-linked Dominant Conditions:
      – Males and females are both affected, with males typically being more severely affected than females.
      – The sons of a man with an X-linked dominant disorder will all be unaffected.
      – A woman with an X-linked dominant disorder has a 50% chance of having an affected fetus.

      X-linked Recessive Conditions:
      – Males are more frequently affected than females.
      – Transmitted through carrier females to their sons (knights move pattern).
      – Affected males cannot pass the condition onto their sons.
      – A woman who is a carrier of an X-linked recessive disorder has a 50% chance of having sons who are affected and a 50% chance of having daughters who are carriers.

      Y-linked Conditions:
      – Every son of an affected father will be affected.
      – Female offspring of affected fathers are never affected.

      Mitochondrial Inheritance:
      – Mitochondria are inherited only in the maternal ova and not in sperm.
      – Males and females are affected, but always being maternally inherited.
      – An affected male does not pass on his mitochondria to his children, so all his children will be unaffected.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      17.6
      Seconds
  • Question 91 - Which condition has been eliminated due to the use of highly active antiretroviral...

    Incorrect

    • Which condition has been eliminated due to the use of highly active antiretroviral therapy (HAART) in individuals who are HIV positive?

      Your Answer: HIVE (HIV encephalitis)

      Correct Answer: Toxoplasmosis

      Explanation:

      The use of HAART has led to a complete elimination of new cases of toxoplasmosis in individuals who are HIV positive. Studies conducted on the Edinburgh cohort have revealed a significant decrease in the occurrence of CMV by 50% during autopsy, a 68% reduction in HIVE, and complete eradication of toxoplasmosis. However, there has been a slight increase in the incidence of PML and lymphoma in this group and other samples.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      11.8
      Seconds
  • Question 92 - For patients taking lithium once daily at bedtime and needing to determine their...

    Incorrect

    • For patients taking lithium once daily at bedtime and needing to determine their plasma levels, when should blood samples be collected?

      Your Answer: 4 hours post dose

      Correct Answer: 12 hours post dose

      Explanation:

      Lithium – Pharmacology

      Pharmacokinetics:
      Lithium salts are rapidly absorbed following oral administration and are almost exclusively excreted by the kidneys unchanged. Blood samples for lithium should be taken 12 hours post-dose.

      Ebstein’s:
      Ebstein’s anomaly is a congenital malformation consisting of a prolapse of the tricuspid valve into the right ventricle. It occurs in 1:20,000 of the general population. Initial data suggested it was more common in those using lithium but this had not held to be true.

      Contraindications:
      Addison’s disease, Brugada syndrome, cardiac disease associated with rhythm disorders, clinically significant renal impairment, untreated of untreatable hypothyroidism, low sodium levels.

      Side-effects:
      Common side effects include nausea, tremor, polyuria/polydipsia, rash/dermatitis, blurred vision, dizziness, decreased appetite, drowsiness, metallic taste, and diarrhea. Side-effects are often dose-related.

      Long-term use is associated with hypothyroidism, hyperthyroidism, hypercalcemia/hyperparathyroidism, irreversible nephrogenic diabetes insipidus, and reduced GFR.

      Lithium-induced diabetes insipidus:
      Treatment options include stopping lithium (if feasible), keeping levels within 0.4-0.8 mmol/L, once-daily dose of the drug taken at bedtime, amiloride, thiazide diuretics, indomethacin, and desmopressin.

      Toxicity:
      Lithium salts have a narrow therapeutic/toxic ratio. Risk factors for lithium toxicity include drugs altering renal function, decreased circulating volume, infections, fever, decreased oral intake of water, renal insufficiency, and nephrogenic diabetes insipidus. Features of lithium toxicity include GI symptoms and neuro symptoms.

      Pre-prescribing:
      Before prescribing lithium, renal function, cardiac function, thyroid function, FBC, and BMI should be checked. Women of childbearing age should be advised regarding contraception, and information about toxicity should be provided.

      Monitoring:
      Lithium blood levels should be checked weekly until stable, and then every 3-6 months once stable. Thyroid and renal function should be checked every 6 months. Patients should be issued with an information booklet, alert card, and record book.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      8.7
      Seconds
  • Question 93 - A preteen girl who has a crush on a boy in her class...

    Incorrect

    • A preteen girl who has a crush on a boy in her class is too scared to ask him to hang out. Instead, she makes fun of him. What defense mechanism could be at play?

      Your Answer: Denial

      Correct Answer: Reaction formation

      Explanation:

      Intermediate Mechanism: Rationalisation

      Rationalisation is a defense mechanism commonly used by individuals to create false but credible justifications for their behavior of actions. It involves the use of logical reasoning to explain away of justify unacceptable behavior of feelings. The individual may not be aware that they are using this mechanism, and it can be difficult to identify in oneself.

      Rationalisation is considered an intermediate mechanism, as it is common in healthy individuals from ages three to ninety, as well as in neurotic disorders and in mastering acute adult stress. It can be dramatically changed by conventional psychotherapeutic interpretation.

      Examples of rationalisation include a student who fails an exam and blames the teacher for not teaching the material well enough, of a person who cheats on their partner and justifies it by saying their partner was neglectful of unaffectionate. It allows the individual to avoid taking responsibility for their actions and to maintain a positive self-image.

      Overall, rationalisation can be a useful defense mechanism in certain situations, but it can also be harmful if it leads to a lack of accountability and an inability to learn from mistakes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
      10.1
      Seconds
  • Question 94 - A 45-year-old woman accompanied by her husband was seen by her GP. Over...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old woman accompanied by her husband was seen by her GP. Over several months she had begun to hear voices. These voices could be heard at any time. Sometimes the voices would demand her to do things; sometimes they would hum of laugh. Over the months she had developed the notion that her husband was having an affair and was planning to leave her. In addition, she believed that she had a deadly illness and was unlikely to live for more than a year.

      The arguments that followed these 'ideas' had caused a huge rift between her and her husband, as he had been unable to convince her that they were not true. She had lost over a stone in weight, had become increasingly nervous and was neglecting her appearance. She had no known medical problems and was not taking any regular medication. She was a smoker of 10 cigarettes per day and drank 10 units of alcohol per week. She worked as a teacher, but had recently taken time off sick. She had a brother with schizophrenia, but there were no other known family illnesses.

      On examination, she appeared withdrawn and unkempt. She continued to fidget with her clothes and continually commented she could smell smoke. She was able to talk fluently about her childhood and university years which appeared to be happy times. The death of her father three years ago had been 'difficult'. She scored 28/30 on mini-mental state examination. Cranial nerve and peripheral nervous system examination did not reveal any abnormalities. An MRI scan of her brain was normal.

