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  • Question 1 - A 67-year-old man arrives at the emergency department complaining of acute abdominal pain...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old man arrives at the emergency department complaining of acute abdominal pain and diarrhoea that started 3 hours ago. Upon examination, his pulse is 105 bpm, blood pressure is 98/70 mmHg, and temperature is 37.5 ºC. The abdominal examination reveals diffuse tenderness with rebound and guarding. The X-ray shows thumbprinting, leading you to suspect that he may have ischaemic colitis. Which specific area is the most probable site of involvement?

      Your Answer: Ileocecal junction

      Correct Answer: Splenic flexure

      Explanation:

      Ischemic colitis is a condition where blood flow to a part of the large intestine is temporarily reduced, often due to a blockage or hypo-perfusion. While any part of the colon can be affected, it most commonly affects the left side. The hepatic flexure, located on the right side of the colon, is less likely to be involved as it has a good blood supply from the superior mesenteric artery (SMA). The ileocecal junction is also less likely to be affected as it has a good blood supply from the ileocolic artery, a branch of the SMA. The splenic flexure, located between the left colon and the transverse colon, is the most likely area to be affected by ischaemic colitis as it is a watershed area supplied by the inferior mesenteric artery. The sigmoid colon, supplied by the sigmoidal branches of the inferior mesenteric artery, is less likely to be affected. The recto-sigmoid junction is also a watershed area and vulnerable to ischaemic colitis, but it is less common than ischaemia at the splenic flexure.

      Ischaemia to the lower gastrointestinal tract can result in acute mesenteric ischaemia, chronic mesenteric ischaemia, and ischaemic colitis. Common predisposing factors include increasing age, atrial fibrillation, other causes of emboli, cardiovascular disease risk factors, and cocaine use. Common features include abdominal pain, rectal bleeding, diarrhea, fever, and elevated white blood cell count with lactic acidosis. CT is the investigation of choice. Acute mesenteric ischaemia is typically caused by an embolism and requires urgent surgery. Chronic mesenteric ischaemia presents with intermittent abdominal pain. Ischaemic colitis is an acute but transient compromise in blood flow to the large bowel and may require surgery in a minority of cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 2 - A 36-year-old woman is found to have an aggressive caecal adenocarcinoma. Her sister...

    Incorrect

    • A 36-year-old woman is found to have an aggressive caecal adenocarcinoma. Her sister passed away from the same disease at 39 years of age. Her mother died from endometrial cancer at the age of 42. What genetic abnormality is the most probable cause of this family's cancer history?

      Your Answer: Familial adenopolypomatosis coli

      Correct Answer: Mutation of mismatch repair genes

      Explanation:

      Microsatellite instability of DNA repair genes causes Lynch syndrome, which is identified by the presence of aggressive colon cancer on the right side and endometrial cancer.

      Colorectal cancer can be classified into three types: sporadic, hereditary non-polyposis colorectal carcinoma (HNPCC), and familial adenomatous polyposis (FAP). Sporadic colon cancer is believed to be caused by a series of genetic mutations, including allelic loss of the APC gene, activation of the K-ras oncogene, and deletion of p53 and DCC tumor suppressor genes. HNPCC, which is an autosomal dominant condition, is the most common form of inherited colon cancer. It is caused by mutations in genes involved in DNA mismatch repair, leading to microsatellite instability. The most common genes affected are MSH2 and MLH1. Patients with HNPCC are also at a higher risk of other cancers, such as endometrial cancer. The Amsterdam criteria are sometimes used to aid diagnosis of HNPCC. FAP is a rare autosomal dominant condition that leads to the formation of hundreds of polyps by the age of 30-40 years. It is caused by a mutation in the APC gene. Patients with FAP are also at risk of duodenal tumors. A variant of FAP called Gardner’s syndrome can also feature osteomas of the skull and mandible, retinal pigmentation, thyroid carcinoma, and epidermoid cysts on the skin. Genetic testing can be done to diagnose HNPCC and FAP, and patients with FAP generally have a total colectomy with ileo-anal pouch formation in their twenties.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 3 - A 65-year-old man has been diagnosed with colorectal cancer. He underwent an open...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man has been diagnosed with colorectal cancer. He underwent an open right hemicolectomy to remove the tumor. The pathology report indicates that the cancer has invaded the muscularis propria of the bowel wall but has not reached the serosal layer. Out of the 20 lymph nodes removed, 3 were positive for metastatic disease. A PET scan revealed no distant metastases. What is the TNM clinical classification of this patient's colorectal cancer?

      Your Answer: T1 N1 M0

      Correct Answer: T2 N1 M0

      Explanation:

      The TNM classification system for colon cancer includes assessment of the primary tumor (T), regional lymph nodes (N), and distant metastasis (M). The T category ranges from TX (primary tumor cannot be assessed) to T4b (tumor directly invades or adheres to other organs or structures). The N category ranges from NX (regional lymph nodes cannot be assessed) to N2b (metastasis in 7 or more regional lymph nodes). The M category ranges from M0 (no distant metastasis) to M1b (metastases in more than 1 organ/site or the peritoneum).

      Colorectal cancer referral guidelines were updated by NICE in 2015. Patients who are 40 years or older with unexplained weight loss and abdominal pain, those who are 50 years or older with unexplained rectal bleeding, and those who are 60 years or older with iron deficiency anaemia or a change in bowel habit should be referred urgently to colorectal services for investigation. Additionally, patients with positive results for occult blood in their faeces should also be referred urgently.

      An urgent referral should be considered if there is a rectal or abdominal mass, an unexplained anal mass or anal ulceration, or if patients under 50 years old have rectal bleeding and any of the following unexplained symptoms or findings: abdominal pain, change in bowel habit, weight loss, or iron deficiency anaemia.

      The NHS offers a national screening programme for colorectal cancer every two years to all men and women aged 60 to 74 years in England and 50 to 74 years in Scotland. Patients aged over 74 years may request screening. Eligible patients are sent Faecal Immunochemical Test (FIT) tests through the post. FIT is a type of faecal occult blood test that uses antibodies to detect and quantify the amount of human blood in a single stool sample. Patients with abnormal results are offered a colonoscopy.

      The FIT test is also recommended for patients with new symptoms who do not meet the 2-week criteria listed above. For example, patients who are 50 years or older with unexplained abdominal pain or weight loss, those under 60 years old with changes in their bowel habit or iron deficiency anaemia, and those who are 60 years or older who have anaemia even in the absence of iron deficiency.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 4 - A 50-year-old man arrives at the emergency department with complaints of a high...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man arrives at the emergency department with complaints of a high fever and flank pain. He reports experiencing mild burning during urination for the past 5 days, but his urine output has decreased since the onset of fever yesterday. The patient has a history of poorly controlled type II diabetes mellitus.

      Based on the probable diagnosis, which structure is at the highest risk of co-infection?

