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Question 1
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A 30-year-old G1P0 woman in her 12th week of pregnancy presents to the emergency department with severe nausea and vomiting that has been worsening over the past week. She reports difficulty keeping any food down over the past 24 hours and noticed a small amount of fresh blood in her vomit. She denies any abdominal pain or change in bowel habits. Despite using cyclizine tablets, her symptoms have not improved. The patient has no significant medical history.
The following blood tests were taken and revealed abnormal results: Na+ 140 mmol/l (reference range 135-145 mmol/l), K+ 3.3 mmol/l (reference range 3.5-5.0 mmol/l), Cl- 100 mmol/l (reference range 95-105 mmol/l), HCO3- 23 mmol/l (reference range 22-28 mmol/l), urea 13 mmol/l (reference range 2.0-7.0 mmol/l), creatinine 80 mmol/l (reference range 55-120 umol/l), and blood glucose 6.0 mmol/l (reference range 4.0-7.8 mmol/l). A urine dipstick revealed 4+ ketonuria but no white or red cells.
What is the most appropriate course of action for this patient?Your Answer: Admit for IV fluid and electrolyte replacement, anti-emetics and trial of bland diet
Explanation:In cases where pregnant women experience severe nausea and vomiting leading to ketonuria and dehydration, admission to the hospital should be considered. This is especially true if they have already tried oral anti-emetics without success. Such symptoms are indicative of hyperemesis gravidarum, which can be confirmed by urine dipstick and increased blood urea levels. While pyridoxine is not recommended by the Royal College of Obstetricians and Gynaecologists (RCOG), ondansetron is effective as a second-line option. However, inpatient treatment is necessary. Gastroscopy is unlikely to be helpful at this stage, even if there is a small amount of blood in the vomit, which is likely due to a Mallory-Weiss tear caused by constant retching. Low K+ levels due to vomiting need to be replaced, and anti-emetics are necessary. Therefore, admission to the hospital for IV fluids, anti-emetics, and a trial of a bland diet is the appropriate course of action.
Hyperemesis gravidarum is an extreme form of nausea and vomiting of pregnancy that occurs in around 1% of pregnancies and is most common between 8 and 12 weeks. It is associated with raised beta hCG levels and can be caused by multiple pregnancies, trophoblastic disease, hyperthyroidism, nulliparity, and obesity. Referral criteria for nausea and vomiting in pregnancy include continued symptoms with ketonuria and/or weight loss, a confirmed or suspected comorbidity, and inability to keep down liquids or oral antiemetics. The diagnosis of hyperemesis gravidarum requires the presence of 5% pre-pregnancy weight loss, dehydration, and electrolyte imbalance. Management includes first-line use of antihistamines and oral cyclizine or promethazine, with second-line options of ondansetron and metoclopramide. Admission may be needed for IV hydration. Complications can include Wernicke’s encephalopathy, Mallory-Weiss tear, central pontine myelinolysis, acute tubular necrosis, and fetal growth issues.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 2
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A 35-year-old woman has been diagnosed with gestational diabetes during her second pregnancy. Despite progressing well, she has been experiencing persistent nausea and vomiting throughout her pregnancy. In her previous pregnancy, she tried taking metformin but it worsened her symptoms and caused frequent loose stools. As a result, she refuses to take metformin again. She has made changes to her diet and lifestyle for the past two weeks, but her blood results show little improvement. Her fasting plasma glucose levels are 6.8 mmol/L, which is still above the normal range of <5.3mmol/L. What should be the next step in managing her gestational diabetes?
Your Answer: Commence insulin
Explanation:If blood glucose targets are not achieved through diet and metformin in gestational diabetes, insulin should be introduced as the next step. This is in accordance with current NICE guidelines, which recommend that pregnant women with any form of diabetes aim for plasma glucose levels below specific target values. Commencing anti-emetic medications or metformin would not be the most appropriate options in this scenario, as the former would not address the underlying issue of gestational diabetes and the latter is not acceptable to the patient. Additionally, offering a 2 week trial of diet and exercise changes would not be appropriate at this stage, as medication is now required. However, this may be an option for patients with a fasting plasma glucose of between 6.0 and 6.9 mmol/L without complications, who can be offered a trial of diet and exercise for 2 weeks before medication is considered if blood glucose targets are not met.
