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  • Question 1 - A 45-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of sudden pain in his...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of sudden pain in his left scrotum and fever for the past 5 days. Upon examination, the epididymis is swollen and tender, and the skin over the scrotum is red and warm. The pain is relieved when the scrotum is elevated. The patient has no known allergies to medications.
      What is the most suitable treatment for this patient?

      Your Answer: Ceftriaxone plus doxycycline

      Correct Answer: Ofloxacin

      Explanation:

      Epididymo-orchitis refers to the inflammation of the epididymis and/or testicle. It typically presents with sudden pain, swelling, and inflammation in the affected area. This condition can also occur chronically, which means that the pain and inflammation last for more than six months.

      The causes of epididymo-orchitis vary depending on the age of the patient. In men under 35 years old, the infection is usually sexually transmitted and caused by Chlamydia trachomatis or Neisseria gonorrhoeae. In men over 35 years old, the infection is usually non-sexually transmitted and occurs as a result of enteric organisms that cause urinary tract infections, with Escherichia coli being the most common. However, there can be some overlap between these groups, so it is important to obtain a thorough sexual history in all age groups.

      Mumps should also be considered as a potential cause of epididymo-orchitis in the 15 to 30 age group, as mumps orchitis occurs in around 40% of post-pubertal boys with mumps.

      While most cases of epididymo-orchitis are infective, non-infectious causes can also occur. These include genito-urinary surgery, vasectomy, urinary catheterization, Behcet’s disease, sarcoidosis, and drug-induced cases such as those caused by amiodarone.

      Patients with epididymo-orchitis typically present with unilateral scrotal pain and swelling that develops relatively quickly. The affected testis will be tender to touch, and there is usually a palpable swelling of the epididymis that starts at the lower pole of the testis and spreads towards the upper pole. The testis itself may also be involved, and there may be redness and/or swelling of the scrotum on the affected side. Patients may experience fever and urethral discharge as well.

      The most important differential diagnosis to consider is testicular torsion, which requires immediate medical attention within 6 hours of onset to save the testicle. Testicular torsion is more likely in men under the age of 20, especially if the pain is very severe and sudden. It typically presents around four hours after onset. In this case, the patient’s age, longer history of symptoms, and the presence of fever are more indicative of epididymo-orchitis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Urology
      55.6
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  • Question 2 - A 68-year-old individual reports feeling unwell after having their dislocated shoulder reduced while...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old individual reports feeling unwell after having their dislocated shoulder reduced while under sedation. You decide to prescribe ondansetron. What is the mechanism of action of ondansetron?

      Your Answer: 5-HT3 receptor agonist

      Correct Answer: 5-HT3 receptor antagonist

      Explanation:

      Ondansetron is a medication that works by blocking serotonin receptors in the body. It is commonly used as a first-line treatment for postoperative nausea and vomiting (PONV), which can occur after procedures done under sedation or anesthesia.

      Further Reading:

      postoperative nausea and vomiting (PONV) is a common occurrence following procedures performed under sedation or anesthesia. It can be highly distressing for patients. Several risk factors have been identified for PONV, including female gender, a history of PONV or motion sickness, non-smoking status, patient age, use of volatile anesthetics, longer duration of anesthesia, perioperative opioid use, use of nitrous oxide, and certain types of surgery such as abdominal and gynecological procedures.

      To manage PONV, antiemetics are commonly used. These medications work by targeting different receptors in the body. Cyclizine and promethazine are histamine H1-receptor antagonists, which block the action of histamine and help reduce nausea and vomiting. Ondansetron is a serotonin 5-HT3 receptor antagonist, which blocks the action of serotonin and is effective in preventing and treating PONV. Prochlorperazine is a dopamine D2 receptor antagonist, which blocks the action of dopamine and helps alleviate symptoms of nausea and vomiting. Metoclopramide is also a dopamine D2 receptor antagonist and a 5-HT3 receptor antagonist, providing dual action against PONV. It is also a 5-HT4 receptor agonist, which helps improve gastric emptying and reduces the risk of PONV.

      Assessment and management of PONV involves a comprehensive approach. Healthcare professionals need to assess the patient’s risk factors for PONV and take appropriate measures to prevent its occurrence. This may include selecting the appropriate anesthesia technique, using antiemetics prophylactically, and providing adequate pain control. In cases where PONV does occur, prompt treatment with antiemetics should be initiated to alleviate symptoms and provide relief to the patient. Close monitoring of the patient’s condition and response to treatment is essential to ensure effective management of PONV.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Anaesthetics
      41.7
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  • Question 3 - A 45-year-old woman is admitted to the hospital with a high temperature, cough,...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old woman is admitted to the hospital with a high temperature, cough, and difficulty breathing. After conducting additional tests, she is diagnosed with a notifiable illness. You fill out the notification form and get in touch with the local health protection team.
      Which of the following is the LEAST probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Influenza

      Explanation:

      Public Health England (PHE) has a primary goal of swiftly identifying potential disease outbreaks and epidemics. While accuracy of diagnosis is important, it takes a backseat to the speed of detection. Since 1968, the clinical suspicion of a notifiable infection has been sufficient for reporting purposes.

      Registered medical practitioners (RMPs) are legally obligated to notify the designated proper officer at their local council or local health protection team (HPT) when they suspect cases of certain infectious diseases.

      The Health Protection (Notification) Regulations 2010 specify the diseases that RMPs must report to the proper officers. These diseases include acute encephalitis, acute infectious hepatitis, acute meningitis, acute poliomyelitis, anthrax, botulism, brucellosis, cholera, COVID-19, diphtheria, enteric fever (typhoid or paratyphoid fever), food poisoning, haemolytic uraemic syndrome (HUS), infectious bloody diarrhoea, invasive group A streptococcal disease, Legionnaires’ disease, leprosy, malaria, measles, meningococcal septicaemia, mumps, plague, rabies, rubella, severe acute respiratory syndrome (SARS), scarlet fever, smallpox, tetanus, tuberculosis, typhus, viral haemorrhagic fever (VHF), whooping cough, and yellow fever.

      It is worth noting that influenza is not considered a notifiable disease, making it the least likely option among the diseases listed above.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      47.1
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  • Question 4 - A child under your supervision is diagnosed with a reportable illness.
    Which of the...

    Correct

    • A child under your supervision is diagnosed with a reportable illness.
      Which of the following is NOT currently a reportable illness?

      Your Answer: HIV

      Explanation:

      HIV is currently not considered a notifiable disease. The Health Protection (Notification) Regulations require the reporting of certain diseases, but HIV is not included in this list. The diseases that are currently considered notifiable include acute encephalitis, acute infectious hepatitis, acute meningitis, acute poliomyelitis, anthrax, botulism, brucellosis, cholera, COVID-19, diphtheria, enteric fever (typhoid or paratyphoid fever), food poisoning, haemolytic uraemic syndrome (HUS), infectious bloody diarrhea, invasive group A streptococcal disease, Legionnaires’ Disease, leprosy, malaria, measles, meningococcal septicaemia, mumps, plague, rabies, rubella, SARS, scarlet fever, smallpox, tetanus, tuberculosis, typhus, viral haemorrhagic fever (VHF), whooping cough, and yellow fever. If you want to learn more about notifiable diseases and the organisms that cause them, you can refer to the Notifiable diseases and causative organisms: how to report resource.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      25.1
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - There has been a car accident involving multiple individuals near the school where...

    Incorrect

    • There has been a car accident involving multiple individuals near the school where you are currently teaching. You are working as part of the team conducting initial triage at the scene of the incident.

      Which of the following statements about initial triage at the scene of a major incident is accurate?