      Your Answer: Spleen

      Correct Answer: Psoas muscle

      Explanation:

      The woman in the scenario is likely suffering from pyelonephritis, which is a result of a UTI. Her poorly controlled blood sugar levels due to diabetes make her more susceptible to recurrent UTIs. Since the kidneys are retroperitoneal organs, the infection can spread to other organs within that space. The psoas muscle, located at the back, can become co-infected with pyelonephritis, leading to the formation of an abscess. The symptoms of a psoas abscess may be minimal, and an MRI abdopelvis is the best imaging technique to detect it. Peritoneal structures are less likely to become infected, and peritonitis is usually caused by infected ascitic fluid, leading to Spontaneous Bacterial Peritonitis (SBP).

      The retroperitoneal structures are those that are located behind the peritoneum, which is the membrane that lines the abdominal cavity. These structures include the duodenum (2nd, 3rd, and 4th parts), ascending and descending colon, kidneys, ureters, aorta, and inferior vena cava. They are situated in the back of the abdominal cavity, close to the spine. In contrast, intraperitoneal structures are those that are located within the peritoneal cavity, such as the stomach, duodenum (1st part), jejunum, ileum, transverse colon, and sigmoid colon. It is important to note that the retroperitoneal structures are not well demonstrated in the diagram as the posterior aspect has been removed, but they are still significant in terms of their location and function.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 5 - Sophie, a 19-year-old girl with type 1 diabetes mellitus, arrives at the emergency...

    Incorrect

    • Sophie, a 19-year-old girl with type 1 diabetes mellitus, arrives at the emergency department with confusion, vomiting, and abdominal pain. Upon examination, she displays tachycardia and tachypnea. The medical team orders various tests, including an arterial blood gas.

      The results are as follows:
      pH 7.29 mmol/l
      K+ 6.0 mmol/l
      Glucose 15mmol/l

      The doctors initiate treatment for diabetic ketoacidosis.

      What ECG abnormality can be observed in relation to Sophie's potassium level?

      Your Answer: U waves and T wave depression

      Correct Answer: Tall tented T waves and flattened P waves

      Explanation:

      When a person has hyperkalaemia, their blood has an excess of potassium which can lead to cardiac arrhythmias. One of the common ECG abnormalities seen in hyperkalaemia is tall tented T waves. Other possible ECG changes include wide QRS complexes and flattened P waves. In contrast, hypokalaemia can cause T wave depression, U waves, and tall P waves on an ECG. Delta waves are typically seen in patients with Wolfe-Parkinson-White syndrome.

      ECG Findings in Hyperkalaemia

      Hyperkalaemia is a condition characterized by high levels of potassium in the blood. This condition can have serious consequences on the heart, leading to abnormal ECG findings. The ECG findings in hyperkalaemia include peaked or ‘tall-tented’ T waves, loss of P waves, broad QRS complexes, sinusoidal wave pattern, and ventricular fibrillation.

      The first ECG finding in hyperkalaemia is the appearance of peaked or ‘tall-tented’ T waves. This is followed by the loss of P waves, which are the small waves that represent atrial depolarization. The QRS complexes, which represent ventricular depolarization, become broad and prolonged. The sinusoidal wave pattern is a characteristic finding in severe hyperkalaemia, where the ECG tracing appears as a series of undulating waves. Finally, ventricular fibrillation, a life-threatening arrhythmia, can occur in severe hyperkalaemia.

      In summary, hyperkalaemia can have serious consequences on the heart, leading to abnormal ECG findings. These findings include peaked or ‘tall-tented’ T waves, loss of P waves, broad QRS complexes, sinusoidal wave pattern, and ventricular fibrillation. It is important to recognize these ECG findings in hyperkalaemia as they can guide appropriate management and prevent life-threatening complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 6 - A 75-year-old woman with caecal carcinoma is having a right hemicolectomy done via...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old woman with caecal carcinoma is having a right hemicolectomy done via a transverse incision. During the procedure, the incision is extended medially by dividing the rectus sheath, and a brisk arterial hemorrhage occurs. What vessel is the source of the damage?

      Your Answer: Inferior vesical artery

      Correct Answer: External iliac artery

      Explanation:

      The damaged vessel is the epigastric artery, which has its origin in the external iliac artery (as shown below).

      The Inferior Epigastric Artery: Origin and Pathway

      The inferior epigastric artery is a blood vessel that originates from the external iliac artery just above the inguinal ligament. It runs along the medial edge of the deep inguinal ring and then continues upwards to lie behind the rectus abdominis muscle. This artery is responsible for supplying blood to the lower abdominal wall and pelvic region. Its pathway is illustrated in the image below.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 7 - A 60-year-old man comes to the hospital complaining of intense upper abdominal pain,...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old man comes to the hospital complaining of intense upper abdominal pain, fever, and vomiting. After diagnosis, he is found to have acute pancreatitis. Among the liver function tests, which one is significantly elevated in cases of pancreatitis?

      Your Answer: Alanine aminotransferase (ALT)

      Correct Answer: Amylase

      Explanation:

      Acute pancreatitis is a condition that is primarily caused by gallstones and alcohol consumption in the UK. However, there are other factors that can contribute to the development of this condition. A popular mnemonic used to remember these factors is GET SMASHED, which stands for gallstones, ethanol, trauma, steroids, mumps, autoimmune diseases, scorpion venom, hypertriglyceridaemia, hyperchylomicronaemia, hypercalcaemia, hypothermia, ERCP, and certain drugs. It is important to note that pancreatitis is seven times more common in patients taking mesalazine than sulfasalazine. CT scans can show diffuse parenchymal enlargement with oedema and indistinct margins in patients with acute pancreatitis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 8 - A 56-year-old accountant presents to the hospital with severe abdominal pain that has...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old accountant presents to the hospital with severe abdominal pain that has been ongoing for more than 3 hours. The pain is sharp and extends to his back, and he rates it as 8/10 on the pain scale. The pain subsides when he sits up. During the examination, he appears restless, cold, and clammy, with a pulse rate of 124 bpm and a blood pressure of 102/65. You notice some purple discoloration in his right flank, and his bowel sounds are normal. According to his social history, he has a history of excessive alcohol consumption. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Acute appendicitis

      Correct Answer: Acute pancreatitis

      Explanation:

      Pancreatitis is the most probable diagnosis due to several reasons. Firstly, the patient’s history indicates that he is an alcoholic, which is a risk factor for pancreatitis. Secondly, the severe and radiating pain to the back is a typical symptom of pancreatitis. Additionally, the patient shows signs of jaundice and circulation collapse, with a purple discoloration known as Grey Turner’s sign caused by retroperitoneal hemorrhage. On the other hand, appendicitis pain is usually colicky, localized in the lower right quadrant, and moves up centrally. Although circulation collapse may indicate intestinal obstruction, the absence of vomiting/nausea makes it less likely. Chronic kidney disease can be ruled out as it presents with symptoms such as weight loss, tiredness, bone pain, and itchy skin, which are not present in this acute presentation. Lastly, if there was a significant history of recent surgery, ileus and obstruction would be more likely, and the absence of bowel sounds would support this diagnosis.

