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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old first-time mother had a normal vaginal delivery at term. The baby’s birth weight was 2 100 g. She wanted to breastfeed but is wondering whether she should supplement feeds with formula to help the baby’s growth.
Which of the following best applies to the World Health Organization (WHO) recommendations for feeding in low-birthweight infants?Your Answer: Low-birthweight infants should receive daily vitamin D, calcium and phosphorus supplementation
Correct Answer: Low-birthweight infants who cannot be fed their mother’s breast milk should be fed donor human milk
Explanation:Recommendations for Feeding Low-Birthweight Infants
Low-birthweight infants, those with a birthweight of less than 2,500 g, should be exclusively breastfed for the first six months of life, according to WHO recommendations. If the mother’s milk is not available, donor human milk should be sought. If that is not possible, standard formula milk can be used. There is no difference in the duration of exclusive breastfeeding between low-birthweight and normal-weight infants. Daily vitamin A supplementation is not currently recommended for low-birthweight infants, but very low-birthweight infants should receive daily supplementation of vitamin D, calcium, and phosphorus. Low-birthweight infants who are able to breastfeed should start as soon as possible after birth, once they are clinically stable.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 2
Correct
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A 35-year-old woman is referred to hospital by her midwife 5 days after giving birth to a healthy baby boy by vaginal delivery. She has reported increasing lochia and has had an increase in lower abdominal cramping over the last few days. On examination, she is hot and sweaty with temperature 38 °C, heart rate 120 bpm and capillary refill time (CRT) 3 s, and her abdomen is firm and tender, with the uterus still palpable just below the umbilicus. There is mild perineal swelling but no tears, and lochia is offensive. The rest of the examination is normal. She is keen to get home to her baby as she is breastfeeding.
What would you do next?Your Answer: Admit, send vaginal swabs and blood cultures, start intravenous (iv) antibiotics and arrange a pelvic ultrasound scan
Explanation:This patient is suspected to have a post-partum infection and sepsis in the puerperium, which can be fatal. A thorough examination is necessary to identify the source of infection, which is most likely to be the genital tract. Other potential sources include urinary tract infection, mastitis, skin infections, pharyngitis, pneumonia, and meningitis. The patient is experiencing abdominal pain, fever, and tachycardia, indicating the need for iv antibiotics and senior review. Regular observations, lactate measurement, and iv fluid support should be provided as per sepsis pathways. Blood cultures and vaginal swabs should be taken, and iv antibiotics should be administered within an hour of presentation. The patient is not a candidate for ambulatory treatment and needs to be admitted for further investigation and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 3
Correct
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A 26-year-old female student presents to the Emergency Department with severe abdominal pain that started suddenly while she was shopping 3 hours ago. She reports not having her periods for 8 weeks and being sexually active. She also has a history of pelvic inflammatory disease 4 years ago. On examination, there is generalised guarding and signs of peritonism. An urgent ultrasound scan reveals free fluid in the pouch of Douglas with an empty uterine cavity, and a positive urine βhCG. Basic bloods are sent. Suddenly, her condition deteriorates, and her vital signs are BP 85/50 mmHg, HR 122/min, RR 20/min, and O2 saturation 94%.
What is the most appropriate next step?Your Answer: Resuscitate and arrange for emergency laparotomy
Explanation:There is a strong indication of a ruptured ectopic pregnancy based on the clinical presentation. The patient’s condition has deteriorated significantly, with symptoms of shock and a systolic blood pressure below 90 mmHg. Due to her unstable cardiovascular state, urgent consideration must be given to performing an emergency laparotomy.
Understanding Ectopic Pregnancy
Ectopic pregnancy occurs when a fertilized egg implants outside the uterus. This condition is characterized by lower abdominal pain and vaginal bleeding, typically occurring 6-8 weeks after the start of the last period. The pain is usually constant and may be felt on one side of the abdomen due to tubal spasm. Vaginal bleeding is usually less than a normal period and may be dark brown in color. Other symptoms may include shoulder tip pain, pain on defecation/urination, dizziness, fainting, or syncope. Breast tenderness may also be reported.
During examination, abdominal tenderness and cervical excitation may be observed. However, it is not recommended to examine for an adnexal mass due to the risk of rupturing the pregnancy. Instead, a pelvic examination to check for cervical excitation is recommended. In cases of pregnancy of unknown location, serum bHCG levels >1,500 may indicate an ectopic pregnancy. It is important to seek medical attention immediately if ectopic pregnancy is suspected as it can be life-threatening.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 4
Correct
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A 16-year-old female who is 23 weeks pregnant (G1PO) arrives at the emergency department complaining of severe lower abdominal pain. She has a history of multiple sexual partners and was recently treated for gonorrhoeae with ceftriaxone. Although she does not take any regular medications, she admits to using illicit drugs such as marijuana and cocaine. During the physical examination, you notice that her uterus is hard and tender. What risk factor in her medical history is likely to contribute to her diagnosis?
Your Answer: Cocaine use
Explanation:The risk of placental abruption is increased by cocaine abuse due to its ability to cause vasospasm in the placental blood vessels. Ceftriaxone use, which is the treatment of choice for gonorrhoeae, is not a known risk factor for placental abruption and is therefore a distractor. Although gonorrhoeae can lead to chorioamnionitis, which is a known risk factor for placental abruption, there is no evidence to suggest that this is the case and it is less likely than cocaine use. Primiparity is an incorrect answer as it is actually multiparity that is a risk factor for placental abruption.
