00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00 : 00 : 0 00
Session Time
00 : 00
Average Question Time ( Secs)
  • Question 1 - What significance do linoleic and alpha-linolenic acids hold? ...

    Incorrect

    • What significance do linoleic and alpha-linolenic acids hold?

      Your Answer: They are omega-3 fatty acids

      Correct Answer: They are essential fatty acids

      Explanation:

      The Importance of Essential Fatty Acids in the Diet

      Essential fatty acids, such as linoleic and alpha-linolenic acids, are crucial components of a healthy diet. Although they are only required in small amounts, they play several important roles in the body. These fatty acids are necessary for the synthesis of phospholipids, which are essential components of cell membranes. They also help regulate cholesterol transport and synthesis, and serve as precursors for omega-3 fatty acids and arachidonic acid. Additionally, essential fatty acids are important for the synthesis of prostaglandins, leukotrienes, and thromboxanes.

      A lack of adequate essential fatty acids in the diet can have negative consequences, particularly for brain growth in infancy. It can also lead to alopecia, dermatitis, and fatty liver. Therefore, it is important to ensure that the diet includes sources of these essential fatty acids, such as certain types of fish, nuts, and seeds. By doing so, individuals can support their overall health and well-being.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      6.6
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - What is the primary factor that increases the risk of thiamine (vitamin B1)...

    Incorrect

    • What is the primary factor that increases the risk of thiamine (vitamin B1) deficiency?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Chronic alcohol excess

      Explanation:

      Thiamine: Its Roles, Sources, Deficiency States, and Manifestations

      Thiamine is a vital nutrient that plays several roles in the body. It acts as a cofactor to enzymes involved in energy production, metabolism of branched chain amino acids, and regulation of nerve and muscle action potentials. It is found in many foods, including wheat, oats, and yeast-containing products. However, deficiency states can occur in chronic alcohol dependence, renal dialysis, and cultures that mainly consume white rice. The deficiency can manifest as ‘dry’ beriberi, which causes peripheral neuropathy, muscle weakness, fatigue, and reduced concentration, or ‘wet’ beriberi, which also involves heart failure and edema. In severe cases, Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome can develop, which is an emergency requiring urgent IV replacement of thiamine. If left untreated, it can lead to irreversible amnesia, confabulation, and dementia. Therefore, all patients with alcohol-related admissions should be considered for Pabrinex, a B vitamin infusion.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 65-year-old patient with suspected spinal cord compression has been admitted to the...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old patient with suspected spinal cord compression has been admitted to the neurosurgical team for an urgent MRI of the spine. Which particle's magnetic properties does magnetic resonance imaging rely predominantly upon?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hydrogen ion (proton)

      Explanation:

      How MRI Scanners Use Hydrogen Ions to Create Images

      MRI scanners use the magnetic properties of hydrogen ions, also known as protons, to create images of the human body. These protons have nuclear spin, which means they have magnetic vectors that can be aligned in an electromagnet. The scanner bombards the protons with radiofrequency radiation, causing them to release energy when they return to their resting state. This energy release is recorded and used to construct the MRI image.

      While other nuclei, such as carbon 13, also have nuclear spin and could be used in MRI imaging, hydrogen ions are much more abundant in human tissues. This makes them the preferred choice for creating images of the body. The process of aligning the magnetic vectors of the protons and then recording their energy release is repeated many times to create a detailed image of the body’s internal structures.

      Overall, MRI scanners use the magnetic properties of hydrogen ions to create detailed images of the human body. This non-invasive imaging technique has revolutionized medical diagnosis and treatment, allowing doctors to see inside the body without the need for surgery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - What is the cause of the symptoms of weakness, dermatitis, diarrhoea and dementia...

    Incorrect

    • What is the cause of the symptoms of weakness, dermatitis, diarrhoea and dementia in pellagra?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Deficiency of the vitamin niacin

      Explanation:

      Niacin Deficiency and Other Genetic Diseases

      Niacin, a vitamin present in two forms – nicotinamide and nicotinic acid, is found in a variety of plant and animal foodstuffs. However, in some cases, the form of the vitamin is not easily absorbed by the human body, leading to deficiency. This deficiency is common in areas where maize is the primary dietary carbohydrate. Additionally, niacin can be produced by the body from the amino acid tryptophan. Diseases that affect the availability of tryptophan, such as Hartnup disease and carcinoid syndrome, can also result in niacin deficiency.