      Acute pancreatitis is a condition that is primarily caused by gallstones and alcohol consumption in the UK. However, there are other factors that can contribute to the development of this condition. A popular mnemonic used to remember these factors is GET SMASHED, which stands for gallstones, ethanol, trauma, steroids, mumps, autoimmune diseases, scorpion venom, hypertriglyceridaemia, hyperchylomicronaemia, hypercalcaemia, hypothermia, ERCP, and certain drugs. It is important to note that pancreatitis is seven times more common in patients taking mesalazine than sulfasalazine. CT scans can show diffuse parenchymal enlargement with oedema and indistinct margins in patients with acute pancreatitis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 9 - An 80-year-old woman visits her doctor with complaints of moderate upper abdominal pain...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old woman visits her doctor with complaints of moderate upper abdominal pain that is slightly relieved by eating. Despite taking ibuprofen, she has not experienced any relief. The doctor suspects a duodenal peptic ulcer and schedules an oesophagogastroduodenoscopy (OGD). Based on the location of the ulcer, which organ is derived from the same embryological region of the gut?

      Your Answer: Proximal transverse colon

      Correct Answer: Oesophagus

      Explanation:

      The major papilla located in the 2nd part of the duodenum marks the division between the foregut and the midgut, with the foregut encompassing structures from the mouth to the 2nd part of the duodenum where peptic ulcers are commonly found. It should be noted that the kidneys are not derived from gut embryology, but rather from the ureteric bud.

      The Three Embryological Layers and their Corresponding Gastrointestinal Structures and Blood Supply

      The gastrointestinal system is a complex network of organs responsible for the digestion and absorption of nutrients. During embryonic development, the gastrointestinal system is formed from three distinct layers: the foregut, midgut, and hindgut. Each layer gives rise to specific structures and is supplied by a corresponding blood vessel.

      The foregut extends from the mouth to the proximal half of the duodenum and is supplied by the coeliac trunk. The midgut encompasses the distal half of the duodenum to the splenic flexure of the colon and is supplied by the superior mesenteric artery. Lastly, the hindgut includes the descending colon to the rectum and is supplied by the inferior mesenteric artery.

      Understanding the embryological origin and blood supply of the gastrointestinal system is crucial in diagnosing and treating gastrointestinal disorders. By identifying the specific structures and blood vessels involved, healthcare professionals can better target their interventions and improve patient outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 10 - A 40-year-old female comes to the clinic complaining of difficulty swallowing both solid...

    Correct

    • A 40-year-old female comes to the clinic complaining of difficulty swallowing both solid and liquid foods for the past 3 months. She denies any hoarseness of voice but reports having had pneumonia a month ago, which resolved with antibiotics. Upon examination, oesophageal manometry reveals absent peristalsis, increased lower sphincter tone, and incomplete relaxation of the lower sphincter during swallowing.

      What is the most probable diagnosis for this patient?

      Your Answer: Achalasia

      Explanation:

      The classic triad for achalasia includes loss of peristalsis, increased lower sphincter tone, and inadequate relaxation of the lower sphincter, which is evident on manometry. Dysphagia for both solid and liquid is also a common symptom of achalasia.

      Unlike achalasia, Barrett’s esophagus does not show any changes on manometry. However, it can be identified through the presence of intestinal metaplasia on endoscopy.

      Diffuse esophageal spasm is a motility disorder that does not affect lower esophageal sphincter pressure and relaxation during swallowing. Instead, manometry reveals repetitive high amplitude contractions.

      Hiatus hernia is typically associated with gastroesophageal reflux disease and does not show any abnormal findings on manometry.

      Understanding Dysphagia and its Causes

      Dysphagia, or difficulty in swallowing, can be caused by various conditions affecting the oesophagus, including cancer, oesophagitis, candidiasis, achalasia, pharyngeal pouch, systemic sclerosis, myasthenia gravis, and globus hystericus. These conditions have distinct features that can help in their diagnosis, such as weight loss and anorexia in oesophageal cancer, heartburn in oesophagitis, dysphagia of both liquids and solids in achalasia, and anxiety in globus hystericus. Dysphagia can also be classified as extrinsic, intrinsic, or neurological, depending on the underlying cause.

      To diagnose dysphagia, patients usually undergo an upper GI endoscopy, a full blood count, and fluoroscopic swallowing studies. Additional tests, such as ambulatory oesophageal pH and manometry studies, may be needed for specific conditions. It’s important to note that new-onset dysphagia is a red flag symptom that requires urgent endoscopy, regardless of age or other symptoms. By understanding the causes and features of dysphagia, healthcare professionals can provide timely and appropriate management for their patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 11 - A 25-year-old male with a history of Crohn's disease visits his gastroenterologist for...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old male with a history of Crohn's disease visits his gastroenterologist for a routine checkup. During the appointment, he inquires about the underlying cause of his condition. Which gene variations have been associated with Crohn's disease?

      Your Answer: COL1A1

      Correct Answer: NOD-2

      Explanation:

      The development of Crohn’s disease is connected to a genetic abnormality in the NOD-2 gene.

      Phenylketonuria is linked to the PKU mutation.

      Cystic fibrosis is associated with the CFTR mutation.

      Ehlers-Danlos syndrome is connected to the COL1A1 mutation.

      Understanding Crohn’s Disease

      Crohn’s disease is a type of inflammatory bowel disease that can affect any part of the digestive tract, from the mouth to the anus. The exact cause of Crohn’s disease is unknown, but there is a strong genetic component. Inflammation occurs in all layers of the affected area, which can lead to complications such as strictures, fistulas, and adhesions.

      Symptoms of Crohn’s disease typically appear in late adolescence or early adulthood and can include non-specific symptoms such as weight loss and lethargy, as well as more specific symptoms like diarrhea, abdominal pain, and perianal disease. Extra-intestinal features, such as arthritis, erythema nodosum, and osteoporosis, are also common in patients with Crohn’s disease.

      To diagnose Crohn’s disease, doctors may look for raised inflammatory markers, increased faecal calprotectin, anemia, and low levels of vitamin B12 and vitamin D. It’s important to note that Crohn’s disease shares some features with ulcerative colitis, another type of inflammatory bowel disease, but there are also important differences between the two conditions. Understanding the symptoms and diagnostic criteria for Crohn’s disease can help patients and healthcare providers manage this chronic condition more effectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 12 - A 25-year-old woman presents to the gastrointestinal clinic with a history of abdominal...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman presents to the gastrointestinal clinic with a history of abdominal bloating, diarrhoea, and fatigue for the past 6 months. She experiences severe cramps after most meals and struggles to focus on her work at the office.

