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  • Question 1 - A 30-year-old woman who is 10 weeks postpartum and currently breastfeeding presents with...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old woman who is 10 weeks postpartum and currently breastfeeding presents with a complaint of a foul odor in her vaginal area. Upon examination, clue cells are detected. What treatment option would you suggest for this probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Metronidazole 400mg bd for 5 days

      Explanation:

      The recommended treatment for bacterial vaginosis in this patient is metronidazole, but high doses of this medication are not safe for breastfeeding. Fluconazole is used to treat thrush, while azithromycin is used for Chlamydia. Clarithromycin is prescribed for pneumonia, strep throat, and H. pylori infections.

      Bacterial vaginosis (BV) is a condition where there is an overgrowth of anaerobic organisms, particularly Gardnerella vaginalis, in the vagina. This leads to a decrease in the amount of lactobacilli, which produce lactic acid, resulting in an increase in vaginal pH. BV is not a sexually transmitted infection, but it is commonly seen in sexually active women. Symptoms include a fishy-smelling vaginal discharge, although some women may not experience any symptoms at all. Diagnosis is made using Amsel’s criteria, which includes the presence of thin, white discharge, clue cells on microscopy, a vaginal pH greater than 4.5, and a positive whiff test. Treatment involves oral metronidazole for 5-7 days, with a cure rate of 70-80%. However, relapse rates are high, with over 50% of women experiencing a recurrence within 3 months. Topical metronidazole or clindamycin may be used as alternatives.

      Bacterial vaginosis during pregnancy can increase the risk of preterm labor, low birth weight, chorioamnionitis, and late miscarriage. It was previously recommended to avoid oral metronidazole in the first trimester and use topical clindamycin instead. However, recent guidelines suggest that oral metronidazole can be used throughout pregnancy. The British National Formulary (BNF) still advises against using high-dose metronidazole regimes. Clue cells, which are vaginal epithelial cells covered with bacteria, can be seen on microscopy in women with BV.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
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  • Question 2 - A 30-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of dysmenorrhoea and deep dyspareunia...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of dysmenorrhoea and deep dyspareunia that she has been experiencing for the past 4 years. She reports severe pain during her menstrual cycle and feels nauseous. Additionally, she mentions that she and her partner have been trying to conceive for 2 years without any success. What could be the possible diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Endometriosis

      Explanation:

      Endometriosis is characterized by pelvic pain, dysmenorrhoea, dyspareunia, and subfertility. The main indicators of this condition are cyclic abdominal pain and deep dyspareunia, which may be accompanied by fertility issues. Unlike endometriosis, pelvic inflammatory disease does not typically cause pain during menstruation. A bicornuate uterus, which is a congenital anomaly resulting in a heart-shaped uterus, is associated with a higher risk of recurrent miscarriages. Cervical carcinomas are usually accompanied by abnormal bleeding, such as post-coital and inter-menstrual bleeding, but they are unlikely to have been present for as long as three years.

      Understanding Endometriosis

      Endometriosis is a common condition where endometrial tissue grows outside of the uterus. It affects around 10% of women of reproductive age and can cause chronic pelvic pain, painful periods, painful intercourse, and subfertility. Other symptoms may include urinary problems and painful bowel movements. Diagnosis is typically made through laparoscopy, and treatment options depend on the severity of symptoms.

      First-line treatments for symptomatic relief include NSAIDs and/or paracetamol. If these do not help, hormonal treatments such as the combined oral contraceptive pill or progestogens may be tried. If symptoms persist or fertility is a priority, referral to secondary care may be necessary. Secondary treatments may include GnRH analogues or surgery. For women trying to conceive, laparoscopic excision or ablation of endometriosis plus adhesiolysis is recommended, as well as ovarian cystectomy for endometriomas.

      It is important to note that there is poor correlation between laparoscopic findings and severity of symptoms, and that there is little role for investigation in primary care. If symptoms are significant, referral for a definitive diagnosis is recommended.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
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  • Question 3 - As a foundation doctor in general practice, you have a patient who is...

    Correct

    • As a foundation doctor in general practice, you have a patient who is a sexually active sixteen-year-old seeking advice about her contraceptive patch. She typically changes the patch on Saturday mornings but forgot to do so this week. What guidance should you provide?

      Your Answer: Change the patch now, use barrier contraceptives for seven days and consider emergency contraception

      Explanation:

      To ensure the effectiveness of the contraceptive patch, it should be applied to clean, dry skin on a weekly basis for three weeks, followed by a patch-free week to stimulate a withdrawal bleed. However, if the patch change is delayed for more than 48 hours, it is important to change it immediately and use a barrier method of contraception for the next 7 days. In case of unprotected intercourse, emergency contraceptives should be considered.

      The Evra patch is the only contraceptive patch that is approved for use in the UK. The patch cycle lasts for four weeks, during which the patch is worn every day for the first three weeks and changed weekly. During the fourth week, the patch is not worn, and a withdrawal bleed occurs.

      If a woman delays changing the patch at the end of week one or two, she should change it immediately. If the delay is less than 48 hours, no further precautions are necessary. However, if the delay is more than 48 hours, she should change the patch immediately and use a barrier method of contraception for the next seven days. If she has had unprotected sex during this extended patch-free interval or in the last five days, emergency contraception should be considered.

      If the patch removal is delayed at the end of week three, the woman should remove the patch as soon as possible and apply a new patch on the usual cycle start day for the next cycle, even if withdrawal bleeding is occurring. No additional contraception is needed.

      If patch application is delayed at the end of a patch-free week, additional barrier contraception should be used for seven days following any delay at the start of a new patch cycle. For more information, please refer to the NICE Clinical Knowledge Summary on combined hormonal methods of contraception.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
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  • Question 4 - A 32-year-old woman visits her doctor worried that she may have been in...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman visits her doctor worried that she may have been in contact with a child who has chickenpox. She is currently 20 weeks pregnant and unsure if she has ever had chickenpox before. Upon examination, no rash is present. Her blood test results show that she is Varicella Zoster IgG negative. What is the best course of action to take next?

      Your Answer: Treat with oral aciclovir

      Correct Answer: Give varicella-zoster immunoglobulin (VZIG)

      Explanation:

      If a pregnant woman is exposed to chickenpox before 20 weeks and has a negative IgG test, it indicates that she is not immune to the virus or has not been previously exposed to it. In such cases, it is recommended to administer varicella-zoster immunoglobulin (VZIG) as soon as possible, which can be effective up to 10 days after exposure. It is not necessary to inform public health as chickenpox is not a notifiable disease.

