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  • Question 1 - Which drug has a very small margin of safety between its therapeutic and...

    Incorrect

    • Which drug has a very small margin of safety between its therapeutic and toxic doses?

      Your Answer: Sodium valproate

      Correct Answer: Lithium

      Explanation:

      Due to its low therapeutic index, lithium necessitates monitoring.

      Narrow Therapeutic Index Drugs

      Narrow therapeutic index (NTI) drugs are medications that have a small difference between the amount that causes a therapeutic effect and the amount that causes toxicity. In other words, the therapeutic index (TI) of these drugs is narrow. The TI is a ratio that compares the blood concentration at which a drug causes a therapeutic effect to the amount that causes death of toxicity.

      In clinical practice, the TI is the range of doses at which a medication appeared to be effective in clinical trials for a median of participants without unacceptable adverse effects. For most drugs, this range is wide enough, and the maximum plasma concentration of the drug achieved when the recommended doses of a drug are prescribed lie sufficiently above the minimum therapeutic concentration and sufficiently below the toxic concentration.

      However, some drugs have a narrow therapeutic index, which means that even small changes in dose of blood concentration can lead to serious adverse effects. The US Food and Drug Administration (FDA) defines a drug product as having an NTI when there is less than a twofold difference in the minimum toxic concentrations and minimum effective concentrations in the blood and safe and effective use of the drug requires careful titration and patient monitoring.

      Examples of drugs with a narrow therapeutic index include carbamazepine, lithium, phenytoin, warfarin, digoxin, and gentamicin. These drugs require close monitoring to ensure that the blood concentration remains within the therapeutic range and does not reach toxic levels.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      188.6
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - An elevation in Brain-derived neurotrophic factor levels in cortical regions compared to healthy...

    Incorrect

    • An elevation in Brain-derived neurotrophic factor levels in cortical regions compared to healthy individuals has been observed for which of the following disorders?

      Your Answer: Alzheimer's disease

      Correct Answer: Schizophrenia

      Explanation:

      Neurotrophins: Crucial for Neuronal Growth and Development

      Neurotrophins are essential for the growth and development of neurons. However, disturbances in neurotrophic factors may contribute to some neurodevelopmental aspects of schizophrenia and major depression.

      Studies have shown that patients with schizophrenia have increased concentrations of Brain-derived neurotrophic factor (BDNF) in cortical areas, but decreased levels in the hippocampus compared to controls. Additionally, patients with schizophrenia have lower concentrations of neurotrophin-3 in frontal and parietal areas than controls.

      These findings suggest that neurotrophins play a critical role in the pathophysiology of schizophrenia and major depression. Further research is needed to fully understand the mechanisms underlying these disturbances in neurotrophic factors.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      33.2
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - Which of the following pairs of acronyms is incorrect? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following pairs of acronyms is incorrect?

      Your Answer: ZSRDS - Zung self rated depression scale

      Correct Answer: YMRS - Yates Mental Retardation scale

      Explanation:

      The acronym YMRS stands for the Young Mania Rating Scale.

      In psychiatry, various questionnaires and interviews are used to assess different conditions and areas. It is important for candidates to know whether certain assessment tools are self-rated of require clinical assistance. The table provided by the college lists some of the commonly used assessment tools and indicates whether they are self-rated of clinician-rated. For example, the HAMD and MADRS are clinician-rated scales used to assess the severity of depression, while the GDS is a self-rated scale used to screen for depression in the elderly. The YMRS is a clinician-rated scale used to assess the severity of mania in patients with bipolar disorder, while the Y-BOCS is used to measure both the severity of OCD and the response to treatment. The GAF provides a single measure of global functioning, while the CGI requires the clinician to rate the severity of the patient’s illness at the time of assessment. The CAMDEX is a tool developed to assist in the early diagnosis and measurement of dementia in the elderly.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
      11.9
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - How can Thomas Szasz's views be best represented? ...

    Incorrect

    • How can Thomas Szasz's views be best represented?

      Your Answer: Mental illness is primarily a disease of the brain

      Correct Answer: Mental illness is not a disease

      Explanation:

      Throughout his career, Szasz contended that mental illness is merely a metaphor for difficulties in human existence, and that mental illnesses lack the objective reality of physical ailments like cancer. He opposed many aspects of the contemporary psychiatric system in developed countries.

      Antipsychiatry is a movement that emerged in the 1960s and challenges the traditional medical model of mental illness. It argues that mental illnesses are not biological of medical conditions but rather social constructs that reflect deviations from social norms. The movement has been associated with several famous figures, including Thomas Szasz, R.D. Laing, Michel Foucault, and Franco Basaglia. These individuals have criticized the psychiatric profession for its use of involuntary hospitalization, medication, and other forms of coercion in the treatment of mental illness. They have also advocated for alternative approaches to mental health care, such as community-based care and psychotherapy. Despite its controversial nature, the antipsychiatry movement has had a significant impact on the field of mental health and continues to influence the way we think about and treat mental illness today.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      8.4
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - In Freud's topographical model of the mind, which term was not included in...

    Incorrect

    • In Freud's topographical model of the mind, which term was not included in his description?

      Your Answer: Unconscious system

      Correct Answer: Subconscious system

      Explanation:

      Freud’s Topographical Model of the Mind

      Freud’s topographical model of the mind, introduced in his book The Interpretation of Dreams, divides the mind into three regions: the conscious system, the preconscious system, and the unconscious system.

      The conscious system refers to the part of the mind that is aware. The preconscious system is the information that is known and can potentially be brought into consciousness. Finally, the unconscious system is believed to be outside conscious awareness and operates on primary process thinking, which is aimed at wish fulfillment. It is governed by the pleasure principle, has no concept of time, denies the existence of negatives, and allows the existence of contradictions, making it irrational.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      12.5
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - What is the defence mechanism that the man is using when he goes...

    Incorrect

    • What is the defence mechanism that the man is using when he goes for a 10 mile run after being shouted at by his boss at work and still feeling angry about it when he gets home?

      Your Answer: Reaction formation

      Correct Answer: Sublimation

      Explanation:

      Intermediate Mechanism: Rationalisation

      Rationalisation is a defense mechanism commonly used by individuals to create false but credible justifications for their behavior of actions. It involves the use of logical reasoning to explain away of justify unacceptable behavior of feelings. The individual may not be aware that they are using this mechanism, and it can be difficult to identify in oneself.

      Rationalisation is considered an intermediate mechanism, as it is common in healthy individuals from ages three to ninety, as well as in neurotic disorders and in mastering acute adult stress. It can be dramatically changed by conventional psychotherapeutic interpretation.

      Examples of rationalisation include a student who fails an exam and blames the teacher for not teaching the material well enough, of a person who cheats on their partner and justifies it by saying their partner was neglectful of unaffectionate. It allows the individual to avoid taking responsibility for their actions and to maintain a positive self-image.

      Overall, rationalisation can be a useful defense mechanism in certain situations, but it can also be harmful if it leads to a lack of accountability and an inability to learn from mistakes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
      12.1
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - What is the annual incidence rate of tardive dyskinesia in patients exposed to...

    Incorrect

    • What is the annual incidence rate of tardive dyskinesia in patients exposed to typical antipsychotics?

      Your Answer: 40%

      Correct Answer: 5%

      Explanation:

      Extrapyramidal side-effects (EPSE’s) are a group of side effects that affect voluntary motor control, commonly seen in patients taking antipsychotic drugs. EPSE’s include dystonias, parkinsonism, akathisia, and tardive dyskinesia. They can be frightening and uncomfortable, leading to problems with non-compliance and can even be life-threatening in the case of laryngeal dystonia. EPSE’s are thought to be due to antagonism of dopaminergic D2 receptors in the basal ganglia. Symptoms generally occur within the first few days of treatment, with dystonias appearing quickly, within a few hours of administration of the first dose. Newer antipsychotics tend to produce less EPSE’s, with clozapine carrying the lowest risk and haloperidol carrying the highest risk. Akathisia is the most resistant EPSE to treat. EPSE’s can also occur when antipsychotics are discontinued (withdrawal dystonia).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      11.7
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 30-year-old woman is experiencing sudden anxiety and has a belief that her...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old woman is experiencing sudden anxiety and has a belief that her body is shrinking. What is the probable culture-bound syndrome?

      Your Answer: Dhat syndrome

      Correct Answer: Koro

      Explanation:

      Koro is a syndrome that mainly affects individuals in Africa and Asia, causing them to believe that their genitals are retracting and will disappear, despite no actual physical changes. Dhat syndrome, prevalent in India, is characterized by symptoms such as fatigue, weakness, anxiety, and sexual dysfunction, with patients believing they are passing semen in their urine. Kuru is a neurological disorder, while Latah, found in Southeast Asia, is similar to Tourette’s syndrome. Piblokto, observed in Inuits, is a sudden dissociative state that results in loss of consciousness during the attack and amnesia afterwards.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Stigma And Culture
      9.1
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - Which of the following is linked to losing weight? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is linked to losing weight?

      Your Answer: Carbamazepine

      Correct Answer: Topiramate

      Explanation:

      Topiramate is a medication used for epilepsy and bipolar affective disorder. It works by inhibiting voltage gated sodium channels and increasing GABA levels. Unlike most psychotropic drugs, it is associated with weight loss.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      6.8
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - What are the factors that increase the likelihood of an individual developing tardive...

    Incorrect

    • What are the factors that increase the likelihood of an individual developing tardive dyskinesia?

      Your Answer: Having dependent personality disorder

      Correct Answer: Having an affective illness

      Explanation:

      Extrapyramidal side-effects (EPSE’s) are a group of side effects that affect voluntary motor control, commonly seen in patients taking antipsychotic drugs. EPSE’s include dystonias, parkinsonism, akathisia, and tardive dyskinesia. They can be frightening and uncomfortable, leading to problems with non-compliance and can even be life-threatening in the case of laryngeal dystonia. EPSE’s are thought to be due to antagonism of dopaminergic D2 receptors in the basal ganglia. Symptoms generally occur within the first few days of treatment, with dystonias appearing quickly, within a few hours of administration of the first dose. Newer antipsychotics tend to produce less EPSE’s, with clozapine carrying the lowest risk and haloperidol carrying the highest risk. Akathisia is the most resistant EPSE to treat. EPSE’s can also occur when antipsychotics are discontinued (withdrawal dystonia).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      16.4
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - Which of the following culturally bound syndrome is characterized by anxiety about and...

    Correct

    • Which of the following culturally bound syndrome is characterized by anxiety about and avoidance of interpersonal situations due to the thought, feeling, of conviction that one's appearance and actions in social interactions are inadequate of offensive to others?

      Your Answer: Taijin kyofusho

      Explanation:

      Culture bound illnesses are psychiatric conditions that are specific to one particular culture. There are many different types of culture bound illnesses, including Amok, Shenjing shuairuo, Ataque de nervios, Bilis, colera, Bouffee delirante, Brain fag, Dhat, Falling-out, blacking out, Ghost sickness, Hwa-byung, wool-hwa-byung, Koro, Latah, Locura, Mal de ojo, Nervios, Rootwork, Pibloktoq, Qi-gong psychotic reaction, Sangue dormido, Shen-k’uei, shenkui, Shin-byung, Taijin kyofusho, Spell, Susto, Zar, and Wendigo.

      Some of the most commonly discussed culture bound illnesses include Amok, which is confined to males in the Philippines and Malaysia who experience blind, murderous violence after a real of imagined insult. Ataque de nervios is a condition that occurs in those of Latino descent and is characterized by intense emotional upset, shouting uncontrollably, aggression, dissociation, seizure-like episodes, and suicidal gestures. Brain fag is a form of psychological distress first identified in Nigerian students in the 1960s but reported more generally in the African diaspora. It consists of a variety of cognitive and sensory disturbances that occur during periods of intense intellectual activity. Koro is a condition that affects Chinese patients who believe that their penis is withdrawing inside their abdomen, resulting in panic and the belief that they will die. Taijin kyofusho is a Japanese culture bound illness characterized by anxiety about and avoidance of interpersonal situations due to the thought, feeling, of conviction that one’s appearance and actions in social interactions are inadequate of offensive to others. Finally, Wendigo is a culture bound illness that occurs in Native American tribes during severe winters and scarcity of food, characterized by a distaste for food that leads to anxiety and the belief that one is turning into a cannibalistic ice spirit.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
      32.2
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  • Question 12 - What components are included in the frontal assessment battery evaluation? ...

    Incorrect

    • What components are included in the frontal assessment battery evaluation?

      Your Answer: Calculation

      Correct Answer: Abstract reasoning

      Explanation:

      The frontal assessment battery does not include personality and calculation (attention) despite them being functions of the frontal lobe.

      The Frontal Assessment Battery (FAB) is a quick and easy bedside test used to detect the dysexecutive syndrome. It consists of six subsets, including conceptualization, mental flexibility, motor programming, conflicting instructions, go-no go (inhibitory control), and prehension behavior. The test assesses a patient’s ability to perform tasks such as abstract reasoning, verbal fluency, and motor skills. The FAB can be completed in just a few minutes and is a useful tool for clinicians in evaluating patients with suspected executive dysfunction.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
      11.3
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - Which of the following symptoms in the PANSS scale for schizophrenia is classified...

    Correct

    • Which of the following symptoms in the PANSS scale for schizophrenia is classified as a positive symptom?

      Your Answer: Conceptual disorganisation

      Explanation:

      The Positive and Negative Syndrome Scale (PANSS) is a tool used to measure the severity of symptoms in patients with schizophrenia. The scale is divided into three categories: positive symptoms, negative symptoms, and general psychopathology symptoms. Each category has several items that are scored on a seven-point severity scale. The positive symptoms include delusions, hallucinations, and hyperactivity, while the negative symptoms include blunted affect and lack of spontaneity. The general psychopathology symptoms include anxiety, depression, and poor impulse control. The PANSS is a valuable tool for clinicians to assess the severity of symptoms in patients with schizophrenia and to monitor their progress over time.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
      10.2
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - Which medication is most likely to induce anxiety symptoms? ...

    Correct

    • Which medication is most likely to induce anxiety symptoms?

      Your Answer: Salbutamol

      Explanation:

      Prescribing in the Elderly: Iatrogenic Consequences

      Many medications, both prescribed and over-the-counter, can have significant adverse effects in the elderly population. It is important to note that the lists provided below are not exhaustive, and only the most common and important examples are given.

      Medications Linked to Delirium and Other Cognitive Disorders

      Medications are the most common reversible cause of delirium and dementia in the elderly. Many medications can cause cognitive impairment, but the classes of drugs most strongly associated with the development of drug-induced dementia are opioids, benzodiazepines, and anticholinergics.

      According to a systematic review done in 2011 (Clegg, 2011), long-acting benzodiazepines (e.g., diazepam) are more troublesome than those that are shorter-acting. Opioids are associated with an approximately 2-fold increased risk of delirium in medical and surgical patients (Clegg, 2011). Pethidine appears to have a higher risk of delirium compared with other members of the opioid class. This may be because pethidine can accumulate when renal function is impaired and is converted to a metabolite with anticholinergic properties.

      Some antipsychotic drugs have considerable antimuscarinic (anticholinergic) activity (e.g., chlorpromazine and clozapine), which may cause of worsen delirium. Delirium is uncommon in newer antipsychotics (but has been reported).

      Medications Linked to Mood Changes

      The following medications are well known to precipitate mood changes:

      – Centrally-acting antihypertensives (e.g., methyldopa, reserpine, and clonidine) can cause depressive symptoms.
      – Interferon-a is capable of inducing depressive symptoms.
      – Digoxin is capable of inducing depressive symptoms.
      – Corticosteroids can cause depressive, manic, and mixed symptoms with of without psychosis.
      – Antidepressants can precipitate mania.

      Medications Linked to Psychosis

      The following medications are well known to precipitate psychosis:

      – Anti-Parkinson’s Medications (e.g., bromocriptine, amantadine, selegiline, anticholinergics (e.g., trihexyphenidyl, benztropine, benzhexol), and levodopa).
      – Corticosteroids

      Medications Linked to Anxiety

      The following medications are well known to precipitate anxiety:

      – Stimulants
      – β adrenergic inhalers

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      3.9
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - With which concept is the 'phonological similarity effect' commonly associated? ...

    Incorrect

    • With which concept is the 'phonological similarity effect' commonly associated?

      Your Answer: Remote memory

      Correct Answer: Working memory

      Explanation:

      If you are familiar with the ‘phonological Loop’ component of the working memory, you may be able to deduce the meaning of the ‘phonological similarity effect’. This effect describes the difficulty in remembering words that sound alike. Additionally, the ‘word-length effect’ and ‘articulatory suppression’ are two other phenomena that involve the working memory.

      Memory Forms

      Memory is the ability to store, retain, and retrieve information. There are different forms of memory, including sensory memory, short-term/working memory, and long-term memory.

      Sensory memory is the capacity for briefly retaining the large amounts of information that people encounter daily. It includes echoic memory (gathered through auditory stimuli), iconic memory (gathered through sight), and haptic memory (acquired through touch).

      Short-term memory is the ability to keep a small amount of information available for a short period of time. Atkinson and Shiffrin’s multistore model (1968) suggests the existence of a short-term storehouse with limited capacity. Baddeley and Hitch (1974) further developed the concept of short-term memory, which eventually became known as Baddeley’s multi-storehouse model (2000). This model includes the central executive, visuospatial sketchpad, phonological buffer/loop, and episodic buffer.

      Long-term memory includes declarative (of explicit) memories, which can be consciously retrieved, and nondeclarative (of implicit) memories, which cannot. Declarative memory includes episodic memory (stores personal experiences) and semantic memory (stores information about facts and concepts). Non-declarative memory includes procedural memory (recalls motor and executive skills), associative memory (storage and retrieval of information through association with other information), and non-associative memory (refers to newly learned behavior through repeated exposure to an isolated stimulus).

      Overall, memory is a complex and essential cognitive function that plays a crucial role in learning, reasoning, and understanding.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      12.5
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A client is referred with depression and is eager to begin medication. You...

    Correct

    • A client is referred with depression and is eager to begin medication. You find out that they have hypertension. What would be the most suitable treatment option?

      Your Answer: Fluoxetine

      Explanation:

      Antidepressants and Diabetes

      Depression is a prevalent condition among patients with diabetes. It is crucial to select the appropriate antidepressant as some may have negative effects on weight and glucose levels. The first-line treatment for depression in diabetic patients is selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs), with fluoxetine having the most supporting data. Serotonin-norepinephrine reuptake inhibitors (SNRIs) are also likely to be safe, but there is less evidence to support their use. Tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs) and monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs) should be avoided. These recommendations are based on the Maudsley Guidelines 10th Edition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      13.4
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - Which of the following does the statement I saw a man shut his...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following does the statement I saw a man shut his car door today and instantly knew this was a sign that I had to kill the queen exemplify?

      Your Answer: Referential delusion

      Correct Answer: Delusional perception

      Explanation:

      Types of Delusions

      Delusions come in many different forms. It is important to familiarize oneself with these types as they may be tested in an exam. Some of the most common types of delusions include:

      – Folie a deux: a shared delusion between two or more people
      – Grandiose: belief that one has special powers, beliefs, of purpose
      – Hypochondriacal: belief that something is physically wrong with the patient
      – Ekbom’s syndrome: belief that one has been infested with insects
      – Othello syndrome: belief that a sexual partner is cheating on them
      – Capgras delusion: belief that a person close to them has been replaced by a double
      – Fregoli delusion: patient identifies a familiar person (usually suspected to be a persecutor) in other people they meet
      – Syndrome of subjective doubles: belief that doubles of him/her exist
      – Lycanthropy: belief that one has been transformed into an animal
      – De Clérambault’s syndrome: false belief that a person is in love with them
      – Cotard’s syndrome/nihilistic delusions: belief that they are dead of do not exist
      – Referential: belief that others/TV/radio are speaking directly to of about the patient
      – Delusional perception: belief that a normal percept (product of perception) has a special meaning
      – Pseudocyesis: a condition whereby a woman believes herself to be pregnant when she is not. Objective signs accompany the belief such as abdominal enlargement, menstrual disturbance, apparent foetal movements, nausea, breast changes, and labour pains.

      Remembering these types of delusions can be helpful in understanding and diagnosing patients with delusional disorders.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
      12.7
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  • Question 18 - Which process breaks down dopamine? ...

    Correct

    • Which process breaks down dopamine?

      Your Answer: COMT and both forms of MAO

      Explanation:

      COMT and both types of MAO are responsible for the metabolism of dopamine.

      Neurotransmitters are substances used by neurons to communicate with each other and with target tissues. They are synthesized and released from nerve endings into the synaptic cleft, where they bind to receptor proteins in the cellular membrane of the target tissue. Neurotransmitters can be classified into different types, including small molecules (such as acetylcholine, dopamine, norepinephrine, serotonin, and GABA) and large molecules (such as neuropeptides). They can also be classified as excitatory or inhibitory. Receptors can be ionotropic or metabotropic, and the effects of neurotransmitters can be fast of slow. Some important neurotransmitters include acetylcholine, dopamine, GABA, norepinephrine, and serotonin. Each neurotransmitter has a specific synthesis, breakdown, and receptor type. Understanding neurotransmitters is important for understanding the function of the nervous system and for developing treatments for neurological and psychiatric disorders.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      15.5
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - What condition has been linked to a more affluent social status? ...

    Incorrect

    • What condition has been linked to a more affluent social status?

      Your Answer: Personality disorder

      Correct Answer: Anorexia nervosa

      Explanation:

      Social Status and Psychiatric Disorders

      Research has shown that certain psychiatric disorders are more prevalent in lower social classes. These disorders include schizophrenia, personality disorder, alcohol dependence, and major depression. On the other hand, anorexia nervosa has been found to be more common in higher social classes. These findings suggest a relationship between social status and mental health, with individuals from lower social classes being at a higher risk for certain psychiatric disorders. This information can be useful in developing targeted interventions and support for individuals from lower social classes who may be struggling with mental health issues.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      8.6
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - Through which opening in the skull does the cranial nerve exit, which is...

    Correct

    • Through which opening in the skull does the cranial nerve exit, which is known as the internal auditory canal?

      Your Answer: Vestibulocochlear (VIII)

      Explanation:

      Overview of Cranial Nerves and Their Functions

      The cranial nerves are a complex system of nerves that originate from the brain and control various functions of the head and neck. There are twelve cranial nerves, each with a specific function and origin. The following table provides a simplified overview of the cranial nerves, including their origin, skull exit, modality, and functions.

      The first cranial nerve, the olfactory nerve, originates from the telencephalon and exits through the cribriform plate. It is a sensory nerve that controls the sense of smell. The second cranial nerve, the optic nerve, originates from the diencephalon and exits through the optic foramen. It is a sensory nerve that controls vision.

      The third cranial nerve, the oculomotor nerve, originates from the midbrain and exits through the superior orbital fissure. It is a motor nerve that controls eye movement, pupillary constriction, and lens accommodation. The fourth cranial nerve, the trochlear nerve, also originates from the midbrain and exits through the superior orbital fissure. It is a motor nerve that controls eye movement.

      The fifth cranial nerve, the trigeminal nerve, originates from the pons and exits through different foramina depending on the division. It is a mixed nerve that controls chewing and sensation of the anterior 2/3 of the scalp. It also tenses the tympanic membrane to dampen loud noises.

      The sixth cranial nerve, the abducens nerve, originates from the pons and exits through the superior orbital fissure. It is a motor nerve that controls eye movement. The seventh cranial nerve, the facial nerve, also originates from the pons and exits through the internal auditory canal. It is a mixed nerve that controls facial expression, taste of the anterior 2/3 of the tongue, and tension on the stapes to dampen loud noises.

      The eighth cranial nerve, the vestibulocochlear nerve, originates from the pons and exits through the internal auditory canal. It is a sensory nerve that controls hearing. The ninth cranial nerve, the glossopharyngeal nerve, originates from the medulla and exits through the jugular foramen. It is a mixed nerve that controls taste of the posterior 1/3 of the tongue, elevation of the larynx and pharynx, and swallowing.

      The tenth cranial nerve, the vagus nerve, also originates from the medulla and exits through the jugular foramen. It is a mixed nerve that controls swallowing, voice production, and parasympathetic supply to nearly all thoracic and abdominal viscera. The eleventh cranial nerve, the accessory nerve, originates from the medulla and exits through the jugular foramen. It is a motor nerve that controls shoulder shrugging and head turning.

      The twelfth cranial nerve, the hypoglossal nerve, originates from the medulla and exits through the hypoglossal canal. It is a motor nerve that controls tongue movement. Overall, the cranial nerves play a crucial role in controlling various functions of the head and neck, and any damage of dysfunction can have significant consequences.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      10.1
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - At what age does stranger anxiety usually develop? ...

    Incorrect

    • At what age does stranger anxiety usually develop?

      Your Answer: 18 months

      Correct Answer: 8 months

      Explanation:

      Attachment Theory and Harlow’s Monkeys

      Attachment theory, developed by John Bowlby, suggests that children have an innate tendency to form relationships with people around them to increase their chance of survival. This attachment is different from bonding, which concerns the mother’s feelings for her infant. Children typically single out a primary caregiver, referred to as the principle attachment figure, from about 1-3 months. The quality of a person’s early attachments is associated with their adult behavior, with poor attachments leading to withdrawn individuals who struggle to form relationships and good attachments leading to socially competent adults who can form healthy relationships.

      Bowlby’s attachment model has four stages: preattachment, attachment in the making, clear-cut attachment, and formation of reciprocal attachment. The time from 6 months to 36 months is known as the critical period, during which a child is most vulnerable to interruptions in its attachment. Attachments are divided into secure and insecure types, with insecure types further divided into avoidant and ambivalent types.