      Your Answer: P2 patients are colour coded green

      Correct Answer: P3 patients will need medical treatment, but this can safely be delayed

      Explanation:

      Triage is a crucial process that involves determining the priority of patients’ treatment based on the severity of their condition and their chances of recovery. Its purpose is to ensure that limited resources are used efficiently, maximizing the number of lives saved. During a major incident, primary triage takes place in the bronze area, which is located within the inner cordon.

      In the context of a major incident, priorities are assigned numbers from 1 to 3, with 1 being the highest priority. These priorities are also color-coded for easy identification:
      – P1: Immediate priority. This category includes patients who require immediate life-saving intervention to prevent death. They are color-coded red.
      – P2: Intermediate priority. Patients in this group also require significant interventions, but their treatment can be delayed for a few hours. They are color-coded yellow.
      – P3: Delayed priority. Patients in this category require medical treatment, but it can be safely delayed. This category also includes walking wounded individuals. The classification as P3 is based on the motor score of the Glasgow Coma Scale, which predicts a favorable outcome. They are color-coded green.

      The fourth classification is for deceased individuals. It is important to identify and classify them to prevent the unnecessary use of limited resources on those who cannot be helped. Dead bodies should be left in their current location, both to avoid wasting resources and because the area may be considered a crime scene. Deceased individuals are color-coded black.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Major Incident Management & PHEM
      243.2
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  • Question 6 - A 68 year old female visits the emergency department with complaints of lower...

    Incorrect

    • A 68 year old female visits the emergency department with complaints of lower abdominal pain and a strong urge to urinate but an inability to do so. Upon examination, the patient's bladder is easily palpable and a diagnosis of acute urinary retention is made. To determine if any medications may be contributing to the condition, you inquire about the patient's drug history. Which of the following drug classes is NOT known to cause urinary retention?

      Your Answer: Calcium channel antagonists

      Correct Answer: 5α-reductase inhibitors

      Explanation:

      Urinary retention can be caused by various drug classes. One such class is 5α-reductase inhibitors like finasteride, which are prescribed to alleviate obstructive symptoms caused by an enlarged prostate. Some commonly known drugs that can lead to urinary retention include alcohol, anticholinergics, decongestants (such as phenylephrine and pseudoephedrine), disopyramide, antihistamines (like diphenhydramine and phenergan), and amphetamines.

      Further Reading:

      Urinary retention is the inability to completely or partially empty the bladder. It is commonly seen in elderly males with prostate enlargement and acute retention. Symptoms of acute urinary retention include the inability to void, inability to empty the bladder, overflow incontinence, and suprapubic discomfort. Chronic urinary retention, on the other hand, is typically painless but can lead to complications such as hydronephrosis and renal impairment.

      There are various causes of urinary retention, including anatomical factors such as urethral stricture, bladder neck contracture, and prostate enlargement. Functional causes can include neurogenic bladder, neurological diseases like multiple sclerosis and Parkinson’s, and spinal cord injury. Certain drugs can also contribute to urinary retention, such as anticholinergics, opioids, and tricyclic antidepressants. In female patients, specific causes like organ prolapse, pelvic mass, and gravid uterus should be considered.

      The pathophysiology of acute urinary retention can involve factors like increased resistance to flow, detrusor muscle dysfunction, bladder overdistension, and drugs that affect bladder tone. The primary management intervention for acute urinary retention is the insertion of a urinary catheter. If a catheter cannot be passed through the urethra, a suprapubic catheter can be inserted. Post-catheterization residual volume should be measured, and renal function should be assessed through U&Es and urine culture. Further evaluation and follow-up with a urologist are typically arranged, and additional tests like ultrasound may be performed if necessary. It is important to note that PSA testing is often deferred for at least two weeks after catheter insertion and female patients with retention should also be referred to urology for investigation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Urology
      85
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  • Question 7 - A 25-year-old soccer player comes in with a pustular red rash on his...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old soccer player comes in with a pustular red rash on his thigh and groin region. There are vesicles present at the borders of the rash. What is the MOST suitable treatment for this condition?

      Your Answer: Topical fusidic acid

      Correct Answer: Topical clotrimazole

      Explanation:

      Tinea cruris, commonly known as ‘jock itch’, is a fungal infection that affects the groin area. It is primarily caused by Trichophyton rubrum and is more prevalent in young men, particularly athletes. The typical symptoms include a reddish or brownish rash that is accompanied by intense itching. Pustules and vesicles may also develop, and there is often a raised border with a clear center. Notably, the infection usually does not affect the penis and scrotum.

      It is worth mentioning that patients with tinea cruris often have concurrent tinea pedis, also known as athlete’s foot, which may have served as the source of the infection. The infection can be transmitted through sharing towels or by using towels that have come into contact with infected feet, leading to the spread of the fungus to the groin area.

      Fortunately, treatment for tinea cruris typically involves the use of topical imidazole creams, such as clotrimazole. This is usually sufficient to alleviate the symptoms and eradicate the infection. Alternatively, terbinafine cream can be used as an alternative treatment option.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      96.9
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  • Question 8 - A 68-year-old woman with a history of chronic anemia receives a blood transfusion...

    Correct

    • A 68-year-old woman with a history of chronic anemia receives a blood transfusion as part of her treatment plan. She has a known history of heart failure and takes bisoprolol and furosemide. Her most recent BNP level was measured at 123 pmol/l. Five hours after starting the transfusion, she experiences shortness of breath and her existing peripheral edema worsens. Her blood pressure increases to 170/105 mmHg and her BNP level is rechecked, now measuring 192 pmol/l.

      Which of the following treatment options is the most appropriate?

      Your Answer: Slow the transfusion rate and administer diuretics

      Explanation:

      Blood transfusion is a potentially life-saving treatment that can provide great clinical benefits. However, it also carries several risks and potential problems. These include immunological complications, administration errors, infections, and immune dilution. While there has been an increased awareness of these risks and improved reporting systems, transfusion errors and serious adverse reactions still occur and may go unreported.

      One specific transfusion reaction is transfusion-associated circulatory overload (TACO), which occurs when a large volume of blood is rapidly infused. It is the second leading cause of transfusion-related deaths, accounting for about 20% of fatalities. TACO is more likely to occur in patients with diminished cardiac reserve or chronic anemia, particularly in the elderly, infants, and severely anemic patients.

      The typical clinical features of TACO include acute respiratory distress, tachycardia, hypertension, acute or worsening pulmonary edema on chest X-ray, and evidence of positive fluid balance. The B-type natriuretic peptide (BNP) can be a useful diagnostic tool for TACO, with levels usually elevated to at least 1.5 times the pre-transfusion baseline.

      In many cases, simply slowing the transfusion rate, placing the patient in an upright position, and administering diuretics can be sufficient for managing TACO. In more severe cases, the transfusion should be stopped, and non-invasive ventilation may be considered.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      121.5
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 45-year-old Irish woman comes to you with a complaint of increasing shortness...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old Irish woman comes to you with a complaint of increasing shortness of breath. During the interview, she mentions that she has been experiencing joint pain and painful skin lesions on her shins for the past few months. A chest X-ray is performed and shows bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy.
      What is the SINGLE most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Cystic fibrosis

      Correct Answer: Sarcoidosis

      Explanation:

      The patient presents with a medical history and physical examination findings that are consistent with a diagnosis of Löfgren’s syndrome, which is a specific subtype of sarcoidosis. This syndrome is most commonly observed in women in their 30s and 40s, and it is more prevalent among individuals of Nordic and Irish descent.

