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  • Question 1 - A 42-year-old woman is experiencing cubital tunnel syndrome in her left arm. Can...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old woman is experiencing cubital tunnel syndrome in her left arm. Can you identify which muscle in her forearm may be impacted by this condition?

      Your Answer: Pronator teres

      Correct Answer: Flexor carpi ulnaris

      Explanation:

      The ulnar nerve supplies the flexor carpi ulnaris muscle, while all other flexor muscles in the anterior compartment of the forearm are innervated by the median nerve. Therefore, the correct answer is flexor carpi ulnaris.

      Upper limb anatomy is a common topic in examinations, and it is important to know certain facts about the nerves and muscles involved. The musculocutaneous nerve is responsible for elbow flexion and supination, and typically only injured as part of a brachial plexus injury. The axillary nerve controls shoulder abduction and can be damaged in cases of humeral neck fracture or dislocation, resulting in a flattened deltoid. The radial nerve is responsible for extension in the forearm, wrist, fingers, and thumb, and can be damaged in cases of humeral midshaft fracture, resulting in wrist drop. The median nerve controls the LOAF muscles and can be damaged in cases of carpal tunnel syndrome or elbow injury. The ulnar nerve controls wrist flexion and can be damaged in cases of medial epicondyle fracture, resulting in a claw hand. The long thoracic nerve controls the serratus anterior and can be damaged during sports or as a complication of mastectomy, resulting in a winged scapula. The brachial plexus can also be damaged, resulting in Erb-Duchenne palsy or Klumpke injury, which can cause the arm to hang by the side and be internally rotated or associated with Horner’s syndrome, respectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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  • Question 2 - A 68-year-old man visits his doctor accompanied by his daughter, reporting a recent...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old man visits his doctor accompanied by his daughter, reporting a recent onset of tremors and slower movements. During the examination, the doctor observes a shuffling gait, slower movements, and a resting pill-rolling tremor of the right hand with cogwheel rigidity. As part of the neurological examination for Parkinson's disease, the doctor assesses the coordination of the lower limbs by instructing the patient to place his left foot on his right knee and slide it down his leg.

      Which muscle is the most crucial for this movement?

      Your Answer: Gastrocnemius

      Correct Answer: Sartorius

      Explanation:

      The sartorius muscle is crucial in assisting with medial rotation of the tibia on the femur. It performs multiple actions such as flexion, abduction, and lateral rotation of the thigh, as well as flexion of the knee. These functions are particularly important when crossing the legs or placing the heel of the foot onto the opposite knee.

      Although the gastrocnemius muscle also flexes the knee and plantarflexes the foot at the ankle joint, the sartorius muscle is more significant in this scenario due to its ability to perform the necessary limb movement.

      While the psoas major muscle may aid in this action as a hip joint flexor and lateral rotator, it is not as effective as the sartorius muscle in lateral rotation.

      The tibialis anterior muscle is responsible for dorsiflexion and inversion of the foot at the ankle joint, while the soleus muscle is responsible for plantarflexion of the foot at the ankle joint.

      The Sartorius Muscle: Anatomy and Function

      The sartorius muscle is the longest strap muscle in the human body and is located in the anterior compartment of the thigh. It is the most superficial muscle in this region and has a unique origin and insertion. The muscle originates from the anterior superior iliac spine and inserts on the medial surface of the body of the tibia, anterior to the gracilis and semitendinosus muscles. The sartorius muscle is innervated by the femoral nerve (L2,3).

      The primary action of the sartorius muscle is to flex the hip and knee, while also slightly abducting the thigh and rotating it laterally. It also assists with medial rotation of the tibia on the femur, which is important for movements such as crossing one leg over the other. The middle third of the muscle, along with its strong underlying fascia, forms the roof of the adductor canal. This canal contains important structures such as the femoral vessels, the saphenous nerve, and the nerve to vastus medialis.

      In summary, the sartorius muscle is a unique muscle in the anterior compartment of the thigh that plays an important role in hip and knee flexion, thigh abduction, and lateral rotation. Its location and relationship to the adductor canal make it an important landmark for surgical procedures in the thigh region.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System And Skin
      12.3
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  • Question 3 - A 28-year-old man presents with worsening back pain and stiffness and is referred...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old man presents with worsening back pain and stiffness and is referred to the rheumatology team. Following investigations, he is diagnosed with ankylosing spondylitis. Despite initial treatments with naproxen and etoricoxib, his symptoms persist. After discussion at a multidisciplinary team meeting, a trial of golimumab is recommended. What is the mechanism of action of this medication?

      Your Answer: CD38 antagonist

      Correct Answer: Tumour necrosis factor alpha antagonist

      Explanation:

      Golimumab is classified as a TNF alpha antagonist, which inhibits the action of tumour necrosis factor. It is prescribed for the treatment of ankylosing spondylitis and is administered subcutaneously every four weeks. Rituximab is an example of a CD20 antagonist, used for the management of rheumatoid arthritis and certain types of blood cancer. CD38 antagonists, such as daratumumab, are being studied in clinical trials and are currently used for the treatment of multiple myeloma. Anakinra is an interleukin-1 inhibitor used for rheumatoid arthritis, while secukinumab is an interleukin-17A inhibitor licensed for the treatment of ankylosing spondylitis under specialist use.

      Understanding Tumour Necrosis Factor and its Inhibitors

      Tumour necrosis factor (TNF) is a cytokine that plays a crucial role in the immune system. It is mainly secreted by macrophages and has various effects on the immune system, such as activating macrophages and neutrophils, acting as a costimulator for T cell activation, and mediating the body’s response to Gram-negative septicaemia. TNF also has anti-tumour effects and binds to both the p55 and p75 receptor, inducing apoptosis and activating NFkB.

      TNF has endothelial effects, including increased expression of selectins and production of platelet activating factor, IL-1, and prostaglandins. It also promotes the proliferation of fibroblasts and their production of protease and collagenase. TNF inhibitors are used to treat inflammatory conditions such as rheumatoid arthritis and Crohn’s disease. Examples of TNF inhibitors include infliximab, etanercept, adalimumab, and golimumab.

      Infliximab is also used to treat active Crohn’s disease unresponsive to steroids. However, TNF blockers can have adverse effects such as reactivation of latent tuberculosis and demyelination. Understanding TNF and its inhibitors is crucial in the treatment of various inflammatory conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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  • Question 4 - A 14-year-old girl is referred to a geneticist with a diagnosis of Marfan's...

    Correct

    • A 14-year-old girl is referred to a geneticist with a diagnosis of Marfan's syndrome. She is also hypermobile and taller than 99% of her peers. Her mother passed away recently due to an aortic dissection.

      What is the protein that is impacted in Marfan's syndrome?