      If a pregnant woman develops a chickenpox rash, VZIG has no therapeutic benefit and should not be used. However, antiviral agents like aciclovir can be given within 24 hours of the rash onset. It is important to note that antiviral agents are recommended for post-exposure prophylaxis for immunosuppressed individuals.

      Women who are not immune to varicella-zoster can receive the vaccine before pregnancy or after delivery, but it should not be administered during pregnancy. Therefore, option D cannot be correct in any situation.

      Chickenpox exposure in pregnancy can pose risks to both the mother and fetus, including fetal varicella syndrome. Post-exposure prophylaxis (PEP) with varicella-zoster immunoglobulin (VZIG) or antivirals should be given to non-immune pregnant women, with timing dependent on gestational age. If a pregnant woman develops chickenpox, specialist advice should be sought and oral aciclovir may be given if she is ≥ 20 weeks and presents within 24 hours of onset of the rash.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
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  • Question 5 - A 29-year-old woman visits the genitourinary medicine clinic with four fleshy, pigmented lesions...

    Correct

    • A 29-year-old woman visits the genitourinary medicine clinic with four fleshy, pigmented lesions on her vulva after starting a new relationship. What is the best initial course of action?

      Your Answer: Topical podophyllum

      Explanation:

      For the treatment of genital warts, topical podophyllum is recommended for multiple, non-keratinised warts, while cryotherapy is recommended for solitary, keratinised warts. Cryotherapy can also be used as an initial treatment for genital warts.

      Understanding Genital Warts

      Genital warts, also known as condylomata accuminata, are a common reason for visits to genitourinary clinics. These warts are caused by various types of the human papillomavirus (HPV), with types 6 and 11 being the most common culprits. It is important to note that HPV, particularly types 16, 18, and 33, can increase the risk of cervical cancer.

      The warts themselves are small, fleshy protrusions that are typically 2-5mm in size and may be slightly pigmented. They can cause discomfort, itching, and even bleeding. Treatment options for genital warts include topical podophyllum or cryotherapy, depending on the location and type of lesion. Topical agents are generally used for multiple, non-keratinised warts, while solitary, keratinised warts respond better to cryotherapy. Imiquimod, a topical cream, is often used as a second-line treatment. It is important to note that genital warts can be resistant to treatment, and recurrence is common. However, most anogenital HPV infections clear up on their own within 1-2 years without intervention.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
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  • Question 6 - A 32-year-old woman who is currently 39 weeks pregnant presents with complaints of...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman who is currently 39 weeks pregnant presents with complaints of itching in her genital area and thick white discharge. What treatment options would you suggest for her likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Metronidazole 400mg bd for 5 days

      Correct Answer: Clotrimazole pessary

      Explanation:

      The patient is suffering from thrush and requires antifungal medication. However, since the patient is pregnant, oral fluconazole cannot be prescribed due to its link with birth defects. Instead, metronidazole can be used to treat bacterial vaginosis and Trichomonas vaginalis.

      Vaginal candidiasis, also known as thrush, is a common condition that many women can diagnose and treat themselves. Candida albicans is responsible for about 80% of cases, while other candida species cause the remaining 20%. Although most women have no predisposing factors, certain factors such as diabetes mellitus, antibiotics, steroids, pregnancy, and HIV can increase the likelihood of developing vaginal candidiasis. Symptoms include non-offensive discharge resembling cottage cheese, vulvitis, itching, vulval erythema, fissuring, and satellite lesions. A high vaginal swab is not routinely indicated if the clinical features are consistent with candidiasis. Treatment options include local or oral therapy, with oral fluconazole 150 mg as a single dose being the first-line treatment according to NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries. If there are vulval symptoms, a topical imidazole may be added to an oral or intravaginal antifungal. Pregnant women should only use local treatments. Recurrent vaginal candidiasis is defined as four or more episodes per year by BASHH. Compliance with previous treatment should be checked, and a high vaginal swab for microscopy and culture should be performed to confirm the diagnosis. A blood glucose test may be necessary to exclude diabetes, and differential diagnoses such as lichen sclerosus should be ruled out. An induction-maintenance regime involving oral fluconazole may be considered. Induction involves taking oral fluconazole every three days for three doses, while maintenance involves taking oral fluconazole weekly for six months.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
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  • Question 7 - A 25-year-old Caucasian female teacher visits the clinic to inquire about preconception care....

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old Caucasian female teacher visits the clinic to inquire about preconception care. She intends to conceive and is interested in learning about the supplements she should take. She has never given birth before and is in good health. She is not on any medication and has no known allergies. She does not smoke or consume alcohol.
      What supplements do you suggest she take?

      Your Answer: Folic acid 5 mg once a day and vitamin D 10 mg once a day

      Correct Answer: Folic acid 400 micrograms once a day and vitamin D 10 micrograms once a day

      Explanation:

      For this patient, who has a low risk of having a baby with neural tube defects and is not at high risk of vitamin D deficiency, the standard care is recommended. This includes taking a daily supplement of 10 micrograms of vitamin D. There is no need for her to take folic acid 5mg or higher doses of vitamin D, as they exceed the recommended amount.

      Antenatal care guidelines were issued by NICE in March 2008, which included specific points for the care of healthy pregnant women. Nausea and vomiting can be treated with natural remedies such as ginger and acupuncture on the ‘p6’ point, as recommended by NICE. Antihistamines, with promethazine as the first-line option according to the BNF, can also be used. Adequate vitamin D intake is crucial for the health of both the mother and baby, and women should be informed about this at their booking appointment. The Chief Medical Officer advises all pregnant and breastfeeding women to take a daily supplement containing 10 micrograms of vitamin D, with particular care taken for those at risk. In 2016, new guidelines were proposed by the Chief Medical Officer regarding alcohol consumption during pregnancy. The government now advises pregnant women not to drink any alcohol to minimize the risk of harm to the baby.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
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  • Question 8 - A 28-year-old female patient visits her GP for a routine check-up after her...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old female patient visits her GP for a routine check-up after her initial cervical smear. She has no medical history, no family history of gynaecological cancers, and no known allergies to medications. She is currently taking the progesterone-only pill. The results of her smear test indicate:
      Positive for HPV
      Low-grade dyskaryosis cytology
      What is the next course of action for managing this patient?

      Your Answer: Repeat test in 6 months

      Correct Answer: Colposcopy referral

      Explanation:

      If a patient’s cervical cancer screening shows a positive result for high-risk HPV (hrHPV) and cytological abnormalities, they should be referred for a colposcopy. This is because HPV increases the risk of developing cervical intraepithelial neoplasia and abnormal cytology indicates the need for further investigation. If the sample is inadequate, a repeat test should be offered in 3 months. However, there is no situation in which a patient is asked to return for a repeat test in 6 months. If the patient is hrHPV negative, they would be returned to normal recall as the NHS now follows an HPV first system. If the patient is hrHPV positive but has normal cytology, they would be invited for a repeat test in 12 months to assess for resolution of HPV or for further increased surveillance before considering a colposcopy. It would be inappropriate to reassure the patient and return them to normal recall if they are hrHPV positive and have dyskaryosis.