      Pellagra is a condition that arises from niacin deficiency. It initially presents with non-specific symptoms such as nausea, fatigue, and reduced appetite, followed by pigmented dermatitis in sun-exposed areas, gastrointestinal disturbance, mood disturbance, and dementia in severe cases.

      Apart from niacin deficiency, genetic diseases affecting collagen synthesis, such as Ehlers Danlos, present with symptoms of fragile stretchy skin and joint hypermobility. Genetic diseases affecting haemoglobin, such as sickle cell anaemia, present with symptoms of pain, hepatosplenomegaly, shortness of breath, and anaemia. Deficiencies in B12 and folate can also lead to macrocytic anaemia, paresthesia, and lethargy.

      In conclusion, the causes and symptoms of niacin deficiency and other genetic diseases is crucial for early diagnosis and effective treatment. A balanced diet and regular medical check-ups can help prevent and manage these conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - The Krebs or TCA cycle is a series of metabolic processes beginning with...

    Incorrect

    • The Krebs or TCA cycle is a series of metabolic processes beginning with the synthesis of citrate from acetyl-CoA which results in a number of important metabolic products. Where in the cell does this cycle occur?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Mitochondria

      Explanation:

      Cellular Processes and Organelles

      Metabolic processes in the cell occur in specific locations. Acetyl-CoA production and the Krebs cycle take place in the mitochondrium, while glycolysis occurs in the cytoplasm. The nucleus is the central structure of the cell that contains DNA and is double membrane-bound. The rough endoplasmic reticulum is responsible for packaging and transporting proteins, while the smooth endoplasmic reticulum performs a similar function but lacks ribosomes.

      It is important to understand where these processes occur in the cell to better understand their functions and how they contribute to the overall functioning of the cell. The mitochondrium is responsible for producing energy in the form of ATP, while the cytoplasm is where glucose is broken down during glycolysis. The nucleus is where genetic information is stored and replicated, and the endoplasmic reticulum is involved in protein synthesis and transport.

      In summary, the cell is a complex system with various organelles that perform specific functions. where these processes occur in the cell is crucial to how they contribute to the overall functioning of the cell.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - Which food is a rich source of vitamin D in the diet? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which food is a rich source of vitamin D in the diet?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Oily fish

      Explanation:

      Sources of Vitamin D

      Vitamin D is a type of fat-soluble vitamin that can be found in certain foods such as cheese, butter, eggs, and oily fish. However, vegetable sources of vitamin D are limited, although some foods are fortified with this vitamin. For instance, 100 grams of sundried shiitake mushrooms contain 1600 IU of vitamin D, while one egg contains 20 IU. Wild salmon is also a good source of vitamin D, with 100 grams containing 800 IU, while farmed salmon contains 200 IU.

      Aside from food sources, sunlight is also a good source of vitamin D. Exposure of arms and legs to sunlight for 10-15 minutes can provide 3000 IU of vitamin D. However, it is difficult to obtain the daily requirement of 25-50 IU of vitamin D through sunlight alone, especially for people living in temperate climates. As a result, many people may have insufficient vitamin D levels. It is important to ensure that we get enough vitamin D through a combination of food sources and sunlight exposure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - In scientific experimentation, what is the term used to describe the movement of...

    Incorrect

    • In scientific experimentation, what is the term used to describe the movement of charged particles or solutes in a liquid medium due to an electric field?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Electrophoresis

      Explanation:

      Electrophoresis: Separating Molecules Based on Charge and Mass

      Electrophoresis is a technique that separates solutes, molecules, or nucleic acids based on their mass and charge. It involves the migration of charged particles in a liquid medium under the influence of an electric field. The apparatus consists of two electrodes placed at either end of a support medium, or gel, which is suspended in a buffer solution. The sample is inserted into a well and a current is applied. Over time, positively charged solutes move towards the negative electrode, while negatively charged substances move towards the positive electrode. Once the migration is complete, the gel is removed and stained to color the substance being tested for, such as protein.

      This technique is widely used in medical testing, but it requires a higher degree of operational and interpretive skill than many other tests, which is why it often takes longer to get a result. Electrophoresis has various uses and adaptations, such as standard electrophoresis for protein detection in the diagnosis of myeloma, identification of unusual lipid fractions in patients with inherited diseases, and detection of viral DNA through Southern Blotting. There is also Northern blotting, primarily a research technique at present, which uses electrophoresis to separate RNA. Additionally, Western blotting is used to test for the presence of antibodies to DNA through protein separation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - While taking a patient's medical history, you discover that their family has a...