      Your Answer: Fibrillin-1

      Explanation:

      Marfan’s syndrome is the result of a genetic mutation affecting fibrillin-1, a crucial protein for the formation of extracellular matrix. This condition is inherited in an autosomal dominant manner and leads to abnormal connective tissue, resulting in various symptoms such as tall stature, high arched palate, and aortic aneurysms.

      Epidermolysis bullosa, a condition characterized by severe blistering of the skin and mucous membranes, is linked to mutations in laminin V.

      Alport syndrome, which presents with glomerulonephritis and hearing loss, is caused by mutations in type IV collagen.

      Ehlers-Danlos syndrome, a connective tissue disorder that often involves hypermobility and skin fragility, is associated with mutations in type V collagen.

      Understanding Marfan’s Syndrome

      Marfan’s syndrome is a genetic disorder that affects the connective tissue in the body. It is caused by a defect in the FBN1 gene on chromosome 15, which codes for the protein fibrillin-1. This disorder is inherited in an autosomal dominant pattern and affects approximately 1 in 3,000 people.

      Individuals with Marfan syndrome often have a tall stature with an arm span to height ratio greater than 1.05. They may also have a high-arched palate, arachnodactyly (long, slender fingers), pectus excavatum (sunken chest), pes planus (flat feet), and scoliosis (curvature of the spine). In addition, they may experience cardiovascular problems such as dilation of the aortic sinuses, mitral valve prolapse, and aortic aneurysm, which can lead to aortic dissection and aortic regurgitation. Other symptoms may include repeated pneumothoraces (collapsed lung), upwards lens dislocation, blue sclera, myopia, and ballooning of the dural sac at the lumbosacral level.

      In the past, the life expectancy of individuals with Marfan syndrome was around 40-50 years. However, with regular echocardiography monitoring and medication such as beta-blockers and ACE inhibitors, the life expectancy has significantly improved. Despite this, cardiovascular problems remain the leading cause of death in individuals with Marfan syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System And Skin
      24
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  • Question 5 - Which muscle inserts onto the lesser tuberosity of the humerus? ...

    Correct

    • Which muscle inserts onto the lesser tuberosity of the humerus?

      Your Answer: Subscapularis

      Explanation:

      Most rotator cuff muscles insert into the greater tuberosity, except for subscapularis which inserts into the lesser tuberosity.

      The shoulder joint is a shallow synovial ball and socket joint that is inherently unstable but capable of a wide range of movement. Stability is provided by the muscles of the rotator cuff. The glenoid labrum is a fibrocartilaginous rim attached to the free edge of the glenoid cavity. The fibrous capsule attaches to the scapula, humerus, and tendons of various muscles. Movements of the shoulder joint are controlled by different muscles. The joint is closely related to important anatomical structures such as the brachial plexus, axillary artery and vein, and various nerves and vessels.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System And Skin
      35.1
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  • Question 6 - A 39-year-old woman with a personal history of diabetes visits her General Practitioner...

    Correct

    • A 39-year-old woman with a personal history of diabetes visits her General Practitioner (GP) with complaints of tingling sensations in her thumb, index, and middle fingers of the right hand. She also reports difficulty gripping objects at times. After conducting a nerve conduction test, the GP confirms the diagnosis of carpal tunnel syndrome (CPS). Which nerve is likely affected by her condition, leading to these symptoms?

      Your Answer: Median nerve

      Explanation:

      The median nerve is responsible for providing sensation to the palmar side of the lateral three and a half digits of the hand. When this nerve is compressed inside the carpal tunnel, it can lead to carpal tunnel syndrome, which is the most common cause of median nerve entrapment. This condition can cause tingling sensations in the thumb, index, and middle fingers.

      The superficial radial nerve is not affected by carpal tunnel syndrome as it does not pass through the carpal tunnel.

      The ulnar nerve supplies sensation to the palmar side of the medial one and a half digits of the hand and does not explain the symptoms experienced on the lateral side of the hand. Additionally, it travels through the ulnar canal instead of the carpal tunnel, so it is not affected by carpal tunnel syndrome.

      The deep radial nerve is not impacted by carpal tunnel syndrome as it does not travel through the carpal tunnel.

      The musculocutaneous nerve is not involved in hand sensation and has motor and sensory functions in the arm and forearm. Therefore, it cannot be responsible for the patient’s symptoms.

      Upper limb anatomy is a common topic in examinations, and it is important to know certain facts about the nerves and muscles involved. The musculocutaneous nerve is responsible for elbow flexion and supination, and typically only injured as part of a brachial plexus injury. The axillary nerve controls shoulder abduction and can be damaged in cases of humeral neck fracture or dislocation, resulting in a flattened deltoid. The radial nerve is responsible for extension in the forearm, wrist, fingers, and thumb, and can be damaged in cases of humeral midshaft fracture, resulting in wrist drop. The median nerve controls the LOAF muscles and can be damaged in cases of carpal tunnel syndrome or elbow injury. The ulnar nerve controls wrist flexion and can be damaged in cases of medial epicondyle fracture, resulting in a claw hand. The long thoracic nerve controls the serratus anterior and can be damaged during sports or as a complication of mastectomy, resulting in a winged scapula. The brachial plexus can also be damaged, resulting in Erb-Duchenne palsy or Klumpke injury, which can cause the arm to hang by the side and be internally rotated or associated with Horner’s syndrome, respectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System And Skin
      16
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  • Question 7 - A 30-year-old man has been referred to a dermatology clinic due to the...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old man has been referred to a dermatology clinic due to the presence of widespread flaccid superficial blisters and oral mucosal ulceration. He has no known history of coeliac disease. Upon biopsy, it was discovered that he has antibodies against the desmosomes that connect epithelial cells.

      What is the underlying skin condition?

      Your Answer: Dermatitis herpetiformis

      Correct Answer: Pemphigus

      Explanation:

      Pemphigus is a skin disorder caused by autoimmune reactions where IgG antibodies attack the desmosomes that connect the skin cells. This results in acantholysis, where the keratinocytes detach from each other. In contrast, pemphigoid is another autoimmune blistering skin disorder, but it is caused by IgG autoantibodies targeting the basement membrane instead of the desmosomes.

      Pemphigus vulgaris is an autoimmune condition that occurs when the body’s immune system attacks desmoglein 3, a type of cell adhesion molecule found in epithelial cells. This disease is more prevalent in the Ashkenazi Jewish population. The most common symptom is mucosal ulceration, which can be the first sign of the disease. Oral involvement is seen in 50-70% of patients. Skin blistering is also a common symptom, with easily ruptured vesicles and bullae. These lesions are typically painful but not itchy and may appear months after the initial mucosal symptoms. Nikolsky’s sign is a characteristic feature of pemphigus vulgaris, where bullae spread following the application of horizontal, tangential pressure to the skin. Biopsy results often show acantholysis.

      The first-line treatment for pemphigus vulgaris is steroids, which help to reduce inflammation and suppress the immune system. Immunosuppressants may also be used to manage the disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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  • Question 8 - A man in his early 50s complains of experiencing numbness and pain in...