      What is the most likely diagnosis in this patient?

      Your Answer: Psychotic depression

      Correct Answer: Paranoid schizophrenia

      Explanation:

      Paranoid Schizophrenia Diagnosis

      This patient’s symptoms include hearing hallucinatory voices that command him to do things of non-verbal forms such as humming of laughing. He also experiences delusions with a persecutory of jealousy theme, as well as hallucinations of smell, changes in weight, and neglect of personal hygiene. These symptoms are consistent with a diagnosis of paranoid schizophrenia.

      The patient’s clinical picture is dominated by fixed delusions, with less emphasis on mood changes, making diagnoses of psychotic depression and bipolar disease less likely. There is no evidence of epileptic-form activity of altered awareness during episodes of delusions or hallucinations.

      It is important to differentiate paranoid schizophrenia from other disorders, such as schizoid personality disorder, which is characterized by emotional coldness, detachment, limited capacity to express emotion, and subsequently, few friends of close relationships.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Diagnosis
      46.1
      Seconds
  • Question 95 - What is a true statement about histamine? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is a true statement about histamine?

      Your Answer: H4 receptors are involved in anaphylaxis

      Correct Answer: It is metabolised by histamine methyltransferase

      Explanation:

      Neurotransmitters are substances used by neurons to communicate with each other and with target tissues. They are synthesized and released from nerve endings into the synaptic cleft, where they bind to receptor proteins in the cellular membrane of the target tissue. Neurotransmitters can be classified into different types, including small molecules (such as acetylcholine, dopamine, norepinephrine, serotonin, and GABA) and large molecules (such as neuropeptides). They can also be classified as excitatory or inhibitory. Receptors can be ionotropic or metabotropic, and the effects of neurotransmitters can be fast of slow. Some important neurotransmitters include acetylcholine, dopamine, GABA, norepinephrine, and serotonin. Each neurotransmitter has a specific synthesis, breakdown, and receptor type. Understanding neurotransmitters is important for understanding the function of the nervous system and for developing treatments for neurological and psychiatric disorders.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      7.3
      Seconds
  • Question 96 - Age-related plaques are made up of what substances? ...

    Incorrect

    • Age-related plaques are made up of what substances?

      Your Answer: Tau

      Correct Answer: Beta amyloid

      Explanation:

      Alzheimer’s disease is characterized by both macroscopic and microscopic changes in the brain. Macroscopic changes include cortical atrophy, ventricular dilation, and depigmentation of the locus coeruleus. Microscopic changes include the presence of senile plaques, neurofibrillary tangles, gliosis, degeneration of the nucleus of Meynert, and Hirano bodies. Senile plaques are extracellular deposits of beta amyloid in the gray matter of the brain, while neurofibrillary tangles are intracellular inclusion bodies that consist primarily of hyperphosphorylated tau. Gliosis is marked by increases in activated microglia and reactive astrocytes near the sites of amyloid plaques. The nucleus of Meynert degenerates in Alzheimer’s, resulting in a decrease in acetylcholine in the brain. Hirano bodies are actin-rich, eosinophilic intracytoplasmic inclusions which have a highly characteristic crystalloid fine structure and are regarded as a nonspecific manifestation of neuronal degeneration. These changes in the brain contribute to the cognitive decline and memory loss seen in Alzheimer’s disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      8.7
      Seconds
  • Question 97 - What is the estimated volume in which a drug is distributed throughout the...

    Incorrect

    • What is the estimated volume in which a drug is distributed throughout the body based on the plasma concentration of 0.1 mg/L after administering a 50 mg dose?

      Your Answer: 5 L

      Correct Answer: 500 L

      Explanation:

      The voltage drop (Vd) is equal to the ratio of the applied voltage (A) to the circuit resistance (C). Therefore, in this case, Vd is equal to 500 volts, as calculated by dividing 50 volts by 0.1 ohms.

      Understanding the Volume of Distribution in Pharmacology

      The volume of distribution (Vd) is a crucial concept in pharmacology that helps determine how a drug distributes in the body. It is also known as the apparent volume of distribution, as it is an abstract volume. The Vd indicates whether a drug concentrates in the plasma of spreads out in the body. Drugs that are highly polar tend to stay in central compartments such as the plasma, resulting in a low Vd. Conversely, drugs that are more lipid-soluble are distributed widely, such as in fat, resulting in a high Vd.

      The Vd is calculated by dividing the amount of drug in the body by the concentration in the plasma. Clinically, the Vd is used to determine the loading dose of a drug required for a desired blood concentration and to estimate blood concentration in the treatment of overdose. The units of Vd are in volume.

      The apparent volume of distribution is dependent on the drug’s lipid of water solubility, plasma protein binding, and tissue binding. Plasma protein binding affects the Vd, as drugs that bind to plasma proteins like albumin have a smaller apparent volume of distribution. This is because they are extracted from plasma and included in drug concentration measurements, which can give a misleading impression of their volume of distribution. Understanding the Vd is essential in pharmacology to ensure the safe and effective use of drugs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      18.3
      Seconds
  • Question 98 - What is a true statement about multiple sclerosis? ...

    Correct

    • What is a true statement about multiple sclerosis?

      Your Answer: The mean age of onset is between 20 and 40

      Explanation:

      Multiple Sclerosis: An Overview

      Multiple sclerosis is a neurological disorder that is classified into three categories: primary progressive, relapsing-remitting, and secondary progressive. Primary progressive multiple sclerosis affects 5-10% of patients and is characterized by a steady progression with no remissions. Relapsing-remitting multiple sclerosis affects 20-30% of patients and presents with a relapsing-remitting course but does not lead to serious disability. Secondary progressive multiple sclerosis affects 60% of patients and initially presents with a relapsing-remitting course but is then followed by a phase of progressive deterioration.

      The disorder typically begins between the ages of 20 and 40 and is characterized by multiple demyelinating lesions that have a preference for the optic nerves, cerebellum, brainstem, and spinal cord. Patients with multiple sclerosis present with a variety of neurological signs that reflect the presence and distribution of plaques. Ocular features of multiple sclerosis include optic neuritis, internuclear ophthalmoplegia, and ocular motor cranial neuropathy.