    Incorrect

    • While taking a patient's medical history, you discover that their family has a strong history of a certain disease. Autosomal dominant diseases are often caused by defects in structural genes and typically present in early adulthood, affecting both males and females equally. Which of the following diseases does not follow an autosomal dominant pattern of inheritance?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Haemochromatosis

      Explanation:

      Abnormal Binding Proteins and Iron Deposition: A Genetic Disorder

      Abnormal binding proteins can lead to the deposition of iron in the body, resulting in various health complications. This genetic disorder is inherited in an autosomal recessive manner. The deposition of iron can cause cardiomyopathy, cirrhosis, pancreatic failure due to fibrosis, and skin pigmentation.

      In general, disorders that affect metabolism or DNA replication on a cellular or genetic level tend to be autosomal recessive. On the other hand, genetic disorders that affect the structure of the body on a larger level are usually autosomal dominant. While there may be exceptions to these rules, they can serve as a helpful guide for exam preparation. Proper of this genetic disorder can aid in its diagnosis and management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - Which statement regarding microtubules is accurate in relation to Chediak-Higashi syndrome? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which statement regarding microtubules is accurate in relation to Chediak-Higashi syndrome?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: They are arranged in a 9+2 formation in cilia

      Explanation:

      Microtubules and Chediak-Higashi Syndrome

      Microtubules are structures composed of alpha and beta tubulin dimers that are arranged in a helix and can be added or removed to vary the length. They are found in flagella, mitotic spindles, and cilia, where they have a 9+2 arrangement. Chemotherapy agents, such as taxanes, target microtubules in breast cancer treatment.

      Chediak-Higashi syndrome is an autosomal recessive condition that presents with albinism, bleeding and bruising due to platelet dysfunction, and susceptibility to infections due to abnormal neutrophils. The LYST gene is responsible for lysosomal trafficking proteins and is affected in this syndrome.

      In summary, microtubules are important structures in various cellular processes and are targeted in cancer treatment. Chediak-Higashi syndrome is a rare genetic disorder that affects lysosomal trafficking proteins and presents with various symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 50-year-old male comes to the clinic complaining of abdominal swelling, nausea, and...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old male comes to the clinic complaining of abdominal swelling, nausea, and mild jaundice. He has a history of regular alcohol consumption, drinking two 330ml bottles of lager per day (3% ABV) and a 75cl bottle of 12% ABV wine per week.

      What is the approximate number of units of alcohol this man consumes per week? Round to the nearest unit.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 23 units

      Explanation:

      Calculating Units of Alcohol

      To calculate the number of units of alcohol in a drink, you need to multiply the percentage of alcohol (ABV) by the volume in millilitres and then divide by 1000. However, there are potential pitfalls to watch out for when answering questions about units of alcohol. For example, if the consumption is presented as a daily amount, you need to multiply by 7 to get the weekly amount. Additionally, if the volume is presented in centilitres, you need to convert it to millilitres before performing the calculation.

      For instance, let’s say you want to calculate the units of alcohol in a bottle of lager. If the ABV is 3% and the volume is 330ml, the calculation would be 3% x 330ml divided by 1000, which equals 0.99 units rounded up to 1 unit. If the person drinks two bottles a day, that’s 2 units per day or 14 units per week. Similarly, if the person drinks one bottle of wine per week, and the ABV is 12% and the volume is 750ml, the calculation would be 12% x 750ml divided by 1000, which equals 9 units per bottle.

      It’s important to be aware of potential pitfalls when calculating units of alcohol, such as checking the units of volume and adjusting for duration. By this simple calculation, you can be prepared for any question that may come up in an exam setting. The UK recommendations for alcohol consumption are no more than 14 units per week for both sexes. While calculating units of alcohol may seem daunting, with practice and preparation, you can confidently tackle any question that comes your way.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - What type of molecule does haemoglobin belong to? ...

    Incorrect

    • What type of molecule does haemoglobin belong to?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Quaternary protein structure

      Explanation:

      The Structure and Functions of Proteins

      Proteins are complex molecules that can vary in structure from single amino acids to large, folded molecules. Amino acids are joined together by peptide bonds to form dipeptides and polypeptides. More complex molecules can also have disulphide bonds and ionic bonds. The primary structure of a protein is a simple amino acid chain, while the secondary structure is a specific shape such as a helix or pleated sheet. The tertiary structure is a more globular shape, arranged by ionic, hydrogen, and disulphide bonds, and hydrophobic interactions. The quaternary structure is a complex protein containing several polypeptide chains held together by interactions.