      Harlow’s experiment with young rhesus monkeys demonstrated the importance of the need for closeness over food. The experiment involved giving the monkeys a choice between two different mothers, one made of soft terry cloth but provided no food and the other made of wire but provided food from an attached baby bottle. The baby monkeys spent significantly more time with their cloth mother than with their wire mother, showing the importance of attachment and closeness in early development.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychological Development
      7.8
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  • Question 22 - Out of the options provided, which term is not classified as a personality...

    Correct

    • Out of the options provided, which term is not classified as a personality disorder according to the DSM-5?

      Your Answer: Passive-aggressive

      Explanation:

      The DSM-III previously utilized the term passive-aggressive personality disorder.

      Personality Disorder Classification

      A personality disorder is a persistent pattern of behavior and inner experience that deviates significantly from cultural expectations, is inflexible and pervasive, and causes distress of impairment. The DSM-5 and ICD-11 have different approaches to classifying personality disorders. DSM-5 divides them into 10 categories, grouped into clusters A, B, and C, while ICD-11 has a general category with six trait domains that can be added. To diagnose a personality disorder, the general diagnostic threshold must be met before determining the subtype(s) present. The criteria for diagnosis include inflexibility and pervasiveness of the pattern, onset in adolescence of early adulthood, stability over time, and significant distress of impairment. The disturbance must not be better explained by another mental disorder, substance misuse, of medical condition.

      Course

      Borderline and antisocial personality disorders tend to become less evident of remit with age, while others, particularly obsessive-compulsive and schizotypal, may persist.

      Classification

      The DSM-5 divides personality disorders into separate clusters A, B, and C, with additional groups for medical conditions and unspecified disorders. The ICD-11 dropped the separate categories and instead lists six trait domains that can be added to the general diagnosis.

      UK Epidemiology

      The prevalence of personality disorders in Great Britain, according to the British National Survey of Psychiatric Morbidity, is 4.4%, with cluster C being the most common at 2.6%, followed by cluster A at 1.6% and cluster B at 1.2%. The most prevalent specific personality disorder is obsessive-compulsive (anankastic) at 1.9%.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
      10.2
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - What is the likelihood of developing dementia for an individual with two APOE4...

    Correct

    • What is the likelihood of developing dementia for an individual with two APOE4 alleles at an advanced age?

      Your Answer: 15

      Explanation:

      Having two APOE4 alleles increases the risk of developing dementia by 15 times, while having one APOE4 allele increases the risk by three times compared to those without any APOE4 alleles. APOE4 is responsible for 50% of the genetic variation in dementia and is present in 20% of the population. APOE3 is the most prevalent allele, and APOE2 may have a protective effect.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Psychological Processes
      9.7
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A teenager who needs to start an antipsychotic tells you that they are...

    Correct

    • A teenager who needs to start an antipsychotic tells you that they are very concerned about the risk of weight gain. You anticipate that they may discontinue the medication if they experience weight gain. What would be the most suitable initial approach to address this concern?

      Your Answer: Aripiprazole

      Explanation:

      Antipsychotic drugs are known to cause weight gain, but some more than others. The reason for this is not due to a direct metabolic effect, but rather an increase in appetite and a decrease in activity levels. The risk of weight gain appears to be linked to clinical response. There are several suggested mechanisms for this, including antagonism of certain receptors and hormones that stimulate appetite. The risk of weight gain varies among different antipsychotics, with clozapine and olanzapine having the highest risk. Management strategies for antipsychotic-induced weight gain include calorie restriction, low glycemic index diet, exercise, and switching to an alternative antipsychotic. Aripiprazole, ziprasidone, and lurasidone are recommended as alternative options. Other options include aripiprazole augmentation, metformin, orlistat, liraglutide, and topiramate.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      15.6
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - What is the definition of secondary deviance? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the definition of secondary deviance?

      Your Answer: Telling people about a stigmatised diagnosis in an effort to educate them and so reduce the stigma

      Correct Answer: An individual's reaction to experiences resulting from being labelled as deviant

      Explanation:

      Primary deviance refers to the initial act of breaking a social rule of expectation, which may include health-related norms. On the other hand, secondary deviance describes the consequences of being stigmatized as a result of the primary deviant behavior. An example of this could be an individual joining a gang as a means of finding acceptance after being rejected by mainstream society. For more information on this topic, one can refer to resources such as SOS Sociology.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Stigma And Culture
      28
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A middle-aged patient remembers taking a medication for schizophrenia some time ago but...

    Correct

    • A middle-aged patient remembers taking a medication for schizophrenia some time ago but cannot recall its name. They were cautioned that it could cause sun sensitivity and advised to use ample sun protection while on it. What medication do you think they might have been given?

      Your Answer: Chlorpromazine

      Explanation:

      Chlorpromazine: Photosensitivity Reactions and Patient Precautions

      Chlorpromazine, the first drug used for psychosis, is a common topic in exams. However, it is important to note that photosensitivity reactions are a known side effect of its use. Patients taking chlorpromazine should be informed of this and advised to take necessary precautions. Proper education and awareness can help prevent potential harm from photosensitivity reactions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      12.9
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - What is the one year prevalence of social anxiety disorder according to the...

    Incorrect

    • What is the one year prevalence of social anxiety disorder according to the US National Comorbidity study for individuals of all ages?

      Your Answer: 13%

      Correct Answer: 7.40%

      Explanation:

      The US National Comorbidity study reports a 7.4% prevalence of social phobia within a year. Men have a lifetime prevalence of 4% for specific phobia, while women have a lifetime prevalence of 13%. Obsessive compulsive disorder has a one year prevalence of 2.1%. Men have a one year prevalence of 1.7% for agoraphobia without panic disorder. All diagnoses are based on DSM-IIIR criteria.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Epidemiology
      9.1
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - Which antidepressant is known for having a lower occurrence of sexual dysfunction as...

    Correct

    • Which antidepressant is known for having a lower occurrence of sexual dysfunction as a side effect?

      Your Answer: Mirtazapine

      Explanation:

      Antidepressants can cause sexual dysfunction as a side-effect, although the rates vary. The impact on sexual desire, arousal, and orgasm can differ depending on the type of antidepressant. It is important to rule out other causes and consider non-pharmacological strategies such as reducing the dosage of taking drug holidays. If necessary, switching to a lower risk antidepressant of using pharmacological options such as phosphodiesterase inhibitors of mirtazapine augmentation can be considered. The Maudsley Guidelines 14th Edition provides a helpful table outlining the risk of sexual dysfunction for different antidepressants.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      10
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - Which individual is recognized for originating the term cognitive dissonance? ...

    Correct

    • Which individual is recognized for originating the term cognitive dissonance?

      Your Answer: Festinger

      Explanation:

      Cognitive Dissonance is a term used to describe the uncomfortable feeling that arises when there is a conflict between an individual’s attitudes, beliefs, of behaviors. This feeling can lead to a change in behavior of beliefs. The theory of cognitive dissonance suggests that people have an inner drive to maintain cognitive consistency and avoid dissonance. This drive can result in irrational of maladaptive behaviors. Dissonance can be reduced by changing attitudes, behaviors, of beliefs, acquiring new information, of reducing the importance of the cognitions. Overall, cognitive dissonance plays a significant role in shaping human behavior and decision-making.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      10.2
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - A child with a fear of dogs is encouraged to pet a friendly...

    Incorrect

    • A child with a fear of dogs is encouraged to pet a friendly one. At first, the child is very scared but eventually becomes comfortable and enjoys playing with the dog. What type of therapeutic approach does this demonstrate?

      Your Answer: Systematic desensitization

      Correct Answer: Flooding

      Explanation:

      Flooding as a Treatment for Phobias

      Flooding is a treatment method for phobias that involves directly confronting the fear and remaining in the situation until the anxiety subsides. This process is called habituation and is different from systematic desensitization. However, flooding can be challenging for patients as it produces high levels of anxiety, which can cause them to leave the situation before the fear response is extinguished. As a result, desensitization is generally preferred over flooding as a treatment method for phobias.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      15.9
      Seconds
  • Question 31 - What is a true statement about attachment theory? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is a true statement about attachment theory?

      Your Answer: Attachment behaviour is least evident when an infant is stressed

      Correct Answer: The primary attachment figure is not necessarily the mother

      Explanation:

      Attachment Theory and Harlow’s Monkeys

      Attachment theory, developed by John Bowlby, suggests that children have an innate tendency to form relationships with people around them to increase their chance of survival. This attachment is different from bonding, which concerns the mother’s feelings for her infant. Children typically single out a primary caregiver, referred to as the principle attachment figure, from about 1-3 months. The quality of a person’s early attachments is associated with their adult behavior, with poor attachments leading to withdrawn individuals who struggle to form relationships and good attachments leading to socially competent adults who can form healthy relationships.

      Bowlby’s attachment model has four stages: preattachment, attachment in the making, clear-cut attachment, and formation of reciprocal attachment. The time from 6 months to 36 months is known as the critical period, during which a child is most vulnerable to interruptions in its attachment. Attachments are divided into secure and insecure types, with insecure types further divided into avoidant and ambivalent types.

      Harlow’s experiment with young rhesus monkeys demonstrated the importance of the need for closeness over food. The experiment involved giving the monkeys a choice between two different mothers, one made of soft terry cloth but provided no food and the other made of wire but provided food from an attached baby bottle. The baby monkeys spent significantly more time with their cloth mother than with their wire mother, showing the importance of attachment and closeness in early development.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychological Development
      28.8
      Seconds
  • Question 32 - A 6 year old girl would be expected to be in which of...

    Incorrect

    • A 6 year old girl would be expected to be in which of the following stages of psychosexual development?

      Your Answer: Genital

      Correct Answer: Latency

      Explanation:

      Psychosexual Development

      The psychosexual theory of development, developed by Freud, outlines a number of stages that individuals go through in their development. These stages are quite complex, but tend to come up in exams. The stages include the oral stage, which occurs from birth to 18 months, where pleasure and needs are explored through sucking, swallowing, and biting. The anal stage occurs from 18 to 36 months, where pleasure and needs are explored through bowel and bladder elimination and retention. The phallic stage occurs from 3 to 5 years, where boys pass through the Oedipal complex and girls the Electra complex. Girls are also said to develop penis envy in this stage. The latency stage occurs from 5 to puberty, where the sexual drive remains latent. Finally, the genital stage occurs from puberty to adulthood, where a person achieves independence from their parents and forms intimate relationships with others.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychological Development
      11.2
      Seconds
  • Question 33 - What structure is situated in the middle cranial fossa? ...

    Correct

    • What structure is situated in the middle cranial fossa?

      Your Answer: Foramen lacerum

      Explanation:

      The foramen lacerum is a opening located in the middle cranial fossa at the base of the skull.

      Cranial Fossae and Foramina

      The cranium is divided into three regions known as fossae, each housing different cranial lobes. The anterior cranial fossa contains the frontal lobes and includes the frontal and ethmoid bones, as well as the lesser wing of the sphenoid. The middle cranial fossa contains the temporal lobes and includes the greater wing of the sphenoid, sella turcica, and most of the temporal bones. The posterior cranial fossa contains the occipital lobes, cerebellum, and medulla and includes the occipital bone.

      There are several foramina in the skull that allow for the passage of various structures. The most important foramina likely to appear in exams are listed below:

      – Foramen spinosum: located in the middle fossa and allows for the passage of the middle meningeal artery.
      – Foramen ovale: located in the middle fossa and allows for the passage of the mandibular division of the trigeminal nerve.
      – Foramen lacerum: located in the middle fossa and allows for the passage of the small meningeal branches of the ascending pharyngeal artery and emissary veins from the cavernous sinus.
      – Foramen magnum: located in the posterior fossa and allows for the passage of the spinal cord.
      – Jugular foramen: located in the posterior fossa and allows for the passage of cranial nerves IX, X, and XI.

      Understanding the location and function of these foramina is essential for medical professionals, as they play a crucial role in the diagnosis and treatment of various neurological conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      7.1
      Seconds
  • Question 34 - Which antidepressant is most commonly linked to neutropenia? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which antidepressant is most commonly linked to neutropenia?

      Your Answer: Agomelatine

      Correct Answer: Mirtazapine

      Explanation:

      Sertraline use has been linked to the development of leucopenia. Patients are advised to report any signs of infection, such as fever, sore throat, of stomatitis, during treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      12.6
      Seconds
  • Question 35 - Which trinucleotide repeats are associated with Fragile X? ...

    Correct

    • Which trinucleotide repeats are associated with Fragile X?

      Your Answer: CGG

      Explanation:

      Fragile X Syndrome: A Genetic Disorder Causing Learning Disability and Psychiatric Symptoms

      Fragile X Syndrome is a genetic disorder that causes mental retardation, an elongated face, large protruding ears, and large testicles in men. Individuals with this syndrome tend to be shy, avoid eye contact, and have difficulties reading facial expressions. They also display stereotypic movements such as hand flapping. Fragile X Syndrome is the most common inherited cause of learning disability.

      The speech of affected individuals is often abnormal, with abnormalities of fluency. This disorder is caused by the amplification of a CGG repeat in the 5 untranslated region of the fragile X mental retardation 1 gene (FMR1). These CGG repeats disrupt synthesis of the fragile X protein (FMRP), which is essential for brain function and growth. The gene is located at Xq27. The greater number of repeats, the more severe the condition, as with other trinucleotide repeat disorders.

      The fragile X phenotype typically involves a variety of psychiatric symptoms, including features of autism, attention deficit/hyperactivity disorder, anxiety, and aggression. Both males and females can be affected, but males are more severely affected because they have only one X chromosome. The prevalence estimate of Fragile X Syndrome is 1/3600-4000.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      12.2
      Seconds
  • Question 36 - In the field of neurology, which specific region of the brain did the...

    Incorrect

    • In the field of neurology, which specific region of the brain did the case of Phineas Gage contribute to our understanding of?

      Your Answer: Amygdala

      Correct Answer: Frontal lobe

      Explanation:

      The Case of Phineas Gage and the Importance of the Frontal Lobe

      Phineas Gage was a railroad worker who experienced a traumatic accident where an iron pole went through his frontal lobe. Despite surviving the incident, his personality underwent a significant change. This case was crucial in advancing our knowledge of the frontal lobe’s function.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      8.7
      Seconds
  • Question 37 - What was the significant accomplishment made by Eve Johnstone and her team in...

    Incorrect

    • What was the significant accomplishment made by Eve Johnstone and her team in 1976 regarding the treatment of schizophrenia?

      Your Answer: Dopamine theory of schizophrenia

      Correct Answer: Brain abnormalities seen on CT

      Explanation:

      The discovery of brain abnormalities in schizophrenia using computed tomography was made by Eve Johnstone and her team at Harrow, who were the pioneers in this field. In Australia, John Kane was the first to introduce clozapine treatment. The dopamine theory of schizophrenia was formally proposed by Snyder and colleagues in 1976. The investigation and description of expressed emotion was initiated by George Brown at the MRC during the 1950s.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • History Of Psychiatry
      12.1
      Seconds
  • Question 38 - A 42-year-old woman complains of seeing two of everything. During the exam, it...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old woman complains of seeing two of everything. During the exam, it is noted that her right eye is turned inward while looking straight ahead.
      What is the diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Right oculomotor nerve palsy

      Correct Answer: Right abducens nerve palsy

      Explanation:

      The abducens nerve (CN VI) controls the lateral rectus muscle, which allows for outward eye movement. If a patient has an isolated unilateral abducens nerve palsy, they may experience horizontal diplopia, where the affected eye deviates inward due to the unopposed medial rectus muscle. This results in the patient being unable to move their eye outward when looking to the affected side. If the right eye is deviated inward, it indicates right nerve palsy.

      The oculomotor nerve (CN III) controls several eye muscles, including the superior rectus, inferior rectus, inferior oblique, and medial rectus muscles. It also controls the levator palpebrae superioris (LPS) muscles responsible for lifting the upper eyelid and the muscles that constrict the pupil. The presentation of an oculomotor nerve lesion can vary depending on which branch of area is affected. In a complete oculomotor nerve palsy, the affected eye may be positioned downward and outward, resulting in strabismus and diplopia. The patient may also experience mydriasis (dilated pupil) and ptosis (drooping of the eyelid).

      The trochlear nerve (CN IV) controls the superior oblique muscle, which allows for downward, inward, and outward eye movement. If a patient has a trochlear nerve lesion, they may experience vertical diplopia and develop a head tilt away from the affected eye.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological Examination
      29.3
      Seconds
  • Question 39 - Which study involved individuals who were aware that effective treatment was available but...

    Incorrect

    • Which study involved individuals who were aware that effective treatment was available but were still not provided with it?

      Your Answer: Rosenhan experiment

      Correct Answer: Tuskegee experiment

      Explanation:

      Controversial studies in psychiatry have been a popular topic in exams. One such study was the Willowbrook School Study, where healthy children with learning difficulties were inoculated with hepatitis to assess the potential of gamma globulin to treat the disorder. Beecher’s study listed over 20 cases of mainstream research where subjects were experimented on without being fully informed of the risks. The Tuskegee syphilis experiment followed impoverished African-American sharecroppers with syphilis, and a significant proportion did not receive available treatment. Stanford’s prison experiment created a simulated prison environment where participants became their assigned roles, with guards becoming harsh and cruel to prisoners. The Tearooms Study involved Humphreys pretending to be a ‘watch queen’ to study men who have sex in public toilets, raising the issue of informed consent. Milgram’s Study investigated authority and obedience, where participants administered fake shocks to a confederate, with 30 participants continuing to administer shocks until 450 volts was reached. The Rosenhan experiment involved pseudopatients presenting themselves at institutions with the same symptoms and being admitted and diagnosed with serious mental disorders, leading to deinstitutionalisation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      1142.9
      Seconds
  • Question 40 - A woman undergoing analysis has a deep sense that she is inferior and...

    Correct

    • A woman undergoing analysis has a deep sense that she is inferior and unlovable. She is unable to accept this and instead directs these feelings towards her therapist. The therapist finds that after the sessions they feel that they are a substandard therapist and that they are no good at their job. It is unusual for the therapist to feel this way and they note that it only seems to happen with this one patient. Which of the following best describes the feelings experienced by the therapist?

      Your Answer: Projective identification

      Explanation:

      Intermediate Mechanism: Rationalisation

      Rationalisation is a defense mechanism commonly used by individuals to create false but credible justifications for their behavior of actions. It involves the use of logical reasoning to explain away of justify unacceptable behavior of feelings. The individual may not be aware that they are using this mechanism, and it can be difficult to identify in oneself.

      Rationalisation is considered an intermediate mechanism, as it is common in healthy individuals from ages three to ninety, as well as in neurotic disorders and in mastering acute adult stress. It can be dramatically changed by conventional psychotherapeutic interpretation.

      Examples of rationalisation include a student who fails an exam and blames the teacher for not teaching the material well enough, of a person who cheats on their partner and justifies it by saying their partner was neglectful of unaffectionate. It allows the individual to avoid taking responsibility for their actions and to maintain a positive self-image.

      Overall, rationalisation can be a useful defense mechanism in certain situations, but it can also be harmful if it leads to a lack of accountability and an inability to learn from mistakes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
      31.2
      Seconds
  • Question 41 - A 30-year-old woman tells her husband that she feels like she's being watched...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old woman tells her husband that she feels like she's being watched constantly. She believes that she can hear people talking about her from their workplace (which is located a mile away).
      What perceptual abnormality is she likely experiencing?

      Your Answer: Extracampine hallucination

      Explanation:

      Extracampine hallucinations refer to hallucinations that occur beyond one’s sensory range, such as outside the visual of auditory field. Functional hallucinations require an external stimulus to trigger them, but the individual experiences both the normal perception of the stimulus and the hallucination simultaneously. Reflex hallucinations occur when a stimulus in one modality leads to a hallucination in another modality. Hypnagogic hallucinations occur during the process of falling asleep, while autoscopic hallucinations involve abnormal visual perception of oneself.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Descriptive Psychopathology
      4088.3
      Seconds
  • Question 42 - Regarding clozapine, which class of receptors does not experience any impact? ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding clozapine, which class of receptors does not experience any impact?

      Your Answer: Serotonergic

      Correct Answer: Glutamatergic

      Explanation:

      Clozapine is an atypical antipsychotic drug that acts as an antagonist at various receptors, including dopamine, histamine, serotonin, adrenergic, and cholinergic receptors. It is mainly metabolized by CYP1A2, and its plasma levels can be affected by inducers and inhibitors of this enzyme. Clozapine is associated with several side effects, including drowsiness, constipation, weight gain, and hypersalivation. Hypersalivation is a paradoxical side effect, and its mechanism is not fully understood, but it may involve clozapine agonist activity at the muscarinic M4 receptor and antagonist activity at the alpha-2 adrenoceptor. Clozapine is also associated with several potentially dangerous adverse events, including agranulocytosis, myocarditis, seizures, severe orthostatic hypotension, increased mortality in elderly patients with dementia-related psychosis, colitis, pancreatitis, thrombocytopenia, thromboembolism, and insulin resistance and diabetes mellitus. The BNF advises caution in using clozapine in patients with prostatic hypertrophy, susceptibility to angle-closure glaucoma, and adults over 60 years. Valproate should be considered when using high doses of clozapine, plasma levels > 0.5 mg/l, of when the patient experiences seizures. Myocarditis is a rare but potentially fatal adverse event associated with clozapine use, and its diagnosis is based on biomarkers and clinical features. The mortality rate of clozapine-induced myocarditis is high, and subsequent use of clozapine in such cases leads to recurrence of myocarditis in most cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      298.1
      Seconds
  • Question 43 - What is a correct statement about the blood brain barrier? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is a correct statement about the blood brain barrier?

      Your Answer: Gap junctions restrict the passage of large particles

      Correct Answer: It is fenestrated at the posterior pituitary gland

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Blood Brain Barrier

      The blood brain barrier (BBB) is a crucial component of the brain’s defense system against harmful chemicals and ion imbalances. It is a semi-permeable membrane formed by tight junctions of endothelial cells in the brain’s capillaries, which separates the blood from the cerebrospinal fluid. However, certain areas of the BBB, known as circumventricular organs, are fenestrated to allow neurosecretory products to enter the blood.

      When it comes to MRCPsych questions, the focus is on the following aspects of the BBB: the tight junctions between endothelial cells, the ease with which lipid-soluble molecules pass through compared to water-soluble ones, the difficulty large and highly charged molecules face in passing through, the increased permeability of the BBB during inflammation, and the theoretical ability of nasally administered drugs to bypass the BBB.

      It is important to remember the specific circumventricular organs where the BBB is fenestrated, including the posterior pituitary and the area postrema. Understanding the BBB’s function and characteristics is essential for medical professionals to diagnose and treat neurological disorders effectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      8.4
      Seconds
  • Question 44 - What is an example of an atypical antipsychotic medication? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is an example of an atypical antipsychotic medication?

      Your Answer: Zuclopenthixol

      Correct Answer: Clozapine

      Explanation:

      Antipsychotics can be classified in different ways, with the most common being typical (first generation) and atypical (second generation) types. Typical antipsychotics block dopamine (D2) receptors and have varying degrees of M1, Alpha-1, and H1 receptor blockade. Atypical antipsychotics have a lower propensity for extrapyramidal side-effects and are attributed to the combination of relatively lower D2 antagonism with 5HT2A antagonism. They are also classified by structure, with examples including phenothiazines, butyrophenones, thioxanthenes, diphenylbutylpiperidine, dibenzodiazepines, benzoxazoles, thienobenzodiazepine, substituted benzamides, and arylpiperidylindole (quinolone). Studies have found little evidence to support the superiority of atypicals over typicals in terms of efficacy, discontinuation rates, of adherence, with the main difference being the side-effect profile. The Royal College also favors classification by structure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      4.4
      Seconds
  • Question 45 - Which type of apraxia is indicated when a patient is unable to fold...

    Incorrect

    • Which type of apraxia is indicated when a patient is unable to fold a piece of paper with their non-dominant hand and place it on a table during a mini mental state examination?

      Your Answer: Constructional

      Correct Answer: Ideational

      Explanation:

      If a patient is unable to complete a task that requires a sequence of steps, they are exhibiting ideational apraxia. On the other hand, if they struggle to perform a task that they have previously learned, such as attempting to brush their teeth with a pencil, this is an example of ideomotor apraxia.

      Apraxia: Understanding the Inability to Carry Out Learned Voluntary Movements

      Apraxia is a neurological condition that affects a person’s ability to carry out learned voluntary movements. It is important to note that this condition assumes that everything works and the person is not paralyzed. There are different types of apraxia, each with its own set of symptoms and characteristics.

      Limb kinetic apraxia is a type of apraxia that affects a person’s ability to make fine of delicate movements. This can include tasks such as buttoning a shirt of tying shoelaces.

      Ideomotor apraxia, on the other hand, is an inability to carry out learned tasks when given the necessary objects. For example, a person with ideomotor apraxia may try to write with a hairbrush instead of using it to brush their hair.

      Constructional apraxia affects a person’s ability to copy a picture of combine parts of something to form a whole. This can include tasks such as building a puzzle of drawing a picture.

      Ideational apraxia is an inability to follow a sequence of actions in the correct order. For example, a person with ideational apraxia may struggle to take a match out of a box and strike it with their left hand.

      Finally, oculomotor apraxia affects a person’s ability to control eye movements. This can make it difficult for them to track moving objects of read smoothly.

      Overall, apraxia can have a significant impact on a person’s ability to carry out everyday tasks. However, with the right support and treatment, many people with apraxia are able to improve their abilities and maintain their independence.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      202.6
      Seconds
  • Question 46 - What is the opioid system modulator that is prescribed to decrease alcohol consumption?...

    Incorrect

    • What is the opioid system modulator that is prescribed to decrease alcohol consumption?

      Your Answer: Acamprosate

      Correct Answer: Nalmefene

      Explanation:

      Nalmefene is a medication that affects the opioid system by partially activating the κ receptor and blocking the μ and σ receptors. It is believed to reduce the pleasurable effects of alcohol by targeting the mesolimbic system and opioid receptors, helping individuals decrease their alcohol consumption.