      Multiple sclerosis is more common in women than in men and is seen with increasing frequency as the distance from the equator increases. It is believed to be caused by a combination of genetic and environmental factors, with monozygotic concordance at 25%. Overall, multiple sclerosis is a predominantly white matter disease that can have a significant impact on a patient’s quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      5.8
      Seconds
  • Question 99 - In addition to alcohol, what other substance is metabolized by aldehyde dehydrogenase? ...

    Incorrect

    • In addition to alcohol, what other substance is metabolized by aldehyde dehydrogenase?

      Your Answer: Acetylcholine

      Correct Answer: Serotonin

      Explanation:

      Serotonin: Synthesis and Breakdown

      Serotonin, also known as 5-Hydroxytryptamine (5-HT), is synthesized in the central nervous system (CNS) in the raphe nuclei located in the brainstem, as well as in the gastrointestinal (GI) tract in enterochromaffin cells. The amino acid L-tryptophan, obtained from the diet, is used to synthesize serotonin. L-tryptophan can cross the blood-brain barrier, but serotonin cannot.

      The transformation of L-tryptophan into serotonin involves two steps. First, hydroxylation to 5-hydroxytryptophan is catalyzed by tryptophan hydroxylase. Second, decarboxylation of 5-hydroxytryptophan to serotonin (5-hydroxytryptamine) is catalyzed by L-aromatic amino acid decarboxylase.

      Serotonin is taken up from the synapse by a monoamine transporter (SERT). Substances that block this transporter include MDMA, amphetamine, cocaine, TCAs, and SSRIs. Serotonin is broken down by monoamine oxidase (MAO) and then by aldehyde dehydrogenase to 5-Hydroxyindoleacetic acid (5-HIAA).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      12.7
      Seconds
  • Question 100 - What category of adverse drug reaction does respiratory depression caused by opioids fall...

    Incorrect

    • What category of adverse drug reaction does respiratory depression caused by opioids fall under?

      Your Answer: Type C

      Correct Answer: Type A

      Explanation:

      The MHRA categorizes adverse drug reactions into five types. Type A reactions occur when a drug’s usual pharmacological actions are amplified at the normal therapeutic dose, and are typically dose-dependent. Type B reactions are unexpected and not related to the drug’s known pharmacological actions. Type C reactions persist for a prolonged period of time, while Type D reactions become apparent after a delay. Type E reactions are associated with the withdrawal of a medication.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      7.1
      Seconds
  • Question 101 - Which gene is not considered a candidate gene for schizophrenia? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which gene is not considered a candidate gene for schizophrenia?

      Your Answer: DISC1

      Correct Answer: APOE

      Explanation:

      Schizophrenia is a complex disorder that is associated with multiple candidate genes. No single gene has been identified as the sole cause of schizophrenia, and it is believed that the more genes involved, the greater the risk. Some of the important candidate genes for schizophrenia include DTNBP1, COMT, NRG1, G72, RGS4, DAOA, DISC1, and DRD2. Among these, neuregulin, dysbindin, and DISC1 are the most replicated and plausible genes, with COMT being the strongest candidate gene due to its role in dopamine metabolism. Low activity of the COMT gene has been associated with obsessive-compulsive disorder and schizophrenia. Neuregulin 1 is a growth factor that stimulates neuron development and differentiation, and increased neuregulin signaling in schizophrenia may suppress the NMDA receptor, leading to lowered glutamate levels. Dysbindin is involved in the biogenesis of lysosome-related organelles, and its expression is decreased in schizophrenia. DISC1 encodes a multifunctional protein that influences neuronal development and adult brain function, and it is disrupted in schizophrenia. It is located at the breakpoint of a balanced translocation identified in a large Scottish family with schizophrenia, schizoaffective disorder, and other major mental illnesses.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      5.9
      Seconds
  • Question 102 - What is a minimally invasive method that utilizes radioisotopes? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is a minimally invasive method that utilizes radioisotopes?

      Your Answer: CT

      Correct Answer: SPECT

      Explanation:

      Neuroimaging techniques can be divided into structural and functional types, although this distinction is becoming less clear as new techniques emerge. Structural techniques include computed tomography (CT) and magnetic resonance imaging (MRI), which use x-rays and magnetic fields, respectively, to produce images of the brain’s structure. Functional techniques, on the other hand, measure brain activity by detecting changes in blood flow of oxygen consumption. These include functional MRI (fMRI), emission tomography (PET and SPECT), perfusion MRI (pMRI), and magnetic resonance spectroscopy (MRS). Some techniques, such as diffusion tensor imaging (DTI), combine both structural and functional information to provide a more complete picture of the brain’s anatomy and function. DTI, for example, uses MRI to estimate the paths that water takes as it diffuses through white matter, allowing researchers to visualize white matter tracts.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      8.3
      Seconds
  • Question 103 - What is the term used to describe sudden muscle movements that cannot be...

    Correct

    • What is the term used to describe sudden muscle movements that cannot be controlled or stopped?

      Your Answer: Myoclonus

      Explanation:

      It is important to note that myoclonus is a common occurrence when individuals are falling asleep and is not considered abnormal in this context. Tics share similarities with myoclonus, but one key difference is that tics can be partially suppressed.

      Movement Disorders: Key Features

      Movement disorders refer to a range of conditions that affect voluntary muscle movements. These disorders can be caused by various factors, including neurological conditions, medication side effects, and metabolic imbalances. The following table outlines some of the key features of common movement disorders:

      Akinesia: Absence of loss of control of voluntary muscle movements, often seen in severe Parkinson’s disease.

      Bradykinesia: Slowness of voluntary movement, a core symptom of Parkinson’s disease.

      Akathisia: Subjective feeling of inner restlessness, often caused by antipsychotic medication use.

      Athetosis: Continuous stream of slow, flowing, writhing involuntary movements, often seen in cerebral palsy, stroke, and Huntington’s disease.

      Chorea: Brief, quasi-purposeful, irregular contractions that appear to flow from one muscle to the next, often seen in Huntington’s disease and Wilson’s disease.

      Dystonia: Involuntary sustained of intermittent muscle contractions that cause twisting and repetitive movements, abnormal postures, of both.

      Dyskinesia: General term referring to problems with voluntary movements and the presence of involuntary movements, often drug-induced.

      Myoclonus: A sequence of repeated, often non-rhythmic, brief shock-like jerks due to sudden involuntary contraction of relaxation of one of more muscles.

      Parkinsonism: Syndrome characterized by tremor, rigidity, and bradykinesia.

      Tic: Sudden, repetitive, non-rhythmic, stereotyped motor movement of vocalization involving discrete muscle groups, often seen in Tourette’s syndrome.