      After conducting investigations, it is found that her tissue transglutaminases (TTG) are positive. What is a potential complication of the suspected underlying diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Pancreatitis

      Correct Answer: Hyposplenism

      Explanation:

      Hyposplenism is a possible complication of coeliac disease. The patient’s symptoms and positive tissue transglutaminases support the diagnosis of coeliac disease, which can lead to malabsorption of important nutrients like iron, folate, and vitamin B12. Hyposplenism may occur due to autoimmune processes and loss of lymphocyte recirculation caused by inflammation in the colon. However, hepatomegaly, pancreatitis, and polycythaemia are not associated with coeliac disease.

      Understanding Coeliac Disease

      Coeliac disease is an autoimmune disorder that affects approximately 1% of the UK population. It is caused by sensitivity to gluten, a protein found in wheat, barley, and rye. Repeated exposure to gluten leads to villous atrophy, which causes malabsorption. Coeliac disease is associated with various conditions, including dermatitis herpetiformis and autoimmune disorders such as type 1 diabetes mellitus and autoimmune hepatitis. It is strongly linked to HLA-DQ2 and HLA-DQ8.

      To diagnose coeliac disease, NICE recommends screening patients who exhibit signs and symptoms such as chronic or intermittent diarrhea, failure to thrive or faltering growth in children, persistent or unexplained gastrointestinal symptoms, prolonged fatigue, recurrent abdominal pain, sudden or unexpected weight loss, unexplained anemia, autoimmune thyroid disease, dermatitis herpetiformis, irritable bowel syndrome, type 1 diabetes, and first-degree relatives with coeliac disease.

      Complications of coeliac disease include anemia, hyposplenism, osteoporosis, osteomalacia, lactose intolerance, enteropathy-associated T-cell lymphoma of the small intestine, subfertility, and unfavorable pregnancy outcomes. In rare cases, it can lead to esophageal cancer and other malignancies.

      The diagnosis of coeliac disease is confirmed through a duodenal biopsy, which shows complete atrophy of the villi with flat mucosa and marked crypt hyperplasia, intraepithelial lymphocytosis, and dense mixed inflammatory infiltrate in the lamina propria. Treatment involves a lifelong gluten-free diet.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 13 - A 59-year-old male arrives at the emergency department complaining of severe abdominal pain,...

    Incorrect

    • A 59-year-old male arrives at the emergency department complaining of severe abdominal pain, vomiting, and swelling in the central abdomen.

      During his last visit to his family doctor two weeks ago, he experienced colicky abdominal pain and was diagnosed with gallstones after further testing. He was scheduled for an elective cholecystectomy in 8 weeks.

      The patient is administered pain relief and scheduled for an urgent abdominal X-ray (AXR).

      What is the most probable finding on the AXR that indicates a cholecystoenteric fistula?

      Your Answer: Air in the fundus of the stomach

      Correct Answer: Pneumobilia

      Explanation:

      The presence of air in the gallbladder and biliary tree on an abdominal X-ray is most likely caused by a cholecystoenteric fistula. This is a serious complication of gallstones, particularly those larger than 2 cm, and can result in symptoms of small bowel obstruction such as severe abdominal pain, vomiting, and abdominal distension. While pneumoperitoneum may also be present in cases of cholecystoenteric fistula, it is not a specific finding and can be caused by other factors that weaken or tear hollow viscus organs. On the other hand, the presence of an appendicolith, a small calcified stone in the appendix, is highly indicative of appendicitis in patients with right iliac fossa pain and other associated symptoms, but is not seen in cases of cholecystoenteric fistula on an abdominal X-ray.

      Gallstones are a common condition, with up to 24% of women and 12% of men affected. Local infection and cholecystitis may develop in up to 30% of cases, and 12% of patients undergoing surgery will have stones in the common bile duct. The majority of gallstones are of mixed composition, with pure cholesterol stones accounting for 20% of cases. Symptoms typically include colicky right upper quadrant pain that worsens after fatty meals. Diagnosis is usually made through abdominal ultrasound and liver function tests, with magnetic resonance cholangiography or intraoperative imaging used to confirm suspected bile duct stones. Treatment options include expectant management for asymptomatic gallstones, laparoscopic cholecystectomy for symptomatic gallstones, and surgical management for stones in the common bile duct. ERCP may be used to remove bile duct stones, but carries risks such as bleeding, duodenal perforation, cholangitis, and pancreatitis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 14 - Which hormone is primarily responsible for sodium-potassium exchange in the salivary ducts? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which hormone is primarily responsible for sodium-potassium exchange in the salivary ducts?

      Your Answer: Cholecystokinin

      Correct Answer: Aldosterone

      Explanation:

      The regulation of ion exchange in salivary glands is attributed to aldosterone. This hormone targets a pump that facilitates the exchange of sodium and potassium ions. Aldosterone is classified as a mineralocorticoid hormone and is produced in the zona glomerulosa of the adrenal gland.

      The parotid gland is located in front of and below the ear, overlying the mandibular ramus. Its salivary duct crosses the masseter muscle, pierces the buccinator muscle, and drains adjacent to the second upper molar tooth. The gland is traversed by several structures, including the facial nerve, external carotid artery, retromandibular vein, and auriculotemporal nerve. The gland is related to the masseter muscle, medial pterygoid muscle, superficial temporal and maxillary artery, facial nerve, stylomandibular ligament, posterior belly of the digastric muscle, sternocleidomastoid muscle, stylohyoid muscle, internal carotid artery, mastoid process, and styloid process. The gland is supplied by branches of the external carotid artery and drained by the retromandibular vein. Its lymphatic drainage is to the deep cervical nodes. The gland is innervated by the parasympathetic-secretomotor, sympathetic-superior cervical ganglion, and sensory-greater auricular nerve. Parasympathetic stimulation produces a water-rich, serous saliva, while sympathetic stimulation leads to the production of a low volume, enzyme-rich saliva.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 15 - A 2-year-old girl is brought to the emergency department with acute abdominal pain...

    Incorrect

    • A 2-year-old girl is brought to the emergency department with acute abdominal pain that is generalised across her abdomen. Her parents report that the pain comes and goes and that she has been pulling her legs up to her chest when she screams, which is unusual for her. They also mention that she has been off her feeds and that her stools appear redder. During the examination, a mass is felt in the abdomen in the right lower quadrant. The girl's vital signs are as follows: blood pressure- 50/40mmHg, pulse- 176bpm, respiratory rate-30 breaths per minute, 02 saturations- 99%. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Pyloric stenosis

      Correct Answer: Intussusception

      Explanation:

      The infant in this scenario is displaying symptoms of intussusception, including red current jelly stools and shock. Malrotation, which typically causes obstruction, can be ruled out as there is evidence of the passage of red stools. Meckel’s diverticulitis does not cause the infant to draw their knees up and is not typically associated with shock. Pyloric stenosis is characterized by projectile vomiting and not bloody stools. Acute appendicitis is not a likely diagnosis based on this presentation.