    Incorrect

    • A man in his early 50s complains of experiencing numbness and pain in his right hand's thumb, index finger, and middle finger. Which nerve roots are most likely to be impacted?

      Your Answer: C8-T1

      Correct Answer: C5-T1

      Explanation:

      Carpal tunnel syndrome is a condition that occurs when the median nerve in the carpal tunnel is compressed. This can cause pain and pins and needles sensations in the thumb, index, and middle fingers. In some cases, the symptoms may even travel up the arm. Patients may shake their hand to alleviate the discomfort, especially at night. During an examination, weakness in thumb abduction and wasting of the thenar eminence may be observed. Tapping on the affected area may also cause paraesthesia, and flexing the wrist can trigger symptoms.

      There are several potential causes of carpal tunnel syndrome, including idiopathic factors, pregnancy, oedema, lunate fractures, and rheumatoid arthritis. Electrophysiology tests may reveal prolongation of the action potential in both motor and sensory nerves. Treatment options may include a six-week trial of conservative measures such as wrist splints at night or corticosteroid injections. If symptoms persist or are severe, surgical decompression may be necessary, which involves dividing the flexor retinaculum.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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  • Question 9 - Which one of the following structures does not pass behind the medial malleolus?...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following structures does not pass behind the medial malleolus?

      Your Answer: Sural nerve

      Correct Answer: Tibialis anterior tendon

      Explanation:

      Anatomy of the Lateral Malleolus

      The lateral malleolus is a bony prominence on the outer side of the ankle joint. Posterior to the lateral malleolus and superficial to the superior peroneal retinaculum are the sural nerve and short saphenous vein. These structures are important for sensation and blood flow to the lower leg and foot.

      On the other hand, posterior to the lateral malleolus and deep to the superior peroneal retinaculum are the peroneus longus and peroneus brevis tendons. These tendons are responsible for ankle stability and movement.

      Additionally, the calcaneofibular ligament is attached at the lateral malleolus. This ligament is important for maintaining the stability of the ankle joint and preventing excessive lateral movement.

      Understanding the anatomy of the lateral malleolus is crucial for diagnosing and treating ankle injuries and conditions. Proper care and management of these structures can help prevent long-term complications and improve overall ankle function.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System And Skin
      48.7
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  • Question 10 - You are observing a GP during their morning consultations. A 60-year-old man has...

    Incorrect

    • You are observing a GP during their morning consultations. A 60-year-old man has presented to the clinic with elevated liver function tests discovered during routine blood tests over the past month. Despite being asymptomatic, the patient has a history of osteoarthritis in his knees, one of which underwent total replacement surgery three months ago. He also has arthritis affecting the small joints in his hands and feet, which is well-controlled with medication, as well as hypertension that is stable with medication. What is an important cause of hepatic damage that should be ruled out in this case?

      Your Answer: Calcium channel blocker use

      Correct Answer: Immune suppression medication for arthritis

      Explanation:

      The patient has both osteoarthritis and rheumatoid arthritis, with the latter affecting the smaller joints of the hands and feet. Methotrexate is a commonly used immunosuppressive medication for rheumatoid arthritis, but it can cause hepatotoxicity as a significant side effect.

      Although fat emboli are a potential risk after orthopaedic surgery, they usually cause neural and respiratory symptoms rather than liver damage. Additionally, the onset of fat emboli occurs within hours to days after the operation, not three months later.

      While calcium channel blockers, ACE inhibitors, and opioid medications have their own side effects, they typically do not affect liver function.

      Methotrexate is an antimetabolite that hinders the activity of dihydrofolate reductase, an enzyme that is crucial for the synthesis of purines and pyrimidines. It is a significant drug that can effectively control diseases, but its side-effects can be life-threatening. Therefore, careful prescribing and close monitoring are essential. Methotrexate is commonly used to treat inflammatory arthritis, especially rheumatoid arthritis, psoriasis, and acute lymphoblastic leukaemia. However, it can cause adverse effects such as mucositis, myelosuppression, pneumonitis, pulmonary fibrosis, and liver fibrosis.

      Women should avoid pregnancy for at least six months after stopping methotrexate treatment, and men using methotrexate should use effective contraception for at least six months after treatment. Prescribing methotrexate requires familiarity with guidelines relating to its use. It is taken weekly, and FBC, U&E, and LFTs need to be regularly monitored. Folic acid 5 mg once weekly should be co-prescribed, taken more than 24 hours after methotrexate dose. The starting dose of methotrexate is 7.5 mg weekly, and only one strength of methotrexate tablet should be prescribed.

      It is important to avoid prescribing trimethoprim or co-trimoxazole concurrently as it increases the risk of marrow aplasia. High-dose aspirin also increases the risk of methotrexate toxicity due to reduced excretion. In case of methotrexate toxicity, the treatment of choice is folinic acid. Overall, methotrexate is a potent drug that requires careful prescribing and monitoring to ensure its effectiveness and safety.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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  • Question 11 - A 28-year-old presents to the hospital with severe wrist pain. He was playing...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old presents to the hospital with severe wrist pain. He was playing basketball with his friends when he fell with his hand outstretched. On examination, there is significant tenderness at the anatomical snuffbox. Pain is elicited as the thumb is longitudinally compressed. His grip strength is also diminished.

      A posteroanterior and lateral x-ray of the wrist joint is performed which gives inconclusive results. The patient's wrist is immobilized with a splint and he is advised an MRI in a week’s time for further evaluation.

      The patient inquires about possible complications and the doctor expresses concern that if the blood supply is interrupted, the bone tissue may be compromised.

      Which of the following structures is most likely to be responsible for this complication?

      Your Answer: Dorsal carpal branch of radial artery

      Explanation:

      The primary neurovascular structure that can be affected by a scaphoid fracture is the dorsal carpal branch of the radial artery. This artery is responsible for supplying blood to the scaphoid bone, and a fracture can lead to a high risk of avascular necrosis in the proximal pole of the bone. Symptoms of a scaphoid fracture include tenderness in the anatomical snuffbox, pain when compressing the thumb longitudinally, and a loss of grip strength. While an X-ray may not provide a conclusive diagnosis, further imaging studies can confirm the presence of an occult fracture.

      The other answer choices are incorrect. The common digital arteries originate from the superficial palmar arch and supply the fingers. The deep palmar arch primarily supplies the thumb and index finger. The proper digital arteries arise from the common digital arteries and supply the fingers.