      Tremor: Involuntary, rhythmic, alternating movement of one of more body parts, often seen in essential tremor, Parkinson’s disease, and alcohol withdrawal.

      Hemiballismus: Repetitive, but constantly varying, large amplitude involuntary movements of the proximal parts of the limbs, often seen in stroke and traumatic brain injury.

      Stereotypies: Repetitive, simple movements that can be voluntarily suppressed, often seen in autism and intellectual disability.

      It is important to consider the underlying conditions and factors that may contribute to movement disorders in order to properly diagnose and treat these conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
      7.1
      Seconds
  • Question 104 - In a patient with chronic schizophrenia on a stable dose of 2mg risperidone...

    Incorrect

    • In a patient with chronic schizophrenia on a stable dose of 2mg risperidone for 2 years, who develops worsening symptoms and is given an increased dose of 4 mg risperidone, what is the most likely cause of his current presentation of stiffness, fever, breathlessness, and sweating?

      Your Answer: Serotonin syndrome

      Correct Answer: Neuroleptic malignant syndrome

      Explanation:

      Serotonin Syndrome and Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome are two conditions that can be difficult to differentiate. Serotonin Syndrome is caused by excess serotonergic activity in the CNS and is characterized by neuromuscular abnormalities, altered mental state, and autonomic dysfunction. On the other hand, Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome is a rare acute disorder of thermoregulation and neuromotor control that is almost exclusively caused by antipsychotics. The symptoms of both syndromes can overlap, but there are some distinguishing clinical features. Hyper-reflexia, ocular clonus, and tremors are more prominent in Serotonin Syndrome, while Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome is characterized by uniform ‘lead-pipe’ rigidity and hyporeflexia. Symptoms of Serotonin Syndrome usually resolve within a few days of stopping the medication, while Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome can take up to 14 days to remit with appropriate treatment. The following table provides a useful guide to the main differentials of Serotonin Syndrome and Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      16.7
      Seconds
  • Question 105 - Which of the following emotions was not included in Ekman's list of six...

    Correct

    • Which of the following emotions was not included in Ekman's list of six basic emotions?

      Your Answer: Relief

      Explanation:

      Primary Emotions

      Paul Ekman, a renowned psychologist, identified six basic emotions that he believed were universally present in all humans. These primary emotions are happiness, fear, disgust, sadness, anger, and surprise. Ekman suggested that these emotions were biologically innate and could be recognized across different cultures and languages. Although he later added more emotions to this list, the original six remain the most commonly referenced. Understanding these primary emotions can help individuals better recognize and manage their own emotions, as well as empathize with others.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      10.8
      Seconds
  • Question 106 - Which pathway is believed to be responsible for the development of negative symptoms...

    Incorrect

    • Which pathway is believed to be responsible for the development of negative symptoms in schizophrenia due to the blockage of D-2 receptors?

      Your Answer: The nigrostriatal pathway

      Correct Answer: The mesocortical pathway

      Explanation:

      Neurotransmitters are substances used by neurons to communicate with each other and with target tissues. They are synthesized and released from nerve endings into the synaptic cleft, where they bind to receptor proteins in the cellular membrane of the target tissue. Neurotransmitters can be classified into different types, including small molecules (such as acetylcholine, dopamine, norepinephrine, serotonin, and GABA) and large molecules (such as neuropeptides). They can also be classified as excitatory or inhibitory. Receptors can be ionotropic or metabotropic, and the effects of neurotransmitters can be fast of slow. Some important neurotransmitters include acetylcholine, dopamine, GABA, norepinephrine, and serotonin. Each neurotransmitter has a specific synthesis, breakdown, and receptor type. Understanding neurotransmitters is important for understanding the function of the nervous system and for developing treatments for neurological and psychiatric disorders.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      9.8
      Seconds
  • Question 107 - A 42 year old, overweight woman presents with recurring episodes of one-sided vision...

    Incorrect

    • A 42 year old, overweight woman presents with recurring episodes of one-sided vision loss accompanied by pain over the last 24 months. She is curious if her use of fluoxetine, which you prescribed for her depression, could be a contributing factor. What is your primary suspicion regarding her symptoms?

      Your Answer: Central Retinal Artery Occlusion

      Correct Answer: Multiple sclerosis

      Explanation:

      The symptoms experienced by the woman are most indicative of optic neuritis, which is characterized by inflammation of the optic nerve where it connects to the eye. This typically results in temporary loss of vision in one eye, accompanied by pain during eye movement. Optic neuritis is commonly associated with multiple sclerosis. It is unlikely that the woman is experiencing an arterial occlusion, as this would cause permanent and painless vision loss. A pituitary adenoma would affect both eyes and result in permanent vision loss. The possibility of a somatoform disorder is unlikely, as the women’s symptoms align with a recognized medical diagnosis. Endophthalmitis is a serious condition that can cause permanent vision loss and requires immediate medical attention.

      Multiple Sclerosis: An Overview

      Multiple sclerosis is a neurological disorder that is classified into three categories: primary progressive, relapsing-remitting, and secondary progressive. Primary progressive multiple sclerosis affects 5-10% of patients and is characterized by a steady progression with no remissions. Relapsing-remitting multiple sclerosis affects 20-30% of patients and presents with a relapsing-remitting course but does not lead to serious disability. Secondary progressive multiple sclerosis affects 60% of patients and initially presents with a relapsing-remitting course but is then followed by a phase of progressive deterioration.

      The disorder typically begins between the ages of 20 and 40 and is characterized by multiple demyelinating lesions that have a preference for the optic nerves, cerebellum, brainstem, and spinal cord. Patients with multiple sclerosis present with a variety of neurological signs that reflect the presence and distribution of plaques. Ocular features of multiple sclerosis include optic neuritis, internuclear ophthalmoplegia, and ocular motor cranial neuropathy.

      Multiple sclerosis is more common in women than in men and is seen with increasing frequency as the distance from the equator increases. It is believed to be caused by a combination of genetic and environmental factors, with monozygotic concordance at 25%. Overall, multiple sclerosis is a predominantly white matter disease that can have a significant impact on a patient’s quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      45.4
      Seconds
  • Question 108 - Identify the option that represents a secondary amine. ...

    Incorrect

    • Identify the option that represents a secondary amine.