      Understanding Intussusception

      Intussusception is a medical condition where one part of the bowel folds into the lumen of the adjacent bowel, usually around the ileocecal region. This condition is most common in infants between 6-18 months old, with boys being affected twice as often as girls. Symptoms of intussusception include severe, crampy abdominal pain, inconsolable crying, vomiting, and bloodstained stool, which is a late sign. During a paroxysm, the infant will draw their knees up and turn pale, and a sausage-shaped mass may be felt in the right upper quadrant.

      To diagnose intussusception, ultrasound is now the preferred method of investigation, which may show a target-like mass. Treatment for intussusception involves reducing the bowel by air insufflation under radiological control, which is now widely used first-line compared to the traditional barium enema. If this method fails, or the child has signs of peritonitis, surgery is performed. Understanding the symptoms and treatment options for intussusception is crucial for parents and healthcare professionals to ensure prompt and effective management of this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 16 - A 72-year-old man comes to the clinic with a left groin swelling and...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old man comes to the clinic with a left groin swelling and reports experiencing moderate pain and discomfort. The diagnosis is an inguinal hernia, and he is scheduled for elective surgery to repair the defect. During the procedure, which nerve running through the inguinal canal is at risk of being damaged?

      Your Answer: Femoral nerve

      Correct Answer: Ilioinguinal nerve

      Explanation:

      The inguinal canal is a crucial anatomical structure that houses the spermatic cord in males and the ilioinguinal nerve in both genders. The ilioinguinal and iliohypogastric nerves stem from the L1 nerve root and run through the canal. The ilioinguinal nerve enters the canal via the abdominal muscles and exits through the external inguinal ring. It is primarily a sensory nerve that provides sensation to the upper medial thigh. If the nerve is damaged during hernia repair, patients may experience numbness in this area after surgery.

      Other nerves that pass through the pelvis include the femoral nerve, which descends behind the inguinal canal, the obturator nerve, which travels through the obturator foramen, and the sciatic nerve, which exits the pelvis through the greater sciatic foramen and runs posteriorly.

      The inguinal canal is located above the inguinal ligament and measures 4 cm in length. Its superficial ring is situated in front of the pubic tubercle, while the deep ring is found about 1.5-2 cm above the halfway point between the anterior superior iliac spine and the pubic tubercle. The canal is bounded by the external oblique aponeurosis, inguinal ligament, lacunar ligament, internal oblique, transversus abdominis, external ring, and conjoint tendon. In males, the canal contains the spermatic cord and ilioinguinal nerve, while in females, it houses the round ligament of the uterus and ilioinguinal nerve.

      The boundaries of Hesselbach’s triangle, which are frequently tested, are located in the inguinal region. Additionally, the inguinal canal is closely related to the vessels of the lower limb, which should be taken into account when repairing hernial defects in this area.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 17 - A 32-year-old man has come in for a follow-up appointment after being diagnosed...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old man has come in for a follow-up appointment after being diagnosed with irritable bowel syndrome. However, his faecal calprotectin was slightly elevated, but not high enough to raise suspicion of inflammatory bowel disease.

      He had initially presented with abdominal pain and diarrhoea, along with feelings of discomfort and bloating that were relieved upon defecation. He denied any presence of blood in his stool. You prescribed psyllium husk and scheduled a review in four weeks. He has a medical history of low back pain, migraine, and depression.

      Today, his faecal calprotectin has returned to normal levels. What is the most likely cause of the initial abnormal test result?

      Your Answer: Use of methotrexate

      Correct Answer: Use of NSAIDs

      Explanation:

      Mallory-Weiss syndrome (MWS) is characterized by a rupture in the mucous membrane at the junction of the stomach and oesophagus.

      Faecal Calprotectin: A Screening Tool for Intestinal Inflammation

      Faecal calprotectin is a recommended screening tool for inflammatory bowel disease (IBD) by NICE. It is a test that detects intestinal inflammation and can also be used to monitor the response to treatment in IBD patients. The test has a high sensitivity of 93% and specificity of 96% for IBD in adults. However, in children, the specificity falls to around 75%.

      Apart from IBD, other conditions that can cause a raised faecal calprotectin include bowel malignancy, coeliac disease, infectious colitis, and the use of NSAIDs. Therefore, faecal calprotectin is a useful diagnostic tool for detecting intestinal inflammation and can aid in the diagnosis and management of various gastrointestinal conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 18 - A 72-year-old woman visits her doctor complaining of painful legs, particularly in her...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old woman visits her doctor complaining of painful legs, particularly in her thighs, which occur after walking and subside on rest. She occasionally takes paracetamol to alleviate the pain. Her medical history includes hyperlipidaemia, type II diabetes mellitus, hypertension, and depression. The physician suspects that her pain may be due to claudication of the femoral artery, which is a continuation of the external iliac artery. Can you correctly identify the anatomical landmark where the external iliac artery becomes the femoral artery?

      Your Answer: Medial border of sartorius muscle

      Correct Answer: Inguinal ligament

      Explanation:

      After passing the inguinal ligament, the external iliac artery transforms into the femoral artery. This means that the other options provided are not accurate. Here is a brief explanation of their anatomical importance:

      – The medial edge of the sartorius muscle creates the lateral wall of the femoral triangle.
      – The medial edge of the adductor longus muscle creates the medial wall of the femoral triangle.
      – The femoral vein creates the lateral border of the femoral canal.
      – The pectineus muscle creates the posterior border of the femoral canal.

      The inguinal canal is located above the inguinal ligament and measures 4 cm in length. Its superficial ring is situated in front of the pubic tubercle, while the deep ring is found about 1.5-2 cm above the halfway point between the anterior superior iliac spine and the pubic tubercle. The canal is bounded by the external oblique aponeurosis, inguinal ligament, lacunar ligament, internal oblique, transversus abdominis, external ring, and conjoint tendon. In males, the canal contains the spermatic cord and ilioinguinal nerve, while in females, it houses the round ligament of the uterus and ilioinguinal nerve.

      The boundaries of Hesselbach’s triangle, which are frequently tested, are located in the inguinal region. Additionally, the inguinal canal is closely related to the vessels of the lower limb, which should be taken into account when repairing hernial defects in this area.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 19 - A 16-year-old boy undergoes an emergency splenectomy for trauma and is discharged home...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old boy undergoes an emergency splenectomy for trauma and is discharged home after making a full recovery. After eight weeks, his general practitioner performs a full blood count with a blood film. What is the most likely finding?