      Proteins have multiple roles within the human body, including as hormones, food substrates, enzymes, receptor molecules, muscles, cell membrane constituents, carrier molecules in blood, and determinants of oncotic/osmotic pressures. However, proteins can be easily damaged by denaturation, which is the loss of the specific three-dimensional shape of a molecule. Denaturation can be caused by heat, salts, heavy metals, solvents, detergents, and extremes of pH.

      In summary, proteins are essential molecules with a diverse range of structures and functions within the human body. their structure and potential for denaturation is crucial for maintaining their proper function.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - During which stage of the cell cycle does the replication of DNA occur?...

    Incorrect

    • During which stage of the cell cycle does the replication of DNA occur?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: S phase

      Explanation:

      The Five Phases of the Cell Cycle

      The cell cycle is a complex process that is divided into five main phases, each with its unique cellular events. The first phase is the G0 phase, which is a resting phase where the cell has stopped dividing and is out of the cell cycle. The second phase is the G1 phase, also known as interphase Gap 1, where cells increase in size, and a checkpoint control mechanism prepares the cell for DNA synthesis.

      The third phase is the S phase, where DNA replication occurs. The fourth phase is the G2 phase, also known as Gap 2, which is a gap between DNA synthesis and the onset of mitosis. During this phase, the cell continues to grow until it is ready to enter mitosis. Finally, the fifth phase is the M phase, also known as mitosis, where cell growth stops, and the cell focuses its energy to divide into two daughter cells.

      A checkpoint in the middle of mitosis, known as the metaphase checkpoint, ensures that the cell is prepared to complete division. the five phases of the cell cycle is crucial in how cells divide and grow.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - During which phase of aerobic respiration is FADH2 generated? ...

    Incorrect

    • During which phase of aerobic respiration is FADH2 generated?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Krebs cycle

      Explanation:

      The Krebs Cycle and the Role of FADH2

      The Krebs cycle is a crucial part of aerobic respiration in cells. It involves a series of reactions that convert acetate, derived from carbohydrates, fats, and proteins, into carbon dioxide and energy in the form of ATP. Additionally, the Krebs cycle produces precursors for some amino acids and reducing agents like NADH and FADH2 that are involved in other metabolic pathways.

      FAD is a redox cofactor that plays a vital role in the Krebs cycle. It receives two electrons from the sixth reaction of the cycle, where succinate dehydrogenase converts succinate into fumarate by removing two hydrogen atoms and attaching them onto FAD. This process results in FAD gaining two electrons and reducing into FADH2.

      FADH2 then donates the electrons to the electron transport chain, which is another part of cellular respiration. This mechanism helps compensate for the relatively low amount of ATP produced by the Krebs cycle (2.5 molecules of ATP per turn) compared to the electron transport chain (26-28 molecules of ATP). Overall, the Krebs cycle and the role of FADH2 are essential for generating energy in cells.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 10-year-old patient presents with recurrent skin cancer and is diagnosed with xeroderma...

    Incorrect

    • A 10-year-old patient presents with recurrent skin cancer and is diagnosed with xeroderma pigmentosum. What is the defective biochemical mechanism in this disease?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: DNA excision repair

      Explanation:

      Xeroderma Pigmentosum and DNA Repair

      Deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) found in the skin cells can absorb ultraviolet (UV) light, which can cause the formation of pyrimidine dimers. These dimers are removed through a process called excision repair, where the damaged DNA is cut out and replaced with new DNA. However, if this process fails, it can lead to mutations in genes that suppress tumors or promote their growth, potentially leading to cancer.

      Xeroderma pigmentosum is a genetic disorder that is inherited in an autosomal recessive pattern. This means that an individual must inherit two copies of the mutated gene, one from each parent, to develop the disorder. Generally, disorders that affect metabolism or DNA replication on a cellular or genetic level are inherited in an autosomal recessive pattern. On the other hand, genetic disorders that affect larger structural components are usually inherited in an autosomal dominant pattern. While there are exceptions to these rules, they can serve as a helpful guide for exam preparation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 29-year-old woman visits your clinic with concerns about a possible pregnancy.

    Can...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old woman visits your clinic with concerns about a possible pregnancy.