      Your Answer: Clomipramine

      Correct Answer: Desipramine

      Explanation:

      Tricyclic Antidepressants: Uses, Types, and Side-Effects

      Tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs) are a type of medication used for depression and neuropathic pain. However, due to their side-effects and toxicity in overdose, they are not commonly used for depression anymore. TCAs can be divided into two types: first generation (tertiary amines) and second generation (secondary amines). The secondary amines have a lower side effect profile and act primarily on noradrenaline, while the tertiary amines boost serotonin and noradrenaline.

      Some examples of secondary amines include desipramine, nortriptyline, protriptyline, and amoxapine. Examples of tertiary amines include amitriptyline, lofepramine, imipramine, clomipramine, dosulepin (dothiepin), doxepin, trimipramine, and butriptyline. Common side-effects of TCAs include drowsiness, dry mouth, blurred vision, constipation, and urinary retention.

      Low-dose amitriptyline is commonly used for neuropathic pain and prophylaxis of headache. Lofepramine has a lower incidence of toxicity in overdose. However, amitriptyline and dosulepin (dothiepin) are considered the most dangerous in overdose. It is important to consult with a healthcare provider before taking any medication and to follow their instructions carefully.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      9.2
      Seconds
  • Question 109 - Which of the following dimensions were included in Eysenck's classification scheme from 1970?...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following dimensions were included in Eysenck's classification scheme from 1970?

      Your Answer: Locus of control

      Correct Answer: Psychoticism

      Explanation:

      Eysenck’s classification system consisted of three dimensions: Psychoticism, Neuroticism, and Introversion-extraversion. Despite its theoretical appeal, it has not been widely utilized, possibly due to challenges in its practical application in clinical settings.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
      3.8
      Seconds
  • Question 110 - What is the most appropriate term to describe the process by which a...

    Incorrect

    • What is the most appropriate term to describe the process by which a protein undergoes modifications after its synthesis?

      Your Answer: Translation

      Correct Answer: Phosphorylation

      Explanation:

      Post-translational modifications are a crucial aspect of epigenetics, as they often occur to proteins of polypeptides after translation to produce a functional protein. The most frequent modification is phosphorylation, but other common changes include glycosylation, cleavage, and the removal of an N-terminal signal sequence.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      10.5
      Seconds
  • Question 111 - Which one of these pathways is not associated with dopamine? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of these pathways is not associated with dopamine?

      Your Answer: Tuberoinfundibular pathway

      Correct Answer: Limbostriatal pathway

      Explanation:

      Neurotransmitters are substances used by neurons to communicate with each other and with target tissues. They are synthesized and released from nerve endings into the synaptic cleft, where they bind to receptor proteins in the cellular membrane of the target tissue. Neurotransmitters can be classified into different types, including small molecules (such as acetylcholine, dopamine, norepinephrine, serotonin, and GABA) and large molecules (such as neuropeptides). They can also be classified as excitatory or inhibitory. Receptors can be ionotropic or metabotropic, and the effects of neurotransmitters can be fast of slow. Some important neurotransmitters include acetylcholine, dopamine, GABA, norepinephrine, and serotonin. Each neurotransmitter has a specific synthesis, breakdown, and receptor type. Understanding neurotransmitters is important for understanding the function of the nervous system and for developing treatments for neurological and psychiatric disorders.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      5.9
      Seconds
  • Question 112 - Choose the medication with the most extended half-life: ...

    Correct

    • Choose the medication with the most extended half-life:

      Your Answer: Nitrazepam

      Explanation:

      Benzodiazepines are a class of drugs commonly used to treat anxiety and sleep disorders. It is important to have a working knowledge of the more common benzodiazepines and their half-life. Half-life refers to the amount of time it takes for half of the drug to be eliminated from the body.

      Some of the more common benzodiazepines and their half-life include diazepam with a half-life of 20-100 hours, clonazepam with a half-life of 18-50 hours, chlordiazepoxide with a half-life of 5-30 hours, nitrazepam with a half-life of 15-38 hours, temazepam with a half-life of 8-22 hours, lorazepam with a half-life of 10-20 hours, alprazolam with a half-life of 10-15 hours, oxazepam with a half-life of 6-10 hours, zopiclone with a half-life of 5-6 hours, zolpidem with a half-life of 2 hours, and zaleplon with a half-life of 2 hours. Understanding the half-life of these drugs is important for determining dosages and timing of administration.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      0.1
      Seconds
  • Question 113 - A middle-aged father who unconsciously resents the responsibility he has for his aging...

    Incorrect

    • A middle-aged father who unconsciously resents the responsibility he has for his aging parents and the limitations that they place on his personal time goes out each weekend and buys them extravagant gifts and hires expensive caretakers. Assuming the two are connected, which defense mechanism is likely to be underlying this behavior?

      Your Answer: Projection

      Correct Answer: Reaction formation

      Explanation:

      Intermediate Mechanism: Rationalisation

      Rationalisation is a defense mechanism commonly used by individuals to create false but credible justifications for their behavior of actions. It involves the use of logical reasoning to explain away of justify unacceptable behavior of feelings. The individual may not be aware that they are using this mechanism, and it can be difficult to identify in oneself.

      Rationalisation is considered an intermediate mechanism, as it is common in healthy individuals from ages three to ninety, as well as in neurotic disorders and in mastering acute adult stress. It can be dramatically changed by conventional psychotherapeutic interpretation.

      Examples of rationalisation include a student who fails an exam and blames the teacher for not teaching the material well enough, of a person who cheats on their partner and justifies it by saying their partner was neglectful of unaffectionate. It allows the individual to avoid taking responsibility for their actions and to maintain a positive self-image.

      Overall, rationalisation can be a useful defense mechanism in certain situations, but it can also be harmful if it leads to a lack of accountability and an inability to learn from mistakes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
      26.9
      Seconds
  • Question 114 - What is the term used to describe the sign where a patient with...

    Incorrect

    • What is the term used to describe the sign where a patient with catatonia can be positioned in certain postures and will maintain these positions for extended periods of time?

      Your Answer: Automatic obedience

      Correct Answer: Waxy flexibility

      Explanation:

      – Catatonia is a psychiatric syndrome characterized by disturbed motor functions, mood, and thought.
      – Key behaviors associated with catatonia include stupor, posturing, waxy flexibility, negativism, automatic obedience, mitmachen, mitgehen, ambitendency, psychological pillow, forced grasping, obstruction, echopraxia, aversion, mannerisms, stereotypies, motor perseveration, echolalia, and logorrhoea.
      – These behaviors are often tested in exam questions.
      – Karl Ludwig Kahlbaum is credited with the original clinical description of catatonia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
      61.8
      Seconds
  • Question 115 - Which of the following pairs of acronyms is incorrect? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following pairs of acronyms is incorrect?