      Acamprosate works by targeting NMDA and GABA receptors, which can reduce the urge to drink alcohol.

      Disulfiram inhibits the enzyme acetaldehyde dehydrogenase, which is involved in breaking down alcohol. If someone drinks alcohol while taking disulfiram, they may experience a severe and potentially deadly reaction due to the buildup of acetaldehyde. Disulfiram is typically used by individuals who have stopped drinking and want to maintain their sobriety.

      Naltrexone is a medication that blocks opioid receptors and can be used to treat both opioid and alcohol addiction.

      Naloxone is a short-acting medication that blocks opioid receptors and is used in emergency situations to treat opioid overdose.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      14.7
      Seconds
  • Question 47 - What is a common phenomenon observed among adolescents from immigrant backgrounds where adolescents...

    Incorrect

    • What is a common phenomenon observed among adolescents from immigrant backgrounds where adolescents take on the culture/practices of their new country and give up their own culture?

      Your Answer: Integration

      Correct Answer: Assimilation

      Explanation:

      Assimilation is another phenomenon commonly observed among adolescents from immigrant backgrounds.

      Assimilation refers to the process by which individuals adopt the cultural norms, values, and practices of the dominant culture in which they reside, often at the expense of their own cultural heritage. In the context of immigrant adolescents, assimilation may involve adopting the language, customs, clothing, and behaviors of the majority culture in order to fit in and gain acceptance within their new environment.

      While assimilation can facilitate integration into the mainstream society and may provide certain advantages, such as improved access to education and employment opportunities, it can also result in a loss of cultural identity and connection to one’s heritage.

      High degree of adoption of new culture and high degree of retention of culture of origin result in integration, while low degree of adoption of new culture and high degree of retention of culture of origin lead to separation. On the other hand, high degree of adoption of new culture and low degree of retention of culture of origin result in assimilation, while low degree of adoption of new culture and low degree of retention of culture of origin lead to marginalization.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Advanced Psychological Processes And Treatments
      11.3
      Seconds
  • Question 48 - Which of the following is enlarged in individuals with schizophrenia? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is enlarged in individuals with schizophrenia?

      Your Answer: The ventricles

      Explanation:

      Ventricular enlargement is a common finding in individuals with schizophrenia.

      Schizophrenia is a pathology that is characterized by a number of structural and functional brain alterations. Structural alterations include enlargement of the ventricles, reductions in total brain and gray matter volume, and regional reductions in the amygdala, parahippocampal gyrus, and temporal lobes. Antipsychotic treatment may be associated with gray matter loss over time, and even drug-naïve patients show volume reductions. Cerebral asymmetry is also reduced in affected individuals and healthy relatives. Functional alterations include diminished activation of frontal regions during cognitive tasks and increased activation of temporal regions during hallucinations. These findings suggest that schizophrenia is associated with both macroscopic and functional changes in the brain.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      7.9
      Seconds
  • Question 49 - A 70-year-old man, who is being treated for psychotic depression, arrives at the...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old man, who is being treated for psychotic depression, arrives at the emergency department in a state of confusion. He has a fever and is tachycardic. During the examination, it is observed that he has generalised muscular rigidity in his extremities, which is present throughout all ranges of movement. Additionally, he displays signs of tremors. What medication is the most probable cause of this presentation?

      Your Answer: Lamotrigine

      Correct Answer: Haloperidol

      Explanation:

      This is a case of neuroleptic malignant syndrome, which is primarily associated with the use of antipsychotic medications. The key features of NMS include mental status changes, muscular rigidity, hyperthermia, and autonomic instability, typically presenting as tachycardia. Mental state changes are often the first symptom to appear.

      Serotonin Syndrome and Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome are two conditions that can be difficult to differentiate. Serotonin Syndrome is caused by excess serotonergic activity in the CNS and is characterized by neuromuscular abnormalities, altered mental state, and autonomic dysfunction. On the other hand, Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome is a rare acute disorder of thermoregulation and neuromotor control that is almost exclusively caused by antipsychotics. The symptoms of both syndromes can overlap, but there are some distinguishing clinical features. Hyper-reflexia, ocular clonus, and tremors are more prominent in Serotonin Syndrome, while Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome is characterized by uniform ‘lead-pipe’ rigidity and hyporeflexia. Symptoms of Serotonin Syndrome usually resolve within a few days of stopping the medication, while Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome can take up to 14 days to remit with appropriate treatment. The following table provides a useful guide to the main differentials of Serotonin Syndrome and Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      181.2
      Seconds
  • Question 50 - Which of the options below does not diminish the effectiveness of the oral...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the options below does not diminish the effectiveness of the oral contraceptive pill when used together?

      Your Answer: Carbamazepine

      Correct Answer: Sodium valproate

      Explanation:

      It is safe to use sodium valproate together with the oral contraceptive pill. However, as valproate is known to cause birth defects, all women who use it and are of childbearing age must also use contraception.

      Interactions with Oral Contraceptives

      Psychiatric drugs such as St John’s Wort, Carbamazepine, Phenytoin, Topiramate, and Barbiturates can interact with oral contraceptives and lead to a reduced contraceptive effect. It is important to be aware of these potential interactions to ensure the effectiveness of oral contraceptives.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      8.5
      Seconds
  • Question 51 - Through which opening in the skull does the cranial nerve exit that is...

    Correct

    • Through which opening in the skull does the cranial nerve exit that is known as the superior orbital fissure?

      Your Answer: Abducens (VI)

      Explanation:

      Overview of Cranial Nerves and Their Functions

      The cranial nerves are a complex system of nerves that originate from the brain and control various functions of the head and neck. There are twelve cranial nerves, each with a specific function and origin. The following table provides a simplified overview of the cranial nerves, including their origin, skull exit, modality, and functions.

      The first cranial nerve, the olfactory nerve, originates from the telencephalon and exits through the cribriform plate. It is a sensory nerve that controls the sense of smell. The second cranial nerve, the optic nerve, originates from the diencephalon and exits through the optic foramen. It is a sensory nerve that controls vision.

      The third cranial nerve, the oculomotor nerve, originates from the midbrain and exits through the superior orbital fissure. It is a motor nerve that controls eye movement, pupillary constriction, and lens accommodation. The fourth cranial nerve, the trochlear nerve, also originates from the midbrain and exits through the superior orbital fissure. It is a motor nerve that controls eye movement.

      The fifth cranial nerve, the trigeminal nerve, originates from the pons and exits through different foramina depending on the division. It is a mixed nerve that controls chewing and sensation of the anterior 2/3 of the scalp. It also tenses the tympanic membrane to dampen loud noises.

      The sixth cranial nerve, the abducens nerve, originates from the pons and exits through the superior orbital fissure. It is a motor nerve that controls eye movement. The seventh cranial nerve, the facial nerve, also originates from the pons and exits through the internal auditory canal. It is a mixed nerve that controls facial expression, taste of the anterior 2/3 of the tongue, and tension on the stapes to dampen loud noises.

      The eighth cranial nerve, the vestibulocochlear nerve, originates from the pons and exits through the internal auditory canal. It is a sensory nerve that controls hearing. The ninth cranial nerve, the glossopharyngeal nerve, originates from the medulla and exits through the jugular foramen. It is a mixed nerve that controls taste of the posterior 1/3 of the tongue, elevation of the larynx and pharynx, and swallowing.

      The tenth cranial nerve, the vagus nerve, also originates from the medulla and exits through the jugular foramen. It is a mixed nerve that controls swallowing, voice production, and parasympathetic supply to nearly all thoracic and abdominal viscera. The eleventh cranial nerve, the accessory nerve, originates from the medulla and exits through the jugular foramen. It is a motor nerve that controls shoulder shrugging and head turning.

      The twelfth cranial nerve, the hypoglossal nerve, originates from the medulla and exits through the hypoglossal canal. It is a motor nerve that controls tongue movement. Overall, the cranial nerves play a crucial role in controlling various functions of the head and neck, and any damage of dysfunction can have significant consequences.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      12.4
      Seconds
  • Question 52 - With what are balloon cells commonly linked? ...

    Incorrect

    • With what are balloon cells commonly linked?

      Your Answer: Alzheimer's disease

      Correct Answer: Pick's disease

      Explanation:

      Pick’s disease is characterized by swollen and enlarged neurons that have a ballooned appearance, which is why they are commonly referred to as balloon cells. It is important to note that the term ‘balloon cell’ is a general histological term used to describe swollen cells that are often observed in cerebral degeneration. While they can be seen in various conditions, they are particularly prevalent in Pick’s disease and are considered a hallmark feature of the disorder.

      Frontotemporal Lobar Degeneration (FTLD) is a pathological term that refers to a group of neurodegenerative disorders that affect the frontal and temporal lobes of the brain. FTLD is classified into several subtypes based on the main protein component of neuronal and glial abnormal inclusions and their distribution. The three main proteins associated with FTLD are Tau, TDP-43, and FUS. Each FTD clinical phenotype has been associated with different proportions of these proteins. Macroscopic changes in FTLD include atrophy of the frontal and temporal lobes, with focal gyral atrophy that resembles knives. Microscopic changes in FTLD-Tau include neuronal and glial tau aggregation, with further sub-classification based on the existence of different isoforms of tau protein. FTLD-TDP is characterized by cytoplasmic inclusions of TDP-43 in neurons, while FTLD-FUS is characterized by cytoplasmic inclusions of FUS.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      6.3
      Seconds
  • Question 53 - Under which category of memory is priming classified? ...

    Incorrect

    • Under which category of memory is priming classified?

      Your Answer: Haptic memory

      Correct Answer: Nondeclarative memory

      Explanation:

      Memory Forms

      Memory is the ability to store, retain, and retrieve information. There are different forms of memory, including sensory memory, short-term/working memory, and long-term memory.

      Sensory memory is the capacity for briefly retaining the large amounts of information that people encounter daily. It includes echoic memory (gathered through auditory stimuli), iconic memory (gathered through sight), and haptic memory (acquired through touch).

      Short-term memory is the ability to keep a small amount of information available for a short period of time. Atkinson and Shiffrin’s multistore model (1968) suggests the existence of a short-term storehouse with limited capacity. Baddeley and Hitch (1974) further developed the concept of short-term memory, which eventually became known as Baddeley’s multi-storehouse model (2000). This model includes the central executive, visuospatial sketchpad, phonological buffer/loop, and episodic buffer.

      Long-term memory includes declarative (of explicit) memories, which can be consciously retrieved, and nondeclarative (of implicit) memories, which cannot. Declarative memory includes episodic memory (stores personal experiences) and semantic memory (stores information about facts and concepts). Non-declarative memory includes procedural memory (recalls motor and executive skills), associative memory (storage and retrieval of information through association with other information), and non-associative memory (refers to newly learned behavior through repeated exposure to an isolated stimulus).

      Overall, memory is a complex and essential cognitive function that plays a crucial role in learning, reasoning, and understanding.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      11.2
      Seconds
  • Question 54 - Which of the following scenarios would indicate that there is no linkage based...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following scenarios would indicate that there is no linkage based on the LOD score?

      Your Answer: -1

      Correct Answer: -3

      Explanation:

      Linkage and LOD Scores in Genetics

      In genetics, when genes are located close to each other on a chromosome, they tend to be inherited together and are referred to as linked genes. Conversely, genes that are far apart of located on different chromosomes are inherited independently and are said to follow independent assortment. To determine the relative distance between two genes, scientists can analyze the offspring of an organism that displays two strongly linked traits and calculate the percentage of offspring where the traits do not co-segregate.

      To determine if there is evidence for linkage between two genes, scientists use a statistical method called the LOD score (logarithm of the odds). A LOD score of >3 is considered significant evidence for linkage, while a LOD score of <-2 excludes linkage. The LOD score is calculated by comparing the likelihood of the observed data under the assumption of linkage to the likelihood of the data under the assumption of independent assortment. The LOD score provides a measure of the strength of evidence for linkage between two genes and is widely used in genetic research.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      108.1
      Seconds
  • Question 55 - What is considered the most crucial factor for utilizing working memory effectively? ...

    Correct

    • What is considered the most crucial factor for utilizing working memory effectively?

      Your Answer: Prefrontal cortex

      Explanation:

      Memory Forms

      Memory is the ability to store, retain, and retrieve information. There are different forms of memory, including sensory memory, short-term/working memory, and long-term memory.

      Sensory memory is the capacity for briefly retaining the large amounts of information that people encounter daily. It includes echoic memory (gathered through auditory stimuli), iconic memory (gathered through sight), and haptic memory (acquired through touch).

      Short-term memory is the ability to keep a small amount of information available for a short period of time. Atkinson and Shiffrin’s multistore model (1968) suggests the existence of a short-term storehouse with limited capacity. Baddeley and Hitch (1974) further developed the concept of short-term memory, which eventually became known as Baddeley’s multi-storehouse model (2000). This model includes the central executive, visuospatial sketchpad, phonological buffer/loop, and episodic buffer.

      Long-term memory includes declarative (of explicit) memories, which can be consciously retrieved, and nondeclarative (of implicit) memories, which cannot. Declarative memory includes episodic memory (stores personal experiences) and semantic memory (stores information about facts and concepts). Non-declarative memory includes procedural memory (recalls motor and executive skills), associative memory (storage and retrieval of information through association with other information), and non-associative memory (refers to newly learned behavior through repeated exposure to an isolated stimulus).

      Overall, memory is a complex and essential cognitive function that plays a crucial role in learning, reasoning, and understanding.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      6.4
      Seconds
  • Question 56 - What is an example of a genetic condition that is inherited in an...

    Incorrect

    • What is an example of a genetic condition that is inherited in an autosomal recessive manner?

      Your Answer: Lesch-Nyhan syndrome

      Correct Answer: Wilson's disease

      Explanation:

      Inheritance Patterns and Examples

      Autosomal Dominant:
      Neurofibromatosis type 1 and 2, tuberous sclerosis, achondroplasia, Huntington disease, and Noonan’s syndrome are all examples of conditions that follow an autosomal dominant inheritance pattern. This means that only one copy of the mutated gene is needed to cause the condition.

      Autosomal Recessive:
      Phenylketonuria, homocystinuria, Hurler’s syndrome, galactosaemia, Tay-Sach’s disease, Friedreich’s ataxia, Wilson’s disease, and cystic fibrosis are all examples of conditions that follow an autosomal recessive inheritance pattern. This means that two copies of the mutated gene are needed to cause the condition.

      X-Linked Dominant:
      Vitamin D resistant rickets and Rett syndrome are examples of conditions that follow an X-linked dominant inheritance pattern. This means that the mutated gene is located on the X chromosome and only one copy of the gene is needed to cause the condition.

      X-Linked Recessive:
      Cerebellar ataxia, Hunter’s syndrome, and Lesch-Nyhan are examples of conditions that follow an X-linked recessive inheritance pattern. This means that the mutated gene is located on the X chromosome and two copies of the gene are needed to cause the condition.

      Mitochondrial:
      Leber’s hereditary optic neuropathy and Kearns-Sayre syndrome are examples of conditions that follow a mitochondrial inheritance pattern. This means that the mutated gene is located in the mitochondria and is passed down from the mother to her offspring.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      5.5
      Seconds
  • Question 57 - Out of the options provided, which one is the least probable cause of...

    Correct

    • Out of the options provided, which one is the least probable cause of delirium?

      Your Answer: Digoxin

      Explanation:

      The available evidence is of poor quality and does not support an increased risk of delirium associated with digoxin.

      Prescribing in the Elderly: Iatrogenic Consequences

      Many medications, both prescribed and over-the-counter, can have significant adverse effects in the elderly population. It is important to note that the lists provided below are not exhaustive, and only the most common and important examples are given.

      Medications Linked to Delirium and Other Cognitive Disorders

      Medications are the most common reversible cause of delirium and dementia in the elderly. Many medications can cause cognitive impairment, but the classes of drugs most strongly associated with the development of drug-induced dementia are opioids, benzodiazepines, and anticholinergics.

      According to a systematic review done in 2011 (Clegg, 2011), long-acting benzodiazepines (e.g., diazepam) are more troublesome than those that are shorter-acting. Opioids are associated with an approximately 2-fold increased risk of delirium in medical and surgical patients (Clegg, 2011). Pethidine appears to have a higher risk of delirium compared with other members of the opioid class. This may be because pethidine can accumulate when renal function is impaired and is converted to a metabolite with anticholinergic properties.

      Some antipsychotic drugs have considerable antimuscarinic (anticholinergic) activity (e.g., chlorpromazine and clozapine), which may cause of worsen delirium. Delirium is uncommon in newer antipsychotics (but has been reported).

      Medications Linked to Mood Changes

      The following medications are well known to precipitate mood changes:

      – Centrally-acting antihypertensives (e.g., methyldopa, reserpine, and clonidine) can cause depressive symptoms.
      – Interferon-a is capable of inducing depressive symptoms.
      – Digoxin is capable of inducing depressive symptoms.
      – Corticosteroids can cause depressive, manic, and mixed symptoms with of without psychosis.
      – Antidepressants can precipitate mania.

      Medications Linked to Psychosis

      The following medications are well known to precipitate psychosis:

      – Anti-Parkinson’s Medications (e.g., bromocriptine, amantadine, selegiline, anticholinergics (e.g., trihexyphenidyl, benztropine, benzhexol), and levodopa).
      – Corticosteroids

      Medications Linked to Anxiety

      The following medications are well known to precipitate anxiety:

      – Stimulants
      – β adrenergic inhalers

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      5.6
      Seconds
  • Question 58 - Can you provide an accurate statement about the use of pairwise and probandwise...

    Incorrect

    • Can you provide an accurate statement about the use of pairwise and probandwise concordance rates in twin studies?

      Your Answer: Pairwise concordance rates do not apply to monozygotic twin pairs

      Correct Answer: Probandwise concordance rates are preferred for genetic counselling

      Explanation:

      Both MZ and DZ twins can be analyzed using pairwise and probandwise rates, but probandwise rates are more beneficial in genetic counseling scenarios as they provide information specific to individuals.

      Concordance rates are used in twin studies to investigate the genetic contribution to a trait of condition. Concordance refers to the presence of the same trait of condition in both members of a twin pair. There are two main methods of calculating twin concordance rates: pairwise and probandwise. These methods produce different results and are calculated differently. The probandwise method is generally preferred as it provides more meaningful information in a genetic counseling setting.

      The table below shows an example of a population of 100,000 MZ twin pairs, and the pairwise and probandwise concordance rates calculated from this population. Pairwise concordance is the probability that both twins in a pair are affected by the trait of condition. Probandwise concordance is the probability that a twin is affected given that their co-twin is affected. Both methods are conditional probabilities, but pairwise applies to twin pairs, while probandwise applies to individual twins. This is why probandwise is preferred, as it helps predict the risk at the individual level.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      10.2
      Seconds
  • Question 59 - What statement accurately describes the trigeminal nerve? ...

    Correct

    • What statement accurately describes the trigeminal nerve?

      Your Answer: It is a mixed nerve with both sensory and motor functions

      Explanation:

      The trigeminal nerve, which is the largest cranial nerve, serves both sensory and motor functions. It is composed of three primary branches, namely the ophthalmic, maxillary, and mandibular branches. This nerve is responsible for providing sensory information to the face and head, while also controlling the muscles involved in chewing. On the other hand, the facial nerve is responsible for controlling the muscles that enable facial expressions and transmitting information from the front two-thirds of the tongue.

      Overview of Cranial Nerves and Their Functions

      The cranial nerves are a complex system of nerves that originate from the brain and control various functions of the head and neck. There are twelve cranial nerves, each with a specific function and origin. The following table provides a simplified overview of the cranial nerves, including their origin, skull exit, modality, and functions.

      The first cranial nerve, the olfactory nerve, originates from the telencephalon and exits through the cribriform plate. It is a sensory nerve that controls the sense of smell. The second cranial nerve, the optic nerve, originates from the diencephalon and exits through the optic foramen. It is a sensory nerve that controls vision.

      The third cranial nerve, the oculomotor nerve, originates from the midbrain and exits through the superior orbital fissure. It is a motor nerve that controls eye movement, pupillary constriction, and lens accommodation. The fourth cranial nerve, the trochlear nerve, also originates from the midbrain and exits through the superior orbital fissure. It is a motor nerve that controls eye movement.

      The fifth cranial nerve, the trigeminal nerve, originates from the pons and exits through different foramina depending on the division. It is a mixed nerve that controls chewing and sensation of the anterior 2/3 of the scalp. It also tenses the tympanic membrane to dampen loud noises.

      The sixth cranial nerve, the abducens nerve, originates from the pons and exits through the superior orbital fissure. It is a motor nerve that controls eye movement. The seventh cranial nerve, the facial nerve, also originates from the pons and exits through the internal auditory canal. It is a mixed nerve that controls facial expression, taste of the anterior 2/3 of the tongue, and tension on the stapes to dampen loud noises.

      The eighth cranial nerve, the vestibulocochlear nerve, originates from the pons and exits through the internal auditory canal. It is a sensory nerve that controls hearing. The ninth cranial nerve, the glossopharyngeal nerve, originates from the medulla and exits through the jugular foramen. It is a mixed nerve that controls taste of the posterior 1/3 of the tongue, elevation of the larynx and pharynx, and swallowing.

      The tenth cranial nerve, the vagus nerve, also originates from the medulla and exits through the jugular foramen. It is a mixed nerve that controls swallowing, voice production, and parasympathetic supply to nearly all thoracic and abdominal viscera. The eleventh cranial nerve, the accessory nerve, originates from the medulla and exits through the jugular foramen. It is a motor nerve that controls shoulder shrugging and head turning.

      The twelfth cranial nerve, the hypoglossal nerve, originates from the medulla and exits through the hypoglossal canal. It is a motor nerve that controls tongue movement. Overall, the cranial nerves play a crucial role in controlling various functions of the head and neck, and any damage of dysfunction can have significant consequences.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      15.5
      Seconds
  • Question 60 - Which of the following is not considered a known factor that increases the...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is not considered a known factor that increases the risk of delayed linguistic development?

      Your Answer: Being an only child

      Explanation:

      Linguistic Development and Risk Factors for Delayed Speech and Language

      The development of language skills is an important aspect of a child’s growth. The prelinguistic period, from birth to 12 months, is marked by crying, babbling, and echolalia. From 6 to 12 months, a child responds to their name and can differentiate between angry and friendly tones. By 18 to 24 months, a child can use up to 40-50 words, mainly nouns, and starts to combine words in short phrases. By 36 to 48 months, a child has a vocabulary of 900-1000 words, can use plurals and past tense, and can handle three-word sentences easily.

      However, there are risk factors associated with delayed speech and language development. These include a positive family history, male gender, twins, lower maternal education, childhood illness, being born late in the family order, young mother at birth, and low socioeconomic status. of these, a positive family history is considered the most reliable risk factor. It is important to monitor a child’s language development and seek professional help if there are concerns about delayed speech and language.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychological Development
      11.7
      Seconds
  • Question 61 - I'm sorry, as an AI language model, I cannot determine the appropriate age...

    Incorrect

    • I'm sorry, as an AI language model, I cannot determine the appropriate age to change in the question without further context. Can you please provide more information of clarify your request?

      Your Answer: Delusional misidentification syndrome

      Correct Answer: Primary delusion

      Explanation:

      This is an instance of a primary delusion known as delusional perception. Delusional misidentification syndrome refers to a cluster of conditions, such as Capgras syndrome, Fregoli syndrome, Intermetamorphosis, and Subjective doubles, where individuals hold a belief that the identity of a person, object, of location has been modified of transformed in some way.

      Borderline Learning Disability

      Borderline learning disability is a term used to describe individuals with an IQ between 70-85. This category is not officially recognized as a diagnosis by the ICD-11. It is estimated that approximately 15% of the population falls within this range (Chaplin, 2005). Unlike mild learning disability, borderline learning disability is not typically associated with deficits in adaptive functioning, such as grooming, dressing, safety, of money management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
      31.2
      Seconds
  • Question 62 - What was the term used by Freud to refer to the instinct of...

    Correct

    • What was the term used by Freud to refer to the instinct of death?

      Your Answer: Thanatos

      Explanation:

      Theories of aggression can be categorized into three main perspectives: psychodynamic, sociological/drive, and cognitive and learning. Psychodynamic theory, proposed by Freud, suggests that aggression arises from a primary instinct called thanatos, which aims for destruction and death. Sociobiological/drive theory, proposed by Lorenz, suggests that aggression is instinctual and necessary for survival, and that stronger genes are selected through aggression. Cognitive and learning theory, proposed by Berkowitz, Rotter, Bandura, and Anderson, suggests that aggression can be learned through observational learning and is influenced by environmental factors. Bandura’s work introduced the concept of reciprocal determinism, which suggests that behavior is influenced by both the environment and the individual’s behavior. Rotter’s social learning theory emphasizes the interaction between the individual and their environment, while Anderson and Bushman’s general aggression model considers the role of social, cognitive, developmental, and biological factors on aggression.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      17
      Seconds
  • Question 63 - A 50-year-old female with a history of bipolar disorder presents with an acute...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old female with a history of bipolar disorder presents with an acute confusional state.

      Which one of the following drugs is most likely to precipitate lithium toxicity?

      Your Answer: Atenolol

      Correct Answer: Bendroflumethiazide

      Explanation:

      Plasma concentrations of lithium may be decreased by both sodium bicarbonate and aminophylline.

      Lithium – Pharmacology

      Pharmacokinetics:
      Lithium salts are rapidly absorbed following oral administration and are almost exclusively excreted by the kidneys unchanged. Blood samples for lithium should be taken 12 hours post-dose.

      Ebstein’s:
      Ebstein’s anomaly is a congenital malformation consisting of a prolapse of the tricuspid valve into the right ventricle. It occurs in 1:20,000 of the general population. Initial data suggested it was more common in those using lithium but this had not held to be true.