      Löfgren’s syndrome is typically characterized by a triad of clinical features, including bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy seen on chest X-ray, erythema nodosum, and arthralgia, with a particular emphasis on ankle involvement. Additionally, other symptoms commonly associated with sarcoidosis may also be present, such as a dry cough, breathlessness, fever, night sweats, malaise, weight loss, Achilles tendonitis, and uveitis.

      In order to further evaluate this patient’s condition, it is recommended to refer them to a respiratory specialist for additional investigations. These investigations may include measuring the serum calcium level, as it may be elevated, and assessing the serum angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) level, which may also be elevated. A high-resolution CT scan can be performed to assess the extent of involvement and identify specific lymph nodes for potential biopsy. If there are any atypical features, a lymph node biopsy may be necessary. Lung function tests can be conducted to evaluate the patient’s vital capacity, and an MRI scan of the ankles may also be considered.

      Fortunately, the prognosis for Löfgren’s syndrome is generally very good, and it is considered a self-limiting and benign condition. The patient can expect to recover within a timeframe of six months to two years.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      151.9
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 68 year old is brought into the emergency department by his worried...

    Correct

    • A 68 year old is brought into the emergency department by his worried husband. The patient's husband informs you that the patient appears to be more disoriented than usual and is experiencing excessive daytime sleepiness. He mentions that the patient was diagnosed with Alzheimer's disease approximately half a year ago. What is the most accurate description of the underlying pathology in Alzheimer's disease?

      Your Answer: Beta-amyloid plaques and neurofibrillary tangles

      Explanation:

      Alzheimer’s disease, the leading cause of dementia, is characterized by the presence of beta-amyloid plaques and neurofibrillary tangles in the brain. These plaques are formed due to an excessive buildup of amyloid, which can be caused by either overproduction or impaired clearance of beta-amyloid. The accumulation of amyloid plaques leads to inflammation in the surrounding brain tissue, resulting in damage to neurons. Additionally, the abnormal phosphorylation of tau protein causes it to aggregate into neurofibrillary tangles within neurons. It is important to note that Lewy bodies, composed mainly of alpha-synuclein, are associated with diseases like Parkinson’s disease and dementia with Lewy bodies. Autoimmune diseases often involve the activation of autoreactive T-cells.

      Further Reading:

      Dementia is a progressive and irreversible clinical syndrome characterized by cognitive and behavioral symptoms. These symptoms include memory loss, impaired reasoning and communication, personality changes, and reduced ability to carry out daily activities. The decline in cognition affects multiple domains of intellectual functioning and is not solely due to normal aging.

      To diagnose dementia, a person must have impairment in at least two cognitive domains that significantly impact their daily activities. This impairment cannot be explained by delirium or other major psychiatric disorders. Early-onset dementia refers to dementia that develops before the age of 65.

      The most common cause of dementia is Alzheimer’s disease, accounting for 50-75% of cases. Other causes include vascular dementia, dementia with Lewy bodies, and frontotemporal dementia. Less common causes include Parkinson’s disease dementia, Huntington’s disease, prion disease, and metabolic and endocrine disorders.

      There are several risk factors for dementia, including age, mild cognitive impairment, genetic predisposition, excess alcohol intake, head injury, depression, learning difficulties, diabetes, obesity, hypertension, smoking, Parkinson’s disease, low social engagement, low physical activity, low educational attainment, hearing impairment, and air pollution.

      Assessment of dementia involves taking a history from the patient and ideally a family member or close friend. The person’s current level of cognition and functional capabilities should be compared to their baseline level. Physical examination, blood tests, and cognitive assessment tools can also aid in the diagnosis.

      Differential diagnosis for dementia includes normal age-related memory changes, mild cognitive impairment, depression, delirium, vitamin deficiencies, hypothyroidism, adverse drug effects, normal pressure hydrocephalus, and sensory deficits.

      Management of dementia involves a multi-disciplinary approach that includes non-pharmacological and pharmacological measures. Non-pharmacological interventions may include driving assessment, modifiable risk factor management, and non-pharmacological therapies to promote cognition and independence. Drug treatments for dementia should be initiated by specialists and may include acetylcholinesterase inhibitors, memantine, and antipsychotics in certain cases.

      In summary, dementia is a progressive and irreversible syndrome characterized by cognitive and behavioral symptoms. It has various causes and risk factors, and its management involves a multi-disciplinary approach.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 11 - A 32-year-old man has ingested an excessive amount of medication. He experiences nausea,...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old man has ingested an excessive amount of medication. He experiences nausea, perspiration, and ringing in the ears. His arterial blood gas reveals a respiratory alkalosis, and his ECG displays an elongation of the QRS complex.
      Which drug is he most likely to have overdosed on?

      Your Answer: Aspirin

      Explanation:

      Salicylate poisoning is a fairly common form of poisoning that can lead to organ damage and death if not treated promptly. Some common symptoms include nausea, vomiting, ringing in the ears, hearing loss, excessive sweating, and dehydration. Additionally, individuals may experience rapid breathing, flushed skin, and high fever, particularly in children. In severe cases, convulsions, swelling of the brain, coma, kidney failure, fluid accumulation in the lungs unrelated to heart problems, and unstable cardiovascular function may occur.

      Early on in the overdose, arterial blood gas analysis typically reveals a respiratory alkalosis due to overstimulation of the respiratory center. As the overdose progresses, especially in moderate to severe cases, a metabolic acidosis with an increased anion gap may develop as a result of elevated levels of protons in the blood.

      Electrocardiogram (ECG) abnormalities that may be observed include widening of the QRS complex, atrioventricular (AV) block, and ventricular arrhythmias.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
      58.2
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  • Question 12 - A 35-year-old male presents to the emergency department complaining of gradual onset sharp...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old male presents to the emergency department complaining of gradual onset sharp chest pain over the past 24 hours. The patient reports that the pain worsens with deep inspiration and feels more comfortable when sitting leaning forward. When asked about pain radiation, the patient confirms that the pain extends to the left side of the neck and points to the ridge of the trapezius. Physical examination reveals clear lung fields, regular rhythm with quiet heart sounds, and no murmurs. The patient's vital signs are as follows:

      Blood pressure: 108/66 mmHg
      Pulse rate: 94 bpm
      Respiratory rate: 18 rpm
      Temperature: 37.3ºC
      Oxygen saturations: 97% on room air

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Acute pericarditis

      Explanation:

      Radiation to the trapezius ridge is a distinct symptom of acute pericarditis. The patient in question exhibits characteristics that align with a diagnosis of pericarditis. Pericarditis is a common condition affecting the pericardium, and it is often considered as a potential cause for chest pain. It is worth noting that the specific radiation of pain to the trapezius ridge is highly indicative of pericarditis, as it occurs when the phrenic nerve, which also innervates the trapezius muscle, becomes irritated while passing through the pericardium.

      Further Reading:

      Pericarditis is an inflammation of the pericardium, which is the protective sac around the heart. It can be acute, lasting less than 6 weeks, and may present with chest pain, cough, dyspnea, flu-like symptoms, and a pericardial rub. The most common causes of pericarditis include viral infections, tuberculosis, bacterial infections, uremia, trauma, and autoimmune diseases. However, in many cases, the cause remains unknown. Diagnosis is based on clinical features, such as chest pain, pericardial friction rub, and electrocardiographic changes. Treatment involves symptom relief with nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs), and patients should avoid strenuous activity until symptoms improve. Complicated cases may require treatment for the underlying cause, and large pericardial effusions may need urgent drainage. In cases of purulent effusions, antibiotic therapy is necessary, and steroid therapy may be considered for pericarditis related to autoimmune disorders or if NSAIDs alone are ineffective.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 13 - A 40-year-old carpenter comes in with a few weeks of persistent lower back...

