-
Question 1
Correct
-
What is a characteristic that is shared by both upper and lower motor neuron lesions?
Your Answer: Weakness
Explanation:Motor Neuron Lesions
Signs of an upper motor neuron lesion include weakness, increased reflexes, increased tone (spasticity), mild atrophy, an upgoing plantar response (Babinski reflex), and clonus. On the other hand, signs of a lower motor neuron lesion include atrophy, weakness, fasciculations, decreased reflexes, and decreased tone. It is important to differentiate between the two types of lesions as they have different underlying causes and require different treatment approaches. A thorough neurological examination can help identify the location and extent of the lesion, which can guide further diagnostic testing and management.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurosciences
-
-
Question 2
Incorrect
-
What receptors does asenapine have low affinity for?
Your Answer: α1/α2 adrenergic
Correct Answer: H1
Explanation:Asenapine exhibits affinity towards D2, 5HT2A, 5HT2C, and α1/α2 adrenergic receptors, while having relatively low affinity for H1 and ACh receptors. This makes it a second generation antipsychotic that is approved for the treatment of moderate to severe manic episodes associated with bipolar disorder. Its low affinity for H1 receptors is believed to contribute to its metabolically-neutral profile.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
-
-
Question 3
Correct
-
Which statement accurately describes the FAST questionnaire for alcohol misuse?
Your Answer: May be stopped after first question depending on the answer
Explanation:Alcohol screening tools are available to assist in the diagnosis of alcohol problems. One such tool is the AUDIT (Alcohol Use Disorders Identification Test), which consists of 10 questions and covers harmful use, hazardous use, and dependence. Another tool is the FAST (Fast Alcohol Screening Test), which has just 4 questions and was developed for use in a busy medical setting. The CAGE is a well-known 4 question screening tool, but recent research has questioned its value. Other tools include SASQ (Single alcohol screening questionnaire), PAT (Paddington Alcohol Test), MAST (Michigan Alcoholism Screening Test), and RAPS4 (Rapid Alcohol Problem Screen 4). These tools can help identify hazardous of harmful alcohol consumption and alcohol dependence.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
-
-
Question 4
Correct
-
What is the typical range for a 'normal' IQ score?
Your Answer: 70-130
Explanation:An IQ within the range of 70-130 is considered normal, which corresponds to two standard deviations above of below the average IQ of 100. This means that about 95% of the population falls within this range.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
-
-
Question 5
Incorrect
-
Which condition is characterized by experiencing hypnagogic hallucinations and excessive daytime sleepiness?
Your Answer: Catalepsy
Correct Answer: Narcolepsy
Explanation:Sleep Disorders
The International Classification of Sleep Disorders (ISCD) categorizes sleep disorders into several main categories and subclasses. Dyssomnias are intrinsic sleep disorders that include narcolepsy, psychopsychologic insomnia, idiopathic hypersomnia, restless leg syndrome, periodic limb movement disorder, and obstructive sleep apnea. Extrinsic sleep disorders include inadequate sleep hygiene and alcohol-dependent sleep disorder. Circadian rhythm disorders consist of jet lag syndrome, shift work sleep disorder, irregular sleep-wake pattern, delayed sleep phase syndrome, and advanced sleep phase disorder. Parasomnias include arousal disorders such as sleepwalking and sleep terrors, sleep-wake transition disorders such as rhythmic movement disorder, sleep talking, and nocturnal leg cramps, and parasomnias associated with REM sleep such as nightmares and sleep paralysis. Sleep disorders associated with medical/psychiatric disorders and proposed sleep disorders are also included in the classification.