      Contraindications:
      Addison’s disease, Brugada syndrome, cardiac disease associated with rhythm disorders, clinically significant renal impairment, untreated of untreatable hypothyroidism, low sodium levels.

      Side-effects:
      Common side effects include nausea, tremor, polyuria/polydipsia, rash/dermatitis, blurred vision, dizziness, decreased appetite, drowsiness, metallic taste, and diarrhea. Side-effects are often dose-related.

      Long-term use is associated with hypothyroidism, hyperthyroidism, hypercalcemia/hyperparathyroidism, irreversible nephrogenic diabetes insipidus, and reduced GFR.

      Lithium-induced diabetes insipidus:
      Treatment options include stopping lithium (if feasible), keeping levels within 0.4-0.8 mmol/L, once-daily dose of the drug taken at bedtime, amiloride, thiazide diuretics, indomethacin, and desmopressin.

      Toxicity:
      Lithium salts have a narrow therapeutic/toxic ratio. Risk factors for lithium toxicity include drugs altering renal function, decreased circulating volume, infections, fever, decreased oral intake of water, renal insufficiency, and nephrogenic diabetes insipidus. Features of lithium toxicity include GI symptoms and neuro symptoms.

      Pre-prescribing:
      Before prescribing lithium, renal function, cardiac function, thyroid function, FBC, and BMI should be checked. Women of childbearing age should be advised regarding contraception, and information about toxicity should be provided.

      Monitoring:
      Lithium blood levels should be checked weekly until stable, and then every 3-6 months once stable. Thyroid and renal function should be checked every 6 months. Patients should be issued with an information booklet, alert card, and record book.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      10.4
      Seconds
  • Question 64 - What EEG finding has consistently been associated with the use of clozapine? ...

    Incorrect

    • What EEG finding has consistently been associated with the use of clozapine?

      Your Answer: Increased alpha, decreased theta, and decreased delta

      Correct Answer: Decreased alpha, increased theta, increased delta

      Explanation:

      Electroencephalography

      Electroencephalography (EEG) is a clinical test that records the brain’s spontaneous electrical activity over a short period of time using multiple electrodes placed on the scalp. It is mainly used to rule out organic conditions and can help differentiate dementia from other disorders such as metabolic encephalopathies, CJD, herpes encephalitis, and non-convulsive status epilepticus. EEG can also distinguish possible psychotic episodes and acute confusional states from non-convulsive status epilepticus.

      Not all abnormal EEGs represent an underlying condition, and psychotropic medications can affect EEG findings. EEG abnormalities can also be triggered purposely by activation procedures such as hyperventilation, photic stimulation, certain drugs, and sleep deprivation.

      Specific waveforms are seen in an EEG, including delta, theta, alpha, sigma, beta, and gamma waves. Delta waves are found frontally in adults and posteriorly in children during slow wave sleep, and excessive amounts when awake may indicate pathology. Theta waves are generally seen in young children, drowsy and sleeping adults, and during meditation. Alpha waves are seen posteriorly when relaxed and when the eyes are closed, and are also seen in meditation. Sigma waves are bursts of oscillatory activity that occur in stage 2 sleep. Beta waves are seen frontally when busy of concentrating, and gamma waves are seen in advanced/very experienced meditators.

      Certain conditions are associated with specific EEG changes, such as nonspecific slowing in early CJD, low voltage EEG in Huntington’s, diffuse slowing in encephalopathy, and reduced alpha and beta with increased delta and theta in Alzheimer’s.

      Common epileptiform patterns include spikes, spike/sharp waves, and spike-waves. Medications can have important effects on EEG findings, with clozapine decreasing alpha and increasing delta and theta, lithium increasing all waveforms, lamotrigine decreasing all waveforms, and valproate having inconclusive effects on delta and theta and increasing beta.

      Overall, EEG is a useful tool in clinical contexts for ruling out organic conditions and differentiating between various disorders.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      44.5
      Seconds
  • Question 65 - A physician declines to prescribe a medication to an elderly woman with a...

    Correct

    • A physician declines to prescribe a medication to an elderly woman with a history of adverse reactions to it. Which ethical principle is being upheld in this situation?

      Your Answer: Non-maleficence

      Explanation:

      Tom Beauchamp and James Childress, American philosophers, and Raanan Gillon, a British doctor and philosopher, were the pioneers of the following fundamental principles: autonomy, which involves respecting patients’ freedom of choice and wishes; beneficence, which entails acting in the best interests of patients; non-maleficence, which requires avoiding harm (primum non nocere); and justice, which involves treating problems equally and distributing resources fairly to those in need. These four principles serve as the primary guiding principles in current practice, and most other ethical discussions relevant to clinical practice can be categorized under these topics.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Ethics And Philosophy Of Psychiatry
      5.9
      Seconds
  • Question 66 - Which of the following binds to metabotropic receptors but not ionotropic receptors? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following binds to metabotropic receptors but not ionotropic receptors?

      Your Answer: Gamma-aminobutyric acid

      Correct Answer: Dopaminergic

      Explanation:

      Dopamine receptors are classified as metabotropic receptors rather than ionotropic receptors.

      Neurotransmitters are substances used by neurons to communicate with each other and with target tissues. They are synthesized and released from nerve endings into the synaptic cleft, where they bind to receptor proteins in the cellular membrane of the target tissue. Neurotransmitters can be classified into different types, including small molecules (such as acetylcholine, dopamine, norepinephrine, serotonin, and GABA) and large molecules (such as neuropeptides). They can also be classified as excitatory or inhibitory. Receptors can be ionotropic or metabotropic, and the effects of neurotransmitters can be fast of slow. Some important neurotransmitters include acetylcholine, dopamine, GABA, norepinephrine, and serotonin. Each neurotransmitter has a specific synthesis, breakdown, and receptor type. Understanding neurotransmitters is important for understanding the function of the nervous system and for developing treatments for neurological and psychiatric disorders.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      6.1
      Seconds
  • Question 67 - What is the purpose of using the Rey-Osterrieth Complex Figure test? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the purpose of using the Rey-Osterrieth Complex Figure test?

      Your Answer: Attitude

      Correct Answer: Memory

      Explanation:

      The field of psychiatry uses various cognitive tests to assess different areas of cognition, including premorbid intelligence, intelligence, memory, attention, language, and others. Some commonly used tests include the National Adult Reading Test (NART) for premorbid intelligence, the Wechsler Adult Intelligence scale (WAIS) and Raven’s Progressive Matrices for intelligence, the Rey-Osterrieth Complex Figure for memory, and the Stroop test, Wisconsin card sorting test, Tower of London, and Continuous Performance Tasks for attention. The Boston naming test and Animal fluency are used to assess language skills. The Halstead-Reitan battery is used specifically for assessing brain damage. These tests are often included in the MRCPsych exams.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
      5
      Seconds
  • Question 68 - One of the phases in the Separation-Individuation theory of child development is: ...

    Correct

    • One of the phases in the Separation-Individuation theory of child development is:

      Your Answer: Symbiotic phase

      Explanation:

      Mahler’s Separation-Individuation theory of child development proposes that personality development occurs in distinct stages. The first stage, the Autistic phase, occurs during the first few weeks of life, where the child is mostly sleeping and cut off from the world. The second stage, the Symbiotic phase, lasts until around six months of age, where the child sees themselves and their mother as a single unit. The third stage, Separation-Individuation, has four subphases. The first subphase, Differentiation, occurs between six to ten months, where the child begins to see themselves as an individual and experiences separation anxiety. The second subphase, Practicing, occurs between ten to sixteen months, where the child explores connections with the external world and people other than the mother. The third subphase, Rapprochement, occurs between sixteen to twenty-four months, where the child struggles to balance their desire for independence and proximity to the mother, often resulting in tantrums and the use of transitional objects. The fourth subphase, Object constancy, occurs between twenty-four to thirty-six months, where the child accepts the idea of object constancy and is more comfortable with the mother being separate for periods of time.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychological Development
      12.7
      Seconds
  • Question 69 - Which of the following is the best example of a leading question? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is the best example of a leading question?

      Your Answer: So, when you took the overdose you didn't want to die, did you?

      Explanation:

      Techniques for Conducting Effective Interviews: Avoiding Leading Questions

      One technique to avoid when conducting interviews is the use of leading questions. These are questions that suggest a particular answer of response, and can result in inaccurate of biased information. Instead, interviewers should strive to ask open-ended questions that allow the respondent to provide their own thoughts and opinions. By avoiding leading questions, interviewers can gather more reliable and unbiased information from their subjects. Additionally, interviewers should be mindful of their tone and body language, as these can also influence the responses they receive. Overall, effective interviewing requires careful preparation and a focus on creating a comfortable and open environment for the respondent.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
      12.4
      Seconds
  • Question 70 - Which cranial nerve reflex is most likely to be impacted by a vagus...

    Correct

    • Which cranial nerve reflex is most likely to be impacted by a vagus nerve lesion?

      Your Answer: Gag

      Explanation:

      Cranial Nerve Reflexes

      When it comes to questions on cranial nerve reflexes, it is important to match the reflex to the nerves involved. Here are some examples:

      – Pupillary light reflex: involves the optic nerve (sensory) and oculomotor nerve (motor).
      – Accommodation reflex: involves the optic nerve (sensory) and oculomotor nerve (motor).
      – Jaw jerk: involves the trigeminal nerve (sensory and motor).
      – Corneal reflex: involves the trigeminal nerve (sensory) and facial nerve (motor).
      – Vestibulo-ocular reflex: involves the vestibulocochlear nerve (sensory) and oculomotor, trochlear, and abducent nerves (motor).

      Another example of a cranial nerve reflex is the gag reflex, which involves the glossopharyngeal nerve (sensory) and the vagus nerve (motor). This reflex is important for protecting the airway from foreign objects of substances that may trigger a gag reflex. It is also used as a diagnostic tool to assess the function of these nerves.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      8.8
      Seconds
  • Question 71 - Which of the following statements is the most effective demonstration of strong interviewing...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements is the most effective demonstration of strong interviewing abilities? Can you provide an example of a skillful interview technique?

      Your Answer: Maintaining continuous eye contact

      Correct Answer: The use of non-verbal methods of communication

      Explanation:

      Effective interview techniques involve utilizing open-ended inquiries, actively listening to the interviewee, facilitating the conversation, being attentive to verbal, non-verbal, and vocal cues, seeking clarification when necessary, requesting specific examples, addressing emotional responses, reflecting on the information provided, using empathetic language, comprehending hypotheses, directly acknowledging emotions, verifying information, promoting accuracy, managing the pace of the interview, utilizing transitional statements, and summarizing key points.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Assessment
      15.8
      Seconds
  • Question 72 - Which pathway is believed to be responsible for the development of negative symptoms...

    Incorrect

    • Which pathway is believed to be responsible for the development of negative symptoms in schizophrenia due to the blockage of D-2 receptors?

      Your Answer: The mesostriatal pathway

      Correct Answer: The mesocortical pathway

      Explanation:

      Neurotransmitters are substances used by neurons to communicate with each other and with target tissues. They are synthesized and released from nerve endings into the synaptic cleft, where they bind to receptor proteins in the cellular membrane of the target tissue. Neurotransmitters can be classified into different types, including small molecules (such as acetylcholine, dopamine, norepinephrine, serotonin, and GABA) and large molecules (such as neuropeptides). They can also be classified as excitatory or inhibitory. Receptors can be ionotropic or metabotropic, and the effects of neurotransmitters can be fast of slow. Some important neurotransmitters include acetylcholine, dopamine, GABA, norepinephrine, and serotonin. Each neurotransmitter has a specific synthesis, breakdown, and receptor type. Understanding neurotransmitters is important for understanding the function of the nervous system and for developing treatments for neurological and psychiatric disorders.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      10.4
      Seconds
  • Question 73 - What is the term for a neutral stimulus that becomes associated with an...

    Incorrect

    • What is the term for a neutral stimulus that becomes associated with an unconditioned stimulus?

      Your Answer: A reinforcer

      Correct Answer: A conditioned stimulus

      Explanation:

      Classical Conditioning: A Learning Theory by Ivan Pavlov

      Classical conditioning is a learning theory developed by Ivan Pavlov. It suggests that events that occur together are associated and acquire a similar meaning. Unlike operant conditioning, which focuses on responses to behavior, classical conditioning looks at responses to stimuli. In classical conditioning, animals behave as if they have learned to associate a stimulus with a significant event. Pavlov demonstrated that innate responses, such as a dog salivating when it sees food, can be associated with a neutral stimulus, such as ringing a bell, so that ringing the bell can cause salivation even in the absence of food.

      Important terms used in classical conditioning include stimulus generalization and discrimination, higher order conditioning, spontaneous recovery, and aversive conditioning. Extinction is the laboratory analogue of exposure therapy for anxiety disorders, while Counterconditioning involves pairing a feared conditioned stimulus with a positive outcome. Incubation occurs in fear responses, and reciprocal inhibition is a technique that aims to replace an undesired response with a desired one by counterconditioning. Some stimuli are more prone to conditioning than others, which is referred to as stimulus/biological preparedness.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      14.7
      Seconds
  • Question 74 - A woman in her 50s experiences chronic back pain. Her doctor prescribes a...

    Incorrect

    • A woman in her 50s experiences chronic back pain. Her doctor prescribes a medication that provides relief. She keeps the medication on hand and takes it as soon as the pain starts. What does this behavior demonstrate?

      Your Answer: Stimulus preparedness

      Correct Answer: Escape conditioning

      Explanation:

      Escape conditioning involves ending an unpleasant stimulus by performing a certain behavior, while avoidance conditioning involves avoiding the presentation of an unpleasant stimulus by performing a certain behavior.

      Operant Conditioning: Reinforcement, Punishment, and More

      Operant conditioning, also known as instrumental learning, is a theory of learning developed by B.F. Skinner. It suggests that people learn by interacting with their environment. Reinforcement and punishment are key concepts in operant conditioning. A reinforcer is a stimulus of event that increases the likelihood of a behavior being repeated. Reinforcement can be positive of negative. Positive reinforcement occurs when a behavior is strengthened by adding a rewarding stimulus, while negative reinforcement occurs when a behavior is strengthened by removing an unpleasant stimulus. A punisher is a stimulus that decreases the likelihood of a behavior being repeated. Positive punishment occurs when a behavior is reduced in frequency by adding an unpleasant stimulus, while negative punishment occurs when a behavior is reduced in frequency by removing a pleasant stimulus.

      Primary reinforcers are instinctual desires such as food, water, social approval, and sex. Secondary reinforcers, also known as conditioned reinforcers, are not innately appreciated and people have to learn to like them through classical conditioning of other methods. Secondary reinforcers include things such as money. Different patterns of reinforcement have different influences on the response. There are five main reinforcement schedules: fixed interval, variable interval, fixed ratio, variable ratio, and random. Variable ratio schedules are most resistant to extinction.

      Shaping and chaining are techniques used when an exact behavior cannot be performed and so cannot be rewarded. Shaping involves rewarding successive, increasingly accurate approximations to the behavior, while chaining involves breaking a complex task into smaller, more manageable sections. Escape conditioning refers to a situation whereby an aversive situation is removed after a response. It is a form of negative reinforcement. Habituation refers to the phenomenon whereby there is a decrease in response to a stimulus over time. Covert sensitization is a technique used whereby someone learns to use mental imagery to associate a behavior with a negative consequence.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      19
      Seconds
  • Question 75 - Which combination of organs is primarily responsible for the first pass effect? ...

    Correct

    • Which combination of organs is primarily responsible for the first pass effect?

      Your Answer: Liver and bowel

      Explanation:

      The First Pass Effect in Psychiatric Drugs

      The first-pass effect is a process in drug metabolism that significantly reduces the concentration of a drug before it reaches the systemic circulation. This phenomenon is related to the liver and gut wall, which absorb and metabolize the drug before it can enter the bloodstream. Psychiatric drugs are not exempt from this effect, and some undergo a significant reduction in concentration before reaching their target site. Examples of psychiatric drugs that undergo a significant first-pass effect include imipramine, fluphenazine, morphine, diazepam, and buprenorphine. On the other hand, some drugs undergo little to no first-pass effect, such as lithium and pregabalin.

      Orally administered drugs are the most affected by the first-pass effect. However, there are other routes of administration that can avoid of partly avoid this effect. These include sublingual, rectal (partly avoids first pass), intravenous, intramuscular, transdermal, and inhalation. Understanding the first-pass effect is crucial in drug development and administration, especially in psychiatric drugs, where the concentration of the drug can significantly affect its efficacy and safety.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      5.9
      Seconds
  • Question 76 - What is the most indicative sign of hypomania in the mental state examination?...

    Incorrect

    • What is the most indicative sign of hypomania in the mental state examination?

      Your Answer: Avoidant eye contact

      Correct Answer: Garish makeup

      Explanation:

      The YMRS includes a rating for appearance, which can provide insight into a person’s mental state. The scale ranges from 0 (appropriate dress and grooming) to 4 (completely unkempt, decorated, of wearing bizarre garb). This item can help clinicians assess the severity of a person’s manic symptoms and tailor treatment accordingly.

      Mental State Exam: Appearance

      The appearance of a patient can provide valuable clues to an underlying disorder. It is important to note that the following examples are not always present, but they can be helpful for educational purposes.

      Individuals experiencing hypomania or mania may tend to wear bright and colorful clothing and may apply unusual of garish makeup. On the other hand, unfashionable and mismatched clothing may indicate schizoid personality traits of autistic spectrum disorders.

      An excessively tidy appearance may suggest an obsessional personality. It is important to consider these cues in conjunction with other aspects of the mental state exam to arrive at an accurate diagnosis. Proper observation and interpretation of a patient’s appearance can aid in the development of an effective treatment plan.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
      11.4
      Seconds
  • Question 77 - What is the condition that occurs when there is a deletion of the...

    Incorrect

    • What is the condition that occurs when there is a deletion of the paternal chromosome 15q?

      Your Answer: Rett syndrome

      Correct Answer: Prader-Willi syndrome

      Explanation:

      Genetic Conditions and Their Features

      Genetic conditions are disorders caused by abnormalities in an individual’s DNA. These conditions can affect various aspects of a person’s health, including physical and intellectual development. Some of the most common genetic conditions and their features are:

      – Downs (trisomy 21): Short stature, almond-shaped eyes, low muscle tone, and intellectual disability.
      – Angelman syndrome (Happy puppet syndrome): Flapping hand movements, ataxia, severe learning disability, seizures, and sleep problems.
      – Prader-Willi: Hyperphagia, excessive weight gain, short stature, and mild learning disability.
      – Cri du chat: Characteristic cry, hypotonia, down-turned mouth, and microcephaly.
      – Velocardiofacial syndrome (DiGeorge syndrome): Cleft palate, cardiac problems, and learning disabilities.
      – Edwards syndrome (trisomy 18): Severe intellectual disability, kidney malformations, and physical abnormalities.
      – Lesch-Nyhan syndrome: Self-mutilation, dystonia, and writhing movements.
      – Smith-Magenis syndrome: Pronounced self-injurious behavior, self-hugging, and a hoarse voice.
      – Fragile X: Elongated face, large ears, hand flapping, and shyness.
      – Wolf Hirschhorn syndrome: Mild to severe intellectual disability, seizures, and physical abnormalities.
      – Patau syndrome (trisomy 13): Severe intellectual disability, congenital heart malformations, and physical abnormalities.
      – Rett syndrome: Regression and loss of skills, hand-wringing movements, and profound learning disability.
      – Tuberous sclerosis: Hamartomatous tumors, epilepsy, and behavioral issues.
      – Williams syndrome: Elfin-like features, social disinhibition, and advanced verbal skills.
      – Rubinstein-Taybi syndrome: Short stature, friendly disposition, and moderate learning disability.
      – Klinefelter syndrome: Extra X chromosome, low testosterone, and speech and language issues.
      – Jakob’s syndrome: Extra Y chromosome, tall stature, and lower mean intelligence.
      – Coffin-Lowry syndrome: Short stature, slanting eyes, and severe learning difficulty.
      – Turner syndrome: Short stature, webbed neck, and absent periods.
      – Niemann Pick disease (types A and B): Abdominal swelling, cherry red spot, and feeding difficulties.

      It is important to note that these features may vary widely among individuals with the same genetic condition. Early diagnosis and intervention can help individuals with genetic conditions reach their full potential and improve their quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      7.2
      Seconds
  • Question 78 - This stage of reasoning illustrates the conventional stage of moral development, where individuals...

    Incorrect

    • This stage of reasoning illustrates the conventional stage of moral development, where individuals make decisions based on social norms and expectations:

      Your Answer: Law and order orientation

      Correct Answer: Good Boy/Nice Girl orientation

      Explanation:

      The child’s reasoning demonstrates an understanding that actions are evaluated as either positive of negative by others, and that the appropriate course of action is one that is deemed positive (of not negative) by the society.

      Kohlberg’s Six Stages of Moral Development

      Kohlberg’s theory of moral development consists of six stages that can be categorized into three levels. The first level is the preconventional stage, which is characterized by obedience and punishment orientation, where the focus is on the direct consequences of actions and unquestioning deference to power. The second stage is the self-interest orientation, where right behavior is defined purely by what is in the individual’s own interest.

      The second level is the conventional stage, which is characterized by interpersonal accord and conformity, where the focus is on how the individual will appear to others. The behavior should accord with a consensus view on what is good. The second stage is the authority and social order obedience driven, where what is lawful is judged to be morally right. Right behavior is dictated by societal rules, and there is a greater respect for social order and the need for laws.

      The third level is the postconventional stage, which is characterized by the social contract orientation, where individual rights determine behavior. The individual views laws and rules as flexible tools for improving human purposes. The fourth stage is the universal ethical principles orientation, where the right action is the one that is consistent with abstract reasoning using universal ethical principles.

      It is important to note that the age ranges for Kohlberg’s developmental stages are rough guides, and sources vary widely. Kohlberg developed his stage theory following an experiment he conducted on 72 boys aged 10-16. However, the theory is criticized as sexist as it only included boys.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychological Development
      36.2
      Seconds
  • Question 79 - Which of the following is indicative of a hypomanic episode in an individual...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is indicative of a hypomanic episode in an individual diagnosed with bipolar disorder?

      Your Answer: Disturbance of psychosocial function

      Explanation:

      Hypomania is a milder form of mania (F30.1) that lacks hallucinations of delusions but still presents persistent and noticeable changes in mood and behavior that exceed those seen in cyclothymia (F34.0). To diagnose hypomania, these features must be present for several consecutive days and cause significant interference with work of social activity. However, if the disruption is severe of complete, mania (F30.1 of F30.2) should be considered instead.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Diagnosis
      15
      Seconds
  • Question 80 - What diagnostic tool is utilized to determine the underlying reason for ataxia? ...

    Correct

    • What diagnostic tool is utilized to determine the underlying reason for ataxia?

      Your Answer: Romberg's test

      Explanation:

      A positive Romberg test suggests the presence of sensory ataxia.

      Romberg’s Test for Investigating Ataxia

      Romberg’s test is a diagnostic tool used to determine the cause of ataxia. A positive result indicates that the cause is sensory in nature. The test involves asking the patient to stand upright with their feet together and eyes closed. If the patient begins to sway of fall over, the test is considered positive. In cases where there is a cerebellar problem, the patient will exhibit ataxia even when their eyes are open. Romberg’s test is an important tool in diagnosing ataxia and determining the underlying cause of the condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
      6.1
      Seconds
  • Question 81 - What is the term used to describe the inclination to attribute an individual's...

    Correct

    • What is the term used to describe the inclination to attribute an individual's actions to their personality traits rather than external circumstances?

      Your Answer: Fundamental attribution error

      Explanation:

      Attribution Theory: Understanding How We Explain Events

      Attribution theory provides a framework for understanding how individuals explain events in their environment. It examines how people use information to arrive at causal explanations for events and what factors influence their judgments. Fritz Heider first proposed a theory of attribution in 1958.

      However, attribution is prone to biases such as the Fundamental Attribution Error (FAE), which overemphasizes dispositional factors over situational causes when making attributions about others’ behavior. The Actor-Observer Bias, on the other hand, undervalues dispositional explanations and overvalued situational explanations of our own behavior. Correspondence bias is the tendency to draw inferences about a person’s unique and enduring dispositions from behaviors that can be entirely explained by the situations in which they occur. Self-serving bias refers to people’s tendency to attribute their successes to internal factors but attribute their failures to external factors. Hostile Attribution Bias (HAB) is an interpretive bias where individuals interpret ambiguous behavior as hostile, leading to aggression. Finally, the False Consensus Effect is the tendency for people to project their way of thinking onto others, assuming that everyone else thinks the same way they do.

      Overall, attribution theory helps us understand how people make sense of events in their environment, but it is important to be aware of the biases that can influence our judgments.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      21.3
      Seconds
  • Question 82 - Which of the following is an example of an extracampine hallucination? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is an example of an extracampine hallucination?

      Your Answer: As a patient falls asleep they can see the devil walking towards them

      Correct Answer: A patient hears their brother shouting at them from another country

      Explanation:

      Altered Perceptual Experiences

      Disorders of perception can be categorized into sensory distortions and sensory deceptions. Sensory distortions involve changes in the intensity, spatial form, of quality of a perception. Examples include hyperaesthesia, hyperacusis, and micropsia. Sensory deceptions, on the other hand, involve new perceptions that are not based on any external stimulus. These include illusions and hallucinations.

      Illusions are altered perceptions of a stimulus, while hallucinations are perceptions in the absence of a stimulus. Completion illusions, affect illusions, and pareidolic illusions are examples of illusions. Auditory, visual, gustatory, olfactory, and tactile hallucinations are different types of hallucinations. Pseudohallucinations are involuntary and vivid sensory experiences that are interpreted in a non-morbid way. They are different from true hallucinations in that the individual is able to recognize that the experience is an internally generated event.