    Correct

    • A 40-year-old carpenter comes in with a few weeks of persistent lower back pain. Despite taking the maximum dose of ibuprofen, the pain continues to be significant. What would be the most suitable course of treatment? Choose only ONE option.

      Your Answer: Low-dose codeine phosphate

      Explanation:

      The current guidelines from NICE provide recommendations for managing low back pain. It is suggested to consider using oral non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) such as ibuprofen, while taking into account the potential risks of gastrointestinal, liver, and cardio-renal toxicity, as well as the person’s individual risk factors and age. When prescribing oral NSAIDs, it is important to conduct appropriate clinical assessments, monitor risk factors regularly, and consider the use of gastroprotective treatment. It is advised to prescribe the lowest effective dose of oral NSAIDs for the shortest duration possible. In cases where NSAIDs are contraindicated, not tolerated, or ineffective, weak opioids (with or without paracetamol) may be considered for managing acute low back pain. However, NICE does not recommend the use of paracetamol alone, opioids for chronic low back pain, serotonin reuptake inhibitors, serotonin-noradrenaline reuptake inhibitors, tricyclic antidepressants for non-neuropathic pain, anticonvulsants, or benzodiazepines for muscle spasm associated with acute low back pain. For more information, you can refer to the NICE guidance on low back pain and sciatica in individuals over 16 years old, as well as the NICE Clinical Knowledge Summary on low back pain without radiculopathy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal (non-traumatic)
      70.6
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  • Question 14 - A middle-aged individual with a history of intravenous drug use and unstable housing...

    Correct

    • A middle-aged individual with a history of intravenous drug use and unstable housing presents with extremely intense back pain, elevated body temperature, and weakness in the left leg. The patient has experienced multiple episodes of nighttime pain and is struggling to walk. During the examination, tenderness is noted in the lower lumbar spine, along with weakness in left knee extension and foot dorsiflexion.

      What is the preferred diagnostic test to definitively confirm the diagnosis?

      Your Answer: MRI scan spine

      Explanation:

      Discitis is an infection that affects the space between the intervertebral discs in the spine. This condition can have serious consequences, including the formation of abscesses and sepsis. The most common cause of discitis is usually Staphylococcus aureus, but other organisms like Streptococcus viridans and Pseudomonas aeruginosa may be responsible in intravenous drug users and those with weakened immune systems. Gram-negative organisms such as Escherichia coli and Mycobacterium tuberculosis can also cause discitis.

      There are several risk factors that increase the likelihood of developing discitis. These include having undergone spinal surgery (which occurs in 1-2% of cases post-operatively), having an immunodeficiency, being an intravenous drug user, being under the age of eight, having diabetes mellitus, or having a malignancy.

      The typical symptoms of discitis include back or neck pain (which occurs in over 90% of cases), pain that often wakes the patient from sleep, fever (present in 60-70% of cases), and neurological deficits (which can occur in up to 50% of cases). In children, refusal to walk may also be a symptom.

      When diagnosing discitis, MRI is the preferred imaging modality due to its high sensitivity and specificity. It is important to image the entire spine, as discitis often affects multiple levels. Plain radiographs are not very sensitive to the early changes of discitis and may appear normal for 2-4 weeks. CT scanning is also not very sensitive in detecting discitis.

      Treatment for discitis involves admission to the hospital for intravenous antibiotics. Before starting the antibiotics, it is important to send three sets of blood cultures and a full set of blood tests, including a CRP, to the lab. The choice of antibiotics depends on the specific situation. A typical antibiotic regimen for discitis may include IV flucloxacillin as the first-line treatment if there is no penicillin allergy, IV vancomycin if the infection was acquired in the hospital or there is a high risk of MRSA, and possibly IV gentamicin if there is a possibility of a Gram-negative infection. In cases where there is acute kidney injury and Gram-negative cover is required, IV piperacillin-tazobactam alone may be used.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal (non-traumatic)
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  • Question 15 - A 35-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of a persistent dry cough...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of a persistent dry cough and fever for the past few days. She has noticed that her cough does not produce any phlegm. Today, she has also experienced multiple episodes of diarrhea and has developed sharp chest pain on both sides. She mentions feeling short of breath, especially when she exerts herself. She works as a Jacuzzi and whirlpool installer and smokes 10 cigarettes per day.

      What is the SINGLE most probable causative organism in this scenario?

      Your Answer: Mycoplasma pneumoniae

      Correct Answer: Legionella pneumophila

      Explanation:

      Legionella pneumophila, a Gram-negative bacterium, can be found in natural water supplies and soil. It is responsible for causing Legionnaires’ disease, a serious illness. Outbreaks of this disease have been associated with poorly maintained air conditioning systems, whirlpool spas, and hot tubs.

      The pneumonic form of Legionnaires’ disease presents with specific clinical features. Initially, there may be a mild flu-like prodrome lasting for 1-3 days. A non-productive cough, occurring in approximately 90% of cases, is also common. Pleuritic chest pain, haemoptysis, headache, nausea, vomiting, diarrhoea, and anorexia are other symptoms that may be experienced.

      Fortunately, Legionella pneumophila infections can be effectively treated with macrolide antibiotics like erythromycin, or quinolones such as ciprofloxacin. Tetracyclines, including doxycycline, can also be used as a treatment option.

      While the majority of Legionnaires’ disease cases are caused by Legionella pneumophila, there are several other species of Legionella that have been identified. One such species is Legionella longbeachae, which is less commonly encountered. It is primarily found in soil and potting compost and has been associated with outbreaks of Pontiac fever, a milder variant of Legionnaires’ disease that does not primarily affect the respiratory system.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      118.5
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  • Question 16 - A 60-year-old man presents with fatigue, excessive sweating at night, and easy bruising....

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old man presents with fatigue, excessive sweating at night, and easy bruising. During the examination, splenomegaly is observed. The blood test results are as follows:
      - Hemoglobin (Hb): 8.9 g/dl (normal range: 11.5-15.5 g/dl)
      - Mean Corpuscular Volume (MCV): 87 fl (normal range: 80-100 fl)
      - White Cell Count (WCC): 134.6 x 109/l (normal range: 4-11 x 109/l)
      - Neutrophils: 107 x 109/l (normal range: 2-7.5 x 109/l)
      - Platelets: 223 x 109/l (normal range: 150-400 x 109/l)
      - Philadelphia chromosome: positive

      What is the most likely diagnosis in this case?

      Your Answer: Acute myeloid leukaemia (AML)

      Correct Answer: Chronic myeloid leukaemia (CML)

      Explanation:

      Chronic myeloid leukaemia (CML) is a type of blood disorder that arises from an abnormal pluripotent haemopoietic stem cell. The majority of CML cases, more than 80%, are caused by a cytogenetic abnormality called the Philadelphia chromosome. This abnormality occurs when there is a reciprocal translocation between the long arms of chromosomes 9 and 22.

      CML typically develops slowly over a period of several years, known as the chronic stage. During this stage, patients usually do not experience any symptoms, and it is often discovered incidentally through routine blood tests. Around 90% of CML cases are diagnosed during this stage. In the bone marrow, less than 10% of the white cells are immature blasts.

      Symptoms start to appear when the CML cells begin to expand, which is known as the accelerated stage. Approximately 10% of cases are diagnosed during this stage. Between 10 and 30% of the blood cells in the bone marrow are blasts at this point. Common clinical features during this stage include tiredness, fatigue, fever, night sweats, abdominal distension, left upper quadrant pain (splenic infarction), splenomegaly (enlarged spleen), hepatomegaly (enlarged liver), easy bruising, gout (due to rapid cell turnover), and hyperviscosity (which can lead to complications like stroke, priapism, etc.).