      Your Answer: YMRS - Yates Mental Retardation scale

      Explanation:

      The acronym YMRS stands for the Young Mania Rating Scale.

      In psychiatry, various questionnaires and interviews are used to assess different conditions and areas. It is important for candidates to know whether certain assessment tools are self-rated of require clinical assistance. The table provided by the college lists some of the commonly used assessment tools and indicates whether they are self-rated of clinician-rated. For example, the HAMD and MADRS are clinician-rated scales used to assess the severity of depression, while the GDS is a self-rated scale used to screen for depression in the elderly. The YMRS is a clinician-rated scale used to assess the severity of mania in patients with bipolar disorder, while the Y-BOCS is used to measure both the severity of OCD and the response to treatment. The GAF provides a single measure of global functioning, while the CGI requires the clinician to rate the severity of the patient’s illness at the time of assessment. The CAMDEX is a tool developed to assist in the early diagnosis and measurement of dementia in the elderly.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
      13.4
      Seconds
  • Question 116 - Which of the following is not a negative symptom of schizophrenia? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is not a negative symptom of schizophrenia?

      Your Answer: Lack of energy

      Correct Answer: Thought withdrawal

      Explanation:

      Anhedonia: The Inability to Experience Pleasure

      Anhedonia is a negative symptom of schizophrenia that refers to the inability to experience pleasure of enjoyment from activities that are typically enjoyable. It is often described as a feeling of emotional emptiness of numbness. Anhedonia can have a significant impact on a person’s quality of life, as it can lead to social withdrawal and a lack of motivation to engage in activities that were once enjoyable. It is important for individuals with schizophrenia to receive proper treatment for anhedonia, as it can contribute to a worsening of other symptoms and overall functioning. With appropriate treatment, individuals with schizophrenia can learn to manage anhedonia and improve their quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
      5.8
      Seconds
  • Question 117 - A toddler and caregiver are participating in a research study. They enter a...

    Incorrect

    • A toddler and caregiver are participating in a research study. They enter a room filled with toys and the researchers observe from behind a one-way mirror. At first, the toddler stays close to the caregiver but eventually begins to explore and play with the toys. Then, a stranger enters the room and talks to the caregiver, who then leaves the room. The stranger then interacts with the toddler and the researchers observe the toddler's reaction. This scenario is an example of which theorist's work?

      Your Answer: Bateman

      Correct Answer: Ainsworth

      Explanation:

      The ‘strange situation’ has been utilized to depict different attachment styles exhibited by infants, with contributions from Bowlby’s observations of primate and human attachment behavior, Bateman’s work on psychotherapeutic models in personality disorder, Freud’s structural theory of the unconscious, and Jung’s exploration of archetypes and the collective unconscious.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Advanced Psychological Processes And Treatments
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  • Question 118 - Which gene is believed to have the most significant influence on the likelihood...

    Incorrect

    • Which gene is believed to have the most significant influence on the likelihood of developing alcohol addiction?

      Your Answer: ADH33A

      Correct Answer: ADH1B

      Explanation:

      Genetics and Alcoholism

      Alcoholism tends to run in families, and several studies confirm that biological children of alcoholics are more likely to develop alcoholism even when adopted by parents without the condition. Monozygotic twins have a greater concordance rate for alcoholism than dizygotic twins. Heritability estimates range from 45 to 65 percent for both men and women. While genetic differences affect risk, there is no “gene for alcoholism,” and both environmental and social factors weigh heavily on the outcome.

      The genes with the clearest contribution to the risk for alcoholism and alcohol consumption are alcohol dehydrogenase 1B (ADH1B) and aldehyde dehydrogenase 2 (ALDH2). The first step in ethanol metabolism is oxidation to acetaldehyde, by ADHs. The second step is metabolism of the acetaldehyde to acetate by ALDHs. Individuals carrying even a single copy of the ALDH2*504K display the “Asian flushing reaction” when they consume even small amounts of alcohol. There is one significant genetic polymorphism of the ALDH2 gene, resulting in allelic variants ALDH2*1 and ALDH2*2, which is virtually inactive. ALDH2*2 is present in about 50 percent of the Taiwanese, Han Chinese, and Japanese populations. It is extremely rare outside Asia. Nearly no individuals of European of African descent carry this allele. ALDH2*504K has repeatedly been demonstrated to have a protective effect against alcohol use disorders.

      The three different class I gene loci, ADH1A (alpha), ADH1B (beta), and ADH1C (gamma) are situated close to each other in the region 4q2123. The alleles ADH1C*1 and ADH1B*2 code for fast metabolism of alcohol. The ADH1B*1 slow allele is very common among Caucasians, with approximately 95 percent having the homozygous ADH1B*1/1 genotype and 5 percent having the heterozygous ADH1B*1/2 genotype. The ADH1B*2 allele is the most common allele in Asian populations. In African populations, the ADH1B*1 allele is the most common.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
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  • Question 119 - Which base pairs are found within DNA? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which base pairs are found within DNA?

      Your Answer: Adenine and guanine

      Correct Answer: Adenine and thymine

      Explanation:

      Genomics: Understanding DNA, RNA, Transcription, and Translation

      Deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) is a molecule composed of two chains that coil around each other to form a double helix. DNA is organised into chromosomes, and each chromosome is made up of DNA coiled around proteins called histones. RNA, on the other hand, is made from a long chain of nucleotide units and is usually single-stranded. RNA is transcribed from DNA by enzymes called RNA polymerases and is central to protein synthesis.

      Transcription is the synthesis of RNA from a DNA template, and it consists of three main steps: initiation, elongation, and termination. RNA polymerase binds at a sequence of DNA called the promoter, and the transcriptome is the collection of RNA molecules that results from transcription. Translation, on the other hand, refers to the synthesis of polypeptides (proteins) from mRNA. Translation takes place on ribosomes in the cell cytoplasm, where mRNA is read and translated into the string of amino acid chains that make up the synthesized protein.

      The process of translation involves messenger RNA (mRNA), transfer RNA (tRNA), and ribosomal RNA (rRNA). Transfer RNAs, of tRNAs, connect mRNA codons to the amino acids they encode, while ribosomes are the structures where polypeptides (proteins) are built. Like transcription, translation also consists of three stages: initiation, elongation, and termination. In initiation, the ribosome assembles around the mRNA to be read and the first tRNA carrying the amino acid methionine. In elongation, the amino acid chain gets longer, and in termination, the finished polypeptide chain is released.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
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  • Question 120 - What is the definition of latency period in pharmacology, and how does it...