      Understanding the different types of altered perceptual experiences is important in the diagnosis and treatment of various mental health conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
      11.5
      Seconds
  • Question 83 - What is the most probable cause of medial temporal lobe atrophy on structural...

    Incorrect

    • What is the most probable cause of medial temporal lobe atrophy on structural neuroimaging in an elderly individual with cognitive decline?

      Your Answer: Frontotemporal dementia

      Correct Answer: Alzheimer's dementia

      Explanation:

      Medial temporal lobe atrophy (MTA) is prevalent in 80% to 90% of individuals diagnosed with Alzheimer’s dementia, and can also be present in other forms of dementia, albeit less frequently and severely. MTA is an early and relatively reliable indicator of Alzheimer’s disease, although it is not exclusive to this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      18.7
      Seconds
  • Question 84 - Little Sarah is slow in her language development. She loves playing with dolls....

    Incorrect

    • Little Sarah is slow in her language development. She loves playing with dolls. Her father started by rewarding her with a doll when she made a da sound. Once she could say da on her own, her father moved on to doll, then doll please and eventually to the complete sentence Can I play with my doll please?
      This type of reinforcement is called:

      Your Answer: Cueing

      Correct Answer: Chaining

      Explanation:

      Chaining involves teaching and connecting the components of a complex task in order to teach the task as a whole. Cueing helps the learner focus on important stimuli. Extinction occurs when a conditioned response gradually disappears due to repeated presentation of the conditioned stimulus without the unconditioned stimulus. Habituation is a decrease in response to a stimulus after repeated presentation and is important in treating OCD. Shaping involves reinforcing successively closer approximations to the desired behavior to build up complex behavior, and has clinical applications in managing behavioral disturbances, learning disabilities, and substance misuse.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychological Development
      15
      Seconds
  • Question 85 - What is an example of a drug that acts as an antagonist for...

    Correct

    • What is an example of a drug that acts as an antagonist for NMDA receptors?

      Your Answer: Memantine

      Explanation:

      Pharmacological management of dementia involves the use of acetylcholinesterase inhibitors (AChE inhibitors) and memantine. AChE inhibitors prevent the breakdown of acetylcholine, which is deficient in Alzheimer’s due to the loss of cholinergic neurons. Donepezil, galantamine, and rivastigmine are commonly used AChE inhibitors in the management of Alzheimer’s. However, gastrointestinal side effects such as nausea and vomiting are common with these drugs.

      Memantine, on the other hand, is an NMDA receptor antagonist that blocks the effects of pathologically elevated levels of glutamate that may lead to neuronal dysfunction. It has a half-life of 60-100 hours and is primarily renally eliminated. Common adverse effects of memantine include somnolence, dizziness, hypertension, dyspnea, constipation, headache, and elevated liver function tests.

      Overall, pharmacological management of dementia aims to improve cognitive function and slow down the progression of the disease. However, it is important to note that these drugs do not cure dementia and may only provide temporary relief of symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      6.1
      Seconds
  • Question 86 - In what field did Thomas and Chess have the greatest impact? ...

    Incorrect

    • In what field did Thomas and Chess have the greatest impact?

      Your Answer: Cognitive development

      Correct Answer: Temperament

      Explanation:

      Temperament is the innate aspect of an individual’s personality that is believed to be influenced by genetics, while character is shaped by learned experiences. Thomas and Chess developed a classification system that assesses children’s behavior based on nine traits, including activity level, adaptability, and emotional response. They found that 65% of children fall into one of three temperament types: easy, difficult, of slow to warm up. Thomas and Chess also introduced the concept of goodness of fit, which refers to the compatibility between a child’s temperament and their environment. When there is a good fit, children are more likely to reach their potential. For example, teachers can provide active learning experiences for children with high activity levels instead of seat work.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      5.3
      Seconds
  • Question 87 - What is the heuristic that best explains a junior psychiatrist's misdiagnosis of a...

    Incorrect

    • What is the heuristic that best explains a junior psychiatrist's misdiagnosis of a simple case of depression as a rare mental health condition they recently read about?

      Your Answer: The framing effect

      Correct Answer: Availability

      Explanation:

      Heuristics: Cognitive Shortcuts that can Lead to Diagnostic Errors

      In the 1970s, Tversky and Kahneman proposed that humans use cognitive heuristics, of mental shortcuts, to simplify complex decision-making processes. However, these heuristics can also lead to systematic errors. One such heuristic is the representativeness bias, where individuals judge the likelihood of an event based on how closely it resembles a stereotype. For example, a person described as shy and detail-oriented may be more likely to be perceived as a librarian than a farmer.

      Another heuristic is the availability bias, where individuals favor recent and readily available information over more accurate but less accessible information. This can lead to overestimating the frequency of certain events, such as violent crime. The anchoring-and-adjustment bias occurs when individuals lock onto salient features in a patient’s initial presentation and fail to adjust their impression in light of new information.

      The framing effect is another bias where individuals react differently to a choice depending on how the information is presented. For example, a pharmaceutical company may present a drug as having a 95% cure rate, making it seem superior to a drug with a 2.5% failure rate. Base rate neglect occurs when individuals ignore underlying incident rates of population-based knowledge, leading to unnecessary testing of treatment.

      Confirmation bias is a tendency to interpret information to fit preconceived diagnoses, rather than considering alternative explanations. The conjunction rule is the incorrect belief that the probability of multiple events being true is greater than a single event. Finally, diagnostic momentum occurs when clinicians continue a course of action initiated by previous clinicians without considering new information.

      Overall, while heuristics can be useful in simplifying complex decision-making processes, they can also lead to diagnostic errors if not used appropriately. It is important for clinicians to be aware of these biases and actively work to avoid them in their practice.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      17.8
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  • Question 88 - A 65-year-old patient with a history of treatment-resistant schizophrenia has been stabilized on...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old patient with a history of treatment-resistant schizophrenia has been stabilized on clozapine, but is experiencing clinical deterioration with a serum clozapine level below 1000 µg/L. What medication should be added if the patient's clozapine serum levels remain above this value?

      Your Answer: Sodium valproate

      Explanation:

      If serum clozapine levels remain elevated, it is recommended to add anticonvulsant cover due to the increased risk of seizures and EEG changes. While some clinicians may advocate for higher clozapine levels, there is limited evidence to support this practice. Amisulpride can be used to augment clozapine, but it is not necessary in this situation. Beta-blockers are used to treat persistent tachycardia caused by clozapine, while hyoscine hydrobromide is used to manage clozapine-associated hypersalivation. Loperamide is unlikely to be needed as clozapine is known to cause constipation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      10
      Seconds
  • Question 89 - What is true about hyponatremia caused by antidepressants? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is true about hyponatremia caused by antidepressants?

      Your Answer: TCAs are associated with a greater risk of hyponatremia than SSRIs

      Correct Answer: Onset is usually within 30 days of starting treatment

      Explanation:

      Hyponatremia is commonly linked to the use of SSRIs (antidepressants) and typical antipsychotics.

      Hyponatremia in Psychiatric Patients

      Hyponatremia, of low serum sodium, can occur in psychiatric patients due to the disorder itself, its treatment, of other medical conditions. Symptoms include nausea, confusion, seizures, and muscular cramps. Drug-induced hyponatremia is known as the syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone hypersecretion (SIADH), which results from excessive secretion of ADH and fluid overload. Diagnosis is based on clinically euvolemic state with low serum sodium and osmolality, raised urine sodium and osmolality. SSRIs, SNRIs, and tricyclics are the most common drugs that can cause SIADH. Risk factors for SIADH include starting a new drug, and treatment usually involves fluid restriction and sometimes demeclocycline.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      10.6
      Seconds
  • Question 90 - Who is responsible for creating the term 'antidepressant'? ...

    Incorrect

    • Who is responsible for creating the term 'antidepressant'?

      Your Answer: Cerletti

      Correct Answer: Lurie

      Explanation:

      A Historical Note on the Development of Zimelidine, the First Selective Serotonin Reuptake Inhibitor

      In 1960s, evidence began to emerge suggesting a significant role of serotonin in depression. This led to the development of zimelidine, the first selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI). Zimelidine was derived from pheniramine and was marketed in Europe in 1982. However, it was removed from the market in 1983 due to severe side effects such as hypersensitivity reactions and Guillain-Barre syndrome.

      Despite its short-lived availability, zimelidine paved the way for the development of other SSRIs such as fluoxetine, which was approved by the FDA in 1987 and launched in the US market in 1988 under the trade name Prozac. The development of SSRIs revolutionized the treatment of depression and other mood disorders, providing a safer and more effective alternative to earlier antidepressants such as the tricyclics and MAO inhibitors.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      5.2
      Seconds
  • Question 91 - What is the definition of Othello syndrome? ...

    Correct

    • What is the definition of Othello syndrome?

      Your Answer: Delusional belief that the one's partner is unfaithful

      Explanation:

      Morbid jealousy of delusions of jealousy are also known as Othello syndrome, named after the Shakespearean character who murdered his wife due to false beliefs of her infidelity. This condition poses a significant risk to the partner, similar to the original story. It can affect individuals of any gender and occur in relationships of any status of gender combination.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Assessment
      10.6
      Seconds
  • Question 92 - A teenage girl is brought to the emergency room with deep cuts on...

    Incorrect

    • A teenage girl is brought to the emergency room with deep cuts on her arm. She tells the doctor that she has been trying to extract the worms that are reproducing under her skin. However, the doctor finds no signs of infestation. What type of delusional disorder is she experiencing?

      Your Answer: Capgras

      Correct Answer: Ekbom's

      Explanation:

      Types of Delusions

      Delusions come in many different forms. It is important to familiarize oneself with these types as they may be tested in an exam. Some of the most common types of delusions include:

      – Folie a deux: a shared delusion between two or more people
      – Grandiose: belief that one has special powers, beliefs, of purpose
      – Hypochondriacal: belief that something is physically wrong with the patient
      – Ekbom’s syndrome: belief that one has been infested with insects
      – Othello syndrome: belief that a sexual partner is cheating on them
      – Capgras delusion: belief that a person close to them has been replaced by a double
      – Fregoli delusion: patient identifies a familiar person (usually suspected to be a persecutor) in other people they meet
      – Syndrome of subjective doubles: belief that doubles of him/her exist
      – Lycanthropy: belief that one has been transformed into an animal
      – De Clérambault’s syndrome: false belief that a person is in love with them
      – Cotard’s syndrome/nihilistic delusions: belief that they are dead of do not exist
      – Referential: belief that others/TV/radio are speaking directly to of about the patient
      – Delusional perception: belief that a normal percept (product of perception) has a special meaning
      – Pseudocyesis: a condition whereby a woman believes herself to be pregnant when she is not. Objective signs accompany the belief such as abdominal enlargement, menstrual disturbance, apparent foetal movements, nausea, breast changes, and labour pains.

      Remembering these types of delusions can be helpful in understanding and diagnosing patients with delusional disorders.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
      9.8
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  • Question 93 - What is considered the fundamental document of ethics in research involving human subjects?...

    Incorrect

    • What is considered the fundamental document of ethics in research involving human subjects?

      Your Answer: Nuremburg Code

      Correct Answer: Declaration of Helsinki

      Explanation:

      Ethical Principles for Human Experimentation and Research

      The Declaration of Helsinki is a set of ethical principles that govern human experimentation and research. It was created by the World Medical Association and first adopted in 1964. The Declaration builds on the Nuremberg Code, which is a set of ethical principles for human experimentation that was developed after World War II. Additionally, the European Convention on Human Rights applies to human rights and freedoms in Europe.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Ethics And Philosophy Of Psychiatry
      11.2
      Seconds
  • Question 94 - What mechanism is believed to be responsible for the weight gain induced by...

    Incorrect

    • What mechanism is believed to be responsible for the weight gain induced by antipsychotic medications?

      Your Answer: 5HT2a receptor agonism

      Correct Answer: Histamine receptor antagonist

      Explanation:

      Side Effects of Psychotropic Drugs (Receptor Based)

      The use of psychotropic drugs can lead to various side effects, which are often receptor-based. Some of the most common side effects are listed below:

      Antidopaminergic Effects: These effects include galactorrhoea, gynecomastia, menstrual disturbance, lowered sperm count, reduced libido, Parkinsonism, dystonia, akathisia, and tardive dyskinesia.

      Anticholinergic Central M1: This can cause memory impairment and confusion.

      Anticholinergic Peripheral M1: This can lead to dry mouth, blurred vision, glaucoma, sinus tachycardia, urinary retention, and constipation.

      Histaminergic H1: This can result in weight gain and sedation.

      Adrenergic Alpha 1 Antagonist: This can cause orthostatic hypotension, sexual dysfunction, and sedation.

      5HT2a and 5-HT2c Antagonism: This can lead to weight gain.

      It is important to note that these are just some of the more common side effects and that individuals may experience different side effects depending on their unique physiology and the specific drug they are taking. It is always important to discuss any concerns of side effects with a healthcare provider.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      9.5
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  • Question 95 - A teacher is concerned that one of their students is delirious. Which of...

    Correct

    • A teacher is concerned that one of their students is delirious. Which of the following would indicate that the student is oriented?

      Your Answer: Patient correctly states the date and time

      Explanation:

      Mini Mental State Exam (MMSE)

      The Mini Mental State Exam (MMSE) was developed in 1975 by Folstein et al. Its original purpose was to differentiate between organic and functional disorders, but it is now mainly used to detect and track the progression of cognitive impairment. The exam is scored out of 30 and is divided into seven categories: orientation to place and time, registration, attention and concentration, recall, language, visual construction, and attention to written command. Each category has a possible score, and the total score can indicate the severity of cognitive impairment. A score equal to or greater than 27 indicates normal cognition, while scores below this can indicate severe, moderate, of mild cognitive impairment. The MMSE is a useful tool for detecting and tracking cognitive impairment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
      24
      Seconds
  • Question 96 - Which statement accurately describes ribonucleic acid (RNA)? ...

    Correct

    • Which statement accurately describes ribonucleic acid (RNA)?

      Your Answer: RNA is typically shorter than DNA

      Explanation:

      Enzymes called RNA polymerases, not transferases, transcribe RNA from DNA.

      Genomics: Understanding DNA, RNA, Transcription, and Translation

      Deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) is a molecule composed of two chains that coil around each other to form a double helix. DNA is organised into chromosomes, and each chromosome is made up of DNA coiled around proteins called histones. RNA, on the other hand, is made from a long chain of nucleotide units and is usually single-stranded. RNA is transcribed from DNA by enzymes called RNA polymerases and is central to protein synthesis.

      Transcription is the synthesis of RNA from a DNA template, and it consists of three main steps: initiation, elongation, and termination. RNA polymerase binds at a sequence of DNA called the promoter, and the transcriptome is the collection of RNA molecules that results from transcription. Translation, on the other hand, refers to the synthesis of polypeptides (proteins) from mRNA. Translation takes place on ribosomes in the cell cytoplasm, where mRNA is read and translated into the string of amino acid chains that make up the synthesized protein.

      The process of translation involves messenger RNA (mRNA), transfer RNA (tRNA), and ribosomal RNA (rRNA). Transfer RNAs, of tRNAs, connect mRNA codons to the amino acids they encode, while ribosomes are the structures where polypeptides (proteins) are built. Like transcription, translation also consists of three stages: initiation, elongation, and termination. In initiation, the ribosome assembles around the mRNA to be read and the first tRNA carrying the amino acid methionine. In elongation, the amino acid chain gets longer, and in termination, the finished polypeptide chain is released.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      20.6
      Seconds
  • Question 97 - Based on the ECA study, what factors are associated with an increased probability...

    Incorrect

    • Based on the ECA study, what factors are associated with an increased probability of receiving psychiatric treatment?

      Your Answer: Lower social class

      Correct Answer: City residence

      Explanation:

      Factors Predicting Likelihood of Receiving Psychiatric Treatment

      Several factors have been identified as predictors of a higher likelihood of receiving psychiatric treatment. These include living in a city, being divorced or separated, having access to geographically accessible services, belonging to a higher social class, being male, and being a young adult. Interestingly, despite the fact that many psychiatric disorders are more prevalent in lower social classes, individuals from higher social classes are more likely to receive psychiatric treatment. On the other hand, factors such as living in rural areas, being married, lacking access to services, belonging to a lower social class, being female, and being an older adult are associated with a lower likelihood of receiving psychiatric treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Epidemiology
      11.3
      Seconds
  • Question 98 - A 30-year-old woman is evaluating her character traits. She is responding to a...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old woman is evaluating her character traits. She is responding to a series of statements using a scale ranging from 'strongly disagree' to 'strongly agree'.

      Which personality assessment tool is she utilizing?

      Your Answer: The Beck depression inventory (BDI)

      Correct Answer: Personality assessment inventory (PAI)

      Explanation:

      There are several different types of personality assessments available. The personality assessment inventory (PAI) is a self-report test with 344 items and 22 scales, using a Likert-type format. Likert items ask respondents to rate their level of agreement of disagreement with a statement. The 16 personality factor questionnaire (16 PF) is a self-report questionnaire with true/false format, measuring 16 different personality dimensions. The Minnesota multiphasic personality inventory (MMPI) is an objective measure of personality in adults, with 566 true/false items. The Beck depression inventory is a self-report inventory with 21 multiple choice questions, used to measure the severity of depression. Finally, the thematic apperception test (TAT) is a projective measure of personality, using 20 stimulus cards depicting scenes of varying ambiguity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Description And Measurement
      19.6
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  • Question 99 - In Mahler's Separation-Individuation theory, during which developmental stage is object constancy typically attained?...

    Incorrect

    • In Mahler's Separation-Individuation theory, during which developmental stage is object constancy typically attained?

      Your Answer: 16-24 months

      Correct Answer: 24-36 months

      Explanation:

      Mahler’s Separation-Individuation theory of child development proposes that personality development occurs in distinct stages. The first stage, the Autistic phase, occurs during the first few weeks of life, where the child is mostly sleeping and cut off from the world. The second stage, the Symbiotic phase, lasts until around six months of age, where the child sees themselves and their mother as a single unit. The third stage, Separation-Individuation, has four subphases. The first subphase, Differentiation, occurs between six to ten months, where the child begins to see themselves as an individual and experiences separation anxiety. The second subphase, Practicing, occurs between ten to sixteen months, where the child explores connections with the external world and people other than the mother. The third subphase, Rapprochement, occurs between sixteen to twenty-four months, where the child struggles to balance their desire for independence and proximity to the mother, often resulting in tantrums and the use of transitional objects. The fourth subphase, Object constancy, occurs between twenty-four to thirty-six months, where the child accepts the idea of object constancy and is more comfortable with the mother being separate for periods of time.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychological Development
      7
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  • Question 100 - You diagnose a mild depressive episode in a male patient undergoing lithium treatment...

    Incorrect

    • You diagnose a mild depressive episode in a male patient undergoing lithium treatment for bipolar disorder.
      Which of the following mood stabilizers should be avoided?

      Your Answer: Mirtazapine

      Correct Answer: Fluoxetine

      Explanation:

      Tamoxifen metabolism to its active metabolite may be inhibited by the use of fluoxetine and paroxetine, therefore, these medications should be avoided in patients receiving tamoxifen. Venlafaxine is considered the safest choice of antidepressant as it has little to no effect on tamoxifen metabolism. Mirtazapine has been found to have minimal effect on CYP2D6, while the other commonly prescribed antidepressants have mild to moderate degrees of CYP2D6 inhibition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      6.5
      Seconds
  • Question 101 - Which structure secretes adrenocorticotropic hormone in the HPA axis? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which structure secretes adrenocorticotropic hormone in the HPA axis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pituitary

      Explanation:

      The anterior lobe of the pituitary gland secretes adrenocorticotropic hormone.

      HPA Axis Dysfunction in Mood Disorders

      The HPA axis, which includes regulatory neural inputs and a feedback loop involving the hypothalamus, pituitary, and adrenal glands, plays a central role in the stress response. Excessive secretion of cortisol, a glucocorticoid hormone, can lead to disruptions in cellular functioning and widespread physiologic dysfunction. Dysregulation of the HPA axis is implicated in mood disorders such as depression and bipolar affective disorder.

      In depressed patients, cortisol levels often do not decrease as expected in response to the administration of dexamethasone, a synthetic corticosteroid. This abnormality in the dexamethasone suppression test is thought to be linked to genetic of acquired defects of glucocorticoid receptors. Tricyclic antidepressants have been shown to increase expression of glucocorticoid receptors, whereas this is not the case for SSRIs.

      Early adverse experiences can produce long standing changes in HPA axis regulation, indicating a possible neurobiological mechanism whereby childhood trauma could be translated into increased vulnerability to mood disorder. In major depression, there is hypersecretion of cortisol, corticotropin-releasing factor (CRF), and ACTH, and associated adrenocortical enlargement. HPA abnormalities have also been found in other psychiatric disorders including Alzheimer’s and PTSD.

      In bipolar disorder, dysregulation of ACTH and cortisol response after CRH stimulation have been reported. Abnormal DST results are found more often during depressive episodes in the course of bipolar disorder than in unipolar disorder. Reduced pituitary volume secondary to LHPA stimulation, resulting in pituitary hypoactivity, has been observed in bipolar patients.

      Overall, HPA axis dysfunction is implicated in mood disorders, and understanding the underlying mechanisms may lead to new opportunities for treatments.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      0
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  • Question 102 - A 32-year-old man with a history of partial seizures is prescribed a second...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old man with a history of partial seizures is prescribed a second anticonvulsant due to inadequate control with his current medication. However, he experiences concentric visual field loss as a side effect. Which anticonvulsant is most likely responsible for this adverse reaction?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Vigabatrin

      Explanation:

      Vigabatrin is known to cause visual field constriction in approximately 30% of its users. Although the majority of cases are asymptomatic, as the drug primarily affects peripheral fields and not central visual acuity, the effects are typically irreversible of only partially reversible after discontinuation of the medication. Patients who are over the age of 10 and are prescribed vigabatrin should undergo baseline threshold visual field testing and follow-up every six months. It is important for patients to report any new vision problems, such as blurring, double vision, of signs of peripheral vision impairment. Vigabatrin is only recommended for specialist use and is indicated for epilepsy that is not adequately controlled by other medications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 103 - What is the purpose of the Sally-Anne test? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the purpose of the Sally-Anne test?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Theory of mind

      Explanation:

      The Sally-Anne Test and the Theory of Mind

      The Sally-Anne test, conducted by Simon Baron-Cohen, led to the development of the theory of mind idea. The experiment involved several groups of children, including those with autism. During the test, a skit was performed where Sally put a marble in a basket and left the room. Anne then removed the marble from the basket and placed it in a box. When Sally returned, the children were asked where she would look for her marble.

      The results showed that most non-autistic children correctly identified the basket, while most autistic children pointed to of named the box. This led the researchers to conclude that the autistic children who chose the box lacked the ability to understand that Sally did not know the marble was in the box. The Sally-Anne test thus became a crucial tool in understanding the theory of mind, which refers to the ability to attribute mental states to oneself and others.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
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      Seconds
  • Question 104 - Can you identify the neurotransmitter that is often studied and also referred to...

    Incorrect

    • Can you identify the neurotransmitter that is often studied and also referred to as prolactin-inhibiting factor (PIF)?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Dopamine

      Explanation:

      Prolactin secretion from the anterior pituitary gland is inhibited by dopamine, which is also referred to as prolactin-inhibiting factor (PIF) and prolactin-inhibiting hormone (PIH). The reason why antipsychotic medications are linked to hyperprolactinaemia is due to the antagonism of dopamine receptors. On the other hand, serotonin and melatonin seem to stimulate prolactin secretion. While animal studies have indicated that adrenaline and noradrenaline can decrease prolactin secretion, their effect is not as significant as that of dopamine.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 105 - Which test dose is correctly matched with the corresponding long-acting injectable antipsychotic? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which test dose is correctly matched with the corresponding long-acting injectable antipsychotic?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Flupentixol decanoate 20mg

      Explanation:

      , coma, respiratory depression (rare)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 106 - The concept that a teenager may have conflicting desires to excel academically and...

    Incorrect

    • The concept that a teenager may have conflicting desires to excel academically and to maintain a social life was first examined in which theory?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The sick role

      Explanation:

      The Sick Role and Illness Behavior

      Mechanic and Volkart (1961) introduced the term illness behavior to describe how individuals perceive, evaluate, and respond to symptoms of physical dysfunction. Meanwhile, Talcott Parsons (1951) introduced the concept of the sick role as a temporary form of deviant behavior that is medically sanctioned.

      According to Parsons, a sick person experiences conflicting desires to recover from the illness and to enjoy the secondary gains of attention and exemption from normal duties. The sick role is characterized by several rules, including the exemption of the sick person from their normal social roles, which is legitimized by society through the physician. The severity of the illness determines the strength of the exemption.

      Additionally, sick persons are not held responsible for their illnesses, as they are beyond personal control. However, they have a duty to try to get well, as sickness is considered undesirable by society. Seeking competent technical help and cooperating with caregivers are also expected of sick persons.

      In summary, the sick role and illness behavior are important concepts in understanding how individuals respond to physical dysfunction and how society legitimizes and responds to illness.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 107 - A boy who is secretly struggling with their sexuality puts on a show...

    Incorrect

    • A boy who is secretly struggling with their sexuality puts on a show of being interested in the opposite sex and constantly talks about their crushes on girls to their peers. What defense mechanism are they exhibiting?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Reaction formation

      Explanation:

      Intermediate Mechanism: Rationalisation

      Rationalisation is a defense mechanism commonly used by individuals to create false but credible justifications for their behavior of actions. It involves the use of logical reasoning to explain away of justify unacceptable behavior of feelings. The individual may not be aware that they are using this mechanism, and it can be difficult to identify in oneself.

      Rationalisation is considered an intermediate mechanism, as it is common in healthy individuals from ages three to ninety, as well as in neurotic disorders and in mastering acute adult stress. It can be dramatically changed by conventional psychotherapeutic interpretation.