      In some cases, a small number of patients may present with a blast crisis, also known as the blast stage. During this stage, more than 30% of the blood cells in the bone marrow are immature blast cells. Patients in this stage are generally very ill, experiencing severe constitutional symptoms such as fever, weight loss, and bone pain, as well as infections and bleeding tendencies.

      Laboratory findings in CML include a significantly elevated white cell count (often greater than 100 x 109/l), a left shift with an increased number of immature leukocytes, mild to moderate normochromic, normocytic anaemia, variable platelet counts (low, normal, or elevated), presence of the Philadelphia chromosome in more than 80% of cases, and elevated levels of serum uric acid and alkaline phosphatase.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      57.5
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 45-year-old woman comes in with a temporary vision loss in her right...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old woman comes in with a temporary vision loss in her right eye half an hour after a yoga session. She had observed flickering lights in the eye before the incident and also experienced a headache that persisted for a few hours. Her visual symptoms disappeared after 45 minutes, but she still experiences slight nausea.

      What is the SINGLE most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Amaurosis fugax

      Correct Answer: Migraine

      Explanation:

      The presentation, in this instance, is consistent with retinal (ocular) migraine. As per the International Headache Society, the primary clinical features of retinal migraine include an expanding blind-spot in the center of vision, flickering or flashing lights, temporary loss of vision in one eye lasting less than an hour, headache lasting anywhere from 4 to 72 hours (often affecting only one side of the head), nausea and vomiting, sensitivity to light and sound, and a prodrome present in 50-60% of cases. Retinal migraine is relatively uncommon, affecting only 1 in 200 individuals with migraines, and is believed to occur due to the narrowing of blood vessels in the choroidal or retinal arteries. Factors that can trigger retinal migraine include recent intense exercise, changes in posture, and the use of oral contraceptives.

      Acute optic neuritis typically presents with unilateral vision loss that worsens over a couple of weeks and then spontaneously improves within three weeks. This condition is more commonly seen in individuals under the age of 45 and is often accompanied by pain around the eyes that worsens with eye movement. A relative afferent pupillary defect and pallor of the optic disc, visible 4-6 weeks after the onset, are frequently observed. The most common cause of optic neuritis in this age group is acute demyelination.

      Retinal hemorrhage leads to painless vision loss, while acute glaucoma and amaurosis fugax are unlikely to occur in individuals of this age group.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      58.1
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A middle-aged intravenous drug user with an unstable living situation complains of intense...

    Correct

    • A middle-aged intravenous drug user with an unstable living situation complains of intense back pain, fever, and weakness in the left leg. The pain has been disrupting his sleep and making it hard for him to walk. During the examination, tenderness is observed in the lower lumbar spine, and there is weakness in left knee extension and foot dorsiflexion.
      What is the probable organism responsible for these symptoms in this individual?

      Your Answer: Staphylococcus aureus

      Explanation:

      Discitis is an infection that affects the space between the intervertebral discs in the spine. This condition can have serious consequences, including the formation of abscesses and sepsis. The most common cause of discitis is usually Staphylococcus aureus, but other organisms like Streptococcus viridans and Pseudomonas aeruginosa may be responsible in intravenous drug users and those with weakened immune systems. Gram-negative organisms such as Escherichia coli and Mycobacterium tuberculosis can also cause discitis.

      There are several risk factors that increase the likelihood of developing discitis. These include having undergone spinal surgery (which occurs in 1-2% of cases post-operatively), having an immunodeficiency, being an intravenous drug user, being under the age of eight, having diabetes mellitus, or having a malignancy.

      The typical symptoms of discitis include back or neck pain (which occurs in over 90% of cases), pain that often wakes the patient from sleep, fever (present in 60-70% of cases), and neurological deficits (which can occur in up to 50% of cases). In children, refusal to walk may also be a symptom.

      When diagnosing discitis, MRI is the preferred imaging modality due to its high sensitivity and specificity. It is important to image the entire spine, as discitis often affects multiple levels. Plain radiographs are not very sensitive to the early changes of discitis and may appear normal for 2-4 weeks. CT scanning is also not very sensitive in detecting discitis.

      Treatment for discitis involves admission to the hospital for intravenous antibiotics. Before starting the antibiotics, it is important to send three sets of blood cultures and a full set of blood tests, including a CRP, to the lab. The choice of antibiotics depends on the specific situation. A typical antibiotic regimen for discitis may include IV flucloxacillin as the first-line treatment if there is no penicillin allergy, IV vancomycin if the infection was acquired in the hospital or there is a high risk of MRSA, and possibly IV gentamicin if there is a possibility of a Gram-negative infection. In cases where there is acute kidney injury and Gram-negative cover is required, IV piperacillin-tazobactam alone may be used.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal (non-traumatic)
      70.6
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 14-month-old girl is brought to the Emergency Department by her father. For...

    Correct

    • A 14-month-old girl is brought to the Emergency Department by her father. For the past three days, she has had severe diarrhea. She has had no wet diapers so far today and is lethargic and not her usual self. She was recently weighed by her pediatrician's nurse and was 9 kg. On examination, she has dry mucous membranes and reduced skin turgor, but a normal capillary refill time (CRT) and her vital signs are within normal limits.
      What is her estimated percentage of dehydration?

      Your Answer: 5%

      Explanation:

      Generally speaking, if a child shows clinical signs of dehydration but does not exhibit shock, it can be assumed that they are 5% dehydrated. On the other hand, if shock is also present, it can be assumed that the child is 10% dehydrated or more. To put it in simpler terms, 5% dehydration means that the body has lost 5 grams of fluid per 100 grams of body weight, which is equivalent to 50 milliliters per kilogram of fluid. Similarly, 10% dehydration implies a loss of 100 milliliters per kilogram of fluid.

      The clinical features of dehydration are summarized below:

      Dehydration (5%):
      – The child appears unwell
      – The heart rate may be normal or increased (tachycardia)
      – The respiratory rate may be normal or increased (tachypnea)
      – Peripheral pulses are normal
      – Capillary refill time (CRT) is normal or slightly prolonged
      – Blood pressure is normal
      – Extremities feel warm
      – Decreased urine output
      – Reduced skin turgor
      – Sunken eyes
      – Depressed fontanelle
      – Dry mucous membranes

      Clinical shock (10%):
      – The child appears pale, lethargic, and mottled
      – Tachycardia (increased heart rate)
      – Tachypnea (increased respiratory rate)
      – Weak peripheral pulses
      – Prolonged CRT
      – Hypotension (low blood pressure)
      – Extremities feel cold
      – Decreased urine output
      – Decreased level of consciousness

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
      58.4
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 25-year-old woman arrives at the Emergency Department after ingesting an overdose 30...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old woman arrives at the Emergency Department after ingesting an overdose 30 minutes ago. She is currently showing no symptoms and her vital signs are stable. The attending physician recommends administering a dose of activated charcoal.
      Which of the following substances or toxins is activated charcoal effective in decontaminating?

      Your Answer: Amitriptyline

      Explanation:

      Activated charcoal is a commonly used substance for decontamination in cases of poisoning. Its main function is to adsorb the molecules of the ingested toxin onto its surface.

      Activated charcoal is a chemically inert form of carbon. It is a fine black powder that has no odor or taste. It is produced by subjecting carbonaceous matter to high temperatures, a process known as pyrolysis, and then concentrating it with a zinc chloride solution. This creates a network of pores within the charcoal, giving it a large absorptive area of approximately 3,000 m2/g. This porous structure helps prevent the absorption of the harmful toxin by up to 50%.