Narcolepsy is a disorder of unknown cause that is characterized by excessive sleepiness, cataplexy, and other REM sleep phenomena such as sleep paralysis and hypnagogic hallucinations. Periodic limb movement disorder is characterized by periodic episodes of repetitive and highly stereotyped limb movements that occur during sleep. Restless legs syndrome is a disorder characterized by disagreeable leg sensations that usually occur prior to sleep onset and that cause an almost irresistible urge to move the legs. Jet lag syndrome consists of varying degrees of difficulties in initiating or maintaining sleep, excessive sleepiness, decrements in subjective daytime alertness and performance, and somatic symptoms following rapid travel across multiple time zones. Shift work sleep disorder consists of symptoms of insomnia of excessive sleepiness that occur as transient phenomena in relation to work schedules. Non 24 hour sleep wake syndrome consists of a chronic steady pattern comprising one to two hour daily delays in sleep onset and wake times in an individual living in society. Sleepwalking consists of a series of complex behaviors that are initiated during slow-wave sleep and result in walking during sleep. Sleep terrors are characterized by a sudden arousal from slow wave sleep with a piercing scream of cry, accompanied by autonomic and behavioral manifestations of intense fear. Rhythmic movement disorder comprises a group of stereotyped, repetitive movements involving large muscles, usually of the head and neck. Sleep starts are sudden, brief contractions of the legs, sometimes also involving the arms and head, that occur at sleep onset. Nocturnal leg cramps are painful sensations of muscular tightness of tension, usually in the calf but occasionally in the foot, that occur during the sleep episode. Nightmares are frightening dreams that usually awaken the sleeper from REM sleep. Sleep paralysis is a common condition characterized by transient paralysis of skeletal muscles which occurs when awakening from sleep of less often while falling asleep.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Social Psychology
-
-
Question 6
Incorrect
-
What is one assumption of the Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium?
Your Answer: Genetic drift must occur
Correct Answer: Mating between individuals is random
Explanation:Hardy-Weinberg Principle and Allele Frequency
Allele frequency refers to the proportion of a population that carries a specific variant at a particular gene locus. It can be calculated by dividing the number of individual alleles of a certain type by the total number of alleles in a population. The Hardy-Weinberg Principle states that both allele and genotype frequencies in a population remain constant from generation to generation unless specific disturbing influences are introduced. To remain in equilibrium, five conditions must be met, including no mutations, no gene flow, random mating, a sufficiently large population, and no natural selection. The Hardy-Weinberg Equation is used to predict the frequency of alleles in a population, and it can be used to estimate the carrier frequency of genetic diseases. For example, if the incidence of PKU is one in 10,000 babies, then the carrier frequency in the general population is 1/50. Couples with a previous child with PKU have a 25% chance of having another affected child.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics
-
-
Question 7
Incorrect
-
Select the correct order of the phases in the cell cycle:
Your Answer: S phase, G2, G1, mitosis
Correct Answer: G1, S phase, G2, mitosis
Explanation:Cytokinesis: The Final Stage of Cell Division
Cytokinesis is the final stage of cell division, where the cell splits into two daughter cells, each with a nucleus. This process is essential for the growth and repair of tissues in multicellular organisms. In mitosis, cytokinesis occurs after telophase, while in meiosis, it occurs after telophase I and telophase II.
During cytokinesis, a contractile ring made of actin and myosin filaments forms around the cell’s equator, constricting it like a belt. This ring gradually tightens, pulling the cell membrane inward and creating a furrow that deepens until it reaches the center of the cell. Eventually, the furrow meets in the middle, dividing the cell into two daughter cells.
In animal cells, cytokinesis is achieved by the formation of a cleavage furrow, while in plant cells, a cell plate forms between the two daughter nuclei, which eventually develops into a new cell wall. The timing and mechanism of cytokinesis are tightly regulated by a complex network of proteins and signaling pathways, ensuring that each daughter cell receives the correct amount of cytoplasm and organelles.
Overall, cytokinesis is a crucial step in the cell cycle, ensuring that genetic material is equally distributed between daughter cells and allowing for the growth and development of multicellular organisms.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics
-
-
Question 8
Correct
-
A 16 year old teenager wants to pursue a career in art, but their parents insist that they must focus on becoming a doctor of engineer. The teenager is not allowed to take art classes and is forbidden from participating in any art competitions. The parents also dictate what clothes the teenager wears and how they style their hair, expecting them to look presentable at all times.