      The cervical cancer screening program has evolved to include HPV testing, which allows for further risk stratification. A negative hrHPV result means a return to normal recall, while a positive result requires cytological examination. Abnormal cytology results lead to colposcopy, while normal cytology results require a repeat test at 12 months. Inadequate samples require a repeat within 3 months, and two consecutive inadequate samples lead to colposcopy. Treatment for CIN typically involves LLETZ or cryotherapy. Individuals who have been treated for CIN should be invited for a test of cure repeat cervical sample 6 months after treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
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  • Question 9 - A 32-year-old female patient comes in seeking emergency contraception after having unprotected sex...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old female patient comes in seeking emergency contraception after having unprotected sex with her ex-partner four days ago. She is determined to prevent a pregnancy. The patient has a history of ectopic pregnancy four years ago, which led to a salpingectomy. She is currently on day 14 of a 28-day cycle. What is the best course of action among the available options?

      Your Answer: Insert a intrauterine system (Mirena)

      Correct Answer: Insert an intrauterine device

      Explanation:

      Emergency contraception is available in the UK through two methods: emergency hormonal contraception and intrauterine device (IUD). Emergency hormonal contraception includes two types of pills: levonorgestrel and ulipristal. Levonorgestrel works by stopping ovulation and inhibiting implantation, while ulipristal primarily inhibits ovulation. Levonorgestrel should be taken as soon as possible after unprotected sexual intercourse, within 72 hours, and is 84% effective when used within this time frame. The dose should be doubled for those with a BMI over 26 or weight over 70kg. Ulipristal should be taken within 120 hours of intercourse and may reduce the effectiveness of hormonal contraception. The most effective method of emergency contraception is the copper IUD, which can be inserted within 5 days of unprotected intercourse or up to 5 days after the likely ovulation date. It may inhibit fertilization or implantation and is 99% effective regardless of where it is used in the cycle. Prophylactic antibiotics may be given if the patient is at high risk of sexually transmitted infection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
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  • Question 10 - A 26-year-old primigravida presents for her first prenatal visit at 12 weeks. She...

    Correct

    • A 26-year-old primigravida presents for her first prenatal visit at 12 weeks. She expresses worry about a condition her mother had during pregnancy that caused seizures. The patient has no medical history and her blood pressure measures 125/85 mmHg during the appointment. Urine dipstick results are normal. Her BMI is 38 kg/m². What is the best course of action for management?

      Your Answer: Aspirin

      Explanation:

      For pregnant women who are at moderate or high risk of pre-eclampsia, it is recommended to take aspirin in low doses of 75-150mg daily from 12 weeks of gestation until delivery. In this case, the patient has three moderate risk factors for pre-eclampsia and should be advised to take low-dose aspirin throughout her pregnancy. While hydralazine is an alternative antihypertensive medication to labetalol in pregnancy, it is not necessary for this patient as she is not hypertensive. Labetalol is the first-line antihypertensive medication for pregnant women. Magnesium is only indicated for severe pre-eclampsia to prevent or treat seizures in patients with eclampsia, which is not present in this patient.

      Pre-eclampsia is a condition that occurs during pregnancy and is characterized by high blood pressure, proteinuria, and edema. It can lead to complications such as eclampsia, neurological issues, fetal growth problems, liver involvement, and cardiac failure. Severe pre-eclampsia is marked by hypertension, proteinuria, headache, visual disturbances, and other symptoms. Risk factors for pre-eclampsia include hypertension in a previous pregnancy, chronic kidney disease, autoimmune disease, diabetes, chronic hypertension, first pregnancy, and age over 40. Aspirin may be recommended for women with high or moderate risk factors. Treatment involves emergency assessment, admission for observation, and medication such as labetalol, nifedipine, or hydralazine. Delivery of the baby is the most important step in management, with timing depending on the individual case.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
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  • Question 11 - What is the primary mode of action of Cerazette (desogestrel)? ...

    Correct

    • What is the primary mode of action of Cerazette (desogestrel)?

      Your Answer: Inhibits ovulation

      Explanation:

      Types of Progestogen Only Pills

      Progestogen only pills (POPs) are a type of birth control pill that contain only progestogen hormone. There are two generations of POPs, with the second generation including norethisterone, levonorgestrel, and ethynodiol diacetate. The third generation of POPs includes desogestrel, which is also known as Cerazette. This new type of POP is highly effective in inhibiting ovulation in most women. One of the advantages of Cerazette is that users can take the pill up to 12 hours late, which is longer than the 3-hour window for other POPs. Overall, there are different types of POPs available, and women can choose the one that best suits their needs and preferences.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
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  • Question 12 - A 35-year-old para 2, gravida 3 is in labour in the delivery ward....

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old para 2, gravida 3 is in labour in the delivery ward. The labour is progressing normally until the midwife calls the obstetrician to assess the patient. The cervix is dilated to 6 cm, and the baby's position is 2 cm above the ischial spine. The cardiotocography shows a slow but steady heartbeat. The obstetrician decides to perform an emergency category 2 caesarian section. What is the maximum time allowed between this decision and the delivery of the baby, given the indication?

      Your Answer: 2 hours

      Correct Answer: 75 minutes

      Explanation:

      Category 2 caesarean sections should be performed within 75 minutes of the decision being made. This is because these cases involve maternal or fetal compromise that is not immediately life-threatening, allowing the medical team to manage the emergency and plan the surgery to minimize risks to both the mother and the baby. A timeframe of 2 hours is incorrect as it would delay the necessary intervention. On the other hand, a timeframe of 30 minutes is only applicable to category 1 caesarean sections, where there is an immediate threat to the life of the mother or baby. A timeframe of 5 minutes is too short and may increase the risk of errors during the procedure.

      Caesarean Section: Types, Indications, and Risks

      Caesarean section, also known as C-section, is a surgical procedure that involves delivering a baby through an incision in the mother’s abdomen and uterus. In recent years, the rate of C-section has increased significantly due to an increased fear of litigation. There are two main types of C-section: lower segment C-section, which comprises 99% of cases, and classic C-section, which involves a longitudinal incision in the upper segment of the uterus.