      The usual dosage of activated charcoal is 50 grams for adults and 1 gram per kilogram of body weight for children. It can be administered orally or through a nasogastric tube. It is important to give the charcoal within one hour of ingestion, and it may be repeated after one hour if necessary.

      However, there are certain situations where activated charcoal should not be used. If the patient is unconscious or in a coma, there is a risk of aspiration, so the charcoal should not be given. Similarly, if seizures are likely to occur, there is a risk of aspiration and the charcoal should be avoided. Additionally, if there is reduced gastrointestinal motility, there is a risk of obstruction, so activated charcoal should not be used in such cases.

      Activated charcoal is effective in treating overdose with various drugs and toxins, including aspirin, paracetamol, barbiturates, tricyclic antidepressants, digoxin, amphetamines, morphine, cocaine, and phenothiazines. However, it is ineffective in treating overdose with substances such as iron, lithium, boric acid, cyanide, ethanol, ethylene glycol, methanol, malathion, DDT, carbamate, hydrocarbon, strong acids, or alkalis.

      There are some potential adverse effects associated with activated charcoal. These include nausea and vomiting, diarrhea, constipation, bezoar formation (a mass of undigested material that can cause blockages), bowel obstruction, pulmonary aspiration (inhaling the charcoal into the lungs), and impaired absorption of oral medications or antidotes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
      100.7
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - You are caring for a patient with a declining Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS)...

    Correct

    • You are caring for a patient with a declining Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) that you expect will need rapid sequence induction (RSI). You observe that the patient has a history of asthma. Which of the following induction medications is recognized for its bronchodilatory effects and would be appropriate for use in an asthmatic patient?

      Your Answer: Ketamine

      Explanation:

      When caring for a patient with a declining Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) who may require rapid sequence induction (RSI), it is important to consider their medical history. In this case, the patient has a history of asthma. One of the induction medications that is recognized for its bronchodilatory effects and would be appropriate for use in an asthmatic patient is Ketamine.

      Further Reading:

      There are four commonly used induction agents in the UK: propofol, ketamine, thiopentone, and etomidate.

      Propofol is a 1% solution that produces significant venodilation and myocardial depression. It can also reduce cerebral perfusion pressure. The typical dose for propofol is 1.5-2.5 mg/kg. However, it can cause side effects such as hypotension, respiratory depression, and pain at the site of injection.

      Ketamine is another induction agent that produces a dissociative state. It does not display a dose-response continuum, meaning that the effects do not necessarily increase with higher doses. Ketamine can cause bronchodilation, which is useful in patients with asthma. The initial dose for ketamine is 0.5-2 mg/kg, with a typical IV dose of 1.5 mg/kg. Side effects of ketamine include tachycardia, hypertension, laryngospasm, unpleasant hallucinations, nausea and vomiting, hypersalivation, increased intracranial and intraocular pressure, nystagmus and diplopia, abnormal movements, and skin reactions.

      Thiopentone is an ultra-short acting barbiturate that acts on the GABA receptor complex. It decreases cerebral metabolic oxygen and reduces cerebral blood flow and intracranial pressure. The adult dose for thiopentone is 3-5 mg/kg, while the child dose is 5-8 mg/kg. However, these doses should be halved in patients with hypovolemia. Side effects of thiopentone include venodilation, myocardial depression, and hypotension. It is contraindicated in patients with acute porphyrias and myotonic dystrophy.

      Etomidate is the most haemodynamically stable induction agent and is useful in patients with hypovolemia, anaphylaxis, and asthma. It has similar cerebral effects to thiopentone. The dose for etomidate is 0.15-0.3 mg/kg. Side effects of etomidate include injection site pain, movement disorders, adrenal insufficiency, and apnoea. It is contraindicated in patients with sepsis due to adrenal suppression.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Anaesthetics
      51.9
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A 60-year-old woman is found to have immunoglobulin light chains in her urine.
    Which...

    Correct

    • A 60-year-old woman is found to have immunoglobulin light chains in her urine.
      Which of the following is the MOST LIKELY diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Multiple myeloma

      Explanation:

      Immunoglobulin light chains that are present in the urine are commonly known as Bence-Jones proteins (BJP). These proteins are primarily observed in individuals with multiple myeloma, although they can occasionally be detected in Waldenström macroglobulinemia, although this is a rare occurrence. It is important to note that BJP in the urine is not observed in the other conditions mentioned in this question.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      36
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - You evaluate a 35-year-old woman who has recently been diagnosed with epilepsy. She...

    Incorrect

    • You evaluate a 35-year-old woman who has recently been diagnosed with epilepsy. She has been initiated on an anti-epileptic drug but has subsequently developed a tremor when assuming a certain posture.
      Which INDIVIDUAL anti-epileptic medication is most likely to be accountable for this?

      Your Answer: Phenytoin

      Correct Answer: Sodium valproate

      Explanation:

      Postural tremor is frequently seen as a neurological side effect in individuals taking sodium valproate. Additionally, a resting tremor may also manifest. It has been observed that around 25% of patients who begin sodium valproate therapy develop a tremor within the first year. Other potential side effects of sodium valproate include gastric irritation, nausea and vomiting, involuntary movements, temporary hair loss, weight gain in females, and impaired liver function.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
      43
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A 32 year old male attends the emergency department following a fall in...

    Correct

    • A 32 year old male attends the emergency department following a fall in which he sustained a minor head injury. You observe that the patient is a Ukrainian refugee and has recently arrived in the UK. During the assessment, you notice a significant goitre. Upon checking his thyroid function, it confirms hypothyroidism. What is the most probable reason for his hypothyroidism?

      Your Answer: Iodine deficiency

      Explanation:

      Iodine deficiency is a widespread issue globally and is the leading cause of hypothyroidism worldwide. It is particularly prevalent in numerous African countries, as well as in developed nations such as Norway, Germany, Russia, and Ukraine. In the UK, however, autoimmune thyroiditis is the most common cause of hypothyroidism.

      Further Reading:

      The thyroid gland is an endocrine organ located in the anterior neck. It consists of two lobes connected by an isthmus. The gland produces hormones called thyroxine (T4) and triiodothyronine (T3), which regulate energy use, protein synthesis, and the body’s sensitivity to other hormones. The production of T4 and T3 is stimulated by thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) secreted by the pituitary gland, which is in turn stimulated by thyrotropin-releasing hormone (TRH) from the hypothalamus.

      Thyroid disorders can occur when there is an imbalance in the production or regulation of thyroid hormones. Hypothyroidism is characterized by a deficiency of thyroid hormones, while hyperthyroidism is characterized by an excess. The most common cause of hypothyroidism is autoimmune thyroiditis, also known as Hashimoto’s thyroiditis. It is more common in women and is often associated with goiter. Other causes include subacute thyroiditis, atrophic thyroiditis, and iodine deficiency. On the other hand, the most common cause of hyperthyroidism is Graves’ disease, which is also an autoimmune disorder. Other causes include toxic multinodular goiter and subacute thyroiditis.

      The symptoms and signs of thyroid disorders can vary depending on whether the thyroid gland is underactive or overactive. In hypothyroidism, common symptoms include weight gain, lethargy, cold intolerance, and dry skin. In hyperthyroidism, common symptoms include weight loss, restlessness, heat intolerance, and increased sweating. Both hypothyroidism and hyperthyroidism can also affect other systems in the body, such as the cardiovascular, gastrointestinal, and neurological systems.