Gestational diabetes is a common medical disorder affecting around 4% of pregnancies. Risk factors include a high BMI, previous gestational diabetes, and family history of diabetes. Screening is done through an oral glucose tolerance test, and diagnostic thresholds have recently been updated. Management includes self-monitoring of blood glucose, diet and exercise advice, and medication if necessary. For pre-existing diabetes, weight loss and insulin are recommended, and tight glycemic control is important. Targets for self-monitoring include fasting glucose of 5.3 mmol/l and 1-2 hour post-meal glucose levels.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 3
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Which one of the following statements regarding cow's milk protein intolerance/allergy in toddlers is true?
Your Answer: The majority of cases resolve before the age of 5 years
Explanation:Understanding Cow’s Milk Protein Intolerance/Allergy
Cow’s milk protein intolerance/allergy (CMPI/CMPA) is a condition that affects around 3-6% of children, typically presenting in the first 3 months of life in formula-fed infants. Both immediate and delayed reactions can occur, with CMPA used for immediate reactions and CMPI for mild-moderate delayed reactions. Symptoms include regurgitation, vomiting, diarrhea, urticaria, atopic eczema, colic symptoms, wheeze, chronic cough, and rarely, angioedema and anaphylaxis. Diagnosis is often clinical, with investigations including skin prick/patch testing and total IgE and specific IgE (RAST) for cow’s milk protein.
Management for formula-fed infants includes using extensive hydrolyzed formula (eHF) milk as the first-line replacement formula for mild-moderate symptoms and amino acid-based formula (AAF) for severe CMPA or if no response to eHF. Around 10% of infants are also intolerant to soya milk. For breastfed infants, mothers should eliminate cow’s milk protein from their diet and consider prescribing calcium supplements to prevent deficiency. eHF milk can be used when breastfeeding stops until at least 6 months and up to 12 months of age.
The prognosis for CMPI is usually good, with most children becoming milk tolerant by the age of 3-5 years. However, a challenge is often performed in a hospital setting as anaphylaxis can occur. It is important to refer infants with severe symptoms to a pediatrician for management. Understanding CMPI/CMPA and its management can help parents and healthcare providers provide appropriate care for affected children.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 4
Correct
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A new vaccine is being tested in healthy volunteers with normal immune function. It is distributed in the lymphatic system only and has limited renal excretion.
A subcutaneous injection of the vaccine is given at 9:00 am and a peak antibody response is reached at 10:00 am. The levels of antibodies in the blood serum at various time points are given below:
Time Antibody concentration
10:00 200 IU/mL
12:00 100 IU/mL
14:00 50 IU/mL
What is the half life of this vaccine?Your Answer: 2 hours
Explanation:Metabolism, Excretion, and Clearance of Drugs
Metabolism and excretion play a crucial role in eliminating active drugs from the body. Metabolism converts drugs into inactive metabolites, while excretion removes the drug or its metabolite from the body. Renal excretion is the most common method of drug elimination, but some drugs may also be excreted through bile or feces. Clearance refers to the rate at which active drug is removed from the circulation, and it involves both renal excretion and hepatic metabolism. However, hepatic metabolism can be difficult to measure, so clearance is typically used to measure renal excretion only.
Most drugs follow first order kinetics, which means that the drug concentration in plasma will decrease by half at a constant interval of time. For example, if the drug concentration in plasma is 120 mg/L, it will drop to 60 mg/L in two hours. After another two hours, the concentration will halve again to 30 mg/L. This pattern continues until the drug is completely eliminated from the body. The half-life of a drug is the time it takes for the drug concentration to halve, and it is typically around two hours for most drugs.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old man is admitted to the Intensive Care Unit (ICU) after acute haemorrhagic pancreatitis. On day 3, he develops acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS).