      C-section may be indicated for various reasons, including absolute cephalopelvic disproportion, placenta praevia grades 3/4, pre-eclampsia, post-maturity, IUGR, fetal distress in labor/prolapsed cord, failure of labor to progress, malpresentations, placental abruption, vaginal infection, and cervical cancer. The urgency of C-section may be categorized into four categories, with Category 1 being the most urgent and Category 4 being elective.

      It is important for clinicians to inform women of the serious and frequent risks associated with C-section, including emergency hysterectomy, need for further surgery, admission to intensive care unit, thromboembolic disease, bladder injury, ureteric injury, and death. C-section may also increase the risk of uterine rupture, antepartum stillbirth, placenta praevia, and placenta accreta in subsequent pregnancies. Other complications may include persistent wound and abdominal discomfort, increased risk of repeat C-section, readmission to hospital, haemorrhage, infection, and fetal lacerations.

      Vaginal birth after C-section (VBAC) may be an appropriate method of delivery for pregnant women with a single previous C-section delivery, except for those with previous uterine rupture or classical C-section scar. The success rate of VBAC is around 70-75%.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
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  • Question 13 - What is the most frequent negative outcome encountered by females who consume the...

    Correct

    • What is the most frequent negative outcome encountered by females who consume the progestin-only pill?

      Your Answer: Irregular vaginal bleeding

      Explanation:

      Pros and Cons of the Progestogen Only Pill

      The progestogen only pill, also known as the mini-pill, is a highly effective form of contraception with a failure rate of only 1 per 100 woman years. One of its advantages is that it does not interfere with sex and its contraceptive effects are reversible upon stopping. It can also be used while breastfeeding and in situations where the combined oral contraceptive pill is contraindicated, such as in smokers over 35 years of age and women with a history of venous thromboembolic disease.

      However, the progestogen only pill also has its disadvantages. One of the most common adverse effects is irregular periods, with some users not having periods while others may experience irregular or light periods. It also does not protect against sexually transmitted infections and has an increased incidence of functional ovarian cysts. Common side-effects include breast tenderness, weight gain, acne, and headaches, although these symptoms generally subside after the first few months. Despite its drawbacks, the progestogen only pill remains a popular choice for women seeking a reliable and convenient form of contraception.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
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  • Question 14 - A 28-year-old pregnant woman goes to her first prenatal appointment and is found...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old pregnant woman goes to her first prenatal appointment and is found to have a urinary tract infection based on a urine dipstick test. Despite being asymptomatic, which antibiotic should she steer clear of during the first trimester of pregnancy?

      Your Answer: Erythromycin

      Correct Answer: Trimethoprim

      Explanation:

      Urinary tract infections in pregnancy should be treated to prevent pyelonephritis. Trimethoprim should be avoided in the first trimester due to teratogenicity risk. Erythromycin is not typically used for UTIs and nitrofurantoin should be avoided close to full term. Sulfonamides and quinolones should also be avoided in pregnancy.

      Urinary tract infections (UTIs) are common in adults and can affect different parts of the urinary tract. The management of UTIs depends on various factors such as the patient’s age, gender, and pregnancy status. For non-pregnant women, local antibiotic guidelines should be followed if available. Trimethoprim or nitrofurantoin for three days are recommended by NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries. However, if the patient is aged over 65 years or has visible or non-visible haematuria, a urine culture should be sent. Pregnant women with UTIs should be treated with nitrofurantoin, amoxicillin, or cefalexin for seven days. Trimethoprim should be avoided during pregnancy as it is teratogenic in the first trimester. Asymptomatic bacteriuria in pregnant women should also be treated to prevent progression to acute pyelonephritis. Men with UTIs should be offered a seven-day course of trimethoprim or nitrofurantoin unless prostatitis is suspected. A urine culture should be sent before antibiotics are started. Catheterised patients should not be treated for asymptomatic bacteria, but if symptomatic, a seven-day course of antibiotics should be given. Acute pyelonephritis requires hospital admission and treatment with a broad-spectrum cephalosporin or quinolone for 10-14 days. Referral to urology is not routinely required for men who have had one uncomplicated lower UTI.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
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  • Question 15 - Which of the following contraceptives may lead to a decrease in bone mineral...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following contraceptives may lead to a decrease in bone mineral density among women?

      Your Answer: Combined oral contraceptive pill

      Correct Answer: Depo Provera (injectable contraceptive)

      Explanation:

      Injectable Contraceptives: Depo Provera

      Injectable contraceptives are a popular form of birth control in the UK, with Depo Provera being the main option available. This contraceptive contains 150mg of medroxyprogesterone acetate and is administered via intramuscular injection every 12 weeks. It can be given up to 14 weeks after the last dose without the need for extra precautions. The primary method of action is by inhibiting ovulation, while secondary effects include cervical mucus thickening and endometrial thinning.

      However, there are some disadvantages to using Depo Provera. Once the injection is given, it cannot be reversed, and there may be a delayed return to fertility of up to 12 months. Adverse effects may include irregular bleeding and weight gain, and there is a potential increased risk of osteoporosis. It should only be used in adolescents if no other method of contraception is suitable.

      It is important to note that there are contraindications to using Depo Provera, such as current breast cancer (UKMEC 4) or past breast cancer (UKMEC 3). While Noristerat is another injectable contraceptive licensed in the UK, it is rarely used in clinical practice and is given every 8 weeks. Overall, injectable contraceptives can be an effective form of birth control, but it is important to weigh the potential risks and benefits before deciding on this method.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
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  • Question 16 - A 32-year-old woman is 8 weeks pregnant. 3 years prior to the pregnancy,...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman is 8 weeks pregnant. 3 years prior to the pregnancy, her GP diagnosed her with stage 2 hypertension after an ambulatory reading of 150/95 mmHg. She has been taking 10mg ramipril daily to manage her blood pressure since then. Currently, her sitting blood pressure is 135/85 mmHg. What should be done in this situation?

      Your Answer: Stop ramipril and monitor blood pressure

      Correct Answer: Switch to labetalol

      Explanation:

      Hypertension during pregnancy is a common occurrence that requires careful management. In normal pregnancies, blood pressure tends to decrease in the first trimester and then gradually increase to pre-pregnancy levels by term. However, in cases of hypertension during pregnancy, the systolic blood pressure is usually above 140 mmHg or the diastolic blood pressure is above 90 mmHg. Additionally, an increase of more than 30 mmHg systolic or 15 mmHg diastolic from the initial readings may also indicate hypertension.

      There are three categories of hypertension during pregnancy: pre-existing hypertension, pregnancy-induced hypertension (PIH), and pre-eclampsia. Pre-existing hypertension refers to a history of hypertension before pregnancy or elevated blood pressure before 20 weeks gestation. PIH occurs in the second half of pregnancy and resolves after birth. Pre-eclampsia is characterized by hypertension and proteinuria, and may also involve edema.