      A scaphoid fracture is a type of wrist fracture that usually occurs when a person falls onto an outstretched hand or during contact sports. It is important to identify scaphoid fractures as they can lead to avascular necrosis due to the unusual blood supply of the scaphoid bone. Patients with scaphoid fractures typically experience pain along the radial aspect of the wrist and loss of grip or pinch strength. Clinical examination involves checking for tenderness over the anatomical snuffbox, wrist joint effusion, pain on telescoping of the thumb, tenderness of the scaphoid tubercle, and pain on ulnar deviation of the wrist. Plain film radiographs and scaphoid views are used to diagnose scaphoid fractures, but MRI is considered the definitive investigation. Initial management involves immobilization with a splint or backslab and referral to orthopaedics. Orthopaedic management depends on the type of fracture, with undisplaced fractures typically treated with a cast and displaced fractures requiring surgical fixation. Complications of scaphoid fractures include non-union and avascular necrosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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  • Question 12 - A 35-year-old man presents with sudden onset of severe lower back pain on...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man presents with sudden onset of severe lower back pain on the right side after lifting a heavy suitcase and twisting. He experiences some paraesthesia on the postero-lateral aspect of his right lower leg and foot.

      Upon examination, he appears to be in significant discomfort with his lower back and has a positive sciatic nerve street test. Additionally, there is evident weakness in plantar flexion (MRC grading 3/5) and a reduced ankle reflex.

      Based on these findings, it is suspected that the patient has a herniated intervertebral disc with radiculopathy. What is the level of nerve root compression in this case?

      Your Answer: S2

      Correct Answer: S1

      Explanation:

      The patient exhibits sensory loss in the posterolateral aspect of the leg and lateral aspect of the foot, weakness in plantar flexion of the foot, a reduced ankle reflex, and a positive sciatic nerve stretch test. These features suggest compression of the S1 nerve root. Symptoms and signs associated with L3, L4, and L5 nerve root compression differ significantly and are not present in this patient.

      Understanding Prolapsed Disc and its Features

      A prolapsed disc in the lumbar region can cause leg pain and neurological deficits. The pain is usually more severe in the leg than in the back and worsens when sitting. The features of the prolapsed disc depend on the site of compression. For instance, compression of the L3 nerve root can cause sensory loss over the anterior thigh, weak quadriceps, reduced knee reflex, and a positive femoral stretch test. On the other hand, compression of the L4 nerve root can cause sensory loss in the anterior aspect of the knee, weak quadriceps, reduced knee reflex, and a positive femoral stretch test.

      Similarly, compression of the L5 nerve root can cause sensory loss in the dorsum of the foot, weakness in foot and big toe dorsiflexion, intact reflexes, and a positive sciatic nerve stretch test. Lastly, compression of the S1 nerve root can cause sensory loss in the posterolateral aspect of the leg and lateral aspect of the foot, weakness in plantar flexion of the foot, reduced ankle reflex, and a positive sciatic nerve stretch test.

      The management of prolapsed disc is similar to that of other musculoskeletal lower back pain, which includes analgesia, physiotherapy, and exercises. However, if the symptoms persist even after 4-6 weeks, referral for an MRI is appropriate. Understanding the features of prolapsed disc can help in early diagnosis and prompt management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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  • Question 13 - During a thyroidectomy, at what age do surgeons typically ligate the inferior thyroid...

    Incorrect

    • During a thyroidectomy, at what age do surgeons typically ligate the inferior thyroid artery?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Thyrocervical trunk

      Explanation:

      The thyrocervical trunk gives rise to the inferior thyroid artery, which is a derivative of the subclavian artery.

      Anatomy of the Thyroid Gland

      The thyroid gland is a butterfly-shaped gland located in the neck, consisting of two lobes connected by an isthmus. It is surrounded by a sheath from the pretracheal layer of deep fascia and is situated between the base of the tongue and the fourth and fifth tracheal rings. The apex of the thyroid gland is located at the lamina of the thyroid cartilage, while the base is situated at the fourth and fifth tracheal rings. In some individuals, a pyramidal lobe may extend from the isthmus and attach to the foramen caecum at the base of the tongue.

      The thyroid gland is surrounded by various structures, including the sternothyroid, superior belly of omohyoid, sternohyoid, and anterior aspect of sternocleidomastoid muscles. It is also related to the carotid sheath, larynx, trachea, pharynx, oesophagus, cricothyroid muscle, and parathyroid glands. The superior and inferior thyroid arteries supply the thyroid gland with blood, while the superior and middle thyroid veins drain into the internal jugular vein, and the inferior thyroid vein drains into the brachiocephalic veins.

      In summary, the thyroid gland is a vital gland located in the neck, responsible for producing hormones that regulate metabolism. Its anatomy is complex, and it is surrounded by various structures that are essential for its function. Understanding the anatomy of the thyroid gland is crucial for the diagnosis and treatment of thyroid disorders.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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  • Question 14 - A 38-year-old man presents to his GP with limited mobility in his right...

    Incorrect

    • A 38-year-old man presents to his GP with limited mobility in his right hip. He has a long-standing history of mid and lower back pain due to his work in a lumberyard. During the examination, reduced flexion and external rotation of the hip are observed. The patient reports experiencing weakness and limited range of motion during single-leg squats on the affected side, but not during regular two-legged squats. What is the probable lower limb structure affected, leading to this patient's presentation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Psoas muscle

      Explanation:

      The main muscle responsible for hip flexion is the iliopsoas group, which includes the psoas muscle. These muscles are controlled by nerves originating from L1 to L4 and also contribute to lateral rotation of the hip.

      Femoroacetabular impingement is a condition characterized by hip and groin pain that worsens with prolonged sitting and is often accompanied by snapping, clicking, or locking of the hip. It is caused by an abnormality in hip anatomy that leads to contact between the femur and acetabulum rim.

      Meralgia paresthetica is a condition caused by compression of the lateral cutaneous nerve of the thigh, resulting in sensory symptoms such as numbness or tingling in the outer thigh. This nerve is not responsible for motor function and therefore would not cause weakness or paralysis.

      A meniscal tear is a common knee injury that can cause locking and giving way of the knee joint. A positive Thessaly’s test, which involves standing on one leg and twisting the body in internal or external rotation, may elicit pain in individuals with a meniscal tear.

      Trochanteric bursitis is a condition characterized by lateral groin pain and tenderness over the greater trochanter, which is a bony prominence on the femur.

      The Psoas Muscle: Origin, Insertion, Innervation, and Action

      The psoas muscle is a deep-seated muscle that originates from the transverse processes of the five lumbar vertebrae and the superficial part originates from T12 and the first four lumbar vertebrae. It inserts into the lesser trochanter of the femur and is innervated by the anterior rami of L1 to L3.

      The main action of the psoas muscle is flexion and external rotation of the hip. When both sides of the muscle contract, it can raise the trunk from the supine position. The psoas muscle is an important muscle for maintaining proper posture and movement, and it is often targeted in exercises such as lunges and leg lifts.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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  • Question 15 - A 75-year-old man is seen on the geriatrics ward 3 days after a...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old man is seen on the geriatrics ward 3 days after a hip replacement surgery for a fractured hip. The doctor decides to initiate a RANK ligand inhibitor for the secondary prevention of osteoporosis.