According to Erikson's theory, what developmental stage is being challenged by the parents' actions?Your Answer: Identity vs. role confusion
Explanation:Erik Erikson and Daniel Levinson expanded the understanding of adult development. Erikson proposed a life-span model of human development consisting of eight successive psychosocial stages, each associated with an inherent conflict of crisis that the individual must encounter and successfully resolve to proceed with development. Levinson proposed a developmental theory consisting of universal stages of phases that extend from the infancy state to the elderly state, based on biographical interviews of 40 men in America. Both theorists maintained that personality develops in a predetermined order and builds upon each previous stage, and that failure to successfully negotiate a stage can result in a reduced ability to complete further stages and therefore a more unhealthy personality and sense of self. However, Levinson’s theory is age-based rather than event-based, and his model proposed a ‘life sequence’ consisting of a series of alternating stable (structure-building) periods and cross-era transitional (structure-changing) periods, with transitional periods typically lasting 5 years.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychological Development
-
-
Question 9
Incorrect
-
Which of the following statements is most in line with the International Classification of Diseases (ICD-11) guidelines?
Your Answer: In the international classification of diseases, neurasthenia is classified under dissociative disorder
Correct Answer: International classification of diseases uses the term mental disorder
Explanation:Classification of Diseases: A Brief Overview
A scientific classification system should have standardized names, clear operational criteria, and a multiaxial arrangement for citing important attributes. The International Classification of Diseases (ICD) has been the main nosologic system for identifying human ailments for the past century. It has a well-organized and widely accepted nomenclature, but lacks operational criteria and an appropriate multiaxial pattern. The ICD-10 is available in major languages and classifies psychiatric conditions under Mental and behavioural disorders in Chapter V. However, it does not include social consequences of the disorder, which is included in the DSM IV under Axis 4 (Psychosocial and Environmental Problems). Neurasthenia is classified under Other neurotic disorders (F48.0) in the ICD-10. Overall, classification of diseases is a system of categories to which morbid entities are assigned according to established criteria.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
-
-
Question 10
Incorrect
-
What is a correct statement about antipsychotic depots?
Your Answer: Plasma levels are always at their lowest just prior to each depot being given
Correct Answer: A test dose is not required for paliperidone palmitate if a patient has received an oral loading dose
Explanation:, coma, respiratory depression (rare)
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
-
-
Question 11
Incorrect
-
You are interviewing a 70-year-old patient in your ward.
When asked what he had for breakfast, he says toast. You then ask what is your name? and he says toast. When you asked what is your date of birth?, he continues to say toast.
What is the most likely symptom exhibited here?Your Answer: Stereotypy
Correct Answer: Perseveration
Explanation:Common Motor Symptoms in Neurological Disorders
Perseveration is a symptom where an individual continues to use the same words of concepts even when they are no longer relevant. This is often seen in individuals with impaired consciousness due to acute of chronic organic disorders such as dementia. Automatism, on the other hand, is when an individual exhibits exaggerated cooperation with the examiner’s request of continues to perform a movement even after it has been requested. Mannerisms are repetitive, goal-directed movements, while stereotypy refers to unusual, non-goal directed movements. Finally, stuttering is characterized by the repetition of prolongation of sounds during speech. These motor symptoms are commonly seen in various neurological disorders.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Dynamic Psychopathology
-
-
Question 12
Correct
-
A child complains of becoming clumsy since they had a head injury. You notice they are unable to control fine movements. A neurological exam does not reveal any motor of sensory deficit. Which type of apraxia is present?
Your Answer: Limb kinetic
Explanation:Apraxia: Understanding the Inability to Carry Out Learned Voluntary Movements
Apraxia is a neurological condition that affects a person’s ability to carry out learned voluntary movements. It is important to note that this condition assumes that everything works and the person is not paralyzed. There are different types of apraxia, each with its own set of symptoms and characteristics.
Limb kinetic apraxia is a type of apraxia that affects a person’s ability to make fine of delicate movements. This can include tasks such as buttoning a shirt of tying shoelaces.
Ideomotor apraxia, on the other hand, is an inability to carry out learned tasks when given the necessary objects. For example, a person with ideomotor apraxia may try to write with a hairbrush instead of using it to brush their hair.
Constructional apraxia affects a person’s ability to copy a picture of combine parts of something to form a whole. This can include tasks such as building a puzzle of drawing a picture.
Ideational apraxia is an inability to follow a sequence of actions in the correct order. For example, a person with ideational apraxia may struggle to take a match out of a box and strike it with their left hand.