      The management of hypertension during pregnancy involves the use of antihypertensive medications such as labetalol, nifedipine, and hydralazine. In cases of pre-existing hypertension, ACE inhibitors and angiotensin II receptor blockers should be stopped immediately and alternative medications should be prescribed. Women who are at high risk of developing pre-eclampsia should take aspirin from 12 weeks until the birth of the baby. It is important to carefully monitor blood pressure and proteinuria levels during pregnancy to ensure the health of both the mother and the baby.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
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  • Question 17 - A 20-year-old woman who is 8 weeks into her first pregnancy presents with...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old woman who is 8 weeks into her first pregnancy presents with vaginal bleeding and is seen in the early pregnancy assessment unit. The ultrasound scan confirms a viable intrauterine pregnancy, but the high vaginal swab has isolated group B streptococcus (GBS). What is the appropriate management for her?

      Your Answer: Treat immediately with oral erythromycin & intrapartum intravenous benzylpenicillin

      Correct Answer: Intrapartum intravenous benzylpenicillin only

      Explanation:

      GBS is a type of bacteria commonly found in the vagina of many women. While it is generally harmless, it can cause serious infections in newborns, leading to significant health problems and even death.

      If GBS is detected during pregnancy, it does not require immediate treatment as it will not reduce the likelihood of transmission to the baby during delivery. However, intravenous benzylpenicillin or clindamycin is necessary during labor to reduce the risk of transmission. This applies to GBS found in vaginal swabs and urine, and appropriate antibiotics are required for GBS urinary tract infections during pregnancy.

      There is currently no screening program for GBS in the UK, and vaginal swabs should only be taken when clinically necessary. Women who have had a previous baby infected with GBS are offered intrapartum intravenous benzylpenicillin in future pregnancies.

      (Source – RCOG guidelines, GBS in pregnancy).

      Group B Streptococcus (GBS) is a common cause of severe infection in newborns. It is estimated that 20-40% of mothers carry GBS in their bowel flora, which can be passed on to their infants during labor and lead to serious infections. Prematurity, prolonged rupture of membranes, previous sibling GBS infection, and maternal pyrexia are all risk factors for GBS infection. The Royal College of Obstetricians and Gynaecologists (RCOG) has published guidelines on GBS management, which include not offering universal screening for GBS to all women and not offering screening based on maternal request. Women who have had GBS detected in a previous pregnancy should be offered intrapartum antibiotic prophylaxis (IAP) or testing in late pregnancy and antibiotics if still positive. IAP should also be offered to women with a previous baby with GBS disease, women in preterm labor, and women with a fever during labor. Benzylpenicillin is the preferred antibiotic for GBS prophylaxis.

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      • Reproductive Medicine
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  • Question 18 - You are advising a 26-year-old woman who has recently discovered she is expecting...

    Incorrect

    • You are advising a 26-year-old woman who has recently discovered she is expecting a baby. She is a smoker and consumes 20 cigarettes per day. What is the primary risk factor linked to smoking while pregnant?

      Your Answer: Postnatal restricted growth

      Correct Answer: Increased risk of pre-term labour

      Explanation:

      Risks of Smoking, Alcohol, and Illegal Drugs During Pregnancy

      During pregnancy, drug use can have serious consequences for both the mother and the developing fetus. Smoking during pregnancy increases the risk of miscarriage, pre-term labor, stillbirth, and sudden unexpected death in infancy. Alcohol consumption can lead to fetal alcohol syndrome, which can cause learning difficulties, characteristic facial features, and growth restrictions. Binge drinking is a major risk factor for fetal alcohol syndrome. Cannabis use poses similar risks to smoking due to the tobacco content. Cocaine use can lead to hypertension in pregnancy, including pre-eclampsia, and placental abruption. Fetal risks include prematurity and neonatal abstinence syndrome. Heroin use can result in neonatal abstinence syndrome. It is important for pregnant women to avoid drug use to ensure the health and well-being of both themselves and their unborn child.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
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  • Question 19 - A 35-year-old woman visits her doctor with complaints of dyspareunia, irregular menstrual cycles...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old woman visits her doctor with complaints of dyspareunia, irregular menstrual cycles for the past 8 months, and missing 3 periods recently. She also reports experiencing sudden hot flashes for the last 4 months. The patient has a history of breast cancer and underwent chemotherapy and radiation. On examination, no abnormalities are found, and her pregnancy test is negative. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Premature ovarian failure

      Explanation:

      Premature Ovarian Insufficiency: Causes and Management

      Premature ovarian insufficiency is a condition where menopausal symptoms and elevated gonadotrophin levels occur before the age of 40. It affects approximately 1 in 100 women and can be caused by various factors such as idiopathic reasons, family history, bilateral oophorectomy, radiotherapy, chemotherapy, infection, autoimmune disorders, and resistant ovary syndrome. The symptoms of premature ovarian insufficiency are similar to those of normal menopause, including hot flushes, night sweats, infertility, secondary amenorrhoea, raised FSH and LH levels, and low oestradiol.

      Management of premature ovarian insufficiency involves hormone replacement therapy (HRT) or a combined oral contraceptive pill until the age of the average menopause, which is 51 years. It is important to note that HRT does not provide contraception in case spontaneous ovarian activity resumes. Early diagnosis and management of premature ovarian insufficiency can help alleviate symptoms and improve quality of life for affected women.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
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  • Question 20 - A 25-year-old woman has a Nexplanon implanted on day 20 of her 30...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman has a Nexplanon implanted on day 20 of her 30 day cycle. When can she trust the Nexplanon to prevent pregnancy?

      Your Answer: Immediately

      Correct Answer: After 7 days

      Explanation:

      Contraceptives – Time to become effective (if not used on the first day of period):
      Immediate: IUD
      2 days: Progestin-only pill (POP)
      7 days: Combined oral contraceptive (COC), injection, implant, intrauterine system (IUS)

      Implanon and Nexplanon are subdermal contraceptive implants that slowly release the progestogen hormone etonogestrel to prevent ovulation and thicken cervical mucus. Nexplanon is the newer version and has a redesigned applicator to prevent deep insertions and is radiopaque for easier location. It is highly effective with a failure rate of 0.07/100 women-years and lasts for 3 years. It does not contain estrogen, making it suitable for women with a past history of thromboembolism or migraine. It can be inserted immediately after a termination of pregnancy. However, a trained professional is needed for insertion and removal, and additional contraceptive methods are required for the first 7 days if not inserted on days 1 to 5 of a woman’s menstrual cycle.