    Correct

    • What is the definition of latency period in pharmacology, and how does it related to the time between drug absorption and the onset of a specific pharmacologic effect?

      Your Answer: First pass effect

      Explanation:

      The First Pass Effect in Psychiatric Drugs

      The first-pass effect is a process in drug metabolism that significantly reduces the concentration of a drug before it reaches the systemic circulation. This phenomenon is related to the liver and gut wall, which absorb and metabolize the drug before it can enter the bloodstream. Psychiatric drugs are not exempt from this effect, and some undergo a significant reduction in concentration before reaching their target site. Examples of psychiatric drugs that undergo a significant first-pass effect include imipramine, fluphenazine, morphine, diazepam, and buprenorphine. On the other hand, some drugs undergo little to no first-pass effect, such as lithium and pregabalin.

      Orally administered drugs are the most affected by the first-pass effect. However, there are other routes of administration that can avoid of partly avoid this effect. These include sublingual, rectal (partly avoids first pass), intravenous, intramuscular, transdermal, and inhalation. Understanding the first-pass effect is crucial in drug development and administration, especially in psychiatric drugs, where the concentration of the drug can significantly affect its efficacy and safety.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 121 - Which of these literary works was authored by Sigmund Freud? ...

    Correct

    • Which of these literary works was authored by Sigmund Freud?

      Your Answer: The Psychopathology of Everyday Life

      Explanation:

      Freud’s The Psychopathology of Everyday Life was written in 1901, while The Interpretation of Dreams was written in 1899, Mourning and Melancholia in 1917, and The Ego and the Id in 1923. Man and Superman was a play written by George Bernard Shaw in 1903 and is unrelated to Freud’s works.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • History Of Psychiatry
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  • Question 122 - What is the purpose of using confrontation during a clinical examination? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the purpose of using confrontation during a clinical examination?

      Your Answer: Unilateral neglect

      Correct Answer: Visual field loss

      Explanation:

      Confrontation Test

      The confrontation test is a method used to assess a patient’s visual fields. This test involves comparing the patient’s visual field with that of the examiner. To perform the test, both the patient and the examiner cover one eye, and the examiner then brings their fingers into view from a peripheral position. By comparing the patient’s response to the examiner’s, the examiner can determine any visual field defects that may be present. The confrontation test is a simple and effective way to assess a patient’s visual fields and can be performed quickly and easily in a clinical setting.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
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  • Question 123 - What symptom indicates the presence of a cerebellar lesion? ...

    Incorrect

    • What symptom indicates the presence of a cerebellar lesion?

      Your Answer: Hemiballismus

      Correct Answer: Nystagmus

      Explanation:

      Cerebellar Dysfunction: Symptoms and Signs

      Cerebellar dysfunction is a condition that affects the cerebellum, a part of the brain responsible for coordinating movement and balance. The symptoms and signs of cerebellar dysfunction include ataxia, intention tremor, nystagmus, broad-based gait, slurred speech, dysdiadochokinesis, and dysmetria (lack of finger-nose coordination).

      Ataxia refers to the lack of coordination of voluntary movements, resulting in unsteady gait, difficulty with balance, and clumsiness. Intention tremor is a type of tremor that occurs during voluntary movements, such as reaching for an object. Nystagmus is an involuntary movement of the eyes, characterized by rapid, jerky movements.

      Broad-based gait refers to a wide stance while walking, which is often seen in individuals with cerebellar dysfunction. Slurred speech, also known as dysarthria, is a common symptom of cerebellar dysfunction, which affects the ability to articulate words clearly. Dysdiadochokinesis is the inability to perform rapid alternating movements, such as tapping the fingers on the palm of the hand.

      Dysmetria refers to the inability to accurately judge the distance and direction of movements, resulting in errors in reaching for objects of touching the nose with the finger. These symptoms and signs of cerebellar dysfunction can be caused by a variety of conditions, including stroke, multiple sclerosis, and alcoholism. Treatment depends on the underlying cause and may include medications, physical therapy, and surgery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
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  • Question 124 - A young adult taking clozapine is struggling with significant weight gain and is...

    Incorrect

    • A young adult taking clozapine is struggling with significant weight gain and is considering discontinuing the medication despite significant improvements in their mental health. What has been observed to result in weight loss when used alongside clozapine?

      Your Answer: Haloperidol

      Correct Answer: Aripiprazole

      Explanation:

      Antipsychotic drugs are known to cause weight gain, but some more than others. The reason for this is not due to a direct metabolic effect, but rather an increase in appetite and a decrease in activity levels. The risk of weight gain appears to be linked to clinical response. There are several suggested mechanisms for this, including antagonism of certain receptors and hormones that stimulate appetite. The risk of weight gain varies among different antipsychotics, with clozapine and olanzapine having the highest risk. Management strategies for antipsychotic-induced weight gain include calorie restriction, low glycemic index diet, exercise, and switching to an alternative antipsychotic. Aripiprazole, ziprasidone, and lurasidone are recommended as alternative options. Other options include aripiprazole augmentation, metformin, orlistat, liraglutide, and topiramate.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      261.8
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  • Question 125 - A healthcare provider needed to document a patient's general level of functioning according...

    Incorrect

    • A healthcare provider needed to document a patient's general level of functioning according to the DSM-IV. Which axis would they have used for this purpose?

      Your Answer: Axis IV

      Correct Answer: Axis V

      Explanation:

      DSM-IV used a multi-axial system of diagnosis, with Axis V coding the individual’s level of function. However, DSM-5, published in 2013, discarded this system and all diagnoses, including personality disorders, are now listed in section II. Axis V was completely eliminated from the diagnostic process.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Description And Measurement
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  • Question 126 - The father of a preteen boy persistently makes comments suggesting that his son...

    Correct

    • The father of a preteen boy persistently makes comments suggesting that his son is overweight. This is despite the boy being a healthy weight. The father has always felt insecure about his own weight ever since his son was born. The boy becomes upset about his weight and starts to withdraw from social activities and is referred to see a therapist.

      Which of the following dynamic processes best explains the behavior of the son?

      Your Answer: Projective identification

      Explanation:

      The mother seems to transfer her own feelings of insecurity onto her daughter, who internalizes them even though she has a healthy weight. This phenomenon is known as projective identification, where the projected emotions are adopted and experienced as one’s own.