      Complications of thyroid disorders can include dyslipidemia, metabolic syndrome, coronary heart disease, heart failure, subfertility and infertility, impaired special senses, and myxedema coma in severe cases of hypothyroidism. In hyperthyroidism, complications can include Graves’ orbitopathy, compression of the esophagus or trachea by goiter, thyrotoxic periodic paralysis, arrhythmias, osteoporosis, mood disorders, and increased obstetric complications.

      Myxedema coma is a rare and life-threatening complication of severe hypothyroidism. It can be triggered by factors such as infection or physiological insult and presents with lethargy, bradycardia, hypothermia, hypotension, hypoventilation, altered mental state, seizures and/or coma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      53.2
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 6-week-old baby girl is brought to the Emergency Department by her parents...

    Correct

    • A 6-week-old baby girl is brought to the Emergency Department by her parents with projectile vomiting. She is vomiting approximately every 45 minutes after each feed but remains hungry. On examination, she appears dehydrated, and you can feel a small mass in the upper abdomen. A venous blood gas is performed.
      What is the definitive treatment for the diagnosis in this case?

      Your Answer: Ramstedt pyloromyotomy

      Explanation:

      Infantile hypertrophic pyloric stenosis is a condition characterized by the thickening and enlargement of the smooth muscle in the antrum of the stomach, leading to the narrowing of the pyloric canal. This narrowing can easily cause obstruction. It is a relatively common condition, occurring in about 1 in 500 live births, and is more frequently seen in males than females, with a ratio of 4 to 1. It is most commonly observed in first-born male children, although it can rarely occur in adults as well.

      The main symptom of infantile hypertrophic pyloric stenosis is vomiting, which typically begins between 2 to 8 weeks of age. The vomit is usually non-bilious and forcefully expelled. It tends to occur around 30 to 60 minutes after feeding, leaving the baby hungry despite the vomiting. In some cases, there may be blood in the vomit. Other clinical features include persistent hunger, dehydration, weight loss, and constipation. An enlarged pylorus, often described as olive-shaped, can be felt in the right upper quadrant or epigastric in approximately 95% of cases. This is most noticeable at the beginning of a feed.

      The typical acid-base disturbance seen in this condition is hypochloremic metabolic alkalosis. This occurs due to the loss of hydrogen and chloride ions in the vomit, as well as decreased secretion of pancreatic bicarbonate. The increased bicarbonate ions in the distal tubule of the kidney lead to the production of alkaline urine. Hyponatremia and hypokalemia are also commonly present.

      Ultrasound scanning is the preferred diagnostic tool for infantile hypertrophic pyloric stenosis, as it is reliable and easy to perform. It has replaced barium studies as the investigation of choice.

      Initial management involves fluid resuscitation, which should be tailored to the weight and degree of dehydration. Any electrolyte imbalances should also be corrected.

      The definitive treatment for this condition is surgical intervention, with the Ramstedt pyloromyotomy being the procedure of choice. Laparoscopic pyloromyotomy is also an effective alternative if suitable facilities are available. The prognosis for infants with this condition is excellent, as long as there is no delay in diagnosis and treatment initiation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatal Emergencies
      50.6
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A 7-year-old girl presents with a 4-day history of blurred vision in her...

    Incorrect

    • A 7-year-old girl presents with a 4-day history of blurred vision in her left eye. She is also experiencing eye pain and fatigue. On examination, her temperature is 38.0°C, but her other vital signs are normal. There is significant redness in the conjunctiva, and a collection of pus (hypopyon) is present in her left eye. Her visual acuity in that eye is reduced to counting fingers. She recently received a kitten as a pet from her parents.

      What is the SINGLE most likely causative organism?

      Your Answer: Pasteurella multocida

      Correct Answer: Toxocara canis

      Explanation:

      Toxocariasis is a rare infection caused by the parasitic roundworm Toxocara canis. The main way it spreads to humans is through contact with dog feces. However, practicing good hand hygiene can help prevent transmission. While most people who come into contact with Toxocara canis don’t show any symptoms, a small number may experience a mild flu-like illness.

      The most common presentation of toxocariasis is in children, who may experience unilateral visual loss. This loss of vision is typically caused by conditions such as vitritis, macular edema, and tractional retinal detachment. It is believed that these lesions occur due to a toxic or immunoallergic reaction to the larval antigens.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      65.9
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A 60-year-old woman presents with a nosebleed that started after sneezing 20 minutes...

    Correct

    • A 60-year-old woman presents with a nosebleed that started after sneezing 20 minutes ago. She is currently using tissues to catch the drips and you have been asked to see her urgently by the triage nurse. Her vital signs are stable, and she has no signs of low blood pressure. You assess the patient and recommend applying firm pressure to the soft, cartilaginous part of the nose for at least 10 minutes.
      What is the most effective measure to help stop the bleeding?

      Your Answer: Sucking an ice cube

      Explanation:

      When assessing a patient with epistaxis (nosebleed), it is important to start with a standard ABC assessment, focusing on the airway and hemodynamic status. Even if the bleeding appears to have stopped, it is crucial to evaluate the patient’s condition. If active bleeding is still present and there are signs of hemodynamic compromise, immediate resuscitative and first aid measures should be initiated.

      Epistaxis should be treated as a circulatory emergency, especially in elderly patients, those with clotting disorders or bleeding tendencies, and individuals taking anticoagulants. In these cases, it is necessary to establish intravenous access using at least an 18-gauge (green) cannula. Blood samples, including a full blood count, urea and electrolytes, clotting profile, and group and save (depending on the amount of blood loss), should be sent for analysis. Patients should be assigned to a majors or closely observed area, as dislodgement of a blood clot can lead to severe bleeding.

      First aid measures to control bleeding include the following steps:
      1. The patient should be seated upright with their body tilted forward and their mouth open. Lying down should be avoided, unless the patient feels faint or there is evidence of hemodynamic compromise. Leaning forward helps reduce the flow of blood into the nasopharynx.
      2. The patient should be encouraged to spit out any blood that enters the throat and advised not to swallow it.
      3. Firmly pinch the soft, cartilaginous part of the nose, compressing the nostrils for 10-15 minutes. Pressure should not be released, and the patient should breathe through their mouth.
      4. If the patient is unable to comply, an alternative technique is to ask a relative, staff member, or use an external pressure device like a swimmer’s nose clip.
      5. It is important to dispel the misconception that compressing the bones will help stop the bleeding. Applying ice to the neck or forehead does not influence nasal blood flow. However, sucking on an ice cube or applying an ice pack directly to the nose may reduce nasal blood flow.

      If bleeding stops with first aid measures, it is recommended to apply a topical antiseptic preparation to reduce crusting and vestibulitis. Naseptin cream (containing chlorhexidine and neomycin) is commonly used and should be applied to the nostrils four times daily for 10 days.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose & Throat
      74.2
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - You are overseeing the care of a 70-year-old male who suffered extensive burns...

    Incorrect

    • You are overseeing the care of a 70-year-old male who suffered extensive burns in a residential fire. After careful calculation, you have determined that the patient will require 6 liters of fluid over the course of the next 24 hours. Which intravenous fluid would be the most suitable to prescribe?

      Your Answer: 0.9% Saline

      Correct Answer: Hartmann's solution

      Explanation:

      When it comes to managing acute burns, Hartmann’s or lactated Ringers are the preferred intravenous fluids. There is no scientific evidence to support the use of colloids in burn management. In the United Kingdom, Hartmann’s solution is the most commonly used fluid for this purpose.

      Further Reading:

      Burn injuries can be classified based on their type (degree, partial thickness or full thickness), extent as a percentage of total body surface area (TBSA), and severity (minor, moderate, major/severe). Severe burns are defined as a >10% TBSA in a child and >15% TBSA in an adult.