      The main disadvantage of these implants is irregular and heavy bleeding, which can be managed with a co-prescription of the combined oral contraceptive pill. Other adverse effects include headache, nausea, and breast pain. Enzyme-inducing drugs such as certain antiepileptic and rifampicin may reduce the efficacy of Nexplanon, and women should switch to a method unaffected by enzyme-inducing drugs or use additional contraception until 28 days after stopping the treatment.

      There are also contraindications for using these implants, such as ischaemic heart disease/stroke, unexplained, suspicious vaginal bleeding, past breast cancer, severe liver cirrhosis, and liver cancer. Current breast cancer is a UKMEC 4 condition, which represents an unacceptable risk if the contraceptive method is used. Overall, these implants are a highly effective and long-acting form of contraception, but they require careful consideration of the potential risks and contraindications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
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  • Question 21 - A 35-year-old woman who is 36 weeks pregnant arrives at the Emergency Department...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman who is 36 weeks pregnant arrives at the Emergency Department complaining of severe and constant abdominal pain. She experienced some vaginal bleeding an hour ago, but it has mostly subsided, leaving only a small amount of bloody discharge. Upon obstetric examination, her uterus is firm, woody, and extremely tender. She appears pale and clammy, with a pulse of 102 bpm and a blood pressure of 98/65 mmHg. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Uterine rupture

      Correct Answer: Placental abruption

      Explanation:

      Antepartum hemorrhage can be caused by placental abruption, which may result in vaginal bleeding, abdominal pain, and a firm or woody uterus. In some cases, the bleeding may be concealed, and the fetus may be difficult to feel or hear. It is important to note that young and healthy women may not show signs of shock until they have lost a significant amount of blood. Contractions during labor typically come in waves and do not cause a woody or tender uterus or low blood pressure. Placenta previa is another common cause of antepartum hemorrhage, but it is usually painless.

      Placental Abruption: Causes, Symptoms, and Risk Factors

      Placental abruption is a condition that occurs when the placenta separates from the uterine wall, leading to maternal bleeding into the space between them. Although the exact cause of this condition is unknown, certain factors have been associated with it, including proteinuric hypertension, cocaine use, multiparity, maternal trauma, and increasing maternal age. Placental abruption is not a common occurrence, affecting approximately 1 in 200 pregnancies.

      The clinical features of placental abruption include shock that is disproportionate to the visible blood loss, constant pain, a tender and tense uterus, and a normal lie and presentation of the fetus. The fetal heart may be absent or distressed, and there may be coagulation problems. It is important to be aware of other conditions that may present with similar symptoms, such as pre-eclampsia, disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC), and anuria.

      In summary, placental abruption is a serious condition that can have significant consequences for both the mother and the fetus. Understanding the risk factors and symptoms of this condition is important for early detection and appropriate management.

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      • Reproductive Medicine
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  • Question 22 - A 19-year-old visits her GP the day after having unprotected sex and requests...

    Correct

    • A 19-year-old visits her GP the day after having unprotected sex and requests emergency contraception to prevent pregnancy. After a negative pregnancy test, what is the next best course of action for the GP to take?

      Your Answer: Levonorgestrel

      Explanation:

      When taken correctly, the pill is an effective method of preventing pregnancy, but it cannot prevent implantation if taken after engaging in unprotected sexual intercourse.

      Emergency contraception is available in the UK through two methods: emergency hormonal contraception and intrauterine device (IUD). Emergency hormonal contraception includes two types of pills: levonorgestrel and ulipristal. Levonorgestrel works by stopping ovulation and inhibiting implantation, while ulipristal primarily inhibits ovulation. Levonorgestrel should be taken as soon as possible after unprotected sexual intercourse, within 72 hours, and is 84% effective when used within this time frame. The dose should be doubled for those with a BMI over 26 or weight over 70kg. Ulipristal should be taken within 120 hours of intercourse and may reduce the effectiveness of hormonal contraception. The most effective method of emergency contraception is the copper IUD, which can be inserted within 5 days of unprotected intercourse or up to 5 days after the likely ovulation date. It may inhibit fertilization or implantation and is 99% effective regardless of where it is used in the cycle. Prophylactic antibiotics may be given if the patient is at high risk of sexually transmitted infection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
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  • Question 23 - A 27-year-old woman has been given a single dose of 1.5mg LevonelleTM (levonorgestrel)...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old woman has been given a single dose of 1.5mg LevonelleTM (levonorgestrel) as emergency contraception after having unprotected sexual intercourse (UPSI) 24 hours ago. She wants to start taking oral combined hormonal contraception (‘the pill’) as ongoing contraception immediately as she anticipates having further UPSI. What is the appropriate time to begin ongoing contraception after taking emergency contraception?

      Your Answer: After 7 days

      Correct Answer: Immediately

      Explanation:

      According to FSRH guidelines, it is acceptable to begin hormonal contraception immediately after taking levonorgestrel (Levonelle) for emergency contraception. It is important to wait 5 days after taking ulipristal acetate (Ella-OneTM) before starting ongoing hormonal contraception. Waiting until the start of the next menstrual period is not necessary for quick-starting hormonal contraception, which can be done if the patient prefers it or if there is ongoing risk of pregnancy. While a negative pregnancy test at 21 days post-UPSI can reasonably exclude pregnancy, it is still recommended to take a pregnancy test 21 days after the episode of UPSI in case emergency contraception has failed.

      Emergency contraception is available in the UK through two methods: emergency hormonal contraception and intrauterine device (IUD). Emergency hormonal contraception includes two types of pills: levonorgestrel and ulipristal. Levonorgestrel works by stopping ovulation and inhibiting implantation, while ulipristal primarily inhibits ovulation. Levonorgestrel should be taken as soon as possible after unprotected sexual intercourse, within 72 hours, and is 84% effective when used within this time frame. The dose should be doubled for those with a BMI over 26 or weight over 70kg. Ulipristal should be taken within 120 hours of intercourse and may reduce the effectiveness of hormonal contraception. The most effective method of emergency contraception is the copper IUD, which can be inserted within 5 days of unprotected intercourse or up to 5 days after the likely ovulation date. It may inhibit fertilization or implantation and is 99% effective regardless of where it is used in the cycle. Prophylactic antibiotics may be given if the patient is at high risk of sexually transmitted infection.

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      • Reproductive Medicine
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  • Question 24 - A 27-year-old woman who has never given birth presents to your clinic seeking...

    Correct

    • A 27-year-old woman who has never given birth presents to your clinic seeking contraception. She complains of experiencing extremely heavy menstrual periods and desires a long-term contraceptive option that can alleviate her heavy bleeding. What is the most appropriate contraceptive method for this patient?

      Your Answer: Intrauterine system

      Explanation:

      The Mirena coil is a contraceptive method that reduces the duration and intensity of periods and can be used for an extended period.