      What medication will be started?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Denosumab

      Explanation:

      Denosumab is a medication used to treat osteoporosis by inhibiting the development of osteoclasts through RANKL inhibition. It is administered via subcutaneous injection every six months and can also be given in larger doses to prevent pathological fractures in patients with bone metastases. However, denosumab may cause hypocalcaemia, so patients should have their vitamin D levels checked and replaced if necessary before starting treatment. Raloxifene, a selective oestrogen receptor modulator, is another option for osteoporosis management, but it carries an increased risk of venous thromboembolism. Bisphosphonates, such as alendronate or risedronate, are typically the first-line treatment for osteoporosis.

      Denosumab for Osteoporosis: Uses, Side Effects, and Safety Concerns

      Denosumab is a human monoclonal antibody that inhibits the development of osteoclasts, the cells that break down bone tissue. It is given as a subcutaneous injection every six months to treat osteoporosis. For patients with bone metastases from solid tumors, a larger dose of 120mg may be given every four weeks to prevent skeletal-related events. While oral bisphosphonates are still the first-line treatment for osteoporosis, denosumab may be used as a next-line drug if certain criteria are met.

      The most common side effects of denosumab are dyspnea and diarrhea, occurring in about 1 in 10 patients. Other less common side effects include hypocalcemia and upper respiratory tract infections. However, doctors should be aware of the potential for atypical femoral fractures in patients taking denosumab and should monitor for unusual thigh, hip, or groin pain.

      Overall, denosumab is generally well-tolerated and may have an increasing role in the management of osteoporosis, particularly in light of recent safety concerns regarding other next-line drugs. However, as with any medication, doctors should carefully consider the risks and benefits for each individual patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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  • Question 16 - A 25-year-old female patient visits her GP with concerns about her work performance....

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old female patient visits her GP with concerns about her work performance. She reports experiencing painful episodes in her fingers for the past month, which turn white and then red. As a gardener, she requires a high level of manual dexterity for her job. The symptoms subside after she finishes her shift.

      What is the underlying pathophysiological mechanism responsible for the patient's symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Exaggerated vasoconstriction

      Explanation:

      The patient’s symptoms suggest Raynaud’s disease, which is characterized by an exaggerated vasoconstrictive response to the cold in the digital and cutaneous arteries. As the patient is young and has no history or features of an underlying rheumatological disease, it is more likely to be primary Raynaud’s disease rather than Raynaud’s phenomenon. While a blood clot or rheumatoid arthritis can also cause similar symptoms, the patient’s age and lack of relevant history make these less likely. Carpal tunnel syndrome and Cushing’s disease are unlikely to be the cause of the patient’s hand pain.

      Raynaud’s phenomenon is a condition where the arteries in the fingers and toes constrict excessively in response to cold or emotional stress. It can be classified as primary (Raynaud’s disease) or secondary (Raynaud’s phenomenon) depending on the underlying cause. Raynaud’s disease is more common in young women and typically affects both sides of the body. Secondary Raynaud’s phenomenon is often associated with connective tissue disorders such as scleroderma, rheumatoid arthritis, or systemic lupus erythematosus. Other causes include leukaemia, cryoglobulinaemia, use of vibrating tools, and certain medications.

      If there is suspicion of secondary Raynaud’s phenomenon, patients should be referred to a specialist for further evaluation. Treatment options include calcium channel blockers such as nifedipine as a first-line therapy. In severe cases, intravenous prostacyclin (epoprostenol) infusions may be used, which can provide relief for several weeks or months. It is important to identify and treat any underlying conditions that may be contributing to the development of Raynaud’s phenomenon. Factors that suggest an underlying connective tissue disease include onset after 40 years, unilateral symptoms, rashes, presence of autoantibodies, and digital ulcers or calcinosis. In rare cases, chilblains may also be present.

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  • Question 17 - A 6-year-old girl visits her GP with her parents as they have noticed...

    Incorrect

    • A 6-year-old girl visits her GP with her parents as they have noticed a localized area of red and blistered swelling on her forehead. The GP suspects a superficial skin infection and prescribes appropriate antibiotics.

      What is the most common microorganism associated with this condition, based on the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Streptococcus pyogenes

      Explanation:

      Streptococcus pyogenes is the primary cause of erysipelas, a localized skin infection. However, Staphylococcus aureus can also be a culprit. Haemophilus influenzae type B used to be a common cause before vaccination was available. Diphtheria, which can lead to serious renal and nervous system complications if left untreated, is caused by Corynebacterium diphtheriae. Enterococcus faecium, a gut bacterium, may also be involved in meningitis and endocarditis.

      Understanding Erysipelas: A Superficial Skin Infection

      Erysipelas is a skin infection that is caused by Streptococcus pyogenes. It is a less severe form of cellulitis, which is a more widespread skin infection. Erysipelas is a localized infection that affects the skin’s upper layers, causing redness, swelling, and warmth. The infection can occur anywhere on the body, but it is most commonly found on the face, arms, and legs.

      The treatment of choice for erysipelas is flucloxacillin, an antibiotic that is effective against Streptococcus pyogenes. Other antibiotics may also be used, depending on the severity of the infection and the patient’s medical history.

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  • Question 18 - A 32-year-old cyclist has fallen off his bicycle and landed on an outstretched...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old cyclist has fallen off his bicycle and landed on an outstretched arm. He complains of pain and swelling in his left shoulder. Upon examination, the shoulder is tender and swollen to the touch. The patient experiences pain when attempting active and passive movement of the shoulder joint. A radiograph is ordered, which reveals an undisplaced fracture of the surgical neck of the humerus. What muscle, in addition to the deltoid muscle, is supplied by the axillary nerve, which is commonly injured in cases of surgical neck humerus fractures? Choose from the following options: subscapularis, teres major, supraspinatus, teres minor, or infraspinatus.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Teres minor

      Explanation:

      The teres minor is the correct answer, as it is a rotator cuff muscle. The supraspinatus and infraspinatus are also rotator cuff muscles that are innervated by the suprascapular nerve, while the subscapularis is innervated by the superior and inferior subscapular nerves. The teres major, however, is not a rotator cuff muscle and is innervated by the inferior subscapular nerve. Fractures of the surgical neck of the humerus can result in injury to the axillary nerve and posterior circumflex artery, making it important to test for axillary nerve function by checking sensation in the ‘regimental badge’ area of the arm and observing shoulder movements.

      Understanding the Rotator Cuff Muscles

      The rotator cuff muscles are a group of four muscles that are responsible for the movement and stability of the shoulder joint. These muscles are known as the SItS muscles, which stands for Supraspinatus, Infraspinatus, teres minor, and Subscapularis. Each of these muscles has a specific function in the movement of the shoulder joint.

      The Supraspinatus muscle is responsible for abducting the arm before the deltoid muscle. It is the most commonly injured muscle in the rotator cuff. The Infraspinatus muscle rotates the arm laterally, while the teres minor muscle adducts and rotates the arm laterally. Lastly, the Subscapularis muscle adducts and rotates the arm medially.