      Your Answer: None of the above

      Correct Answer: Howell-Jolly bodies

      Explanation:

      After a splenectomy, the blood film may show the presence of Howell-Jolly bodies, Pappenheimer bodies, target cells, and irregular contracted erythrocytes due to the absence of the spleen’s filtration function.

      Blood Film Changes after Splenectomy

      After undergoing splenectomy, the body loses its ability to remove immature or abnormal red blood cells from circulation. This results in the appearance of cytoplasmic inclusions such as Howell-Jolly bodies, although the red cell count remains relatively unchanged. In the first few days following the procedure, target cells, siderocytes, and reticulocytes may be observed in the bloodstream. Additionally, agranulocytosis composed mainly of neutrophils is seen immediately after the operation, which is then replaced by a lymphocytosis and monocytosis over the next few weeks. The platelet count is typically elevated and may persist, necessitating the use of oral antiplatelet agents in some patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 20 - A 35-year-old woman has been diagnosed with gonorrhoeae and prescribed ceftriaxone. She later...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman has been diagnosed with gonorrhoeae and prescribed ceftriaxone. She later presents at the emergency department with severe abdominal pain, elevated white blood cell count, and signs of severe colitis. What is the most probable causative organism for these symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Clostridium difficile

      Explanation:

      The correct answer is C. difficile, as it is the causative organism in pseudomembranous colitis that can occur after recent use of broad-spectrum antibiotics like ceftriaxone. These antibiotics can disrupt the gut flora, allowing C. difficile to thrive. Other antibiotics that can cause C. difficile include PPI, clindamycin, and fluoroquinolones.

      Campylobacter, Escherichia coli, and Neisseria gonorrhoeae are incorrect answers. Campylobacter infections are typically caused by undercooked chicken, untreated water, or international travel. E. coli infections are usually caused by contact with infected feces, unwashed foods, or unclean water. Neisseria gonorrhoeae is a sexually transmitted disease that is spread through unprotected sex, not through recent use of broad-spectrum antibiotics. The patient in this case does not have symptoms of gonorrhoeae and there is no indication of unprotected sex after the antibiotic prescription.

      Clostridium difficile is a type of bacteria that is commonly found in hospitals. It produces a toxin that can damage the intestines and cause a condition called pseudomembranous colitis. This bacteria usually develops when the normal gut flora is disrupted by broad-spectrum antibiotics, with second and third generation cephalosporins being the leading cause. Other risk factors include the use of proton pump inhibitors. Symptoms of C. difficile infection include diarrhea, abdominal pain, and a raised white blood cell count. The severity of the infection can be determined using the Public Health England severity scale.

      To diagnose C. difficile infection, a stool sample is tested for the presence of the C. difficile toxin. Treatment involves reviewing current antibiotic therapy and stopping antibiotics if possible. For a first episode of infection, oral vancomycin is the first-line therapy for 10 days, followed by oral fidaxomicin as second-line therapy and oral vancomycin with or without IV metronidazole as third-line therapy. Recurrent infections may require different treatment options, such as oral fidaxomicin within 12 weeks of symptom resolution or oral vancomycin or fidaxomicin after 12 weeks of symptom resolution. In life-threatening cases, oral vancomycin and IV metronidazole may be used, and surgery may be considered with specialist advice. Other therapies, such as bezlotoxumab and fecal microbiota transplant, may also be considered for preventing recurrences in certain cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 21 - A 30-year-old man presents with an inguinal hernia. What structure needs to be...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old man presents with an inguinal hernia. What structure needs to be divided during open surgery to access the inguinal canal?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: External oblique aponeurosis

      Explanation:

      What forms the front wall of the inguinal canal? The external oblique aponeurosis forms the front wall. To access the canal and perform a hernia repair, the aponeurosis is divided. The posterior wall is made up of the transversalis fascia and conjoint tendons, which are not typically cut to gain entry to the inguinal canal.

      The External Oblique Muscle: Anatomy and Function

      The external oblique muscle is one of the three muscles that make up the anterolateral aspect of the abdominal wall. It is the outermost muscle and plays an important role in supporting the abdominal viscera. The muscle originates from the outer surfaces of the lowest eight ribs and inserts into the anterior two-thirds of the outer lip of the iliac crest. The remaining portion of the muscle becomes the aponeurosis, which fuses with the linea alba in the midline.

      The external oblique muscle is innervated by the ventral rami of the lower six thoracic nerves. Its main function is to contain the abdominal viscera and raise intra-abdominal pressure. Additionally, it can move the trunk to one side. The aponeurosis of the external oblique muscle also forms the anterior wall of the inguinal canal, which is an important anatomical landmark in the groin region.

      Overall, the external oblique muscle is a crucial component of the abdominal wall and plays an important role in maintaining the integrity of the abdominal cavity. Its unique anatomy and function make it an important muscle for both movement and protection of the internal organs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 22 - A 72-year-old man complains of abdominal pain indicative of mesenteric ischaemia and is...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old man complains of abdominal pain indicative of mesenteric ischaemia and is rushed to the operating room for an urgent laparotomy. During the procedure, it is discovered that the affected portion of the bowel extends from the splenic flexure of the colon to the rectum. Can you determine the vertebral level at which the obstructed artery branches off from the aorta?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: L3

      Explanation:

      The hindgut, which is a segment of the gut, receives its blood supply from the inferior mesenteric artery. This artery originates from the aorta at the L3 vertebrae.

      The Inferior Mesenteric Artery: Supplying the Hindgut

      The inferior mesenteric artery (IMA) is responsible for supplying the embryonic hindgut with blood. It originates just above the aortic bifurcation, at the level of L3, and passes across the front of the aorta before settling on its left side. At the point where the left common iliac artery is located, the IMA becomes the superior rectal artery.

      The hindgut, which includes the distal third of the colon and the rectum above the pectinate line, is supplied by the IMA. The left colic artery is one of the branches that emerges from the IMA near its origin. Up to three sigmoid arteries may also exit the IMA to supply the sigmoid colon further down the line.

      Overall, the IMA plays a crucial role in ensuring that the hindgut receives the blood supply it needs to function properly. Its branches help to ensure that the colon and rectum are well-nourished and able to carry out their important digestive functions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 23 - In a patient with a carcinoma of the proximal sigmoid colon, what is...

    Incorrect

    • In a patient with a carcinoma of the proximal sigmoid colon, what is the most probable origin of its vascular supply?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Inferior mesenteric artery

      Explanation:

      When performing a high anterior resection for these types of tumors, it is necessary to ligate the inferior mesenteric artery. However, it is important to note that the internal iliac artery’s branches, particularly the middle rectal branch, play a crucial role in preserving blood flow to the rectal stump and ensuring the anastomoses’ integrity.