      Intrauterine contraceptive devices include copper IUDs and levonorgestrel-releasing IUS. Both are over 99% effective. The IUD prevents fertilization by decreasing sperm motility, while the IUS prevents endometrial proliferation and thickens cervical mucus. Potential problems include heavier periods with IUDs and initial bleeding with the IUS. There is a small risk of uterine perforation, ectopic pregnancy, and infection. New IUS systems, such as Jaydess® and Kyleena®, have smaller frames and less levonorgestrel, resulting in lower serum levels and different rates of amenorrhea.

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      • Reproductive Medicine
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  • Question 25 - A 28-year-old woman is experiencing dysuria, dyspareunia, and abnormal vaginal discharge during her...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman is experiencing dysuria, dyspareunia, and abnormal vaginal discharge during her 16th week of pregnancy. She is concerned as she has had unprotected sex with multiple partners. Her medical history is unremarkable except for a penicillin allergy. Nucleic acid amplification tests (NAAT) confirm a Chlamydia infection. What is the recommended treatment?

      Your Answer: Doxycycline

      Correct Answer: Azithromycin

      Explanation:

      Azithromycin or erythromycin are appropriate options for treating Chlamydia in a pregnant patient who is allergic to penicillin. In this case, the patient’s NAAT testing confirmed the presence of Chlamydia, but doxycycline is contraindicated due to the patient’s pregnancy. Amoxicillin is not an option due to the patient’s penicillin allergy. Ceftriaxone is not indicated for Chlamydia, and doxycycline is contraindicated in pregnancy. Therefore, azithromycin or erythromycin are the most appropriate treatment options.

      Chlamydia is a common sexually transmitted infection caused by Chlamydia trachomatis. It is prevalent in the UK, with approximately 1 in 10 young women affected. The incubation period is around 7-21 days, but many cases are asymptomatic. Symptoms in women include cervicitis, discharge, and bleeding, while men may experience urethral discharge and dysuria. Complications can include epididymitis, pelvic inflammatory disease, and infertility.

      Traditional cell culture is no longer widely used for diagnosis, with nuclear acid amplification tests (NAATs) being the preferred method. Testing can be done using urine, vulvovaginal swab, or cervical swab. Screening is recommended for sexually active individuals aged 15-24 years, and opportunistic testing is common.

      Doxycycline is the first-line treatment for Chlamydia, with azithromycin as an alternative if doxycycline is contraindicated or not tolerated. Pregnant women may be treated with azithromycin, erythromycin, or amoxicillin. Patients diagnosed with Chlamydia should be offered partner notification services, with all contacts since the onset of symptoms or within the last six months being notified and offered treatment.

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      • Reproductive Medicine
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  • Question 26 - A 27-year-old woman gives birth vaginally at 38 weeks gestation and experiences a...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old woman gives birth vaginally at 38 weeks gestation and experiences a physiological third stage of labor. She subsequently loses 700ml of blood and medical assistance is requested. An ABCDE assessment is conducted, and the patient is given warmed IV crystalloid fluids after obtaining IV access. The uterus is compressed to stimulate contractions, and a catheter is inserted, but the bleeding persists. The patient has a history of asthma but no known coagulopathy. What is the most appropriate course of action for her management?

      Your Answer: IV carboprost

      Correct Answer: IV oxytocin

      Explanation:

      The appropriate medical treatments for postpartum haemorrhage caused by uterine atony are oxytocin, ergometrine, carboprost, and misoprostol. In this scenario, the patient has experienced a blood loss of over 500 ml after delivery, indicating PPH as the likely cause, with uterine atony being the most probable reason. The first steps in managing PPH involve an ABCDE approach, including IV access, warm crystalloid administration, uterine fundus palpation, and catheterisation to prevent bladder distention. If these measures fail, medical therapy is initiated, starting with IV oxytocin. IM carboprost is not the correct choice as it requires senior approval and can worsen bronchoconstriction in patients with asthma. IV carboprost is also not recommended as it can cause bronchospasm, hypertension, and fever, and requires senior approval. IV tocolytics are not appropriate as they suppress uterine contractions, which would exacerbate the problem in this case. Therefore, agents that stimulate uterine contraction are given to manage PPH caused by uterine atony.

      Understanding Postpartum Haemorrhage

      Postpartum haemorrhage (PPH) is a condition where a woman experiences blood loss of more than 500 ml after giving birth vaginally. It can be classified as primary or secondary. Primary PPH occurs within 24 hours after delivery and is caused by the 4 Ts: tone, trauma, tissue, and thrombin. The most common cause is uterine atony. Risk factors for primary PPH include previous PPH, prolonged labour, pre-eclampsia, increased maternal age, emergency Caesarean section, and placenta praevia.

      In managing PPH, it is important to involve senior staff immediately and follow the ABC approach. This includes two peripheral cannulae, lying the woman flat, blood tests, and commencing a warmed crystalloid infusion. Mechanical interventions such as rubbing up the fundus and catheterisation are also done. Medical interventions include IV oxytocin, ergometrine, carboprost, and misoprostol. Surgical options such as intrauterine balloon tamponade, B-Lynch suture, ligation of uterine arteries, and hysterectomy may be considered if medical options fail to control the bleeding.

      Secondary PPH occurs between 24 hours to 6 weeks after delivery and is typically due to retained placental tissue or endometritis. It is important to understand the causes and risk factors of PPH to prevent and manage this life-threatening emergency effectively.

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      • Reproductive Medicine
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  • Question 27 - You are concerned that your patient may be experiencing premature menopause due to...

    Incorrect

    • You are concerned that your patient may be experiencing premature menopause due to her irregular menstrual cycle and hot flashes. Which of the following situations would provide evidence for this diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Patient age 41 with low FSH/LH and low oestradiol

      Correct Answer: Patient age 39 with raised FSH/LH and low oestradiol

      Explanation:

      Premature menopause is characterized by irregular menstrual cycles occurring before the age of 45, along with elevated FSH/LH levels and low oestradiol levels in blood tests. The pituitary gland releases more hormones in an attempt to stimulate the failing ovary to produce oestrogen, resulting in a negative feedback loop. Therefore, options 1, 3, 4, and 5 are incorrect. Option 5 depicts primary pituitary failure.

      Premature Ovarian Insufficiency: Causes and Management

      Premature ovarian insufficiency is a condition where menopausal symptoms and elevated gonadotrophin levels occur before the age of 40. It affects approximately 1 in 100 women and can be caused by various factors such as idiopathic reasons, family history, bilateral oophorectomy, radiotherapy, chemotherapy, infection, autoimmune disorders, and resistant ovary syndrome. The symptoms of premature ovarian insufficiency are similar to those of normal menopause, including hot flushes, night sweats, infertility, secondary amenorrhoea, raised FSH and LH levels, and low oestradiol.