      Understanding the functions of each of these muscles is important in diagnosing and treating rotator cuff injuries. By identifying which muscle is injured, healthcare professionals can develop a treatment plan that targets the specific muscle and promotes healing. Overall, the rotator cuff muscles play a crucial role in the movement and stability of the shoulder joint.

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  • Question 19 - A 47-year-old woman visits her primary care physician complaining of vaginal itching and...

    Incorrect

    • A 47-year-old woman visits her primary care physician complaining of vaginal itching and dryness. During the consultation, she mentions that she also experiences dry skin and has noticed an increase in dryness in her mouth. She regularly uses over-the-counter eye drops.

      Upon examination, her Schirmer's strip indicates insufficient tear production. Additionally, her maternal aunt has pernicious anemia, and her grandmother had rheumatoid arthritis.

      What condition is associated with this patient's symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hashimoto's thyroiditis

      Explanation:

      Based on her symptoms, positive Schirmer’s test, and family history of autoimmune conditions, it can be concluded that she is suffering from Sjogren’s syndrome. This condition is linked to various other medical conditions, most of which are autoimmune or rheumatic disorders, including coeliac disease, fibromyalgia, lupus, multiple sclerosis, spondyloarthropathy, and certain types of cancer like non-Hodgkin lymphoma. However, there is no known association between Sjogren’s syndrome and atrial fibrillation, hyperparathyroidism, Conn’s syndrome, or osteoarthritis.

      Understanding Sjogren’s Syndrome

      Sjogren’s syndrome is a medical condition that affects the exocrine glands, leading to dry mucosal surfaces. It can either be primary or secondary to other connective tissue disorders, such as rheumatoid arthritis. The condition is more common in females, with a ratio of 9:1. Patients with Sjogren’s syndrome have a higher risk of developing lymphoid malignancy, which is 40-60 times more likely than the general population.

      The symptoms of Sjogren’s syndrome include dry eyes, dry mouth, vaginal dryness, arthralgia, Raynaud’s, myalgia, sensory polyneuropathy, recurrent episodes of parotitis, and subclinical renal tubular acidosis. To diagnose the condition, doctors may perform a Schirmer’s test to measure tear formation, as well as check for the presence of rheumatoid factor, ANA, anti-Ro (SSA) antibodies, and anti-La (SSB) antibodies.

      Management of Sjogren’s syndrome involves the use of artificial saliva and tears, as well as medications like pilocarpine to stimulate saliva production. It is important for patients with Sjogren’s syndrome to receive regular medical care and monitoring to manage their symptoms and reduce the risk of complications.

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  • Question 20 - A 27-year-old Afro-Caribbean woman visits her GP with concerns about well-defined patches of...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old Afro-Caribbean woman visits her GP with concerns about well-defined patches of significantly lighter skin. At first, this was only on her hands, but she has recently noticed similar patches on her face. She has a medical history of Hashimoto's thyroid disease and takes levothyroxine.

      During the examination, the GP observes well-demarcated areas of hypopigmentation on her hands, arms, and face. Based on the most probable diagnosis, which layer of the epidermis is affected?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Stratum germinativum

      Explanation:

      The deepest layer of the epidermis is called the stratum germinativum, which is responsible for producing keratinocytes and contains melanocytes. Vitiligo, a condition characterized by depigmented patches, affects this layer by causing the loss of melanocytes.

      The stratum corneum is the topmost layer of the epidermis, consisting of dead cells filled with keratin.

      The stratum granulosum is where keratin production occurs in the epidermis.

      The stratum lucidum is only present in the palms of the hands and soles of the feet.

      The Layers of the Epidermis

      The epidermis is the outermost layer of the skin and is made up of a stratified squamous epithelium with a basal lamina underneath. It can be divided into five layers, each with its own unique characteristics. The first layer is the stratum corneum, which is made up of flat, dead, scale-like cells filled with keratin. These cells are continually shed and replaced with new ones. The second layer, the stratum lucidum, is only present in thick skin and is a clear layer. The third layer, the stratum granulosum, is where cells form links with their neighbors. The fourth layer, the stratum spinosum, is the thickest layer of the epidermis and is where squamous cells begin keratin synthesis. Finally, the fifth layer is the stratum germinativum, which is the basement membrane and is made up of a single layer of columnar epithelial cells. This layer gives rise to keratinocytes and contains melanocytes. Understanding the layers of the epidermis is important for understanding the structure and function of the skin.

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  • Question 21 - A 35-year-old woman presents to her GP with a two-month history of tingling...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman presents to her GP with a two-month history of tingling and numbness in her thumb, index and middle finger that wakes her up at night. During the examination, the GP instructs the patient to flex her wrist for 60 seconds and the patient reports that this reproduces the symptoms. What is the term for this test?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Phalen's test

      Explanation:

      Carpal tunnel syndrome is a condition that occurs when the median nerve in the carpal tunnel is compressed. This can cause pain and pins and needles sensations in the thumb, index, and middle fingers. In some cases, the symptoms may even travel up the arm. Patients may shake their hand to alleviate the discomfort, especially at night. During an examination, weakness in thumb abduction and wasting of the thenar eminence may be observed. Tapping on the affected area may also cause paraesthesia, and flexing the wrist can trigger symptoms.

      There are several potential causes of carpal tunnel syndrome, including idiopathic factors, pregnancy, oedema, lunate fractures, and rheumatoid arthritis. Electrophysiology tests may reveal prolongation of the action potential in both motor and sensory nerves. Treatment options may include a six-week trial of conservative measures such as wrist splints at night or corticosteroid injections. If symptoms persist or are severe, surgical decompression may be necessary, which involves dividing the flexor retinaculum.

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  • Question 22 - A 32-year-old female patient visits the GP with a concern about her middle...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old female patient visits the GP with a concern about her middle finger's inability to flex at the end. During the examination, it is observed that she cannot bend the distal interphalangeal joint of her middle finger.

      Which muscle is accountable for this movement?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Flexor digitorum profundus

      Explanation:

      The correct answer is that the flexor digitorum profundus muscle is responsible for flexing the distal interphalangeal joint. The other options, such as the flexor digitorum superficialis and flexor pollicis longus, are responsible for different movements and are therefore incorrect. The palmar interossei are also not responsible for flexion at the distal interphalangeal joint. Lastly, there is no such muscle as the flexor digiti medius.

      The forearm flexor muscles include the flexor carpi radialis, palmaris longus, flexor carpi ulnaris, flexor digitorum superficialis, and flexor digitorum profundus. These muscles originate from the common flexor origin and surrounding fascia, and are innervated by the median and ulnar nerves. Their actions include flexion and abduction of the carpus, wrist flexion, adduction of the carpus, and flexion of the metacarpophalangeal and interphalangeal joints.