Finally, oculomotor apraxia affects a person’s ability to control eye movements. This can make it difficult for them to track moving objects of read smoothly.
Overall, apraxia can have a significant impact on a person’s ability to carry out everyday tasks. However, with the right support and treatment, many people with apraxia are able to improve their abilities and maintain their independence.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurosciences
-
-
Question 13
Incorrect
-
Which medication is impacted by moisture and therefore cannot be included in a medication compliance aid?
Your Answer: Donepezil
Correct Answer: Sodium valproate
Explanation:Drug Stability
The stability of drugs can vary greatly, with some medications being unable to be included in compliance aids due to their susceptibility to environmental factors. Certain drugs have a tendency to absorb moisture from the air, rendering them ineffective, with light known to accelerate this process. Examples of drugs that are unsuitable for compliance aids due to their susceptibility to environmental factors include Sodium valproate, Zopiclone, Venlafaxine, Topiramate, Methylphenidate, Mirtazapine, Olanzapine, Amisulpride, and Aripiprazole.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
-
-
Question 14
Incorrect
-
A group of 67 military personnel experiencing symptoms consistent with PTSD are assigned randomly to receive either an active medication of a placebo. The medication dosage is adjusted based on reported occurrences of nightmares. The medication proves to be more effective than the placebo in terms of reducing the severity of PTSD symptoms, improving sleep quality, and enhancing day-to-day functioning. No expected side effects related to changes in blood pressure are observed. What is the probable active therapeutic agent?
Your Answer: Mirtazapine
Correct Answer: Prazosin
Explanation:The study on prazosin, an alpha-1 adrenoceptor antagonist, and its potential effectiveness in reducing PTSD symptoms in male and female soldiers is noteworthy. It is a logical progression in the search for a suitable therapeutic agent based on the observed physiological and phenomenological responses to traumatic experiences and PTSD symptoms. The clinical efficacy of prazosin was evaluated, taking into account the potential risk of significant hypotension due to its alpha-1 blocking properties, which was not observed. While all the other agents have been used to treat PTSD, only paroxetine is approved for this purpose.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
-
-
Question 15
Correct
-
Cognitive dissonance pertains to data that causes conflicting thoughts of beliefs.
Your Answer: Contradictory to an individual's beliefs
Explanation:Cognitive Dissonance is a term used to describe the uncomfortable feeling that arises when there is a conflict between an individual’s attitudes, beliefs, of behaviors. This feeling can lead to a change in behavior of beliefs. The theory of cognitive dissonance suggests that people have an inner drive to maintain cognitive consistency and avoid dissonance. This drive can result in irrational of maladaptive behaviors. Dissonance can be reduced by changing attitudes, behaviors, of beliefs, acquiring new information, of reducing the importance of the cognitions. Overall, cognitive dissonance plays a significant role in shaping human behavior and decision-making.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Social Psychology
-
-
Question 16
Incorrect
-
Which substance has the greatest amount of time required for half of its atoms to decay?
Your Answer: Nitrazepam
Correct Answer: Diazepam
Explanation:Benzodiazepines are a class of drugs commonly used to treat anxiety and sleep disorders. It is important to have a working knowledge of the more common benzodiazepines and their half-life. Half-life refers to the amount of time it takes for half of the drug to be eliminated from the body.
Some of the more common benzodiazepines and their half-life include diazepam with a half-life of 20-100 hours, clonazepam with a half-life of 18-50 hours, chlordiazepoxide with a half-life of 5-30 hours, nitrazepam with a half-life of 15-38 hours, temazepam with a half-life of 8-22 hours, lorazepam with a half-life of 10-20 hours, alprazolam with a half-life of 10-15 hours, oxazepam with a half-life of 6-10 hours, zopiclone with a half-life of 5-6 hours, zolpidem with a half-life of 2 hours, and zaleplon with a half-life of 2 hours. Understanding the half-life of these drugs is important for determining dosages and timing of administration.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
-
-
Question 17
Incorrect
-
What is the rate of schizophrenia concordance among dizygotic twins according to the Gottesman data?