      Can you explain the mechanism behind a urinary pregnancy test?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: ELISA

      Explanation:

      Techniques in Biochemistry

      Over-the-counter urine pregnancy tests use ELISA to detect beta-HCG in a woman’s urine. The test stick contains antibodies that react with beta-HCG, producing a color change that confirms pregnancy. The urinary pregnancy test is a solid-phase ELISA, where the antibody is immobilized on a specialized filter paper. The fluid travels laterally across the paper to bind with the antibody, and if beta-HCG is present, the line turns blue. Electrophoresis characterizes the electrical charge and size of substances, while PCR identifies specific sequences of DNA or RNA. Radioimmunoassay uses radioactivity to identify specific proteins. Enzymatic degradation breaks down large proteins into smaller subunits for which target antibodies may already exist. This method is used to characterize large proteins for which the structure has not yet been described.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - What are the potential clinical consequences of a lack of vitamin E? ...

    Incorrect

    • What are the potential clinical consequences of a lack of vitamin E?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ataxia

      Explanation:

      Vitamin E Deficiency

      Vitamin E deficiency is a rare condition that is more likely to occur in individuals with problems affecting the absorption of dietary fats. This includes those with a history of bowel surgery, pancreatic insufficiency, and cystic fibrosis. Premature infants are also at a higher risk of developing this deficiency as vitamin E does not easily cross the placenta. However, supplementation with vitamin E can reverse the damage in some cases.

      The effects of vitamin E deficiency can be severe and can cause spinocerebellar degeneration, which includes limb ataxia, loss of joint position sense, loss of sensation of vibration, and loss of deep tendon reflexes. Additionally, it can cause degeneration of retinal pigments, leading to blindness. In premature infants, it can cause haemolytic anaemia, thrombocytosis, and oedema.

      Overall, vitamin E deficiency is crucial in preventing and treating its effects. It is important to identify individuals who are at a higher risk of developing this deficiency and provide them with appropriate supplementation to prevent any long-term damage.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 70-year-old male smoker complains of calf pain.

    The GP performs a clinical...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old male smoker complains of calf pain.

      The GP performs a clinical test by raising the patient's legs and observing for the angle at which there is blanching. After one minute, the legs are lowered over the side of the couch so that they are fully dependent with feet on the floor. Reactive hyperaemia is observed.

      Which clinical test does this describe?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Buerger's test

      Explanation:

      Tests for Assessing Arterial and Venous Circulation, Hip Dysfunction, and Meniscal Tear

      Buerger’s test is a method used to evaluate the arterial circulation of the lower limb. The test involves observing the angle at which blanching occurs, with a lower angle indicating a higher likelihood of arterial insufficiency. Additionally, the degree of reactive hyperaemia on dependency of the limb after one minute is another positive sign of arterial insufficiency during the test.

      Another test used to assess circulation is the Ankle-Brachial Pressure Index (ABPI), which involves using blood pressure cuffs to determine the degree of claudication. McMurray’s test, on the other hand, is used to evaluate for a meniscal tear within the knee joint.

      Perthe’s test is a method used to assess the patency of the deep femoral vein prior to varicose vein surgery. Lastly, Trendelenburg’s test is used to evaluate hip dysfunction. These tests are important in diagnosing and treating various conditions related to circulation and joint function.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 50-year-old female patient with varicose veins presents to the vascular clinic for...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old female patient with varicose veins presents to the vascular clinic for evaluation.

      During the assessment, a test is conducted to determine the location of incompetence. The patient is instructed to lie down, and the veins are emptied by elevating her legs off the couch. The examiner then identifies the site of the sapheno-femoral junction and applies pressure with their fingers. The patient is then asked to stand up to evaluate vein filling.

      What is the name of this test?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Trendelenburg's test

      Explanation:

      Assessing Varicose Vein Site of Incompetence

      The Trendelenburg and tourniquet tests are both used to evaluate the site of incompetence in varicose veins at the sapheno-femoral junction. During the Trendelenburg test, the examiner applies pressure with their fingers over the junction site, while in the tourniquet test, a tourniquet is placed just below the junction level.

      If the veins fill quickly upon standing, it indicates that the sapheno-femoral junction is not the source of the incompetence. These tests are essential in determining the location of the varicose vein site of incompetence, which is crucial in planning the appropriate treatment. By identifying the site of incompetence, physicians can perform targeted interventions to improve venous function and alleviate symptoms. Therefore, the Trendelenburg and tourniquet tests are valuable tools in the diagnosis and management of varicose veins.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - What occurs in eukaryotic prophase? ...