      Examples of rationalisation include a student who fails an exam and blames the teacher for not teaching the material well enough, of a person who cheats on their partner and justifies it by saying their partner was neglectful of unaffectionate. It allows the individual to avoid taking responsibility for their actions and to maintain a positive self-image.

      Overall, rationalisation can be a useful defense mechanism in certain situations, but it can also be harmful if it leads to a lack of accountability and an inability to learn from mistakes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
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  • Question 108 - Which branch of psychology is governed by the principle of Pragnanz? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which branch of psychology is governed by the principle of Pragnanz?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Gestalt psychology

      Explanation:

      Gestalt Psychology and the Laws of Perceptual Organization

      Gestalt psychology emerged as a response to structuralism, which aimed to break down thoughts into their basic components. Instead, Gestalt psychologists recognized that individual items must be examined together, as they interact and add complexity to the overall picture. Max Wertheimer, Kurt Koffka, and Wolfgang Köhler are important names associated with Gestalt psychology. Wertheimer discovered the phi phenomenon, which explains how rapid sequences of perceptual events create the illusion of motion. The Gestalt laws of perceptual organization explain how we tend to organize parts into wholes. These laws include symmetry and order, similarity, proximity, continuity, closure, and common fate. These laws help us understand how the mind groups similar elements into collective entities of totalities, and how spatial or temporal grouping of elements may induce the mind to perceive a collective of totality. Additionally, the laws explain how points that are connected by straight of curving lines are seen in a way that follows the smoothest path, and how things are grouped together if they seem to complete a picture. Finally, elements with the same moving direction are perceived as a collective of unit.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 109 - When do most children acquire the capacity to identify and utilize gender labels...

    Incorrect

    • When do most children acquire the capacity to identify and utilize gender labels in their language?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 18-24 months

      Explanation:

      Gender Development

      Gender identity is the sense of oneself as male of female, which is different from a person’s assigned sex at birth. Gender dysphoria occurs when a person’s gender does not match their sex. Infants as young as 10 months old can form stereotypic associations between faces of women and men and gender-typed objects. By 18-24 months, most children can label gender groups and use gender labels in their speech. Children typically develop gender awareness of their own self around 18 months and declare a gender identity of male of female by age 5-6. It is normal for children to experiment with gender expression and roles. For the majority of pre-pubertal children, gender dysphoria does not persist into adolescence, with only a minority (15%) experiencing persistent gender dysphoria. (Levy, 1994; Martin, 2010; Steensma, 2011).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychological Development
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  • Question 110 - Which of the following symptoms is not classified as a first rank symptom?...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following symptoms is not classified as a first rank symptom?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Gustatory hallucinations

      Explanation:

      First Rank Symptoms: Their Significance in Identifying Schizophrenia

      First rank symptoms were introduced by Kurt Schneider in 1938 as a practical tool for non-psychiatrists to identify schizophrenia. While they are highly suggestive of schizophrenia, they are not pathognomonic and can also be seen in affective and personality disorders. Additionally, there is no evidence to support their prognostic significance.

      A systematic review in 2015 found that first rank symptoms differentiated schizophrenia from nonpsychotic mental health disorders with a sensitivity of 61.8% and a specificity of 94.1%. They also differentiated schizophrenia from other types of psychosis with a sensitivity of 58% and a specificity of 74.7%.

      The first rank symptoms include running commentary, thought echo, voices heard arguing, thought insertion, thought withdrawal, thought broadcast, delusional perception, somatic passivity, made affect, and made volition. While they can be helpful in identifying schizophrenia, they should not be relied upon as the sole diagnostic criteria.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
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      Seconds
  • Question 111 - What is a typical EEG finding in individuals with Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is a typical EEG finding in individuals with Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Slow background rhythm with paroxysmal sharp waves

      Explanation:

      Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease is characterized by a slow background rhythm accompanied by paroxysmal sharp waves on EEG, while the remaining options are typical EEG features of the aging process.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
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      Seconds
  • Question 112 - A client in their 50s taking risperidone reports an atypical feeling during ejaculation...

    Incorrect

    • A client in their 50s taking risperidone reports an atypical feeling during ejaculation and absence of semen. Which receptor is responsible for this side effect due to the medication's antagonism?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Adrenergic

      Explanation:

      Antipsychotic medications change the tension of the bladder of urethral sphincter, which can result in the backward flow of semen into the bladder during ejaculation. This effect is believed to be caused by blocking the 1-adrenergic receptor.

      Antipsychotics: Common Side Effects and Relative Adverse Effects

      Antipsychotics are medications used to treat various mental health conditions, including schizophrenia and bipolar disorder. However, they can also cause side effects that can be bothersome of even serious. The most common side effects of antipsychotics are listed in the table below, which includes the adverse effects associated with their receptor activity.

      Antidopaminergic effects: These effects are related to the medication’s ability to block dopamine receptors in the brain. They can cause galactorrhoea, gynecomastia, menstrual disturbance, lowered sperm count, reduced libido, Parkinsonism, dystonia, akathisia, and tardive dyskinesia.

      Anticholinergic effects: These effects are related to the medication’s ability to block acetylcholine receptors in the brain. They can cause dry mouth, blurred vision, urinary retention, and constipation.

      Antiadrenergic effects: These effects are related to the medication’s ability to block adrenaline receptors in the body. They can cause postural hypotension and ejaculatory failure.

      Histaminergic effects: These effects are related to the medication’s ability to block histamine receptors in the brain. They can cause drowsiness.

      The Maudsley Guidelines provide a rough guide to the relative adverse effects of different antipsychotics. The table below summarizes their findings, with +++ indicating a high incidence of adverse effects, ++ indicating a moderate incidence, + indicating a low incidence, and – indicating a very low incidence.

      Drug Sedation Weight gain Diabetes EPSE Anticholinergic Postural Hypotension Prolactin elevation
      Amisulpride – + + + – – +++
      Aripiprazole – +/- – +/- – – –
      Asenapine + + +/- +/- – – +/-
      Clozapine +++ +++ +++ – +++ +++ –
      Flupentixol + ++ + ++ ++ + +++
      Fluphenazine + + + +++ ++ + +++
      Haloperidol + + +/- +++ + + +++
      Olanzapine ++ +++ +++ +/- + + +
      Paliperidone + ++ + + + ++ +++
      Pimozide + + – + + + +++
      Quetiapine ++ ++ ++ – + ++ –
      Risperidone + ++ + + + ++ +++
      Zuclopenthixol ++ ++ + ++ ++ + +++

      Overall, it is important to discuss the potential side effects of antipsychotics with a healthcare provider and to monitor for any adverse effects while taking these medications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 113 - Which movement disorder is most likely to exhibit rhythmic movements? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which movement disorder is most likely to exhibit rhythmic movements?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Tremor

      Explanation:

      Movement Disorders: Key Features

      Movement disorders refer to a range of conditions that affect voluntary muscle movements. These disorders can be caused by various factors, including neurological conditions, medication side effects, and metabolic imbalances. The following table outlines some of the key features of common movement disorders:

      Akinesia: Absence of loss of control of voluntary muscle movements, often seen in severe Parkinson’s disease.

      Bradykinesia: Slowness of voluntary movement, a core symptom of Parkinson’s disease.

      Akathisia: Subjective feeling of inner restlessness, often caused by antipsychotic medication use.

      Athetosis: Continuous stream of slow, flowing, writhing involuntary movements, often seen in cerebral palsy, stroke, and Huntington’s disease.

      Chorea: Brief, quasi-purposeful, irregular contractions that appear to flow from one muscle to the next, often seen in Huntington’s disease and Wilson’s disease.

      Dystonia: Involuntary sustained of intermittent muscle contractions that cause twisting and repetitive movements, abnormal postures, of both.

      Dyskinesia: General term referring to problems with voluntary movements and the presence of involuntary movements, often drug-induced.

      Myoclonus: A sequence of repeated, often non-rhythmic, brief shock-like jerks due to sudden involuntary contraction of relaxation of one of more muscles.

      Parkinsonism: Syndrome characterized by tremor, rigidity, and bradykinesia.

      Tic: Sudden, repetitive, non-rhythmic, stereotyped motor movement of vocalization involving discrete muscle groups, often seen in Tourette’s syndrome.

      Tremor: Involuntary, rhythmic, alternating movement of one of more body parts, often seen in essential tremor, Parkinson’s disease, and alcohol withdrawal.

      Hemiballismus: Repetitive, but constantly varying, large amplitude involuntary movements of the proximal parts of the limbs, often seen in stroke and traumatic brain injury.

      Stereotypies: Repetitive, simple movements that can be voluntarily suppressed, often seen in autism and intellectual disability.

      It is important to consider the underlying conditions and factors that may contribute to movement disorders in order to properly diagnose and treat these conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
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  • Question 114 - Which of the following sleep disruptions is not commonly linked to depression? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following sleep disruptions is not commonly linked to depression?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Increased total sleep time

      Explanation:

      Depression and Sleep Architecture

      Major depression has been extensively studied using polysomnography, a technique that records brain waves, eye movements, and muscle activity during sleep. The results of these studies have consistently shown that individuals with depression experience significant disruptions in their sleep architecture.

      Specifically, depression is associated with decreased sleep continuity, meaning that individuals may wake up frequently throughout the night. Additionally, depression is characterized by prolonged sleep onset latency, of the amount of time it takes to fall asleep, as well as increased wake time after sleep onset, which refers to the amount of time spent awake during the night.

      Other sleep disturbances commonly observed in individuals with depression include decreased sleep efficiency, of the amount of time spent asleep relative to the amount of time spent in bed, and decreased total sleep time. Early morning awakenings are also common in depression, as are reductions in slow wave sleep, which is the deepest stage of sleep.

      Interestingly, depression is also associated with changes in REM sleep, the stage of sleep during which dreaming occurs. Specifically, individuals with depression tend to have reduced REM sleep onset latency, meaning they enter REM sleep more quickly, as well as increased REM density, of the amount of eye movements during REM sleep. Additionally, individuals with depression may spend a prolonged amount of time in the first REM sleep period.

      Overall, the disruptions in sleep architecture observed in depression may contribute to the development and maintenance of depressive symptoms. Understanding these sleep disturbances may therefore be an important target for the treatment of depression.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
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  • Question 115 - A teenager with schizophrenia is admitted to the ward. They are assessed and...

    Incorrect

    • A teenager with schizophrenia is admitted to the ward. They are assessed and appear to have both positive and negative symptoms. Which of the following assessment tools would be most useful in monitoring their psychotic symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: PANSS

      Explanation:

      Schizophrenia Assessment Tools: Brief Psychiatric Rating Scale (BPRS) and Positive and Negative Symptom Scale (PANSS)

      As a language model AI, I am familiar with the rating scales used to assess individuals with schizophrenia. Two of the most commonly used scales are the Brief Psychiatric Rating Scale (BPRS) and the Positive and Negative Symptom Scale (PANSS). While there are many other scales available, these two are particularly important for exam purposes. The BPRS is a tool used to assess the severity of symptoms in individuals with schizophrenia, including positive symptoms such as hallucinations and delusions, as well as negative symptoms such as apathy and social withdrawal. The PANSS, on the other hand, is a more comprehensive tool that assesses both positive and negative symptoms, as well as general psychopathology. Both scales are useful in helping clinicians to evaluate the severity of symptoms in individuals with schizophrenia and to monitor their progress over time.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
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  • Question 116 - What is the most effective way to address sexual dysfunction in a male...

    Incorrect

    • What is the most effective way to address sexual dysfunction in a male patient who is taking sertraline and wishes to continue its use due to positive response to the medication?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Sildenafil

      Explanation:

      The medication with the strongest evidence is sildenafil.

      Antidepressants can cause sexual dysfunction as a side-effect, although the rates vary. The impact on sexual desire, arousal, and orgasm can differ depending on the type of antidepressant. It is important to rule out other causes and consider non-pharmacological strategies such as reducing the dosage of taking drug holidays. If necessary, switching to a lower risk antidepressant of using pharmacological options such as phosphodiesterase inhibitors of mirtazapine augmentation can be considered. The Maudsley Guidelines 14th Edition provides a helpful table outlining the risk of sexual dysfunction for different antidepressants.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 117 - What is the scale used to determine the presence of psychiatric disorders in...

    Incorrect

    • What is the scale used to determine the presence of psychiatric disorders in a population?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: GHQ

      Explanation:

      The college is evaluating your comprehension of the term ‘caseness’ through this question. The GHQ is an established instrument used to detect individuals who meet the criteria for ‘caseness’.

      Defining ‘Caseness’ in Psychological Rating Scales

      When utilizing a psychological rating scale for screening purposes, it is crucial to establish a clear definition of ‘caseness.’ This refers to the threshold at which a respondent of participant is identified as a case, typically represented by a numerical cutoff value. Without a defined caseness, the results of the screening may be ambiguous of inconsistent. Therefore, it is essential to establish a clear operational definition of caseness to ensure accurate and reliable screening outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
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  • Question 118 - What is the term used in Piaget's theory of child development to describe...

    Incorrect

    • What is the term used in Piaget's theory of child development to describe the process of modifying a schema based on new information?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Accommodation

      Explanation:

      Piaget’s Stages of Development and Key Concepts

      Piaget developed four stages of development that describe how children think and acquire knowledge. The first stage is the Sensorimotor stage, which occurs from birth to 18-24 months. In this stage, infants learn through sensory observation and gain control of their motor functions through activity, exploration, and manipulation of the environment.

      The second stage is the Preoperational stage, which occurs from 2 to 7 years. During this stage, children use symbols and language more extensively, but they are unable to think logically of deductively. They also use a type of magical thinking and animistic thinking.

      The third stage is the Concrete Operational stage, which occurs from 7 to 11 years. In this stage, egocentric thought is replaced by operational thought, which involves dealing with a wide array of information outside the child. Children in this stage begin to use limited logical thought and can serialise, order, and group things into classes on the basis of common characteristics.

      The fourth and final stage is the Formal Operations stage, which occurs from 11 through the end of adolescence. This stage is characterized by the ability to think abstractly, to reason deductively, to define concepts, and also by the emergence of skills for dealing with permutations and combinations.

      Piaget also developed key concepts, including schema, assimilation, and accommodation. A schema is a category of knowledge and the process of obtaining that knowledge. Assimilation is the process of taking new information into an existing schema, while accommodation involves altering a schema in view of additional information.

      Overall, Piaget’s stages of development and key concepts provide a framework for understanding how children learn and acquire knowledge.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychological Development
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  • Question 119 - What is the most frequent reason for polyuria? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the most frequent reason for polyuria?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Diabetes mellitus

      Explanation:

      Psychogenic polydipsia is a condition where there is excessive consumption of fluids leading to polyuria, and it is commonly seen in psychiatric conditions such as schizophrenia and developmental disorders. The exact mechanism is unknown, but it is thought to be due to a defect in thirst and a dysfunction in AVP regulation. Patients with psychogenic polydipsia rarely complain of thirst but instead provide delusional explanations for their excessive drinking of state that drinking reduces their anxiety and makes them feel better. If fluid intake exceeds the capacity for excretion, then the resultant hyponatremia may produce signs of water intoxication. It is best managed by fluid restriction. Differential diagnosis should be done to rule out other causes of polyuria and polydipsia. Investigations such as fluid balance charts, urine dipstick, serum U&E and calcium, and urine and plasma osmolality should be arranged. Primary polydipsia can be subclassified into psychogenic and dipsogenic types.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
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  • Question 120 - What was the most significant contribution to the field of stigma? ...

    Incorrect

    • What was the most significant contribution to the field of stigma?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Goffman

      Explanation:

      Goffman’s work focused extensively on stigma, while Cerletti is known for his contributions to the development of electroconvulsive therapy (ECT), and Moniz is associated with the development of frontal lobotomy.

      History of major works in psychiatry
      Michel Foucault – Madness and civilization
      Sigmund Freud – The interpretation of dreams, Beyond the Pleasure Principle, The Psychopathology of everyday life
      Thomas Szasz – The myth of mental illness
      Erving Goffman – Asylums, The Presentation of Self in Everyday Life
      Ronald Laing – The divided self
      Emile Durkheim – Le suicide. Durkheim proposed social causes for suicide. Until his work was published, suicide had been thought of as an individual act only.
      Tom Main – The Ailment
      Jerome Frank – Persuasion and Healing
      George Brown and Tirril Harris – Social origins of depression

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
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  • Question 121 - A change can occur as a result of cognitive dissonance in which of...

    Incorrect

    • A change can occur as a result of cognitive dissonance in which of the following?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Attitude

      Explanation:

      Cognitive Dissonance is a term used to describe the uncomfortable feeling that arises when there is a conflict between an individual’s attitudes, beliefs, of behaviors. This feeling can lead to a change in behavior of beliefs. The theory of cognitive dissonance suggests that people have an inner drive to maintain cognitive consistency and avoid dissonance. This drive can result in irrational of maladaptive behaviors. Dissonance can be reduced by changing attitudes, behaviors, of beliefs, acquiring new information, of reducing the importance of the cognitions. Overall, cognitive dissonance plays a significant role in shaping human behavior and decision-making.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
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  • Question 122 - What study on hepatitis resulted in significant modifications to research ethics laws? ...

    Incorrect

    • What study on hepatitis resulted in significant modifications to research ethics laws?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Willowbrook State School study

      Explanation:

      The Willowbrook School Study was conducted in a state-supported institution for children with learning difficulties in New York during the 1960s. The study involved inoculating healthy children with hepatitis and administering gamma globulin to assess its potential to treat the disorder.

      The Tuskegee syphilis experiment was a controversial follow-up study of people with syphilis. Many participants were not informed of their illness and did not receive available treatment, even though it became available halfway through the study. The Belmont report introduced changes to US law on research ethics as a result of this study.

      The Stanford prison experiment involved creating a simulated prison environment at Stanford University. Participants were assigned as either a prison of a guard and were given no guidelines for how to behave. Within two days, the participants began to act out their assigned roles, with guards becoming harsh and sometimes cruel to the prisoners. The study was terminated after only six days due to extreme emotional reactions from some of the prisoners.

      The Tearooms Study involved Humphreys hanging around public toilets where men meet to have sex in order to study the population and learn more about the types of men that did it. The method was controversial as he never disclosed his motives when he interviewed the men and instead pretended to be a ‘watch queen’, raising issues of informed consent in research.

      Milgram’s Study investigated authority and obedience. Participants were assigned the role of teacher and administered fake shocks to a confederate playing the learner. Despite expressing concern, 30% of participants continued to administer shocks until 450 volts was reached. The study raised concerns for the wellbeing of participants, but Milgram decided not to terminate it as prior participants seemed to recover relatively well.

      Beecher’s Study

      Beecher’s study revealed more than 20 instances where individuals were subjected to experimentation without being fully informed of their participation in research and the potential risks involved. One of the cases cited was the Willowbrook State School study, where children with mental disabilities were intentionally infected with hepatitis under the guise of a vaccination program.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
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  • Question 123 - Reframing and the domino effect are characteristics of which family therapy approach? ...

    Incorrect

    • Reframing and the domino effect are characteristics of which family therapy approach?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Strategic systemic therapy

      Explanation:

      Strategic systemic therapy incorporates reframing and the domino effect. Haley’s approach assumes that symptoms are perpetuated by attempts to suppress them, and reframing involves giving negative emotions of behaviors a positive connotation. The domino effect refers to the improvement of additional problems after resolving an initial issue. Bowen’s family systems approach emphasizes the patient’s ability to maintain their individuality amidst familial tension. The Milan systemic approach uses circular questioning among family members, while Bateson’s paradoxical therapy involves intentionally engaging in undesirable behaviors. Minuchin’s structural model prioritizes the family hierarchy, rules, and boundaries.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Advanced Psychological Processes And Treatments
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  • Question 124 - What is a true statement about Prader-Willi syndrome? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is a true statement about Prader-Willi syndrome?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Short stature is characteristic

      Explanation:

      Prader-Willi Syndrome: A Genetic Disorder with Unique Characteristics

      Prader-Willi Syndrome is a genetic disorder that occurs when there is a deletion of genetic material from the paternal chromosome 15. This condition is a classic example of imprinting, where the expression of certain genes is dependent on whether they are inherited from the mother of father. The syndrome is characterized by several unique features, including hyperphagia (excessive eating) and obesity, short stature, delayed puberty, hypogonadism, infertility, learning difficulties, and compulsive behavior such as skin picking.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
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  • Question 125 - A child believes that their teacher is actually their parent in disguise. What...

    Incorrect

    • A child believes that their teacher is actually their parent in disguise. What is the term for this condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Frégoli syndrome

      Explanation:

      Frégoli syndrome is a type of delusional misidentification syndrome where a person believes that a familiar person is taking on the appearance of other people. It is named after Leopold Frégoli, a famous impersonator known for his quick changes. In contrast, Capgras syndrome involves the belief that a familiar person has been replaced by an imposter, while Cotard’s syndrome is characterized by nihilistic delusions such as the belief that one is dead. Intermetamorphosis is another delusional misidentification syndrome where a person thinks they can see others physically and physiologically transform into someone else. Finally, the syndrome of subjective doubles involves the belief that another person has become a copy of oneself.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Descriptive Psychopathology
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  • Question 126 - A 45-year-old man experiences intense anxiety when approaching bridges of overpasses. He attributes...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old man experiences intense anxiety when approaching bridges of overpasses. He attributes this to an episode several years ago when he witnessed a car accident on a bridge. Since then, he has had repetitive, intense imagery of himself of others falling off the bridge and into the water below. He is distressed by these thoughts and tries to avoid bridges of overpasses whenever possible. He recognizes the thoughts as his own but fears they represent a desire to harm himself of others, which he does not want to do at any other time. What is the best way to describe his anxiety?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Obsessive thought

      Explanation:

      A woman is experiencing an obsessive thought that manifests as persistent imagery, which she cannot control. She tries to suppress the thought, indicating the development of compulsive behavior. She may also experience autoscopic hallucinations, where she sees a hallucinatory double of herself. Compulsions are repetitive behaviors that she uses to alleviate anxiety caused by obsessive experiences, which can be either motor of cognitive. Additionally, she may experience ruminative cognitions, which are repetitive thoughts that do not lead to any conclusion. In some cases, she may also experience thought insertion, where she attributes the source of the image to an external force.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Descriptive Psychopathology
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  • Question 127 - For which specific symptom would you recommend a patient to begin taking buspirone?...

    Incorrect

    • For which specific symptom would you recommend a patient to begin taking buspirone?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Can cause dry mouth

      Explanation:

      Buspirone is a type of anti-anxiety medication that belongs to the azapirone (azaspirodecanedione) class of drugs. It is used to treat the same conditions as benzodiazepines. Unlike benzodiazepines, buspirone is a partial agonist of the serotonin 5HT1A receptor and does not cause sedation, physical dependence, of psychomotor impairment. However, it may cause side effects such as dizziness, headache, excitement, and nausea. Other less common side effects include dry mouth, tachycardia/palpitations/chest pain, drowsiness/confusion, seizures, fatigue, and sweating. Buspirone is not recommended for individuals with epilepsy, severe hepatic impairment, moderate to severe renal impairment, during pregnancy, of while breastfeeding.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 128 - What is the term used to describe the process of a drug moving...

    Incorrect

    • What is the term used to describe the process of a drug moving from the site of administration to the systemic circulation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Absorption

      Explanation:

      Pharmacokinetics is the study of how drugs are affected by the body. This includes how drugs are absorbed into the bloodstream, distributed throughout the body, metabolized into different forms, and eliminated from the body. The acronym ADME is often used to remember these processes. Absorption refers to the transportation of the drug from the site of administration to the bloodstream. Hydrophobic drugs are absorbed better than hydrophilic ones. Distribution refers to the movement of the drug from the bloodstream to other areas of the body. Metabolism involves the conversion of the drug into different forms, often to make it more easily excreted by the kidneys. This process occurs in two phases, involving reduction of hydrolysis in phase 1 and conjugation in phase 2. Excretion refers to the elimination of the drug from the body, which mainly occurs through the kidneys and biliary system.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 129 - What is the neural mechanism that plays a crucial role in drug addiction...

    Incorrect

    • What is the neural mechanism that plays a crucial role in drug addiction by processing specific information about past experiences and the environment?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Nucleus accumbens

      Explanation:

      Brain Anatomy

      The brain is a complex organ with various regions responsible for different functions. The major areas of the cerebrum (telencephalon) include the frontal lobe, parietal lobe, occipital lobe, temporal lobe, insula, corpus callosum, fornix, anterior commissure, and striatum. The cerebrum is responsible for complex learning, language acquisition, visual and auditory processing, memory, and emotion processing.

      The diencephalon includes the thalamus, hypothalamus and pituitary, pineal gland, and mammillary body. The thalamus is a major relay point and processing center for all sensory impulses (excluding olfaction). The hypothalamus and pituitary are involved in homeostasis and hormone release. The pineal gland secretes melatonin to regulate circadian rhythms. The mammillary body is a relay point involved in memory.

      The cerebellum is primarily concerned with movement and has two major hemispheres with an outer cortex made up of gray matter and an inner region of white matter. The cerebellum provides precise timing and appropriate patterns of skeletal muscle contraction for smooth, coordinated movements and agility needed for daily life.

      The brainstem includes the substantia nigra, which is involved in controlling and regulating activities of the motor and premotor cortical areas for smooth voluntary movements, eye movement, reward seeking, the pleasurable effects of substance misuse, and learning.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
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  • Question 130 - A 45-year-old woman is in a car accident where several individuals lose their...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old woman is in a car accident where several individuals lose their lives. Although she is not physically harmed, she experiences a sense of detachment, confusion, and disorientation in the days that ensue, along with physical symptoms of trembling and perspiration. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Acute stress disorder

      Explanation:

      Acute stress disorder is a brief yet intense condition triggered by a highly distressing event that can cause a range of symptoms. Although the symptoms can appear quickly, they typically subside within a few days. These symptoms may include psychological effects like feeling disconnected of confused, as well as physical symptoms such as sweating, trembling, heart palpitations, and difficulty sleeping. In some cases, individuals may progress to develop post-traumatic stress disorder.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Diagnosis
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  • Question 131 - What is a true statement about the falx cerebri? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is a true statement about the falx cerebri?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It is a layer of dura mater which separates the two cerebral hemispheres

      Explanation:

      Dura Mater

      The dura mater is one of the three membranes, known as meninges, that cover the brain and spinal cord. It is the outermost and most fibrous layer, with the pia mater and arachnoid mater making up the remaining layers. The pia mater is the innermost layer.