      Intermediate Mechanism: Rationalisation

      Rationalisation is a defense mechanism commonly used by individuals to create false but credible justifications for their behavior of actions. It involves the use of logical reasoning to explain away of justify unacceptable behavior of feelings. The individual may not be aware that they are using this mechanism, and it can be difficult to identify in oneself.

      Rationalisation is considered an intermediate mechanism, as it is common in healthy individuals from ages three to ninety, as well as in neurotic disorders and in mastering acute adult stress. It can be dramatically changed by conventional psychotherapeutic interpretation.

      Examples of rationalisation include a student who fails an exam and blames the teacher for not teaching the material well enough, of a person who cheats on their partner and justifies it by saying their partner was neglectful of unaffectionate. It allows the individual to avoid taking responsibility for their actions and to maintain a positive self-image.

      Overall, rationalisation can be a useful defense mechanism in certain situations, but it can also be harmful if it leads to a lack of accountability and an inability to learn from mistakes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
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  • Question 127 - A child is walking down a dimly lit hallway. They hear creaking floorboards,...

    Incorrect

    • A child is walking down a dimly lit hallway. They hear creaking floorboards, their heart starts to race, and their breathing becomes heavier. Simultaneously, they feel scared. Which theory of emotion does this align with?

      Your Answer: attribution theory

      Correct Answer: Cannon-Bard theory

      Explanation:

      The Lazarus theory and the attribution theory share similarities.

      Theories of Emotion

      In membership exams, four main theories of emotion are commonly discussed: James-Lange theory, Cannon-Bard theory, Singer-Schachter theory, and Lazarus theory. The key to understanding the differences between these theories is to identify where the stimulus for the emotion arises.

      According to the James-Lange theory, emotions occur as a result of bodily sensations. For instance, if you see a big dog, your heart races, and you feel afraid. This theory proposes that certain external stimuli stimulate specific sensory organs, leading to a particular emotion. The sequence of events suggested by this theory is as follows: event – arousal – interpretation – emotion. In other words, the stimulus for emotion arises from physical sensations.

      The Cannon-Bard theory, also known as the thalami theory, proposes that when an event occurs, one experiences an emotion at the same time as physiological changes. The stimulus for emotion arises simultaneously in the body and the mind.

      The Singer-Schachter theory, also known as the two-factor theory, suggests that emotions result from both physiological changes and the context. For example, if your heart is racing, and you are about to have an exam, you label yourself as afraid. However, if your heart is racing, and you are about to kiss your partner, you label your emotional state as excited. The stimulus for emotion arises via a combination of physical sensations and the mind’s appraisal of them.

      Finally, the Lazarus theory proposes that a thought is required before an emotion occurs. For instance, if you see a big dog, you think it is going to bite you, and you feel afraid. The stimulus for emotion arises from the mind.

      In summary, these theories offer different perspectives on the relationship between physical sensations, cognitive processes, and emotions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
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  • Question 128 - Who differentiated genuine delusions from ideas that resemble delusions? ...

    Correct

    • Who differentiated genuine delusions from ideas that resemble delusions?

      Your Answer: Karl Jaspers

      Explanation:

      Karl Theodor Jaspers, a prominent German psychiatrist and philosopher, made significant contributions to modern psychiatry and philosophy. His book General Psychopathology, published in 1913, introduced many of the diagnostic criteria used today. Jaspers distinguished between primary delusions, which are inexplicable and sudden, and secondary delusions, which can be understood based on the patient’s internal and external environment. Other notable figures in the field include Eugen Bleuler, who coined the term schizophrenia, Emil Kraepelin, who introduced dementia praecox, and Kurt Schneider, who developed the first rank symptoms of schizophrenia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • History Of Psychiatry
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  • Question 129 - A senior citizen with bipolar disorder complains of nausea and vomiting, confusion, and...

    Incorrect

    • A senior citizen with bipolar disorder complains of nausea and vomiting, confusion, and difficulty with coordination. You suspect lithium toxicity despite a normal level of lithium in the blood. What tests can be done to confirm this?

      Your Answer: CT brain

      Correct Answer: EEG

      Explanation:

      Confirmation of lithium toxicity cannot be solely based on a normal serum lithium level. EEG is a more reliable method, as it can detect diffuse slowing and triphasic waves, which are characteristic features of lithium toxicity. CT and MRI brain scans are not helpful in confirming lithium toxicity. While ECG may show changes such as arrhythmias and flattened of inverted T-waves, they are not sufficient to confirm lithium toxicity. A lumbar puncture can rule out an infectious cause for the symptoms but cannot confirm lithium toxicity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      11.1
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  • Question 130 - What product is licensed to assist individuals in quitting smoking? ...

    Incorrect

    • What product is licensed to assist individuals in quitting smoking?

      Your Answer: Procyclidine

      Correct Answer: Varenicline

      Explanation:

      Varenicline is a medication that helps people quit smoking by partially activating specific nicotine receptors in the body.

      Mechanisms of Action of Different Drugs

      Understanding the mechanisms of action of different drugs is crucial for medical professionals. It is a common topic in exams and can earn easy marks if studied well. This article provides a list of drugs and their mechanisms of action in different categories such as antidepressants, anti dementia drugs, mood stabilizers, anxiolytic/hypnotic drugs, antipsychotics, drugs of abuse, and other drugs. For example, mirtazapine is a noradrenaline and serotonin specific antidepressant that works as a 5HT2 antagonist, 5HT3 antagonist, H1 antagonist, alpha 1 and alpha 2 antagonist, and moderate muscarinic antagonist. Similarly, donepezil is a reversible acetylcholinesterase inhibitor used as an anti dementia drug, while valproate is a GABA agonist and NMDA antagonist used as a mood stabilizer. The article also explains the mechanisms of action of drugs such as ketamine, phencyclidine, buprenorphine, naloxone, atomoxetine, varenicline, disulfiram, acamprosate, and sildenafil.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      10.1
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Psychopharmacology (13/34) 38%
Genetics (0/9) 0%
Classification And Assessment (7/21) 33%
Psychological Development (4/7) 57%
Neurosciences (6/30) 20%
Social Psychology (3/10) 30%
Descriptive Psychopathology (1/1) 100%
Assessment (0/1) 0%
History Of Psychiatry (2/5) 40%
Neurological Examination (0/1) 0%
Cognitive Assessment (1/1) 100%
Advanced Psychological Processes And Treatments (1/3) 33%
Epidemiology (1/2) 50%
Dynamic Psychopathology (0/1) 0%
Basic Psychological Treatments (0/1) 0%
Diagnosis (1/2) 50%
Description And Measurement (0/1) 0%
Passmed