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  • Question 23 - A woman suffers a cut between the base of her ring finger and...

    Incorrect

    • A woman suffers a cut between the base of her ring finger and wrist. A few weeks later, she experiences a decrease in her ability to adduct her thumb. Which nerve is the most probable one to have been damaged?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Deep ulnar nerve

      Explanation:

      Understanding Ulnar Nerve Injury at the Wrist

      The ulnar nerve is a major nerve that runs from the neck down to the hand. At the wrist, it divides into two branches: the superficial and deep branches. The superficial branch provides sensation to the skin of the medial third of the palm and one and a half fingers. Meanwhile, the deep branch supplies the abductor and short flexor of the little finger, as well as the opponens digiti minimi. It also passes over the Hook of the Hamate bone and ends in the first dorsal interosseous muscle. In the palm, the deep branch innervates the lumbricals and interosseous muscles.

      Ulnar nerve injury at the wrist can occur due to various reasons, such as trauma, compression, or repetitive strain. Symptoms may include numbness, tingling, weakness, and pain in the affected area. Treatment options depend on the severity of the injury and may include rest, physical therapy, medication, or surgery.

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  • Question 24 - A 9-year-old fell onto concrete and injured their right hand. An X-ray revealed...

    Incorrect

    • A 9-year-old fell onto concrete and injured their right hand. An X-ray revealed a fracture in the carpal bone located directly beneath the first metacarpal. What bone did the child break?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Trapezium

      Explanation:

      Carpal Bones: The Wrist’s Building Blocks

      The wrist is composed of eight carpal bones, which are arranged in two rows of four. These bones are convex from side to side posteriorly and concave anteriorly. The trapezium is located at the base of the first metacarpal bone, which is the base of the thumb. The scaphoid, lunate, and triquetrum bones do not have any tendons attached to them, but they are stabilized by ligaments.

      In summary, the carpal bones are the building blocks of the wrist, and they play a crucial role in the wrist’s movement and stability. The trapezium bone is located at the base of the thumb, while the scaphoid, lunate, and triquetrum bones are stabilized by ligaments. Understanding the anatomy of the wrist is essential for diagnosing and treating wrist injuries and conditions.

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  • Question 25 - A 50-year-old woman visits the rheumatology clinic due to worsening joint pain caused...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman visits the rheumatology clinic due to worsening joint pain caused by her longstanding rheumatoid arthritis. Her symptoms have progressed to the point where she can no longer perform her daily activities. She is interested in trying infliximab after hearing about it from a friend and reading about it online. She wants to know how the drug works and how it can potentially alleviate her symptoms.

      What is the mechanism of action of infliximab?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Anti-TNF

      Explanation:

      Infliximab targets TNF through its monoclonal antibody action, while rituximab targets CD20, cetuximab acts as an antagonist to epidermal growth factor receptor, alemtuzumab targets CD52, and OKT3 targets CD3.

      Understanding Tumour Necrosis Factor and its Inhibitors

      Tumour necrosis factor (TNF) is a cytokine that plays a crucial role in the immune system. It is mainly secreted by macrophages and has various effects on the immune system, such as activating macrophages and neutrophils, acting as a costimulator for T cell activation, and mediating the body’s response to Gram-negative septicaemia. TNF also has anti-tumour effects and binds to both the p55 and p75 receptor, inducing apoptosis and activating NFkB.

      TNF has endothelial effects, including increased expression of selectins and production of platelet activating factor, IL-1, and prostaglandins. It also promotes the proliferation of fibroblasts and their production of protease and collagenase. TNF inhibitors are used to treat inflammatory conditions such as rheumatoid arthritis and Crohn’s disease. Examples of TNF inhibitors include infliximab, etanercept, adalimumab, and golimumab.

      Infliximab is also used to treat active Crohn’s disease unresponsive to steroids. However, TNF blockers can have adverse effects such as reactivation of latent tuberculosis and demyelination. Understanding TNF and its inhibitors is crucial in the treatment of various inflammatory conditions.

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  • Question 26 - A 6-year-old boy is brought to the emergency department by his parents. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 6-year-old boy is brought to the emergency department by his parents. He has swelling and tenderness in the middle part of his left forearm and is refusing to move it. The family seems uncooperative and difficult to engage with. Upon questioning, the mother claims the injury occurred from falling off the couch, while the father claims it happened while playing outside. Given the suspicious circumstances, you suspect a non-accidental injury.

      What X-ray findings are commonly associated with this type of injury?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Greenstick fracture of the radius and ulna

      Explanation:

      Greenstick fractures are a type of bone injury that is frequently seen in children. While spiral fractures of the humerus are often linked to non-accidental injury (NAI), it is important to consider NAI as a possible cause for greenstick fractures as well.

      Greenstick fractures typically occur in infants and children and can result from various causes, such as falling on an outstretched hand or experiencing a direct perpendicular impact.

      In a greenstick fracture, one side of the bone’s cortex is disrupted, while the opposite cortex remains intact. This type of fracture is more common in younger individuals whose bones are not yet fully mineralized and are more likely to bend than break.

      Adolescents and adults may experience Monteggia and Galeazzi fractures, which are common forearm injuries. These fractures involve a displaced fracture in one forearm bone and a dislocation of the other.

      Paediatric Orthopaedics: Common Conditions and Treatments

      Developmental dysplasia of the hip is a condition that is usually diagnosed in infancy through screening tests. It may be bilateral, and when it is unilateral, there may be leg length inequality. As the disease progresses, the child may limp and experience early onset arthritis. This condition is more common in extended breech babies. Treatment options include splints and harnesses or traction, and in later years, osteotomy and hip realignment procedures may be needed. In cases of arthritis, a joint replacement may be necessary, but it is best to defer this if possible as it will likely require revision. Initially, there may be no obvious changes on plain films, and ultrasound gives the best resolution until three months of age. On plain films, Shenton’s line should form a smooth arc.

      Perthes Disease is characterized by hip pain, which may be referred to the knee, and usually occurs between the ages of 5 and 12. Bilateral disease occurs in 20% of cases. Treatment involves removing pressure from the joint to allow for normal development and physiotherapy. If diagnosed and treated promptly, the condition is usually self-limiting. X-rays will show a flattened femoral head, and in untreated cases, the femoral head will eventually fragment.

      Slipped upper femoral epiphysis is typically seen in obese male adolescents. Pain is often referred to the knee, and limitation to internal rotation is usually seen. Knee pain is usually present two months prior to hip slipping, and bilateral disease occurs in 20% of cases. Treatment involves bed rest and non-weight bearing to avoid avascular necrosis. If severe slippage or risk of it occurring is present, percutaneous pinning of the hip may be required. X-rays will show the femoral head displaced and falling inferolaterally, resembling a melting ice cream cone. The Southwick angle gives an indication of disease severity.