    Incorrect

    • What occurs in eukaryotic prophase?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Chromatin condenses into chromosomes

      Explanation:

      The Stages of Prophase in Eukaryotic Mitosis

      Prophase is the first stage of eukaryotic mitosis, except for plant cells which have a preprophase stage. During prophase, the cell’s chromatin, which is made up of DNA and associated proteins, condenses into double rod-shaped structures called chromosomes. This process is facilitated by the condensin protein I and/or II complexes. As the chromosomes form, the nuclear membrane and nucleoli disintegrate and disappear, making the chromatin visible.

      Before prophase, the cell’s DNA is replicated during interphase, resulting in identical pairs of chromosomes called chromatids. These chromatids attach to each other at a DNA element called the centromere. DNA and centrosome duplication occur during interphase, while chromosome alignment takes place during metaphase. The nuclear membrane and nucleoli re-form during telophase, and the sister chromatids separate during anaphase.

      In summary, prophase is the initial stage of eukaryotic mitosis where chromatin condenses into chromosomes, and the nuclear membrane and nucleoli disappear. Chromosome alignment, DNA and centrosome duplication, and re-formation of the nuclear membrane and nucleoli occur in subsequent stages.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - What is the fundamental meaning of carbohydrate? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the fundamental meaning of carbohydrate?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: A compound following the formula Cx(H2O)y

      Explanation:

      Carbohydrates: Building Blocks of Energy and Storage

      Carbohydrates are organic compounds made up of carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen, with a general formula of Cx(H2O)y. They can be classified as either aldehydes or ketones and contain multiple hydroxyl groups. Monosaccharides are the simplest form of carbohydrates, consisting of a single unit. They are categorized based on the number of carbon atoms they contain, with trioses having three, pentoses having five, and hexoses having six carbon atoms. These monosaccharides are essential for energy production and building larger carbohydrate structures.

      Disaccharides are formed when two monosaccharides are joined together through a condensation reaction, releasing a water molecule. The most common disaccharides are lactose, maltose, and sucrose. Polysaccharides, on the other hand, are long, branched polymers made up of multiple single units. They serve as convenient storage molecules for energy reserves, such as glycogen in humans and starch in plants.

      In summary, carbohydrates are vital building blocks for energy production and storage in living organisms. Monosaccharides, disaccharides, and polysaccharides all play important roles in maintaining the body’s energy balance and overall health.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A couple in their late 20s comes to your clinic seeking advice regarding...

    Incorrect

    • A couple in their late 20s comes to your clinic seeking advice regarding the possibility of their children inheriting cystic fibrosis. The husband has a confirmed diagnosis of the condition, but the carrier status of the wife is unknown.

      What is the likelihood of any of their offspring being affected by cystic fibrosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 2.50%

      Explanation:

      Cystic Fibrosis Inheritance

      Cystic fibrosis (CF) is a genetic disorder that affects the chloride ion channels, leading to the thickening of respiratory and other secretions. It is an autosomal recessive condition, which means that a person must inherit two copies of the defective gene, one from each parent, to develop the disease. The most common defective allele is carried by approximately 1 in 20 people.

      If a man with CF has children with a woman who does not carry the recessive gene, then none of their children will be affected by the disease. However, they will all be carriers of the CF gene. On the other hand, if the woman is a carrier of the CF gene, there is a 50% chance that each child will inherit one copy of the defective gene from each parent and be affected by the disease. The remaining 50% of the children will inherit one copy of the defective gene and one normal gene, making them carriers of the CF gene but not affected by the disease.

      In summary, the probability of any child being affected by CF is 2.5% if one parent has the defective gene and the other does not. It is important for individuals who are carriers of the CF gene to be aware of their status and seek genetic counseling before planning to have children.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - What are the clinical consequences of a lack of vitamin A? ...

    Incorrect

    • What are the clinical consequences of a lack of vitamin A?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Dry conjunctiva

      Explanation:

      The Devastating Effects of Vitamin A Deficiency

      Vitamin A deficiency is a serious health concern that can lead to a range of devastating effects. One of the most common consequences is blindness, particularly in children. Poor night vision is often an early sign of this deficiency, which can progress to complete blindness if left untreated.

      In addition to blindness, vitamin A deficiency can also cause dry conjunctiva, a condition known as conjunctival xerosis. This occurs when the normally moist and fine conjunctiva becomes thickened and dysfunctional, leading to the formation of white plaques known as Bitot’s spots. Corneal ulceration can also occur as a result of this condition.