Your Answer: 23%
Correct Answer: 17%
Explanation:Schizophrenia: A Genetic Disorder
Adoption studies have consistently shown that biological relatives of patients with schizophrenia have an increased risk of developing the disorder. Schizophrenia is a complex disorder with incomplete penetrance, as evidenced by the fact that monozygotic twins have a concordance rate of approximately 50%, while dizygotic twins have a concordance rate of 17%. This indicates a significant genetic contribution to the disorder, with an estimated heritability of 80%. Segregation analysis suggests that schizophrenia follows a multifactorial model.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics
-
-
Question 18
Correct
-
A 68-year-old woman is experiencing changes in her personality and difficulty remembering things. What cognitive assessment would be suitable for evaluating her frontal lobe function?
Your Answer: Wisconsin card sorting test
Explanation:The WCST is a test that assesses frontal lobe function by presenting the patient with cards that vary in shape, color, and number. The patient is asked to sort the cards based on one of these dimensions and then switch to another dimension. Patients with frontal lobe damage may struggle with inflexible thinking and inhibiting previously correct answers.
The Benton visual retention test is a test of visual memory that does not assess frontal lobe function. The patient is shown geometric shapes for ten seconds and then asked to draw them from memory.
The NART is a test that measures premorbid IQ.
The Rorschach inkblot test is a projective personality test.
The Rey-Osterrieth complex figure test assesses visuospatial skills. The patient is asked to copy a complex figure and then reproduce it from memory.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Assessment
-
-
Question 19
Incorrect
-
Which of the following statements is accurate regarding the symptoms of ADHD?
Your Answer: The incidence of anorexia nervosa is 20 times higher in females as compared to males
Correct Answer: Gonadotropin levels are lowered in anorexia nervosa
Explanation:Anorexia nervosa and bulimia nervosa share similar clinical syndromes, and individuals with eating disorders may transition between the two disorders multiple times. The bulimic subtype of anorexia nervosa involves binge episodes. Anorexia nervosa is more prevalent in females, with a female-to-male ratio of 10:1. Endocrine abnormalities associated with anorexia nervosa include amenorrhea, low levels of gonadotropins (LH and FSH), low levels of estrogen and progesterone, low levels of triiodothyronine, high levels of cortisol, high levels of fasting growth hormone, and irregular vasopressin release.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Assessment
-
-
Question 20
Incorrect
-
A 35-year-old drug addict decides to quit using drugs. On the fifth day of sobriety, he begins to experience visual and auditory hallucinations of tiny beings in his bedroom, sometimes even feeling them crawling on him. What is the term for this perceptual disturbance?
Your Answer: Charles Bonnet syndrome
Correct Answer: Lilliputian hallucination
Explanation:Delirium tremens, which can occur after alcohol withdrawal, may cause tactile and auditory hallucinations. Lilliputian hallucinations, which involve seeing small objects of animals, can also occur during alcohol withdrawal and in various other conditions such as delirium, dementia, and schizophrenia. Affect illusions occur when perception of everyday objects is altered based on a person’s prevailing mood, but this experience is temporary and disappears with increased attention. Charles Bonnet syndrome is a condition where individuals experience complex visual hallucinations due to impaired vision without any underlying psychological issues. Pseudohallucinations are different from normal sense perceptions as they are figurative and subjective, not concrete of real. Pareidolic illusions involve mixing sensory perceptions with imagination, such as seeing faces in clouds.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Descriptive Psychopathology
-
-
Question 21
Incorrect
-
Who was the originator of the term 'stigma'?
Your Answer: Charles Cooley
Correct Answer: Erving Goffman
Explanation:Erving Goffman was a prominent sociologist who made significant contributions to the field. He is well-known for his works such as The Presentation of Self in Everyday Life, Asylums, and Stigma. In fact, he is credited with introducing the term stigma into the sociological lexicon. Goffman’s ideas and theories have had a lasting impact on the study of sociology and continue to be studied and applied today.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Social Psychology
-
-
Question 22
Correct
-
What is the lowest daily amount of citalopram that is effective for treating depression in adults?