Which of the following physiological variables is most likely to be low in this patient?Your Answer: Surface tension of alveolar fluid
Correct Answer: Lung compliance
Explanation:Understanding the Pathophysiology of Acute Respiratory Distress Syndrome
Acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) is a life-threatening condition that occurs as a result of damage to the pulmonary and vascular endothelium. This damage leads to increased permeability of the vessels, causing the extravasation of neutrophils, inflammatory factors, and macrophages. The leakage of fluid into the lungs results in diffuse pulmonary edema, which disrupts the production and function of surfactant and impairs gas exchange. This, in turn, causes hypoxemia and impaired carbon dioxide excretion.
The decrease in lung compliance, lung volumes, and the presence of a large intrapulmonary shunt are the consequences of the edema. ARDS can be caused by pneumonia, sepsis, aspiration of gastric contents, and trauma, and it has a mortality rate of 40%.
The work of breathing is affected by pulmonary edema, which causes hypoxemia. In the initial phase, hyperventilation and an increased work of breathing compensate for the hypoxemia. However, if the underlying cause is not treated promptly, the patient tires, leading to decreased work of breathing and respiratory arrest.
The increase in alveolar surface tension has been shown to increase lung water content by lowering interstitial hydrostatic pressure and increasing interstitial oncotic pressure. In ARDS, there is an increase in alveolar-arterial pressure difference due to a ventilation-perfusion defect. Blood is perfusing unventilated segments of the lung. ARDS is also associated with impaired production and function of surfactant, increasing the surface tension of the alveolar fluid.
In conclusion, understanding the pathophysiology of ARDS is crucial in the management of this life-threatening condition. Early recognition and prompt treatment of the underlying cause can improve patient outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
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Question 6
Correct
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An 87-year-old woman who lives alone is found wandering in the street, she is unable to remember her way home. Past medical history of note includes hypertension for which she takes lisinopril and hydrochlorothiazide. She is known to Social Services having been in trouble for stealing from a local grocery store earlier in the year, and for yelling at a neighbor who complained about her loud music. On examination she is agitated and socially inappropriate, she has been incontinent of urine. During your testing she repeats what you say and appears to be laughing at you. Responses to your questions tend to lack fluency and she has trouble naming simple objects. There is rigidity and increased tone on motor examination.
Bloods:
Investigation Result Normal value
Haemoglobin 130 g/l 135–175 g/l
White cell count (WCC) 5.2 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
Platelets 250 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
Sodium (Na+) 142 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
Potassium (K+) 4.5 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
Creatinine 190 μmol/l 50–120 µmol/l
Computed tomography (CT) head scan – evidence of frontal atrophy
Which of the following diagnoses fits best with this clinical picture?Your Answer: Frontotemporal dementia
Explanation:Understanding Frontotemporal Dementia: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Management
Frontotemporal dementia, also known as Pick’s disease, is a type of dementia that affects the frontal and temporal lobes of the brain. One of the hallmark symptoms of this condition is a change in personality, often leading to disinhibition, aggression, and inappropriate behavior. Patients may also exhibit echolalia and echopraxia, repeating words and imitating actions of others.
Unlike Alzheimer’s disease, frontotemporal dementia often presents with early symptoms of behavioral changes and repetitive behavior, rather than memory loss. Incontinence may also be an early symptom. Diagnosis is typically made through brain imaging, which reveals frontotemporal lobe degeneration and the presence of Pick’s bodies, spherical aggregations of tau proteins in neurons.