      The respiratory and gastrointestinal epithelia can also be affected by vitamin A deficiency, leading to reduced resistance to infection. This deficiency is a major public health issue in some parts of the world and is the single most common preventable cause of blindness. It is crucial to address this issue through education and access to vitamin A-rich foods and supplements.

      Overall, the devastating effects of vitamin A deficiency highlight the importance of proper nutrition and access to essential vitamins and minerals. By addressing this issue, we can help prevent blindness and improve overall health outcomes for individuals and communities around the world.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - Over the last five years, the total number of patients admitted and deaths...

    Incorrect

    • Over the last five years, the total number of patients admitted and deaths in the East and North Hertfordshire NHS Trust have been recorded. In the year 2010/2011, there were 95,071 patients admitted and 1,912 deaths. What is the crude mortality ratio for this group in that year (per 100 admissions)?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 2

      Explanation:

      In this scenario, the crude mortality ratio is established by comparing the number of deaths occurring within the hospital in a given year to the total number of admissions, disregarding age or gender-specific mortality rates. For instance, with 1,912 deaths out of 95,071 admissions, the ratio computes to 0.02, or 2.0% when calculated per 100 admissions (1,912/95,071 = 0.02/100= 2.0%. When recalculated per 1,000 admissions, the crude admission rate would be 20 per 1,000.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - What could be a potential cause of metabolic acidosis? ...

    Incorrect

    • What could be a potential cause of metabolic acidosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Poorly controlled diabetes

      Explanation:

      Acid-Base Imbalances in Different Medical Conditions

      Poorly controlled diabetes can cause the breakdown of fatty acids, leading to the production of ketones as an alternative energy source. However, an excess of ketones can result in metabolic acidosis due to their acidic nature. On the other hand, chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) and suffocation can cause the retention of carbon dioxide, leading to respiratory acidosis. In COPD, there may be a compensatory metabolic alkalosis. Voluntary hyperventilation can cause respiratory alkalosis due to the reduction of carbon dioxide. Vomiting can also lead to metabolic alkalosis. Diabetic ketoacidosis is a complication of type 1 diabetes that results in high blood sugar levels, ketone production, and acidosis.

      In summary, different medical conditions can cause acid-base imbalances in the body. It is important to identify the underlying cause of the imbalance to provide appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - The diabetes prevention program has been running for the last 5 years. At...

    Incorrect

    • The diabetes prevention program has been running for the last 5 years. At baseline, a well conducted study with a sample size of 500 showed that the prevalence of diabetes among adults aged 40 and above was 15%.
      Five years later another survey (of 400 responders) showed that the prevalence of diabetes was 10%.
      In the above example, which definition of prevalence is correct?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Prevalence is the number of new and old smokers in a year

      Explanation:

      Prevalence and Incidence in Smoking

      Prevalence and incidence are two important concepts in the smoking habits of a population. Prevalence refers to the number of people who smoke at a particular time point, such as at the beginning or end of a study period. This is calculated by dividing the number of smokers by the total population.

      On the other hand, incidence refers to the number of new cases of smoking at a particular time point. For example, this could be at the beginning of a study period for the whole year or at the 10th year. This is calculated by dividing the number of new smokers by the number of smoke-free individuals who are potentially at risk of taking up smoking.

      prevalence and incidence is important in evaluating the effectiveness of smoking cessation programs and policies. By tracking changes in prevalence and incidence over time, researchers and policymakers can determine whether their efforts are making a difference in reducing smoking rates. Additionally, these concepts can help identify populations that are at higher risk of taking up smoking, allowing for targeted interventions to prevent smoking initiation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - What is the primary reason for malnutrition? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the primary reason for malnutrition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Inadequate intake of calories in any form

      Explanation:

      Malnutrition

      Malnutrition refers to a state where the dietary intake is insufficient to maintain a healthy state and stable weight. It can be caused by over- or under-nutrition, but it is commonly used to describe under-nutrition. Malnutrition can be defined as a state of nutrition where a deficiency, excess, or imbalance of energy, protein, and other nutrients causes measurable adverse effects on tissue, function, and clinical outcome. Protein malnutrition is the most severe form of malnutrition, causing significant mortality and clinical effects such as kwashiorkor. Carbohydrate malnutrition is less common as carbohydrate sources are widely grown and cheap. Fat malnutrition rarely results in problems if there is adequate dietary protein and carbohydrate. Deficiencies of fat-soluble vitamins can result in various clinical effects. Body size can give some indication of nutritional status, but many obese patients may have nutritional deficiencies due to their faddy diets.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A 40-year-old male complains of a painful and swollen right calf. The possibility...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old male complains of a painful and swollen right calf. The possibility of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is being considered. What tests should be conducted to confirm the diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Dopplers of the leg veins