Your Answer: 20 mg
Explanation:Antidepressants: Minimum Effective Doses
According to the Maudsley 13th, the following are the minimum effective doses for various antidepressants:
– Citalopram: 20 mg/day
– Fluoxetine: 20 mg/day
– Fluvoxamine: 50 mg/day
– Paroxetine: 20 mg/day
– Sertraline: 50 mg/day
– Mirtazapine: 30 mg/day
– Venlafaxine: 75 mg/day
– Duloxetine: 60 mg/day
– Agomelatine: 25 mg/day
– Moclobemide: 300 mg/day
– Trazodone: 150 mg/dayNote that these are minimum effective doses and may vary depending on individual factors and response to treatment. It is important to consult with a healthcare professional before starting of changing any medication regimen.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
-
-
Question 23
Incorrect
-
What is the half-life of fluoxetine in the body?
Your Answer: 24 hours
Correct Answer: 4-6 days
Explanation:Fluoxetine has the longest half life among the commonly used SSRIs, lasting four to six days. Its active metabolite, norfluoxetine, remains active for four to 16 days. This information is important when discontinuing of switching SSRIs.
For instance, if a patient is discontinuing an SSRI with a shorter half life, such as paroxetine, they may experience SSRI discontinuation syndrome. To avoid this, they can switch to fluoxetine before tapering off the antidepressant.
When cross-titrating from fluoxetine to another antidepressant, the longer half life means that the drug needs to be withdrawn and a longer period allowed for levels in the body to decrease. The recommended time to start a new antidepressant after withdrawing fluoxetine varies depending on the drug, such as waiting five to six weeks before starting an MAOI.
The incorrect answers are:
– Paroxetine has an elimination half life of 24 hours
– Sertraline has an elimination half life of 26 hours
– Escitalopram has an elimination half life of 30 hours
– Citalopram has an elimination half life of 33 hours. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
-
-
Question 24
Incorrect
-
A 35-year-old man from a Latin American background arrives at the emergency department with a chief complaint of overwhelming anxiety. He expresses concern that his soul has departed from his body. What is the name of this cultural affliction?
Your Answer: Amok
Correct Answer: Susto
Explanation:Susto is an anxiety disorder prevalent in South and Central America that is linked to the loss of soul. It typically occurs after experiencing a traumatic emotional of physical event.
Amok is a dissociative state that is more commonly observed in Malaysia. It is characterized by symptoms such as neurasthenia, depersonalization, rage, automatism, and violent acts.
Koro is a belief that the penis is shrinking and will retract into the abdomen, leading to death.
Latah is a condition similar to Tourette’s syndrome, where an exaggerated startle response results in abnormal behaviors.
Wendigo is a depressive disorder that involves the delusion of becoming cannibalistic. It is primarily observed in Native American communities.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Stigma And Culture
-
-
Question 25
Incorrect
-
What is the accurate statement about renowned psychologists and their associated theories?
Your Answer: Anna Freud is associated with play therapy
Correct Answer: Margaret Mahler is associated with separation-individuation
Explanation:Historical Figures in Psychology
Melanie Klein is known for developing play therapy, which involves interpreting the symbolic meaning of a child’s actions during play and relating them to their feelings towards their parents. Margaret Mahler, on the other hand, focused on the development of the ego within the context of object relationships. She emphasized how interpersonal relationships become internalized within the self, rather than the gratification of instincts of biological needs. Mahler coined the term separation-individuation to describe the process by which internal maps of the self and others are formed during the first three years of life.
Transactional analysis, developed by Dr. Eric Berne in the 1960s, is based on the idea that we have three parts to our personality (child, adult, and parent) and that these converse with one another in transactions. Finally, Jean-Martin Charcot and Pierre Janet are both associated with hysteria, with Charcot being known for his work with hypnosis.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- History Of Psychiatry
-
-
Question 26
Incorrect
-
A woman taking quetiapine has an ECG and is found to have a QTc of 410 ms. What is the appropriate next step in her treatment plan?
Your Answer: Stop the quetiapine immediately and consult a cardiologist
Correct Answer: Continue quetiapine and just continue with routine monitoring
Explanation:It is advisable to maintain the medication and regular monitoring as a QTC of 410 ms is within the normal range.