      Anatomy of the Rectum

      The rectum is a capacitance organ that measures approximately 12 cm in length. It consists of both intra and extraperitoneal components, with the transition from the sigmoid colon marked by the disappearance of the tenia coli. The extra peritoneal rectum is surrounded by mesorectal fat that contains lymph nodes, which are removed during rectal cancer surgery. The fascial layers that surround the rectum are important clinical landmarks, with the fascia of Denonvilliers located anteriorly and Waldeyers fascia located posteriorly.

      In males, the rectum is adjacent to the rectovesical pouch, bladder, prostate, and seminal vesicles, while in females, it is adjacent to the recto-uterine pouch (Douglas), cervix, and vaginal wall. Posteriorly, the rectum is in contact with the sacrum, coccyx, and middle sacral artery, while laterally, it is adjacent to the levator ani and coccygeus muscles.

      The superior rectal artery supplies blood to the rectum, while the superior rectal vein drains it. Mesorectal lymph nodes located superior to the dentate line drain into the internal iliac and then para-aortic nodes, while those located inferior to the dentate line drain into the inguinal nodes. Understanding the anatomy of the rectum is crucial for surgical procedures and the diagnosis and treatment of rectal diseases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 24 - Which of the following hemodynamic changes is not observed in hypovolemic shock? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following hemodynamic changes is not observed in hypovolemic shock?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Reduced systemic vascular resistance

      Explanation:

      Cardiogenic shock can occur due to conditions such as a heart attack or valve abnormality. This can lead to an increase in systemic vascular resistance (vasoconstriction in response to low blood pressure), an increase in heart rate (due to sympathetic response), a decrease in cardiac output, and a decrease in blood pressure. Hypovolemic shock can occur due to blood volume depletion from causes such as hemorrhage, vomiting, diarrhea, dehydration, or third-space losses during major surgeries. This can lead to an increase in systemic vascular resistance, an increase in heart rate, a decrease in cardiac output, and a decrease in blood pressure. Septic shock occurs when peripheral vascular dilatation causes a fall in systemic vascular resistance. This response can also occur in anaphylactic shock or neurogenic shock. In septic shock, there is a reduced systemic vascular resistance, an increased heart rate, a normal or increased cardiac output, and a decrease in blood pressure. Typically, systemic vascular resistance will decrease in septic shock.

      Shock is a condition where there is not enough blood flow to the tissues. There are five main types of shock: septic, haemorrhagic, neurogenic, cardiogenic, and anaphylactic. Septic shock is caused by an infection that triggers a particular response in the body. Haemorrhagic shock is caused by blood loss, and there are four classes of haemorrhagic shock based on the amount of blood loss and associated symptoms. Neurogenic shock occurs when there is a disruption in the autonomic nervous system, leading to decreased vascular resistance and decreased cardiac output. Cardiogenic shock is caused by heart disease or direct myocardial trauma. Anaphylactic shock is a severe, life-threatening allergic reaction. Adrenaline is the most important drug in treating anaphylaxis and should be given as soon as possible.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 25 - During a sigmoid colectomy for colonic cancer in a 56-year-old man, which structure...

    Incorrect

    • During a sigmoid colectomy for colonic cancer in a 56-year-old man, which structure is most vulnerable to damage?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Left ureter

      Explanation:

      The left ureter is the structure that is most commonly encountered and at the highest risk of damage by a careless surgeon, although all of these structures are at risk.

      The colon begins with the caecum, which is the most dilated segment of the colon and is marked by the convergence of taenia coli. The ascending colon follows, which is retroperitoneal on its posterior aspect. The transverse colon comes after passing the hepatic flexure and becomes wholly intraperitoneal again. The splenic flexure marks the point where the transverse colon makes an oblique inferior turn to the left upper quadrant. The descending colon becomes wholly intraperitoneal at the level of L4 and becomes the sigmoid colon. The sigmoid colon is wholly intraperitoneal, but there are usually attachments laterally between the sigmoid and the lateral pelvic sidewall. At its distal end, the sigmoid becomes the upper rectum, which passes through the peritoneum and becomes extraperitoneal.

      The arterial supply of the colon comes from the superior mesenteric artery and inferior mesenteric artery, which are linked by the marginal artery. The ascending colon is supplied by the ileocolic and right colic arteries, while the transverse colon is supplied by the middle colic artery. The descending and sigmoid colon are supplied by the inferior mesenteric artery. The venous drainage comes from regional veins that accompany arteries to the superior and inferior mesenteric vein. The lymphatic drainage initially follows nodal chains that accompany supplying arteries, then para-aortic nodes.

      The colon has both intraperitoneal and extraperitoneal segments. The right and left colon are part intraperitoneal and part extraperitoneal, while the sigmoid and transverse colon are generally wholly intraperitoneal. The colon has various relations with other organs, such as the right ureter and gonadal vessels for the caecum/right colon, the gallbladder for the hepatic flexure, the spleen and tail of pancreas for the splenic flexure, the left ureter for the distal sigmoid/upper rectum, and the ureters, autonomic nerves, seminal vesicles, prostate, and urethra for the rectum.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 26 - A 44-year-old man presents to the emergency department with haematemesis and is referred...

    Incorrect

    • A 44-year-old man presents to the emergency department with haematemesis and is referred for urgent endoscopy, which reveals a 1.5cm ulcer in the first portion of the duodenum. He has a history of generalised anxiety disorder, but takes no prescription or over the counter medications and has no known drug allergies. Lately, he has been experiencing increased fatigue and bloating. On examination, his abdomen is soft and non-tender, and he has no fever. What is the most probable cause of this man's ulcer?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Helicobacter pylori

      Explanation:

      Duodenal ulceration can be caused by various factors, including Helicobacter pylori infection, regular use of NSAIDs, and Crohn’s disease. However, in this particular case, the most likely cause of the patient’s duodenal ulcer is Helicobacter pylori infection. This bacterium produces enzymes that neutralize stomach acid, allowing it to survive in the stomach and weaken the protective barrier of the stomach and duodenum. Contrary to popular belief, a high-stress job or spicy foods are not the cause of peptic ulcer disease, although they may exacerbate the symptoms. Regular use of NSAIDs is a strong risk factor for peptic ulcer disease, but the patient does not have any of the risk factors for NSAID-induced peptic ulcer disease. Crohn’s disease may affect any part of the gastrointestinal tract, but it is less likely to be the cause of this man’s duodenal ulcer. Diagnosis of duodenal ulceration can be done through serology, microbiology, histology, or CLO testing.

      Helicobacter pylori: A Bacteria Associated with Gastrointestinal Problems

      Helicobacter pylori is a type of Gram-negative bacteria that is commonly associated with various gastrointestinal problems, particularly peptic ulcer disease. This bacterium has two primary mechanisms that allow it to survive in the acidic environment of the stomach. Firstly, it uses its flagella to move away from low pH areas and burrow into the mucous lining to reach the epithelial cells underneath. Secondly, it secretes urease, which converts urea to NH3, leading to an alkalinization of the acidic environment and increased bacterial survival.