      Explanation:

      Diagnostic Methods for Deep Vein Thrombosis

      When it comes to diagnosing deep vein thrombosis (DVT), there are several methods available. The most common ones are Doppler studies and venography. Doppler studies use B mode ultrasonography to examine the venous system, while venography involves injecting a contrast dye into the veins and taking X-rays. CT scans are not typically used for DVT diagnosis because they require contrast and expose the patient to radiation. D-Dimer concentrations can help rule out DVT if they are negative, but they cannot diagnose it. MRI scans are useful for examining soft tissues and bones, but they are not the best option for visualizing the vasculature. Finally, oxygen saturation of the limbs is not a reliable diagnostic method because tissue perfusion can be the same even if there is arterial disease. Overall, Doppler studies and venography are the most effective methods for diagnosing DVT.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - Of which cellular structure is the fibrillar centre a component? ...

    Incorrect

    • Of which cellular structure is the fibrillar centre a component?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The nucleolus

      Explanation:

      The Fibrillar Centre in the Nucleolus

      The fibrillar centre is a crucial component of the nucleolus, which is found in most metazoan nucleoli, particularly in higher eukaryotes. Along with the dense fibrillar components and the granular component, it forms the three major components of the nucleolus. During the end of mitosis, the fibrillar centre serves as a storage point for nucleolar ribosomal chromatin and associated ribonucleoprotein transcripts. As the nucleolus becomes active, the ribosomal chromatin and ribonucleoprotein transcripts begin to form the dense fibrillar components, which are more peripherally located and surround the fibrillar centres. The transcription zone for multiple copies of the pre-rRNA genes is the border between these two structures. It is important to note that the fibrillar centre is not a component of any of the cell structures mentioned in the incorrect answer options.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - What are the typical clinical manifestations of a deficiency in vitamin B6 (pyridoxine)?...

    Incorrect

    • What are the typical clinical manifestations of a deficiency in vitamin B6 (pyridoxine)?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Sensory neuropathy

      Explanation:

      The Importance of Pyridoxine in the Body

      Pyridoxine is a group of B-vitamins that are crucial in various bodily functions. They act as essential cofactors in many reactions, particularly in the metabolism of amino acids and neurotransmitters. Pyridoxine also plays a role in regulating gene transcription and controlling steroid hormones.

      The body can produce pyridoxine through bacterial flora in the gut, and it is also present in many dietary sources. However, overheating certain foods can destroy pyridoxine, and some medications can alter its metabolism. Pyridoxine is also used therapeutically to prevent neuropathy in the treatment of tuberculosis.

      Deficiency in pyridoxine can lead to sensory neuropathy, skin changes, and damage to mucous membranes. On the other hand, deficiency in vitamin C can cause gingivitis and increased bleeding, while vitamin K deficiency can also lead to bleeding. Sleep disturbance is rarely attributed to vitamin B3 (niacin) deficiency.

      In summary, pyridoxine is a vital nutrient that plays a crucial role in various bodily functions. Its deficiency can lead to various health problems, highlighting the importance of maintaining adequate levels of this vitamin in the body.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - What controls the specific stages of the cell cycle? ...

    Incorrect

    • What controls the specific stages of the cell cycle?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cyclins and cyclin-dependent kinases

      Explanation:

      Regulation of the Cell Cycle by Cyclins and Cyclin-Dependent Kinases

      The cell cycle is controlled by the activity of proteins known as cyclins and phosphorylating enzymes called cyclin-dependent kinases (CDKs). Cyclins and CDKs combine to form an activated heterodimer, where cyclins act as the regulatory subunits and CDKs act as the catalytic subunits. Neither of these molecules is active on their own. When a cyclin binds to a CDK, the CDK phosphorylates other target proteins, either activating or deactivating them. This coordination leads to the entry into the next phase of the cell cycle. The specific proteins that are activated depend on the different combinations of cyclin-CDK. Additionally, CDKs are always present in cells, while cyclins are produced at specific points in the cell cycle in response to other signaling pathways.

      In summary, the cell cycle is regulated by the interaction between cyclins and CDKs. This interaction leads to the phosphorylation of target proteins, which ultimately controls the progression of the cell cycle.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      0
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Basic Sciences (0/1) 0%
Passmed