Management of frontotemporal dementia focuses on symptomatic treatment of behavior and support for caregivers and patients. Other conditions, such as Shy-Drager syndrome, multi-infarct dementia, and Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease, may present with similar symptoms but can be ruled out through careful evaluation and testing.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 7
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A 72-year-old man visits his GP with complaints of hand pain. He reports difficulty with tasks such as buttoning his clothes, which has been ongoing for a few months. The patient notes stiffness in his fingers, particularly in the morning, and swelling, which is more pronounced in his left hand. Upon examination, the doctor observes swelling at the distal interphalangeal joints and limited range of motion, but no other abnormalities. The patient's vital signs are within normal limits. He has a medical history of hypertension, type 2 diabetes, gout, and alcohol abuse. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Osteoarthritis
Explanation:The patient’s symptoms suggest osteoarthritis, which commonly affects small joints in the hand and can cause swelling at the distal interphalangeal joints (Heberden’s nodes). Gout, pseudogout, and reactive arthritis are unlikely diagnoses based on the patient’s symptoms.
Understanding Osteoarthritis of the Hand
Osteoarthritis of the hand, also known as nodal arthritis, is a condition that occurs when the cartilage at synovial joints is lost, leading to the degeneration of underlying bone. It is more common in women, usually presenting after the age of 55, and may have a genetic component. Risk factors include previous joint trauma, obesity, hypermobility, and certain occupations. Interestingly, osteoporosis may actually reduce the risk of developing hand OA.
Symptoms of hand OA include episodic joint pain, stiffness that worsens after periods of inactivity, and the development of painless bony swellings known as Heberden’s and Bouchard’s nodes. These nodes are the result of osteophyte formation and are typically found at the distal and proximal interphalangeal joints, respectively. In severe cases, there may be reduced grip strength and deformity of the carpometacarpal joint of the thumb, resulting in fixed adduction.
Diagnosis is typically made through X-ray, which may show signs of osteophyte formation and joint space narrowing before symptoms develop. While hand OA may not significantly impact a patient’s daily function, it is important to manage symptoms through pain relief and joint protection strategies. Additionally, the presence of hand OA may increase the risk of future hip and knee OA, particularly for hip OA.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 75-year-old woman is prescribed intravenous gentamicin for a severe Pseudomonas infection. What is the most crucial side-effect to monitor for during her treatment?
Your Answer: Prolonged QT interval + ototoxicity
Correct Answer: Ototoxicity + nephrotoxicity
Explanation:Gentamicin is a type of antibiotic belonging to the aminoglycoside class. It is not easily soluble in lipids, which is why it is administered either parentally or topically. Gentamicin is commonly used to treat infective endocarditis and otitis externa. However, it is important to note that gentamicin can cause adverse effects such as ototoxicity and nephrotoxicity. Ototoxicity is caused by damage to the auditory or vestibular nerve, which can be irreversible. Nephrotoxicity occurs when gentamicin accumulates in the body, particularly in patients with renal failure, leading to acute tubular necrosis. The risk of toxicity is increased when gentamicin is used in conjunction with furosemide. Therefore, lower doses and more frequent monitoring are required.
It is important to note that gentamicin is contraindicated in patients with myasthenia gravis. Due to the potential for toxicity, it is crucial to monitor plasma concentrations of gentamicin. Both peak levels (measured one hour after administration) and trough levels (measured just before the next dose) are monitored. If the trough level is high, the interval between doses should be increased. If the peak level is high, the dose should be decreased. By carefully monitoring gentamicin levels, healthcare providers can ensure that patients receive the appropriate dose without experiencing adverse effects.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 39-year-old man, with a history of severe depression, is admitted unconscious to the hospital, following a suicide attempt where he stabbed himself with a knife, with significant intent of causing death. His past psychiatric history suggests that this is his fifth suicide attempt, with the four previous attempts involving taking an overdose of his antidepressants and paracetamol. During this admission, he needed surgery for bowel repair. He is now three days post-operation on the Surgical Ward and is having one-to-one nursing due to recurrent suicidal thoughts after his surgery. The consulting surgeon thinks he is not fit enough to be discharged, and a referral is made to liaison psychiatry. After assessing the patient, the psychiatrist reports that the patient’s current severe depression is affecting his capacity and that the patient’s mental health puts himself at risk of harm. The psychiatrist decides to detain him on the ward for at least three days. The patient insists on leaving and maintains that he has no interest to be alive.