Amantadine and QTc Prolongation
Amantadine is a medication used to treat Parkinson’s disease and influenza. It has been associated with QTc prolongation, which can increase the risk of Torsades de points. Therefore, caution should be exercised when prescribing amantadine to patients with risk factors for QT prolongation. If a patient is already taking amantadine and develops a prolonged QTc interval, the medication should be discontinued and an alternative treatment considered. It is important to monitor the QTc interval in patients taking amantadine, especially those with risk factors for QT prolongation.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
-
-
Question 27
Incorrect
-
Which attitude scale involves a group of evaluators who rate each statement to determine its level of positivity towards a particular concept?
Your Answer: Guttman Scale
Correct Answer: Thurstone scale
Explanation:Attitude scales are used to measure a person’s feelings and thoughts towards something. There are several types of attitude scales, including the Thurstone scale, Likert scale, semantic differential scale, and Gutman scale. The Thurstone scale involves creating a list of statements and having judges score them based on their negativity of positivity towards an issue. Respondents then indicate whether they agree of disagree with each statement. The Likert scale asks respondents to indicate their degree of agreement of disagreement with a series of statements using a five-point scale. The semantic differential scale presents pairs of opposite adjectives and asks respondents to rate their position on a five- of seven-point scale. The Gutman scale involves a list of statements that can be ordered hierarchically, with each statement having a corresponding weight. Respondents’ scores on the scale indicate the number of statements they agree with.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
-
-
Question 28
Incorrect
-
Who is responsible for creating the term 'antidepressant'?
Your Answer: Charpentier
Correct Answer: Lurie
Explanation:A Historical Note on the Development of Zimelidine, the First Selective Serotonin Reuptake Inhibitor
In 1960s, evidence began to emerge suggesting a significant role of serotonin in depression. This led to the development of zimelidine, the first selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI). Zimelidine was derived from pheniramine and was marketed in Europe in 1982. However, it was removed from the market in 1983 due to severe side effects such as hypersensitivity reactions and Guillain-Barre syndrome.
Despite its short-lived availability, zimelidine paved the way for the development of other SSRIs such as fluoxetine, which was approved by the FDA in 1987 and launched in the US market in 1988 under the trade name Prozac. The development of SSRIs revolutionized the treatment of depression and other mood disorders, providing a safer and more effective alternative to earlier antidepressants such as the tricyclics and MAO inhibitors.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
-
-
Question 29
Incorrect
-
What product has been taken off the UK market because of its impact on the QTc interval?
Your Answer: Fluphenazine
Correct Answer: Thioridazine
Explanation:The UK market no longer offers thioridazine and droperidol due to their impact on the QTc interval.
Amantadine and QTc Prolongation
Amantadine is a medication used to treat Parkinson’s disease and influenza. It has been associated with QTc prolongation, which can increase the risk of Torsades de points. Therefore, caution should be exercised when prescribing amantadine to patients with risk factors for QT prolongation. If a patient is already taking amantadine and develops a prolonged QTc interval, the medication should be discontinued and an alternative treatment considered. It is important to monitor the QTc interval in patients taking amantadine, especially those with risk factors for QT prolongation.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
-
-
Question 30
Incorrect
-
Which statement about neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS) is incorrect?
Your Answer: It can be caused by a reduction in dose of apomorphine
Correct Answer: It is usually caused by benzodiazepine use
Explanation:When apomorphine is withdrawn, it results in a decrease in dopamine activity in the brain, similar to the effect of starting an antipsychotic medication that blocks dopamine receptors.
Serotonin Syndrome and Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome are two conditions that can be difficult to differentiate. Serotonin Syndrome is caused by excess serotonergic activity in the CNS and is characterized by neuromuscular abnormalities, altered mental state, and autonomic dysfunction. On the other hand, Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome is a rare acute disorder of thermoregulation and neuromotor control that is almost exclusively caused by antipsychotics. The symptoms of both syndromes can overlap, but there are some distinguishing clinical features. Hyperreflexia, ocular clonus, and tremors are more prominent in Serotonin Syndrome, while Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome is characterized by uniform ‘lead-pipe’ rigidity and hyporeflexia. Symptoms of Serotonin Syndrome usually resolve within a few days of stopping the medication, while Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome can take up to 14 days to remit with appropriate treatment. The following table provides a useful guide to the main differentials of Serotonin Syndrome and Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
-
00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00
:
00
:
00
Session Time
00
:
00
Average Question Time (
Secs)