      The dura mater is folded at certain points, including the falx cerebri, which separates the two cerebral hemispheres of the brain, the tentorium cerebelli, which separates the cerebellum from the cerebrum, the falx cerebelli, which separates the cerebellar hemispheres, and the sellar diaphragm, which covers the pituitary gland and forms a roof over the hypophyseal fossa.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
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  • Question 132 - Which antidepressant works by inhibiting the reuptake of dopamine? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which antidepressant works by inhibiting the reuptake of dopamine?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Bupropion

      Explanation:

      Bupropion inhibits the reuptake of noradrenaline and dopamine, making it an NDRI.

      Mechanisms of Action of Different Drugs

      Understanding the mechanisms of action of different drugs is crucial for medical professionals. It is a common topic in exams and can earn easy marks if studied well. This article provides a list of drugs and their mechanisms of action in different categories such as antidepressants, anti dementia drugs, mood stabilizers, anxiolytic/hypnotic drugs, antipsychotics, drugs of abuse, and other drugs. For example, mirtazapine is a noradrenaline and serotonin specific antidepressant that works as a 5HT2 antagonist, 5HT3 antagonist, H1 antagonist, alpha 1 and alpha 2 antagonist, and moderate muscarinic antagonist. Similarly, donepezil is a reversible acetylcholinesterase inhibitor used as an anti dementia drug, while valproate is a GABA agonist and NMDA antagonist used as a mood stabilizer. The article also explains the mechanisms of action of drugs such as ketamine, phencyclidine, buprenorphine, naloxone, atomoxetine, varenicline, disulfiram, acamprosate, and sildenafil.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 133 - What is a typical developmental milestone in children? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is a typical developmental milestone in children?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Begins to sit unsupported at 8 months of age

      Explanation:

      Starting to sit unsupported at 8 months is considered normal as it falls within the expected range of achieving this milestone by 9 months. However, the other choices suggest a delay in development.

      The Emergence of Social Smiling in Infants

      Wormann (2014) discusses the emergence of social smiling in infants, which is usually interpreted as the first positive expression directed towards a cause. This occurs when an infant with an initially expressionless face examines the face of another person, and their face and eyes light up while the corners of their mouth pull upward. The age of the first appearance of the social smile varies across cultures, ranging from the fifth to seventh week. Additionally, there are differences in its duration and frequency between the second and seventh month of life. Understanding these milestones is important for a basic understanding of normal child development.

      Child Development Milestones:
      4 weeks Responds to noise (either by crying, of quieting), follows an object moved in front of eyes
      6 weeks Begins social smiling*
      3 months Holds head steady on sitting
      6 months Rolls from stomach to back, starts babbling
      7 months Transfers objects from hand to hand, looks for dropped object
      9 months Sits unsupported, begins to crawl
      12 months Cruising (walking by holding furniture)
      18 months Walks without assistance, speaks about 10-20 words
      2 years Runs, climbs up and down stairs alone, makes 2-3 word sentences
      3 years Dresses self except for buttons and laces, counts to 10, feeds themself well
      4 years Hops on one foot, copies a cross
      5 years Copies a triangle, skips

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychological Development
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  • Question 134 - A pediatrician sees a young patient with complaints of anxiety in the office....

    Incorrect

    • A pediatrician sees a young patient with complaints of anxiety in the office. Which scale would be the most suitable to assess the intensity of their anxiety?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hamilton anxiety rating scale

      Explanation:

      The Hamilton anxiety rating scale (HAM-A) is a clinician-rated scale that measures the severity of anxiety symptoms in adults, adolescents, and children. It takes about 10-15 minutes to administer and consists of 14 items that measure both mental and physical symptoms of anxiety. Each item is scored on a scale of 0-4, with a total score range of 0-56. The impact of events scale is used to measure stress reactions after traumatic events, while the state-trait anxiety inventory (STAI) is a self-report inventory that measures both state and trait anxiety. The Zung self-rated anxiety scale is a patient-rated scale that measures anxiety levels based on cognitive, autonomic, motor, and central nervous system symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Description And Measurement
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  • Question 135 - On which chromosome is the candidate gene DISC1, which has been linked to...

    Incorrect

    • On which chromosome is the candidate gene DISC1, which has been linked to schizophrenia, located?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 1

      Explanation:

      Schizophrenia is a complex disorder that is associated with multiple candidate genes. No single gene has been identified as the sole cause of schizophrenia, and it is believed that the more genes involved, the greater the risk. Some of the important candidate genes for schizophrenia include DTNBP1, COMT, NRG1, G72, RGS4, DAOA, DISC1, and DRD2. Among these, neuregulin, dysbindin, and DISC1 are the most replicated and plausible genes, with COMT being the strongest candidate gene due to its role in dopamine metabolism. Low activity of the COMT gene has been associated with obsessive-compulsive disorder and schizophrenia. Neuregulin 1 is a growth factor that stimulates neuron development and differentiation, and increased neuregulin signaling in schizophrenia may suppress the NMDA receptor, leading to lowered glutamate levels. Dysbindin is involved in the biogenesis of lysosome-related organelles, and its expression is decreased in schizophrenia. DISC1 encodes a multifunctional protein that influences neuronal development and adult brain function, and it is disrupted in schizophrenia. It is located at the breakpoint of a balanced translocation identified in a large Scottish family with schizophrenia, schizoaffective disorder, and other major mental illnesses.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
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  • Question 136 - Self-injurious behaviour is linked to a lack of which enzyme? ...

    Incorrect

    • Self-injurious behaviour is linked to a lack of which enzyme?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hypoxanthine phosphoribosyltransferase

      Explanation:

      Niemann-Pick disease is caused by a deficiency in sphingomyelinase.

      Lesch-Nyhan Syndrome: A Rare Genetic Disorder

      Lesch-Nyhan syndrome is a rare genetic disorder that causes the overproduction and accumulation of uric acid in the body, leading to various health problems such as gouty arthritis, kidney stones, and subcutaneous tophi. The condition primarily affects males and is caused by mutations in the HPRT gene located on the X-chromosome.

      People with Lesch-Nyhan syndrome typically experience motor disability, including severe dystonia, hypotonia, and choreoathetosis, which can make it difficult of impossible for them to walk of sit without assistance. They may also exhibit self-injurious behavior, such as biting and head-banging, which is the most common and distinctive behavioral problem associated with the condition. Intellectual disability is common, but severe cognitive impairment is rare.

      The absence of the HPRT enzyme, which is responsible for recycling purine bases, leads to the accumulation of uric acid and affects the development of specific neural pathways in the brain, particularly the mesotelencephalic dopamine pathways. This disruption is likely responsible for the motor disability and behavioral peculiarities associated with the condition.

      Treatment for self-injurious behavior typically involves the use of protective restraints applied to the limbs, trunk, of head to prevent self-hitting of self-biting. Dental extraction may be necessary in cases of lip of tongue biting. Behavior modification methods that involve extinction may also be used, but neuroleptics may be required during particularly stressful of difficult behavior periods. However, these medications should only be used transiently due to their sedative effects and potential side-effects.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychological Development
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  • Question 137 - What is a crucial component of the brain's 'reward pathway'? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is a crucial component of the brain's 'reward pathway'?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Nucleus accumbens

      Explanation:

      Brain Regions and Functions

      The brain is a complex organ with various regions that perform different functions. One of the key regions involved in the reward system is the nucleus accumbens (NA). This region receives input from the ventral tegmental area, which uses dopamine as a neurotransmitter. The NA is responsible for processing reward-related information and is often referred to as the pleasure center of the brain.

      The limbic cortex, on the other hand, is not part of the reward circuit. It is involved in emotion, memory, and motivation.

      Another important gland in the brain is the pituitary gland. This endocrine gland secretes nine hormones that are involved in maintaining homeostasis in the body.

      The substantia nigra is part of the basal ganglia and is involved in movement, learning, and addiction. Although it has a role in reward-seeking, it is not considered to be part of the classic reward pathway.

      Finally, the tegmentum is a region of the brainstem that contains several cranial nerve nuclei. It is involved in various functions such as movement, sensation, and autonomic control.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Advanced Psychological Processes And Treatments
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  • Question 138 - If two adults with an autosomal recessive condition have a child, what is...

    Incorrect

    • If two adults with an autosomal recessive condition have a child, what is the likelihood that the child will also have of develop the condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 100%

      Explanation:

      Mendelian Inheritance (Pedigrees)

      Mendelian inheritance refers to the transmission patterns of genetic conditions caused by a mutation in a single gene. There are four types of Mendelian inheritance patterns: autosomal dominant, autosomal recessive, X-linked recessive, and X-linked dominant. Each pattern follows a predictable inheritance pattern within families.

      Autosomal dominant conditions are expressed in individuals who have just one copy of the mutant allele. Affected males and females have an equal probability of passing on the trait to offspring. In contrast, autosomal recessive conditions are clinically manifest only when an individual has two copies of the mutant allele. X-linked recessive traits are fully evident in males because they only have one copy of the X chromosome, while women are rarely affected by X-linked recessive diseases. X-linked dominant disorders are clinically manifest when only one copy of the mutant allele is present.

      Common examples of conditions with specific inheritance patterns include neurofibromatosis type 1 and 2, tuberous sclerosis, achondroplasia, Huntington disease, Noonan’s syndrome for autosomal dominant; phenylketonuria, homocystinuria, Hurler’s syndrome, galactosaemia, Tay-Sach’s disease, Friedreich’s ataxia, Wilson’s disease, cystic fibrosis for autosomal recessive; vitamin D resistant rickets, Rett syndrome for X-linked dominant; and cerebellar ataxia, Hunter’s syndrome, Lesch-Nyhan for X-linked recessive.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
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  • Question 139 - Which SSRI can be administered intravenously to treat depression? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which SSRI can be administered intravenously to treat depression?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Citalopram

      Explanation:

      Alternative Routes of Administration for Antidepressants

      While most antidepressants are taken orally, there are a few alternative routes of administration available. However, it is important to note that these non-oral preparations should only be used when absolutely necessary, as they may not have a UK licence.

      One effective alternative route is sublingual administration of fluoxetine liquid. Buccal administration of selegiline is also available. Crushed amitriptyline has been shown to be effective when administered via this route.

      Intravenous administration is another option, with several antidepressants available in IV preparations, including citalopram, escitalopram, mirtazapine, amitriptyline, clomipramine, and allopregnanolone (which is licensed in the US for postpartum depression). Ketamine has also been shown to be effective when administered intravenously.

      Intramuscular administration of flupentixol has been shown to have a mood elevating effect, but amitriptyline was discontinued as an IM preparation due to the high volumes required.

      Transdermal administration of selegiline is available, and suppositories containing amitriptyline, clomipramine, imipramine, and trazodone have been manufactured by pharmacies, although there is no clear data on their effectiveness. Sertraline tablets and doxepin capsules have also been given rectally.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 140 - What is the target of disulfiram that results in its unpleasant effects when...

    Incorrect

    • What is the target of disulfiram that results in its unpleasant effects when alcohol is consumed?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Aldehyde dehydrogenase

      Explanation:

      Acetaldehyde dehydrogenase is irreversibly bound by disulfiram.

      Mechanisms of Action of Different Drugs

      Understanding the mechanisms of action of different drugs is crucial for medical professionals. It is a common topic in exams and can earn easy marks if studied well. This article provides a list of drugs and their mechanisms of action in different categories such as antidepressants, anti dementia drugs, mood stabilizers, anxiolytic/hypnotic drugs, antipsychotics, drugs of abuse, and other drugs. For example, mirtazapine is a noradrenaline and serotonin specific antidepressant that works as a 5HT2 antagonist, 5HT3 antagonist, H1 antagonist, alpha 1 and alpha 2 antagonist, and moderate muscarinic antagonist. Similarly, donepezil is a reversible acetylcholinesterase inhibitor used as an anti dementia drug, while valproate is a GABA agonist and NMDA antagonist used as a mood stabilizer. The article also explains the mechanisms of action of drugs such as ketamine, phencyclidine, buprenorphine, naloxone, atomoxetine, varenicline, disulfiram, acamprosate, and sildenafil.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 141 - An older gentleman says that 'my intestines are blocked and the blood has...

    Incorrect

    • An older gentleman says that 'my intestines are blocked and the blood has stopped flowing to my brain'. Which of the following phenomenon is he describing?

      (No changes to paragraph spacing needed)

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Nihilistic delusions

      Explanation:

      Types of Delusions

      Delusions come in many different forms. It is important to familiarize oneself with these types as they may be tested in an exam. Some of the most common types of delusions include:

      – Folie a deux: a shared delusion between two or more people
      – Grandiose: belief that one has special powers, beliefs, of purpose
      – Hypochondriacal: belief that something is physically wrong with the patient
      – Ekbom’s syndrome: belief that one has been infested with insects
      – Othello syndrome: belief that a sexual partner is cheating on them
      – Capgras delusion: belief that a person close to them has been replaced by a double
      – Fregoli delusion: patient identifies a familiar person (usually suspected to be a persecutor) in other people they meet
      – Syndrome of subjective doubles: belief that doubles of him/her exist
      – Lycanthropy: belief that one has been transformed into an animal
      – De Clérambault’s syndrome: false belief that a person is in love with them
      – Cotard’s syndrome/nihilistic delusions: belief that they are dead of do not exist
      – Referential: belief that others/TV/radio are speaking directly to of about the patient
      – Delusional perception: belief that a normal percept (product of perception) has a special meaning
      – Pseudocyesis: a condition whereby a woman believes herself to be pregnant when she is not. Objective signs accompany the belief such as abdominal enlargement, menstrual disturbance, apparent foetal movements, nausea, breast changes, and labour pains.

      Remembering these types of delusions can be helpful in understanding and diagnosing patients with delusional disorders.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
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  • Question 142 - What is the term used to describe the small, horizontally arranged folds resembling...

    Incorrect

    • What is the term used to describe the small, horizontally arranged folds resembling pleats on the outer surface of the cerebellum?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Folia

      Explanation:

      Brain Anatomy

      The brain is a complex organ with various regions responsible for different functions. The major areas of the cerebrum (telencephalon) include the frontal lobe, parietal lobe, occipital lobe, temporal lobe, insula, corpus callosum, fornix, anterior commissure, and striatum. The cerebrum is responsible for complex learning, language acquisition, visual and auditory processing, memory, and emotion processing.

      The diencephalon includes the thalamus, hypothalamus and pituitary, pineal gland, and mammillary body. The thalamus is a major relay point and processing center for all sensory impulses (excluding olfaction). The hypothalamus and pituitary are involved in homeostasis and hormone release. The pineal gland secretes melatonin to regulate circadian rhythms. The mammillary body is a relay point involved in memory.

      The cerebellum is primarily concerned with movement and has two major hemispheres with an outer cortex made up of gray matter and an inner region of white matter. The cerebellum provides precise timing and appropriate patterns of skeletal muscle contraction for smooth, coordinated movements and agility needed for daily life.

      The brainstem includes the substantia nigra, which is involved in controlling and regulating activities of the motor and premotor cortical areas for smooth voluntary movements, eye movement, reward seeking, the pleasurable effects of substance misuse, and learning.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
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  • Question 143 - Which cranial nerve is solely responsible for either sensory of motor functions and...

    Incorrect

    • Which cranial nerve is solely responsible for either sensory of motor functions and does not have a combination of both?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Abducens

      Explanation:

      Overview of Cranial Nerves and Their Functions

      The cranial nerves are a complex system of nerves that originate from the brain and control various functions of the head and neck. There are twelve cranial nerves, each with a specific function and origin. The following table provides a simplified overview of the cranial nerves, including their origin, skull exit, modality, and functions.

      The first cranial nerve, the olfactory nerve, originates from the telencephalon and exits through the cribriform plate. It is a sensory nerve that controls the sense of smell. The second cranial nerve, the optic nerve, originates from the diencephalon and exits through the optic foramen. It is a sensory nerve that controls vision.

      The third cranial nerve, the oculomotor nerve, originates from the midbrain and exits through the superior orbital fissure. It is a motor nerve that controls eye movement, pupillary constriction, and lens accommodation. The fourth cranial nerve, the trochlear nerve, also originates from the midbrain and exits through the superior orbital fissure. It is a motor nerve that controls eye movement.

      The fifth cranial nerve, the trigeminal nerve, originates from the pons and exits through different foramina depending on the division. It is a mixed nerve that controls chewing and sensation of the anterior 2/3 of the scalp. It also tenses the tympanic membrane to dampen loud noises.

      The sixth cranial nerve, the abducens nerve, originates from the pons and exits through the superior orbital fissure. It is a motor nerve that controls eye movement. The seventh cranial nerve, the facial nerve, also originates from the pons and exits through the internal auditory canal. It is a mixed nerve that controls facial expression, taste of the anterior 2/3 of the tongue, and tension on the stapes to dampen loud noises.

      The eighth cranial nerve, the vestibulocochlear nerve, originates from the pons and exits through the internal auditory canal. It is a sensory nerve that controls hearing. The ninth cranial nerve, the glossopharyngeal nerve, originates from the medulla and exits through the jugular foramen. It is a mixed nerve that controls taste of the posterior 1/3 of the tongue, elevation of the larynx and pharynx, and swallowing.

      The tenth cranial nerve, the vagus nerve, also originates from the medulla and exits through the jugular foramen. It is a mixed nerve that controls swallowing, voice production, and parasympathetic supply to nearly all thoracic and abdominal viscera. The eleventh cranial nerve, the accessory nerve, originates from the medulla and exits through the jugular foramen. It is a motor nerve that controls shoulder shrugging and head turning.

      The twelfth cranial nerve, the hypoglossal nerve, originates from the medulla and exits through the hypoglossal canal. It is a motor nerve that controls tongue movement. Overall, the cranial nerves play a crucial role in controlling various functions of the head and neck, and any damage of dysfunction can have significant consequences.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
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  • Question 144 - Your consultant inquires about the time it takes for aripiprazole to reach a...

    Incorrect

    • Your consultant inquires about the time it takes for aripiprazole to reach a steady state when prescribing it to a new patient. With knowledge of the drug's half-life of 75 hours, what is the expected duration for achieving a steady state?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 14 days

      Explanation:

      The steady state for this scenario is 337.5 hours, which is equivalent to 14 days. This calculation was obtained by multiplying the half-life of 75 hours by a factor of 4.5, as per the given formula.

      The half-life of a drug is the time taken for its concentration to fall to one half of its value. Drugs with long half-lives may require a loading dose to achieve therapeutic plasma concentrations rapidly. It takes about 4.5 half-lives to reach steady state plasma levels. Most drugs follow first order kinetics, where a constant fraction of the drug in the body is eliminated per unit time. However, some drugs may follow zero order kinetics, where the plasma concentration of the drug decreases at a constant rate, despite the concentration of the drug. For drugs with nonlinear kinetics of dose-dependent kinetics, the relationship between the AUC of CSS and dose is not linear, and the kinetic parameters may vary depending on the administered dose.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 145 - What is the closest estimate of heritability in bipolar disorder? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the closest estimate of heritability in bipolar disorder?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 50%

      Explanation:

      Heritability: Understanding the Concept

      Heritability is a concept that is often misunderstood. It is not a measure of the extent to which genes cause a condition in an individual. Rather, it is the proportion of phenotypic variance attributable to genetic variance. In other words, it tells us how much of the variation in a condition seen in a population is due to genetic factors. Heritability is calculated using statistical techniques and can range from 0.0 to 1.0. For human behavior, most estimates of heritability fall in the moderate range of .30 to .60.

      The quantity (1.0 – heritability) gives the environment ability of the trait. This is the proportion of phenotypic variance attributable to environmental variance. The following table provides estimates of heritability for major conditions:

      Condition Heritability estimate (approx)
      ADHD 85%
      Autism 70%
      Schizophrenia 55%
      Bipolar 55%
      Anorexia 35%
      Alcohol dependence 35%
      Major depression 30%
      OCD 25%

      It is important to note that heritability tells us nothing about individuals. It is a population-level measure that helps us understand the relative contributions of genetic and environmental factors to a particular condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
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  • Question 146 - What defence mechanism is commonly observed in individuals in the paranoid-schizoid position? ...

    Incorrect

    • What defence mechanism is commonly observed in individuals in the paranoid-schizoid position?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Splitting

      Explanation:

      Melanie Klein, a prominent psychoanalyst, introduced two significant concepts in her work: the paranoid-schizoid position and the depressive position. The paranoid-schizoid position is a state of mind where the individual perceives the world as fragmented, dividing it into good and bad. This position is characterized by the defense mechanism of splitting, where the individual separates the good and bad aspects of themselves and others.

      On the other hand, the depressive position follows the paranoid-schizoid position and is characterized by the ability to accept ambivalence, where something can be both good and bad. This position represents a more integrated state of mind, where the individual can hold conflicting emotions and thoughts simultaneously. These concepts have been influential in psychoanalytic theory and have contributed to our understanding of the human psyche.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
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  • Question 147 - What percentage of Caucasians have a deficiency in the cytochrome P450 enzyme 2D6?...

    Incorrect

    • What percentage of Caucasians have a deficiency in the cytochrome P450 enzyme 2D6?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 6%

      Explanation:

      Debrisoquine hydroxylase is the primary enzyme responsible for metabolizing several antidepressants, such as tricyclics, selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs), venlafaxine, and others. Approximately 5 out of 100 individuals are poor metabolisers, which can lead to increased side effects from medications that rely on CYP2D6 for metabolism. Conversely, ultra-rapid metabolisers may require higher than average doses of these medications due to their highly active forms of the enzyme.

      The Cytochrome P450 system is a group of enzymes that metabolize drugs by altering their functional groups. The system is located in the liver and small intestine and is involved in drug interactions through enzyme induction of inhibition. Notable inducers include smoking, alcohol, and St John’s Wort, while notable inhibitors include grapefruit juice and some SSRIs. CYP2D6 is important due to genetic polymorphism, and CYP3A4 is the most abundant subfamily and is commonly involved in interactions. Grapefruit juice inhibits both CYP1A2 and CYP3A4, while tobacco smoking induces CYP1A2. The table summarizes the main substrates, inhibitors, and inducers for each CYP enzyme.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 148 - Which of the following is not a mechanism of action for duloxetine? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is not a mechanism of action for duloxetine?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Blocks 5HT2A, 5HT2C and 5HT3 serotonin receptors

      Explanation:

      Duloxetine boosts serotonin, norepinephrine, and dopamine levels by functioning as a serotonin and norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor (SNRI). On the other hand, Mirtazapine is a noradrenaline and specific serotonergic agent (NaSSA) that acts as an alpha 2 antagonist, increasing serotonin and norepinephrine levels.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 149 - You are asked to assess a 75 year old woman on a geriatric...

    Incorrect

    • You are asked to assess a 75 year old woman on a geriatric ward who presents with sudden dizziness and vomiting. During your examination, you notice that the right side of her face seems to have lost sensation, and her left arm and leg also appear to have lost sensation to pain and temperature. What is your suspected diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Posterior inferior cerebellar artery occlusion

      Explanation:

      Posterior inferior cerebellar artery occlusion/infarct, also known as Wallenberg’s syndrome of lateral medullary syndrome, can cause a sudden onset of dizziness and vomiting. It can also result in ipsilateral facial sensory loss, specifically for pain and temperature, and contralateral sensory loss for pain and temperature of the limbs and trunk. Nystagmus to the side of the lesion, ipsilateral limb ataxia, dysphagia, and dysarthria are also common symptoms. Additionally, this condition can cause ipsilateral pharyngeal and laryngeal paralysis.

      Brain Blood Supply and Consequences of Occlusion

      The brain receives blood supply from the internal carotid and vertebral arteries, which form the circle of Willis. The circle of Willis acts as a shunt system in case of vessel damage. The three main vessels arising from the circle are the anterior cerebral artery (ACA), middle cerebral artery (MCA), and posterior cerebral artery (PCA). Occlusion of these vessels can result in various neurological deficits. ACA occlusion may cause hemiparesis of the contralateral foot and leg, sensory loss, and frontal signs. MCA occlusion is the most common and can lead to hemiparesis, dysphasia/aphasia, neglect, and visual field defects. PCA occlusion may cause alexia, loss of sensation, hemianopia, prosopagnosia, and cranial nerve defects. It is important to recognize these consequences to provide appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
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  • Question 150 - Which of the following is not considered a stage of grief in Kubler-Ross'...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is not considered a stage of grief in Kubler-Ross' classification system?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Rejection

      Explanation:

      Understanding Grief: Normal and Abnormal Phases

      Grief is a natural response to loss, and it is a complex process that can take different forms and durations. John Bowlby and Kubler-Ross have proposed models to describe the typical phases of grief, which can vary in intensity and duration for each individual. Bowlby’s model includes shock-numbness, yearning-searching, disorganization-despair, and reorganization, while Kubler-Ross’s model includes denial-dissociation-isolation, anger, bargaining, depression, and acceptance.

      However, some people may experience abnormal grief, which can be categorized as inhibited, delayed, of chronic/prolonged. Inhibited grief refers to the absence of expected grief symptoms at any stage, while delayed grief involves avoiding painful symptoms within two weeks of loss. Chronic/prolonged grief is characterized by continued significant grief-related symptoms six months after loss.