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  • Question 27 - Which of these nerves passes through the greater and lesser sciatic foramina? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of these nerves passes through the greater and lesser sciatic foramina?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pudendal nerve

      Explanation:

      The structures passing through the lesser and greater sciatic foramina, from medial to lateral, are the pudendal nerve, internal pudendal artery, and nerve to obturator internus. The pudendal nerve originates from the ventral rami of the second, third, and fourth sacral nerves and passes through the greater sciatic foramen before crossing the spine of the ischium and reentering the pelvis through the lesser sciatic foramen. It gives off the inferior rectal nerves and terminates into the perineal nerve and the dorsal nerve of the penis or clitoris.

      The Greater Sciatic Foramen and its Contents

      The greater sciatic foramen is a space in the pelvis that is bounded by various ligaments and bones. It serves as a passageway for several important structures, including nerves and blood vessels. The piriformis muscle is a landmark for identifying these structures as they pass through the sciatic notch. Above the piriformis muscle, the superior gluteal vessels can be found, while below it are the inferior gluteal vessels, the sciatic nerve (which passes through it in only 10% of cases), and the posterior cutaneous nerve of the thigh.

      The boundaries of the greater sciatic foramen include the greater sciatic notch of the ilium, the sacrotuberous ligament, the sacrospinous ligament, and the ischial spine. The anterior sacroiliac ligament forms the superior boundary. Structures passing through the greater sciatic foramen include the pudendal nerve, the internal pudendal artery, and the nerve to the obturator internus.

      In contrast, the lesser sciatic foramen is a smaller space that contains the tendon of the obturator internus, the pudendal nerve, the internal pudendal artery and vein, and the nerve to the obturator internus. Understanding the contents and boundaries of these foramina is important for clinicians who may need to access or avoid these structures during surgical procedures or other interventions.

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  • Question 28 - A 36-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of a severe, itchy, red rash...

    Incorrect

    • A 36-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of a severe, itchy, red rash on her hands and arms that started a few days ago. The itching is so intense that it is affecting her sleep. She denies any family history of asthma, eczema, or hay fever and is otherwise healthy. During the consultation, she mentions that a colleague had a similar issue last week.

      Upon examination, the GP observes a widespread erythematous rash on both hands, particularly in the interdigital web spaces and the flexor aspect of the wrists, with excoriation marks. There is no crusting, and the rash is not present anywhere else.

      What is the recommended first-line treatment for this likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Permethrin 5% cream

      Explanation:

      A cream containing steroids may be applied to address eczema.

      As a second option for scabies, an insecticide lotion called Malathion is used.

      For hyperkeratotic (‘Norwegian’) scabies, which is prevalent in immunosuppressed patients, oral ivermectin is the recommended treatment. However, this patient does not have crusted scabies and is in good health.

      To alleviate dry skin in conditions such as eczema and psoriasis, a topical emollient can be utilized.

      Scabies: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment

      Scabies is a skin condition caused by the mite Sarcoptes scabiei, which is spread through prolonged skin contact. It is most commonly seen in children and young adults. The mite burrows into the skin, laying its eggs in the outermost layer. The resulting intense itching is due to a delayed hypersensitivity reaction to the mites and eggs, which occurs about a month after infection. Symptoms include widespread itching, linear burrows on the fingers and wrists, and secondary features such as excoriation and infection.

      The first-line treatment for scabies is permethrin 5%, followed by malathion 0.5% if necessary. Patients should be advised to avoid close physical contact until treatment is complete and to treat all household and close contacts, even if asymptomatic. Clothing, bedding, and towels should be laundered, ironed, or tumble-dried on the first day of treatment to kill off mites. The insecticide should be applied to all areas, including the face and scalp, and left on for 8-12 hours for permethrin or 24 hours for malathion before washing off. Treatment should be repeated after 7 days.

      Crusted scabies, also known as Norwegian scabies, is a severe form of the condition seen in patients with suppressed immunity, particularly those with HIV. The skin is covered in hundreds of thousands of mites, and isolation is essential. Ivermectin is the treatment of choice.

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  • Question 29 - A 40-year-old male is admitted to a neurology ward with a diagnosis of...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old male is admitted to a neurology ward with a diagnosis of Guillain-Barre syndrome. During examination, it is observed that there is paralysis of big toe extension.

      Which myotome is affected by this paralysis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: L5

      Explanation:

      The L5 myotome is responsible for extending the big toe, while S1 is responsible for ankle plantar-flexion, ankle eversion, and knee flexion. L4 is responsible for ankle dorsiflexion, and T12 is responsible for abdominal muscle contraction.

      The foot has two arches: the longitudinal arch and the transverse arch. The longitudinal arch is higher on the medial side and is supported by the posterior pillar of the calcaneum and the anterior pillar composed of the navicular bone, three cuneiforms, and the medial three metatarsal bones. The transverse arch is located on the anterior part of the tarsus and the posterior part of the metatarsus. The foot has several intertarsal joints, including the sub talar joint, talocalcaneonavicular joint, calcaneocuboid joint, transverse tarsal joint, cuneonavicular joint, intercuneiform joints, and cuneocuboid joint. The foot also has various ligaments, including those of the ankle joint and foot. The foot is innervated by the lateral plantar nerve and medial plantar nerve, and it receives blood supply from the plantar arteries and dorsalis pedis artery. The foot has several muscles, including the abductor hallucis, flexor digitorum brevis, abductor digit minimi, flexor hallucis brevis, adductor hallucis, and extensor digitorum brevis.

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  • Question 30 - Liam, a 4-year-old boy, is brought to the emergency department by his parents....

    Incorrect

    • Liam, a 4-year-old boy, is brought to the emergency department by his parents. They report that Liam has been holding his left arm close to his body and not using it much since they were playing catch in the backyard.

      During examination, the doctor observes that Liam's left arm is slightly bent at the elbow and turned inward. The doctor diagnoses a pulled elbow and successfully reduces it.

      What is the anomaly associated with this condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Subluxation of radial head

      Explanation:

      In children, the annular ligament is weaker, which can result in subluxation of the radial head during a pulled elbow. It’s important to note that a subluxation is a partial dislocation, meaning there is still some joint continuity, whereas a dislocation is a complete disruption of the joint. Additionally, a fracture refers to a break in the bone itself. It’s worth noting that the ulnar is not implicated in a pulled elbow.

      Subluxation of the Radial Head in Children

      Subluxation of the radial head, also known as pulled elbow, is a common upper limb injury in children under the age of 6. This is because the annular ligament covering the radial head has a weaker distal attachment in children at this age group. The signs of this injury include elbow pain and limited supination and extension of the elbow. However, children may refuse examination on the affected elbow due to the pain.

      To manage this injury, analgesia is recommended to alleviate the pain. Additionally, passively supinating the elbow joint while the elbow is flexed to 90 degrees can help alleviate the subluxation. It is important to seek medical attention if the pain persists or worsens.

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