      When assessing a burn, it is important to consider airway injury, carbon monoxide poisoning, type of burn, extent of burn, special considerations, and fluid status. Special considerations may include head and neck burns, circumferential burns, thorax burns, electrical burns, hand burns, and burns to the genitalia.

      Airway management is a priority in burn injuries. Inhalation of hot particles can cause damage to the respiratory epithelium and lead to airway compromise. Signs of inhalation injury include visible burns or erythema to the face, soot around the nostrils and mouth, burnt/singed nasal hairs, hoarse voice, wheeze or stridor, swollen tissues in the mouth or nostrils, and tachypnea and tachycardia. Supplemental oxygen should be provided, and endotracheal intubation may be necessary if there is airway obstruction or impending obstruction.

      The initial management of a patient with burn injuries involves conserving body heat, covering burns with clean or sterile coverings, establishing IV access, providing pain relief, initiating fluid resuscitation, measuring urinary output with a catheter, maintaining nil by mouth status, closely monitoring vital signs and urine output, monitoring the airway, preparing for surgery if necessary, and administering medications.

      Burns can be classified based on the depth of injury, ranging from simple erythema to full thickness burns that penetrate into subcutaneous tissue. The extent of a burn can be estimated using methods such as the rule of nines or the Lund and Browder chart, which takes into account age-specific body proportions.

      Fluid management is crucial in burn injuries due to significant fluid losses. Evaporative fluid loss from burnt skin and increased permeability of blood vessels can lead to reduced intravascular volume and tissue perfusion. Fluid resuscitation should be aggressive in severe burns, while burns <15% in adults and <10% in children may not require immediate fluid resuscitation. The Parkland formula can be used to calculate the intravenous fluid requirements for someone with a significant burn injury.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Trauma
      42.3
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A 3-year-old boy is brought in by his father with a red and...

    Correct

    • A 3-year-old boy is brought in by his father with a red and painful right eye. On examination, you note the presence of conjunctival erythema. There is also mucopurulent discharge and lid crusting evident in the eye. You make a diagnosis of bacterial conjunctivitis.
      With reference to the current NICE guidance, which of the following should NOT be included in your management plan for this patient?

      Your Answer: Topical antibiotics should be prescribed routinely

      Explanation:

      Here is a revised version of the guidance on the management of bacterial conjunctivitis:

      – It is important to inform the patient that most cases of bacterial conjunctivitis will resolve on their own within 5-7 days without any treatment.
      – However, if the condition is severe or if there is a need for rapid resolution, topical antibiotics may be prescribed. In some cases, a delayed treatment strategy may be appropriate, and the patient should be advised to start using topical antibiotics if their symptoms have not improved within 3 days.
      – There are several options for topical antibiotics, including Chloramphenicol 0.5% drops (to be applied every 2 hours for 2 days, then 4 times daily for 5 days) and Chloramphenicol 1% ointment (to be applied four times daily for 2 days, then twice daily for 5 days). Fusidic acid 1% eye drops can also be used as a second-line treatment, to be applied twice daily for 7 days.
      – It is important to note that there is no recommended exclusion period from school, nursery, or childminders for isolated cases of bacterial conjunctivitis. However, some institutions may have their own exclusion policies.
      – Provide the patient with written information and explain the red flags that indicate the need for an urgent review.
      – Arrange a follow-up appointment to confirm the diagnosis and ensure that the symptoms have resolved.
      – If the patient returns with ongoing symptoms, it may be necessary to send swabs for viral PCR (to test for adenovirus and Herpes simplex) and bacterial culture. Empirical topical antibiotics may also be prescribed if they have not been previously given.
      – Consider referring the patient to ophthalmology if the symptoms persist for more than 7 to 10 days after initiating treatment.

      For more information, you can refer to the NICE Clinical Knowledge Summary on Infective Conjunctivitis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      91.3
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - A 32 year old male arrives at the emergency department about 1 hour...

    Correct

    • A 32 year old male arrives at the emergency department about 1 hour after completing a SCUBA dive. The patient reports experiencing a headache, dizziness, and discomfort in the shoulders and knees. You inform the patient that you suspect he is suffering from 'the bends' and proceed to explain how gas bubbles expand in size as divers ascend and water pressure decreases. Which scientific principle describes the correlation between gas volume and absolute pressure?

      Your Answer: Boyle's law

      Explanation:

      Boyle’s law states that when the temperature remains constant, the volume of a gas is inversely related to its pressure. This means that as the pressure of a gas increases, its volume decreases, and vice versa. Mathematically, this relationship can be expressed as P1V1 = P2V2.

      Further Reading:

      Decompression illness (DCI) is a term that encompasses both decompression sickness (DCS) and arterial gas embolism (AGE). When diving underwater, the increasing pressure causes gases to become more soluble and reduces the size of gas bubbles. As a diver ascends, nitrogen can come out of solution and form gas bubbles, leading to decompression sickness or the bends. Boyle’s and Henry’s gas laws help explain the changes in gases during changing pressure.

      Henry’s law states that the amount of gas that dissolves in a liquid is proportional to the partial pressure of the gas. Divers often use atmospheres (ATM) as a measure of pressure, with 1 ATM being the pressure at sea level. Boyle’s law states that the volume of gas is inversely proportional to the pressure. As pressure increases, volume decreases.

      Decompression sickness occurs when nitrogen comes out of solution as a diver ascends. The evolved gas can physically damage tissue by stretching or tearing it as bubbles expand, or by provoking an inflammatory response. Joints and spinal nervous tissue are commonly affected. Symptoms of primary damage usually appear immediately or soon after a dive, while secondary damage may present hours or days later.

      Arterial gas embolism occurs when nitrogen bubbles escape into the arterial circulation and cause distal ischemia. The consequences depend on where the embolism lodges, ranging from tissue ischemia to stroke if it lodges in the cerebral arterial circulation. Mechanisms for distal embolism include pulmonary barotrauma, right to left shunt, and pulmonary filter overload.

      Clinical features of decompression illness vary, but symptoms often appear within six hours of a dive. These can include joint pain, neurological symptoms, chest pain or breathing difficulties, rash, vestibular problems, and constitutional symptoms. Factors that increase the risk of DCI include diving at greater depth, longer duration, multiple dives close together, problems with ascent, closed rebreather circuits, flying shortly after diving, exercise shortly after diving, dehydration, and alcohol use.

      Diagnosis of DCI is clinical, and investigations depend on the presentation. All patients should receive high flow oxygen, and a low threshold for ordering a chest X-ray should be maintained. Hydration is important, and IV fluids may be necessary. Definitive treatment is recompression therapy in a hyperbaric oxygen chamber, which should be arranged as soon as possible. Entonox should not be given, as it will increase the pressure effect in air spaces.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Environmental Emergencies
      67.6
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Urology (0/2) 0%
Basic Anaesthetics (1/2) 50%
Infectious Diseases (2/2) 100%
Major Incident Management & PHEM (0/1) 0%
Dermatology (0/1) 0%
Haematology (2/3) 67%
Respiratory (0/2) 0%
Neurology (1/1) 100%
Pharmacology & Poisoning (2/3) 67%
Cardiology (1/1) 100%
Musculoskeletal (non-traumatic) (3/3) 100%
Ophthalmology (1/3) 33%
Nephrology (1/1) 100%
Endocrinology (1/1) 100%
Neonatal Emergencies (1/1) 100%
Ear, Nose & Throat (1/1) 100%
Trauma (0/1) 0%
Environmental Emergencies (1/1) 100%
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