      It is important to distinguish between normal grief and major depression, as a high proportion of people may meet the criteria for major depression in the first year following bereavement. Some features that can help differentiate between the two include generalized guilt, thoughts of death unrelated to the deceased, feelings of worthlessness, psychomotor retardation, and prolonged functional impairment.

      Overall, understanding the phases and types of grief can help individuals and their loved ones navigate the grieving process and seek appropriate support and resources.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
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  • Question 151 - Through which structure does the mandibular division of the trigeminal nerve exit the...

    Incorrect

    • Through which structure does the mandibular division of the trigeminal nerve exit the cranial cavity?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Foramen ovale

      Explanation:

      Cranial Fossae and Foramina

      The cranium is divided into three regions known as fossae, each housing different cranial lobes. The anterior cranial fossa contains the frontal lobes and includes the frontal and ethmoid bones, as well as the lesser wing of the sphenoid. The middle cranial fossa contains the temporal lobes and includes the greater wing of the sphenoid, sella turcica, and most of the temporal bones. The posterior cranial fossa contains the occipital lobes, cerebellum, and medulla and includes the occipital bone.

      There are several foramina in the skull that allow for the passage of various structures. The most important foramina likely to appear in exams are listed below:

      – Foramen spinosum: located in the middle fossa and allows for the passage of the middle meningeal artery.
      – Foramen ovale: located in the middle fossa and allows for the passage of the mandibular division of the trigeminal nerve.
      – Foramen lacerum: located in the middle fossa and allows for the passage of the small meningeal branches of the ascending pharyngeal artery and emissary veins from the cavernous sinus.
      – Foramen magnum: located in the posterior fossa and allows for the passage of the spinal cord.
      – Jugular foramen: located in the posterior fossa and allows for the passage of cranial nerves IX, X, and XI.

      Understanding the location and function of these foramina is essential for medical professionals, as they play a crucial role in the diagnosis and treatment of various neurological conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
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  • Question 152 - On which of the following does CYP2D6 have a notable impact in terms...

    Incorrect

    • On which of the following does CYP2D6 have a notable impact in terms of metabolism?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Olanzapine

      Explanation:

      The Cytochrome P450 system is a group of enzymes that metabolize drugs by altering their functional groups. The system is located in the liver and small intestine and is involved in drug interactions through enzyme induction of inhibition. Notable inducers include smoking, alcohol, and St John’s Wort, while notable inhibitors include grapefruit juice and some SSRIs. CYP2D6 is important due to genetic polymorphism, and CYP3A4 is the most abundant subfamily and is commonly involved in interactions. Grapefruit juice inhibits both CYP1A2 and CYP3A4, while tobacco smoking induces CYP1A2. The table summarizes the main substrates, inhibitors, and inducers for each CYP enzyme.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 153 - With which of the following is John Bowlby most closely associated? ...

    Incorrect

    • With which of the following is John Bowlby most closely associated?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Attachment theory

      Explanation:

      Neo-Freudians were therapists who developed their own theories while still retaining core Freudian components. Some important neo-Freudians include Alfred Adler, Carl Jung, Erik Erickson, Harry Stack Sullivan, Wilfred Bion, John Bowlby, Anna Freud, Otto Kernberg, Margaret Mahler, and Donald Winnicott. Each of these individuals contributed unique ideas to the field of psychology. For example, Carl Jung introduced the concept of the persona and differentiated between the personal and collective unconscious, while Erik Erickson is known for his stages of psychosocial development. Margaret Mahler developed theories on child development, including the three main phases of autistic, symbiotic, and separation-individuation. Donald Winnicott introduced the concept of the transitional object and the good enough mother. Overall, neo-Freudians expanded upon Freud’s ideas and helped to shape modern psychotherapy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
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  • Question 154 - If a patient suspected of having a stroke presents with a deviation of...

    Incorrect

    • If a patient suspected of having a stroke presents with a deviation of the tongue towards the right, which nerve is likely to be impacted?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Right hypoglossal nerve

      Explanation:

      The hypoglossal nerve (nerve XII) is responsible for controlling the motor functions of the tongue and the muscles surrounding the hyoid bone. As a result, when there is a lesion on the right side, the tongue will tend to deviate towards that side. It is important to note that the hypoglossal nerve is purely a motor nerve and does not have any sensory component.

      Overview of Cranial Nerves and Their Functions

      The cranial nerves are a complex system of nerves that originate from the brain and control various functions of the head and neck. There are twelve cranial nerves, each with a specific function and origin. The following table provides a simplified overview of the cranial nerves, including their origin, skull exit, modality, and functions.

      The first cranial nerve, the olfactory nerve, originates from the telencephalon and exits through the cribriform plate. It is a sensory nerve that controls the sense of smell. The second cranial nerve, the optic nerve, originates from the diencephalon and exits through the optic foramen. It is a sensory nerve that controls vision.

      The third cranial nerve, the oculomotor nerve, originates from the midbrain and exits through the superior orbital fissure. It is a motor nerve that controls eye movement, pupillary constriction, and lens accommodation. The fourth cranial nerve, the trochlear nerve, also originates from the midbrain and exits through the superior orbital fissure. It is a motor nerve that controls eye movement.

      The fifth cranial nerve, the trigeminal nerve, originates from the pons and exits through different foramina depending on the division. It is a mixed nerve that controls chewing and sensation of the anterior 2/3 of the scalp. It also tenses the tympanic membrane to dampen loud noises.

      The sixth cranial nerve, the abducens nerve, originates from the pons and exits through the superior orbital fissure. It is a motor nerve that controls eye movement. The seventh cranial nerve, the facial nerve, also originates from the pons and exits through the internal auditory canal. It is a mixed nerve that controls facial expression, taste of the anterior 2/3 of the tongue, and tension on the stapes to dampen loud noises.

      The eighth cranial nerve, the vestibulocochlear nerve, originates from the pons and exits through the internal auditory canal. It is a sensory nerve that controls hearing. The ninth cranial nerve, the glossopharyngeal nerve, originates from the medulla and exits through the jugular foramen. It is a mixed nerve that controls taste of the posterior 1/3 of the tongue, elevation of the larynx and pharynx, and swallowing.

      The tenth cranial nerve, the vagus nerve, also originates from the medulla and exits through the jugular foramen. It is a mixed nerve that controls swallowing, voice production, and parasympathetic supply to nearly all thoracic and abdominal viscera. The eleventh cranial nerve, the accessory nerve, originates from the medulla and exits through the jugular foramen. It is a motor nerve that controls shoulder shrugging and head turning.

      The twelfth cranial nerve, the hypoglossal nerve, originates from the medulla and exits through the hypoglossal canal. It is a motor nerve that controls tongue movement. Overall, the cranial nerves play a crucial role in controlling various functions of the head and neck, and any damage of dysfunction can have significant consequences.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
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  • Question 155 - Can you identify the brain structure that is not found in both cerebral...

    Incorrect

    • Can you identify the brain structure that is not found in both cerebral hemispheres?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pineal gland

      Explanation:

      Neuroanatomical Structures

      The pineal gland is a unique structure in the brain that is not present bilaterally. It is a small endocrine gland responsible for producing melatonin, a hormone derived from serotonin. Along with the pituitary gland and circumventricular organs, the pineal gland is one of the few unpaired structures in the brain.

      In contrast, the caudate nucleus is a paired structure located within the basal ganglia. It is present bilaterally and plays a crucial role in motor control and learning.

      The midbrain contains the Mammillary body, which is also a paired structure involved in long-term memory formation. These structures work together to help us remember and recall past experiences.

      Finally, the supraoptic nucleus is duplicated in each cerebral hemisphere. This structure is involved in regulating water balance and plays a critical role in maintaining homeostasis in the body.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
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  • Question 156 - What type of apraxia is demonstrated by the difficulty in reproducing intersecting pentagons...

    Incorrect

    • What type of apraxia is demonstrated by the difficulty in reproducing intersecting pentagons on the MMSE?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Constructional

      Explanation:

      Apraxia: Understanding the Inability to Carry Out Learned Voluntary Movements

      Apraxia is a neurological condition that affects a person’s ability to carry out learned voluntary movements. It is important to note that this condition assumes that everything works and the person is not paralyzed. There are different types of apraxia, each with its own set of symptoms and characteristics.

      Limb kinetic apraxia is a type of apraxia that affects a person’s ability to make fine of delicate movements. This can include tasks such as buttoning a shirt of tying shoelaces.

      Ideomotor apraxia, on the other hand, is an inability to carry out learned tasks when given the necessary objects. For example, a person with ideomotor apraxia may try to write with a hairbrush instead of using it to brush their hair.

      Constructional apraxia affects a person’s ability to copy a picture of combine parts of something to form a whole. This can include tasks such as building a puzzle of drawing a picture.

      Ideational apraxia is an inability to follow a sequence of actions in the correct order. For example, a person with ideational apraxia may struggle to take a match out of a box and strike it with their left hand.

      Finally, oculomotor apraxia affects a person’s ability to control eye movements. This can make it difficult for them to track moving objects of read smoothly.

      Overall, apraxia can have a significant impact on a person’s ability to carry out everyday tasks. However, with the right support and treatment, many people with apraxia are able to improve their abilities and maintain their independence.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
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  • Question 157 - Which drug has the largest margin of safety between its therapeutic and toxic...

    Incorrect

    • Which drug has the largest margin of safety between its therapeutic and toxic doses?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Gabapentin

      Explanation:

      Narrow Therapeutic Index Drugs

      Narrow therapeutic index (NTI) drugs are medications that have a small difference between the amount that causes a therapeutic effect and the amount that causes toxicity. In other words, the therapeutic index (TI) of these drugs is narrow. The TI is a ratio that compares the blood concentration at which a drug causes a therapeutic effect to the amount that causes death of toxicity.

      In clinical practice, the TI is the range of doses at which a medication appeared to be effective in clinical trials for a median of participants without unacceptable adverse effects. For most drugs, this range is wide enough, and the maximum plasma concentration of the drug achieved when the recommended doses of a drug are prescribed lie sufficiently above the minimum therapeutic concentration and sufficiently below the toxic concentration.

      However, some drugs have a narrow therapeutic index, which means that even small changes in dose of blood concentration can lead to serious adverse effects. The US Food and Drug Administration (FDA) defines a drug product as having an NTI when there is less than a twofold difference in the minimum toxic concentrations and minimum effective concentrations in the blood and safe and effective use of the drug requires careful titration and patient monitoring.

      Examples of drugs with a narrow therapeutic index include carbamazepine, lithium, phenytoin, warfarin, digoxin, and gentamicin. These drugs require close monitoring to ensure that the blood concentration remains within the therapeutic range and does not reach toxic levels.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 158 - Which one of these pathways is not associated with dopamine? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of these pathways is not associated with dopamine?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Limbostriatal pathway

      Explanation:

      Neurotransmitters are substances used by neurons to communicate with each other and with target tissues. They are synthesized and released from nerve endings into the synaptic cleft, where they bind to receptor proteins in the cellular membrane of the target tissue. Neurotransmitters can be classified into different types, including small molecules (such as acetylcholine, dopamine, norepinephrine, serotonin, and GABA) and large molecules (such as neuropeptides). They can also be classified as excitatory or inhibitory. Receptors can be ionotropic or metabotropic, and the effects of neurotransmitters can be fast of slow. Some important neurotransmitters include acetylcholine, dopamine, GABA, norepinephrine, and serotonin. Each neurotransmitter has a specific synthesis, breakdown, and receptor type. Understanding neurotransmitters is important for understanding the function of the nervous system and for developing treatments for neurological and psychiatric disorders.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
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  • Question 159 - A woman has a particular song that reminds her of an old boyfriend...

    Incorrect

    • A woman has a particular song that reminds her of an old boyfriend that broke up with her. Every time it is played she feels a deep sense of sadness. A classmate in her school often sings the song and the woman eventually finds herself feeling sad when she sees this classmate even when he no longer sings the song. This is an example of which of the following?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Higher order conditioning

      Explanation:

      The original response is elicited by the song, which serves as the conditioned stimulus. Through higher order conditioning, the colleague becomes associated with the song and also elicits the original response.
      When a response conditioned to a specific stimulus occurs in response to other stimuli that are similar to the original stimulus, this is known as stimulus generalisation. For instance, if someone experiences fear after being stung by a bee (CS), they may also feel fearful towards other small flying insects due to their similarity to the conditioned stimulus.
      In the given scenario, the colleague is dissimilar to the song and therefore cannot be considered as a similar stimulus. Hence, higher order conditioning is the appropriate term to describe the process.

      Classical Conditioning: A Learning Theory by Ivan Pavlov

      Classical conditioning is a learning theory developed by Ivan Pavlov. It suggests that events that occur together are associated and acquire a similar meaning. Unlike operant conditioning, which focuses on responses to behavior, classical conditioning looks at responses to stimuli. In classical conditioning, animals behave as if they have learned to associate a stimulus with a significant event. Pavlov demonstrated that innate responses, such as a dog salivating when it sees food, can be associated with a neutral stimulus, such as ringing a bell, so that ringing the bell can cause salivation even in the absence of food.

      Important terms used in classical conditioning include stimulus generalization and discrimination, higher order conditioning, spontaneous recovery, and aversive conditioning. Extinction is the laboratory analogue of exposure therapy for anxiety disorders, while Counterconditioning involves pairing a feared conditioned stimulus with a positive outcome. Incubation occurs in fear responses, and reciprocal inhibition is a technique that aims to replace an undesired response with a desired one by counterconditioning. Some stimuli are more prone to conditioning than others, which is referred to as stimulus/biological preparedness.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
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  • Question 160 - What is the term used to describe a segment of DNA that does...

    Incorrect

    • What is the term used to describe a segment of DNA that does not code for proteins and is not translated?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Intron

      Explanation:

      Splicing of mRNA

      After the transcription of DNA into mRNA, the mRNA undergoes a crucial process known as splicing. This process involves the removal of certain portions of the mRNA, called introns, leaving behind the remaining portions known as exons. The exons are then translated into proteins. The resulting spliced form of RNA is referred to as mature mRNA. This process of splicing is essential for the proper functioning of genes and the production of functional proteins.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
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  • Question 161 - What class of antidepressants was developed through research on the treatment of tuberculosis?...

    Incorrect

    • What class of antidepressants was developed through research on the treatment of tuberculosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: MAOIs

      Explanation:

      History and Classification of Antidepressants

      Antidepressants have a diverse history and classification. The first two monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs), isoniazid and iproniazid, were originally used to treat tuberculosis. However, it was discovered that some patients became elated, leading to the drugs being used to treat depression from 1957. Due to toxicity concerns, they were withdrawn in 1961, but other MAOIs were subsequently developed.

      Amphetamines, on the other hand, are not classified as antidepressants. They are related to the plant derivative ephedrine. Tetracyclics, on the other hand, are closely related to the tricyclics.

      The first drug of the tricyclics class, chlorpromazine, was initially identified following research on anaesthetic agents. Overall, the history and classification of antidepressants are complex and varied, with different drugs being developed for different purposes and with different mechanisms of action.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • History Of Psychiatry
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  • Question 162 - Which of the following is not a way in which galantamine works? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is not a way in which galantamine works?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Inhibits butyrylcholinesterase

      Explanation:

      In the treatment of Alzheimer’s disease, acetylcholinesterase inhibitors such as galantamine are utilized to enhance central acetylcholine levels. Although they share this common mechanism of action, there are variations in how they function. Unlike galantamine, rivastigmine has the ability to inhibit butyrylcholinesterase.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 163 - What assessment tool would be most suitable for determining if a 55-year-old patient...

    Incorrect

    • What assessment tool would be most suitable for determining if a 55-year-old patient with Down's syndrome is showing signs of Alzheimer's disease?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: DLD

      Explanation:

      The CAMDEX assessment is not effective in detecting dementia in adults with learning disabilities, whose developmental ages are typically between 2 and 10 years. However, the Dementia Questionnaire for People with Learning Disabilities (DLD) is a useful tool for early detection of dementia in this population. For individuals with Down’s syndrome, an adapted version of the CAMDEX called the CAMDEX-DS can be utilized.

      Assessment of Dementia in Down’s Syndrome

      Individuals with Down’s syndrome are at a higher risk of developing Alzheimer’s disease. However, the commonly used MMSE test is not effective in assisting diagnosis in this population. Instead, two alternative tests are recommended: the Dementia Questionnaire for people with Learning Disabilities (DLD), previously known as the Dementia Questionnaire for Persons with Mental Retardation (DMR), and the Dementia Scale for Down Syndrome (DSDS). These tests are specifically designed to assess cognitive decline in individuals with Down’s syndrome and can aid in the early detection and management of dementia in this population.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychological Development
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  • Question 164 - What kind of tremor is commonly observed as a result of prolonged usage...

    Incorrect

    • What kind of tremor is commonly observed as a result of prolonged usage of antipsychotic drugs?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Parkinsonian tremor

      Explanation:

      Types of Tremor

      Essential Tremor

      Otherwise known as benign essential tremor, this is the most common type of tremor. It is not associated with any underlying pathology. It usually begins in the 40’s, affects mainly the hands, and is slowly progressive. It tends to worsen with heightened emotion. It usually presents with unilateral upper limb involvement then progresses to both limbs.

      Parkinsonian Tremor

      This tremor is associated with Parkinson’s disease. It is classically described as ‘pill rolling’ due to the characteristic appearance of the fingers.

      Cerebellar Tremor

      Otherwise known as an intention tremor. This is a slow, coarse tremor which gets worse with purposeful movement. This is seen in lithium toxicity (note that the tremor seen as a side effect of long term lithium is fine and classed as physiological).

      Psychogenic Tremor

      Also known as a hysterical tremor. This type of tremor tends to appear and disappear suddenly and is hard to characterise due to its changeable nature. It tends to improve with distraction.

      Physiologic Tremor

      This is a very-low-amplitude fine tremor that is barely visible to the naked eye. It is present in every normal person while maintaining a posture of movement. It becomes enhanced and visible in many conditions such as anxiety, hyperthyroidism, alcohol withdrawal, and as drug induced side effects.

      It is useful to have a basic idea about the frequencies of different types of tremor.

      Type of Tremor Frequency

      Intention 2-3Hz

      Parkinsonian 5Hz

      Essential 7Hz

      Physiological 10Hz

      Psychogenic variable

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
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  • Question 165 - A patient in their 60s taking an antipsychotic is found to have a...

    Incorrect

    • A patient in their 60s taking an antipsychotic is found to have a QTc of 490ms. What would be the most appropriate alternative to their current antipsychotic medication?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Aripiprazole

      Explanation:

      Amantadine and QTc Prolongation

      Amantadine is a medication used to treat Parkinson’s disease and influenza. It has been associated with QTc prolongation, which can increase the risk of Torsades de points. Therefore, caution should be exercised when prescribing amantadine to patients with risk factors for QT prolongation. If a patient is already taking amantadine and develops a prolonged QTc interval, the medication should be discontinued and an alternative treatment considered. It is important to monitor the QTc interval in patients taking amantadine, especially those with risk factors for QT prolongation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 166 - What was the name of the influential book authored by Michael Balint? ...

    Incorrect

    • What was the name of the influential book authored by Michael Balint?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The Doctor, His Patient and The Illness

      Explanation:

      Michael Balint’s book ‘The Doctor, His Patient and the Illness’ was published in 1957 and focused on psychodynamic factors in medical consultations. Balint also played a key role in establishing ‘Balint groups’ for discussing these factors. Aldous Huxley’s ‘Brave New World’ is a well-known novel. While countertransference is a significant topic in Balint’s work, it is not the title of a book. Psychiatrist Peter D Kramer wrote ‘Listening to Prozac’, and Sigmund Freud authored ‘Totem and Taboo’.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • History Of Psychiatry
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  • Question 167 - A 35 year old woman has been referred to your clinic with suspected...

    Incorrect

    • A 35 year old woman has been referred to your clinic with suspected functional paralysis of the left leg. When you ask her to raise her unaffected leg while lying flat on the bed, you feel her pushing down on your hand as you place it under her affected leg.
      What sign has been demonstrated?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hoover's sign

      Explanation:

      – A Battle’s sign is a physical indication of a basal skull fracture.
      – Babinski’s sign is a clinical sign that suggests an upper motor neuron lesion.
      – Kernig’s sign is a clinical sign that indicates meningeal irritation.
      – Russell’s sign is characterized by scarring on the knuckles and back of the hand, and it is indicative of repeated induced vomiting.

      Hoover’s Sign for Differentiating Organic and Functional Weakness

      Functional weakness refers to weakness that is inconsistent with any identifiable neurological disease and may be diagnosed as conversion disorder of dissociative motor disorder. To differentiate between organic and functional weakness of pyramidal origin, Dr. Charles Franklin Hoover described Hoover’s sign over 100 years ago.

      This test is typically performed on the lower limbs and is useful when the nature of hemiparesis is uncertain. When a person with organic hemiparesis is asked to flex the hip of their normal leg against resistance, they will not exert pressure on the examiner’s hand placed under the heel on the affected side. However, in hysterical weakness, the examiner will feel increased pressure on their hand. Hoover’s sign is a valuable tool for distinguishing between organic and functional weakness.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
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  • Question 168 - Which ethical code was the first to emphasize the importance of obtaining the...

    Incorrect

    • Which ethical code was the first to emphasize the importance of obtaining the human subject's voluntary consent in research?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The Nuremberg code

      Explanation:

      The Nuremberg Code and its Significance in Medical Ethics

      The Nuremberg Code is a set of ethical guidelines that resulted from the trial of German physicians accused of war crimes and crimes against humanity in 1946. The physicians were charged with conducting medical experiments on concentration camp prisoners without their consent. This led to the creation of the Nuremberg Code, which was the first international document to advocate for voluntary participation and informed consent in medical experimentation.

      The Nuremberg Code has since become a cornerstone of medical ethics and has been adopted by many countries and organizations around the world. It emphasizes the importance of protecting the rights and welfare of human subjects in medical research and requires that any experimentation be conducted with the voluntary and informed consent of the participants.

      The significance of the Nuremberg Code cannot be overstated, as it has helped to shape the way medical research is conducted and has led to greater awareness and respect for the rights of human subjects. It serves as a reminder of the atrocities committed during the Holocaust and the importance of ethical considerations in medical research.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
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  • Question 169 - In a patient with chronic schizophrenia on a stable dose of 2mg risperidone...

    Incorrect

    • In a patient with chronic schizophrenia on a stable dose of 2mg risperidone for 2 years, who develops worsening symptoms and is given an increased dose of 4 mg risperidone, what is the most likely cause of his current presentation of stiffness, fever, breathlessness, and sweating?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Neuroleptic malignant syndrome

      Explanation:

      Serotonin Syndrome and Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome are two conditions that can be difficult to differentiate. Serotonin Syndrome is caused by excess serotonergic activity in the CNS and is characterized by neuromuscular abnormalities, altered mental state, and autonomic dysfunction. On the other hand, Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome is a rare acute disorder of thermoregulation and neuromotor control that is almost exclusively caused by antipsychotics. The symptoms of both syndromes can overlap, but there are some distinguishing clinical features. Hyper-reflexia, ocular clonus, and tremors are more prominent in Serotonin Syndrome, while Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome is characterized by uniform ‘lead-pipe’ rigidity and hyporeflexia. Symptoms of Serotonin Syndrome usually resolve within a few days of stopping the medication, while Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome can take up to 14 days to remit with appropriate treatment. The following table provides a useful guide to the main differentials of Serotonin Syndrome and Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 170 - What substance do bodybuilders misuse in order to increase their overall body mass?...

    Incorrect

    • What substance do bodybuilders misuse in order to increase their overall body mass?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Insulin

      Explanation:

      Anabolic Steroids: Uses, Misuse, and Complications

      Anabolic steroids are synthetic derivatives of testosterone that have both anabolic and androgenic properties. They are commonly used by athletes to enhance performance and by individuals to improve physical appearance. However, their misuse is not uncommon, with nearly half of users of dedicated bodybuilding gyms admitting to taking anabolic agents. Misuse can lead to dependence, tolerance, and the development of psychiatric disorders such as aggression, psychosis, mania, and depression/anxiety.

      There are three common regimes practised by steroid misusers: ‘cycling’, ‘stacking’ and ‘pyramiding’. Anabolic steroids can be taken orally, injected intramuscularly, and applied topically in the form of creams and gels. Other drugs are also used by athletes, such as clenbuterol, ephedrine, thyroxine, insulin, tamoxifen, human chorionic Gonadotropin, diuretics, and growth hormone.

      Medical complications are common and can affect various systems, such as the musculoskeletal, cardiovascular, hepatic, reproductive (males and females), dermatological, and other systems. Complications include muscular hypertrophy, increased blood pressure, decreased high-density lipoprotein cholesterol and increased low-density lipoprotein cholesterol, cholestatic jaundice, benign and malignant liver tumours, testicular atrophy, sterility, gynaecomastia, breast tissue shrinkage, menstrual abnormalities, masculinisation, male-pattern baldness, acne, sleep apnoea, exacerbation of tic disorders, polycythaemia, altered immunity, and glucose intolerance.

      Anabolic steroids are a class C controlled drug and can only be obtained legally through a medical prescription. It is important to educate individuals about the risks and complications associated with their misuse and to promote safe and legal use.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Psychopharmacology (9/24) 38%
Neurosciences (7/16) 44%
Classification And Assessment (7/16) 44%
Social Psychology (4/15) 27%
Stigma And Culture (0/2) 0%
Psychological Development (2/8) 25%
Basic Psychological Processes (1/1) 100%
Epidemiology (0/2) 0%
Genetics (2/6) 33%
History Of Psychiatry (0/1) 0%
Neurological Examination (0/1) 0%
Descriptive Psychopathology (0/1) 0%
Advanced Psychological Processes And Treatments (0/1) 0%
Basic Ethics And Philosophy Of Psychiatry (1/2) 50%
Assessment (1/2) 50%
Diagnosis (1/1) 100%
Description And Measurement (0/1) 0%
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