      The pathogenesis mechanism of Helicobacter pylori involves the release of bacterial cytotoxins, such as the CagA toxin, which can disrupt the gastric mucosa. This bacterium is associated with several gastrointestinal problems, including peptic ulcer disease, gastric cancer, B cell lymphoma of MALT tissue, and atrophic gastritis. However, its role in gastro-oesophageal reflux disease (GORD) is unclear, and there is currently no role for the eradication of Helicobacter pylori in GORD.

      The management of Helicobacter pylori infection involves a 7-day course of treatment with a proton pump inhibitor, amoxicillin, and either clarithromycin or metronidazole. For patients who are allergic to penicillin, a proton pump inhibitor, metronidazole, and clarithromycin are used instead.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 27 - As a busy surgical trainee on the colorectal unit, you have been tasked...

    Incorrect

    • As a busy surgical trainee on the colorectal unit, you have been tasked with reviewing the histopathology results for colonic polyps. Which type of polyp described below poses the highest risk of malignant transformation? Please note that this question is specifically for a trainee who is slightly older and more experienced.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Villous adenoma

      Explanation:

      The risk of malignant transformation is highest in villous adenomas, while hyperplastic polyps pose little risk. Hamartomatous polyp syndromes may increase the risk of malignancy in patients, but the polyps themselves have low malignant potential.

      Understanding Colonic Polyps and Follow-Up Procedures

      Colonic polyps can occur in isolation or as part of polyposis syndromes, with greater than 100 polyps typically present in FAP. The risk of malignancy is related to size, with a 10% risk in a 1 cm adenoma. While isolated adenomas seldom cause symptoms, distally sited villous lesions may produce mucous and electrolyte disturbances if very large.

      Follow-up procedures for colonic polyps depend on the number and size of the polyps. Low-risk cases with 1 or 2 adenomas less than 1 cm require no follow-up or re-colonoscopy for 5 years. Moderate-risk cases with 3 or 4 small adenomas or 1 adenoma greater than 1 cm require a re-scope at 3 years. High-risk cases with more than 5 small adenomas or more than 3 with 1 of them greater than 1 cm require a re-scope at 1 year.

      Segmental resection or complete colectomy may be necessary in cases of incomplete excision of malignant polyps, malignant sessile polyps, malignant pedunculated polyps with submucosal invasion, polyps with poorly differentiated carcinoma, or familial polyposis coli. Screening from teenager up to 40 years by 2 yearly sigmoidoscopy/colonoscopy is recommended. Rectal polypoidal lesions may be treated with trans anal endoscopic microsurgery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 28 - An 73-year-old man with chronic obstructive airway disease (COPD) is admitted to your...

    Incorrect

    • An 73-year-old man with chronic obstructive airway disease (COPD) is admitted to your ward. He presents with dyspnea and inability to lie flat. What physical examination findings would indicate a possible diagnosis of cor pulmonale, or right-sided heart failure secondary to COPD?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Smooth hepatomegaly

      Explanation:

      Understanding Hepatomegaly and Its Common Causes

      Hepatomegaly refers to an enlarged liver, which can be caused by various factors. One of the most common causes is cirrhosis, which can lead to a decrease in liver size in later stages. In this case, the liver is non-tender and firm. Malignancy, such as metastatic spread or primary hepatoma, can also cause hepatomegaly. In this case, the liver edge is hard and irregular. Right heart failure can also lead to an enlarged liver, which is firm, smooth, and tender. It may even be pulsatile.

      Aside from these common causes, hepatomegaly can also be caused by viral hepatitis, glandular fever, malaria, abscess (pyogenic or amoebic), hydatid disease, haematological malignancies, haemochromatosis, primary biliary cirrhosis, sarcoidosis, and amyloidosis.

      Understanding the causes of hepatomegaly is important in diagnosing and treating the underlying condition. Proper diagnosis and treatment can help prevent further complications and improve overall health.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 29 - A 65-year-old male patient undergoes liver resection surgery and encounters uncontrolled hepatic bleeding....

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old male patient undergoes liver resection surgery and encounters uncontrolled hepatic bleeding. To interrupt the blood flow, the surgeon performs the 'Pringle manoeuvre' by clamping the hepatic artery, portal vein, and common bile duct, which form the anterior boundary of the epiploic foramen. What other vessel serves as a boundary in this area?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Inferior vena cava

      Explanation:

      The inferior vena cava serves as the posterior boundary of the epiploic foramen. The anterior boundary is formed by the hepatoduodenal ligament, which contains the bile duct, portal vein, and hepatic artery. The first part of the duodenum forms the inferior boundary, while the caudate process of the liver forms the superior boundary.

      The Epiploic Foramen and its Boundaries

      The epiploic foramen is a small opening in the peritoneum that connects the greater and lesser sacs of the abdomen. It is located posterior to the liver and anterior to the inferior vena cava. The boundaries of the epiploic foramen include the bile duct to the right, the portal vein behind, and the hepatic artery to the left. The inferior boundary is the first part of the duodenum, while the superior boundary is the caudate process of the liver.

      During liver surgery, bleeding can be controlled by performing a Pringles manoeuvre. This involves placing a vascular clamp across the anterior aspect of the epiploic foramen, which occludes the common bile duct, hepatic artery, and portal vein. This technique is useful in preventing excessive bleeding during liver surgery and can help to ensure a successful outcome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 30 - A 55-year-old man is having a distal pancreatectomy due to trauma. What vessel...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man is having a distal pancreatectomy due to trauma. What vessel is responsible for supplying the tail of the pancreas with arterial blood?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Splenic artery

      Explanation:

      The pancreaticoduodenal artery supplies the pancreatic head, while branches of the splenic artery supply the pancreatic tail. There is an arterial watershed between the two regions.

      Anatomy of the Pancreas

      The pancreas is located behind the stomach and is a retroperitoneal organ. It can be accessed surgically by dividing the peritoneal reflection that connects the greater omentum to the transverse colon. The pancreatic head is situated in the curvature of the duodenum, while its tail is close to the hilum of the spleen. The pancreas has various relations with other organs, such as the inferior vena cava, common bile duct, renal veins, superior mesenteric vein and artery, crus of diaphragm, psoas muscle, adrenal gland, kidney, aorta, pylorus, gastroduodenal artery, and splenic hilum.

      The arterial supply of the pancreas is through the pancreaticoduodenal artery for the head and the splenic artery for the rest of the organ. The venous drainage for the head is through the superior mesenteric vein, while the body and tail are drained by the splenic vein. The ampulla of Vater is an important landmark that marks the transition from foregut to midgut and is located halfway along the second part of the duodenum. Overall, understanding the anatomy of the pancreas is crucial for surgical procedures and diagnosing pancreatic diseases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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