Which is the most appropriate section for the doctor to use to keep this patient in hospital?Your Answer: Section 2
Correct Answer: Section 5(2)
Explanation:The Mental Health Act has several sections that allow doctors and mental health professionals to keep patients in hospital for assessment or treatment. Section 5(2) can be used by doctors to keep a patient in hospital for at least 72 hours if they have a history of severe depression, previous suicide attempts, or recurrent suicidal thoughts. Section 2 is used by approved mental health professionals for assessment and allows for a maximum stay of 28 days. Section 4 is used in emergencies and allows for a 72-hour stay. Section 5(4) can be used by mental health or learning disability nurses for a maximum of six hours. Section 3 can be used for treatment for up to six months, with the possibility of extensions and treatment against the patient’s will in the first three months.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 72-year-old myopic man with a history of hypertension arrives at the clinic complaining of a sudden, painless decrease in his vision. He reports a dense shadow obstructing his left eye, which began in the periphery and has advanced towards the center of his vision.
During the examination, he can only perceive hand movements in his left eye, while his right eye has a visual acuity of 6/6. What is the probable reason for the vision loss?Your Answer: Vitreous hemorrhage
Correct Answer: Retinal detachment
Explanation:Retinal detachment is a condition that can cause sudden and painless loss of vision. It is characterized by a dense shadow that starts from the periphery and progresses towards the center of the visual field.
Central retinal artery occlusion, on the other hand, is caused by a blockage of blood flow due to thromboembolism or arthritis. This condition can also cause sudden and painless loss of vision, but it does not typically present with a peripheral-to-central progression. Instead, it is characterized by an afferent pupillary defect and a cherry red spot on a pale retina.
Central retinal vein occlusion is more common than arterial occlusion and is often seen in older patients, particularly those with glaucoma. This condition can also cause sudden and painless loss of vision, but it can affect any venous territory and is associated with severe retinal hemorrhages.
Retinal detachment is often seen in people with myopia and can be preceded by flashes and floaters. It typically presents with a shadow in the visual field that starts from the periphery and progresses towards the center.
Optic neuritis can also cause sudden visual loss, but this is usually temporary and is often accompanied by painful eye movement.
Vitreous hemorrhage, on the other hand, causes a dark spot in the visual field where the hemorrhage is located, rather than a shadow that progresses towards the center.
Sudden loss of vision can be a scary symptom for patients, as it may indicate a serious issue or only be temporary. Transient monocular visual loss (TMVL) is a term used to describe a sudden, brief loss of vision that lasts less than 24 hours. The most common causes of sudden, painless loss of vision include ischaemic/vascular issues (such as thrombosis, embolism, and temporal arthritis), vitreous haemorrhage, retinal detachment, and retinal migraine.
Ischaemic/vascular issues, also known as ‘amaurosis fugax’, have a wide range of potential causes, including large artery disease, small artery occlusive disease, venous disease, and hypoperfusion. Altitudinal field defects are often seen, and ischaemic optic neuropathy can occur due to occlusion of the short posterior ciliary arteries. Central retinal vein occlusion is more common than arterial occlusion and can be caused by glaucoma, polycythaemia, or hypertension. Central retinal artery occlusion is typically caused by thromboembolism or arthritis and may present with an afferent pupillary defect and a ‘cherry red’ spot on a pale retina.
Vitreous haemorrhage can be caused by diabetes, bleeding disorders, or anticoagulants and may present with sudden visual loss and dark spots. Retinal detachment may be preceded by flashes of light or floaters, which are also common in posterior vitreous detachment. Differentiating between posterior vitreous detachment, retinal detachment, and vitreous haemorrhage can be challenging, but each has distinct features such as photopsia and floaters for posterior vitreous detachment, a dense shadow that progresses towards central vision for retinal detachment, and large bleeds causing sudden visual loss for vitreous haemorrhage.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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