      Management of premature ovarian insufficiency involves hormone replacement therapy (HRT) or a combined oral contraceptive pill until the age of the average menopause, which is 51 years. It is important to note that HRT does not provide contraception in case spontaneous ovarian activity resumes. Early diagnosis and management of premature ovarian insufficiency can help alleviate symptoms and improve quality of life for affected women.

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      • Reproductive Medicine
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  • Question 28 - A 25-year-old woman presents to your clinic seeking the combined oral contraceptive pill...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman presents to your clinic seeking the combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP). She has recently started dating someone new and wants to begin taking the COCP before becoming sexually active with him. She is currently on day 10 of her 28-day menstrual cycle. After taking a detailed medical history, you decide to prescribe Microgynon (COCP).

      The patient requests to start taking the pill immediately and inquires about any additional precautions she should take.

      Your Answer: Use condoms until next period

      Correct Answer: Use condoms for 7 days

      Explanation:

      If the COC is initiated on the first day of the menstrual cycle, it becomes effective immediately. However, if it is started on any other day, additional contraception such as condoms should be used for the first 7 days. The injection, implant, IUS, and POP require 7 days to become effective, while the IUD is effective immediately upon insertion.

      Counselling for Women Considering the Combined Oral Contraceptive Pill

      Women who are considering taking the combined oral contraceptive pill (COC) should receive counselling on the potential harms and benefits of the pill. The COC is highly effective if taken correctly, with a success rate of over 99%. However, there is a small risk of blood clots, heart attacks, and strokes, as well as an increased risk of breast and cervical cancer.

      In addition to discussing the potential risks and benefits, women should also receive advice on how to take the pill. If the COC is started within the first 5 days of the menstrual cycle, there is no need for additional contraception. However, if it is started at any other point in the cycle, alternative contraception should be used for the first 7 days. Women should take the pill at the same time every day and should be aware that intercourse during the pill-free period is only safe if the next pack is started on time.

      There have been recent changes to the guidelines for taking the COC. While it was previously recommended to take the pill for 21 days and then stop for 7 days to mimic menstruation, it is now recommended to discuss tailored regimes with women. This is because there is no medical benefit to having a withdrawal bleed, and options include never having a pill-free interval or taking three 21-day packs back-to-back before having a 4 or 7 day break.

      Women should also be informed of situations where the efficacy of the pill may be reduced, such as vomiting within 2 hours of taking the pill, medication that induces diarrhoea or vomiting, or taking liver enzyme-inducing drugs. It is also important to discuss sexually transmitted infections and precautions that should be taken with enzyme-inducing antibiotics such as rifampicin.

      Overall, counselling for women considering the COC should cover a range of topics to ensure that they are fully informed and able to make an informed decision about their contraceptive options.

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      • Reproductive Medicine
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  • Question 29 - A 65-year-old woman comes in with post-menopausal bleeding. Which is NOT associated with...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old woman comes in with post-menopausal bleeding. Which is NOT associated with an increased risk of endometrial cancer?

      Your Answer: Late menopause

      Correct Answer: Past history of combined oral contraceptive pill use

      Explanation:

      The use of combined oral contraceptive pill is associated with a reduced risk of endometrial cancer.

      Endometrial cancer is a type of cancer that is commonly found in women who have gone through menopause, but it can also occur in around 25% of cases before menopause. The prognosis for this type of cancer is usually good due to early detection. There are several risk factors associated with endometrial cancer, including obesity, nulliparity, early menarche, late menopause, unopposed estrogen, diabetes mellitus, tamoxifen, polycystic ovarian syndrome, and hereditary non-polyposis colorectal carcinoma. Postmenopausal bleeding is the most common symptom of endometrial cancer, which is usually slight and intermittent initially before becoming more heavy. Pain is not common and typically signifies extensive disease, while vaginal discharge is unusual.

      When investigating endometrial cancer, women who are 55 years or older and present with postmenopausal bleeding should be referred using the suspected cancer pathway. The first-line investigation is trans-vaginal ultrasound, which has a high negative predictive value for a normal endometrial thickness (< 4 mm). Hysteroscopy with endometrial biopsy is also commonly used for investigation. The management of localized disease involves total abdominal hysterectomy with bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy, while patients with high-risk disease may have postoperative radiotherapy. Progestogen therapy is sometimes used in frail elderly women who are not considered suitable for surgery. It is important to note that the combined oral contraceptive pill and smoking are protective against endometrial cancer.

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      • Reproductive Medicine
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  • Question 30 - A 27-year-old female patient visits her general practitioner seeking information on emergency contraception....

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old female patient visits her general practitioner seeking information on emergency contraception. She engaged in unprotected sexual activity with a male partner a week ago. The patient has a consistent 28-day menstrual cycle and believes that today is the 17th day of her current cycle. What options are available for emergency contraception in this case?

      Your Answer: Norethisterone

      Correct Answer: Copper intrauterine device

      Explanation:

      The copper intrauterine device is the only suitable method for this patient as it can be used as emergency contraception if inserted within 5 days of unprotected sexual intercourse or within 5 days of the estimated ovulation date, whichever is later. As the patient has a regular 28-day cycle and is currently at day 17, she is within the 5-day window for fitting of the IUD. Levonorgestrel, a tablet used for emergency contraception, would not be suitable as it must be taken within 72 hours of unprotected sexual intercourse. The Mirena intrauterine system is a hormonal device used for regular contraception but cannot be used as emergency contraception. Norethisterone is a drug used for dysfunctional uterine bleeding and period delay but not for emergency contraception.

      Emergency contraception is available in the UK through two methods: emergency hormonal contraception and intrauterine device (IUD). Emergency hormonal contraception includes two types of pills: levonorgestrel and ulipristal. Levonorgestrel works by stopping ovulation and inhibiting implantation, while ulipristal primarily inhibits ovulation. Levonorgestrel should be taken as soon as possible after unprotected sexual intercourse, within 72 hours, and is 84% effective when used within this time frame. The dose should be doubled for those with a BMI over 26 or weight over 70kg. Ulipristal should be taken within 120 hours of intercourse and may reduce the effectiveness of hormonal contraception. The most effective method of emergency contraception is the copper IUD, which can be inserted within 5 days of unprotected intercourse or up to 5 days after the likely ovulation date. It may inhibit fertilization or implantation and is 99% effective regardless of where it is used in the cycle. Prophylactic antibiotics may be given if the patient is at high risk of sexually transmitted infection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
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