Placental Abruption: Causes, Symptoms, and Risk Factors
Placental abruption is a condition that occurs when the placenta separates from the uterine wall, leading to maternal bleeding into the space between them. Although the exact cause of this condition is unknown, certain factors have been associated with it, including proteinuric hypertension, cocaine use, multiparity, maternal trauma, and increasing maternal age. Placental abruption is not a common occurrence, affecting approximately 1 in 200 pregnancies.
The clinical features of placental abruption include shock that is disproportionate to the visible blood loss, constant pain, a tender and tense uterus, and a normal lie and presentation of the fetus. The fetal heart may be absent or distressed, and there may be coagulation problems. It is important to be aware of other conditions that may present with similar symptoms, such as pre-eclampsia, disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC), and anuria.
In summary, placental abruption is a serious condition that can have significant consequences for both the mother and the fetus. Understanding the risk factors and symptoms of this condition is important for early detection and appropriate management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 5
Correct
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A 28-year-old pregnant woman with type 1 diabetes inquires about the frequency of blood glucose level testing during her pregnancy.
Your Answer: Daily fasting, pre-meal, 1-hour post-meal and bedtime tests.
Explanation:It is important for pregnant individuals with type 1 diabetes to closely monitor their blood glucose levels by testing multiple times throughout the day. This is recommended by NICE NG3.
Gestational diabetes is a common medical disorder affecting around 4% of pregnancies. Risk factors include a high BMI, previous gestational diabetes, and family history of diabetes. Screening is done through an oral glucose tolerance test, and diagnostic thresholds have recently been updated. Management includes self-monitoring of blood glucose, diet and exercise advice, and medication if necessary. For pre-existing diabetes, weight loss and insulin are recommended, and tight glycemic control is important. Targets for self-monitoring include fasting glucose of 5.3 mmol/l and 1-2 hour post-meal glucose levels.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old woman visits her GP's office and shares the news that she has recently discovered she is pregnant. She is overjoyed and eager to proceed with the pregnancy. Currently, she is 6 weeks pregnant and feels fine without symptoms. She has no significant medical history and does not take any regular medications. She is a non-smoker and does not consume alcohol. Her BMI is 34 kg/m², and her blood pressure is 110/60 mmHg. Her urine dip is negative. She has heard that taking vitamin D and folic acid supplements can increase her chances of having a healthy pregnancy. What is the most advisable regimen for her in this situation?
Your Answer: Vitamin D 400 IU daily throughout the pregnancy, and folic acid 400mg daily for the first 12 weeks of pregnancy
Correct Answer: Vitamin D 400IU daily throughout the pregnancy, and folic acid 5mg daily for the first 12 weeks of pregnancy
Explanation:Pregnant women who are obese (with a BMI greater than 30 kg/m²) should be prescribed a high dose of 5mg folic acid. It is recommended that all pregnant women take 400 IU of vitamin D daily throughout their pregnancy. Additionally, folic acid should be taken daily for the first 12 weeks of pregnancy, with the dosage depending on the presence of risk factors for neural tube defects such as spina bifida. If there are no risk factors, the dose is 400 micrograms daily, but if risk factors are present, the dose should be increased to 5 mg daily. As maternal obesity is a risk factor for neural tube defects, pregnant women with a BMI greater than 30 kg/m² should take the higher dose of folic acid.
Folic Acid: Importance, Deficiency, and Prevention
Folic acid is a vital nutrient that is converted to tetrahydrofolate (THF) in the body. It is found in green, leafy vegetables and plays a crucial role in the transfer of 1-carbon units to essential substrates involved in the synthesis of DNA and RNA. However, certain factors such as phenytoin, methotrexate, pregnancy, and alcohol excess can cause a deficiency in folic acid. This deficiency can lead to macrocytic, megaloblastic anemia and neural tube defects.
To prevent neural tube defects during pregnancy, it is recommended that all women take 400mcg of folic acid until the 12th week of pregnancy. Women at higher risk of conceiving a child with a neural tube defect should take 5mg of folic acid from before conception until the 12th week of pregnancy. Women are considered higher risk if they or their partner has a neural tube defect, they have had a previous pregnancy affected by a neural tube defect, or they have a family history of a neural tube defect. Additionally, women with certain medical conditions such as coeliac disease, diabetes, or thalassaemia trait, or those taking antiepileptic drugs, or who are obese (BMI of 30 kg/m2 or more) are also considered higher risk.
In summary, folic acid is an essential nutrient that plays a crucial role in DNA and RNA synthesis. Deficiency in folic acid can lead to serious health consequences, including neural tube defects. However, taking folic acid supplements during pregnancy can prevent these defects and ensure a healthy pregnancy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old female patient named Emily, who is a G2P1, visits you, a locum general practitioner, to inform you about her pregnancy. Upon reviewing her medical history, you discover that Emily has asthma, gastro-oesophageal reflux, constipation, and a recent deep vein thrombosis. She is currently taking senna, over the counter ranitidine, budesonide and salbutamol inhalers, and rivaroxaban. However, none of her medications have been altered due to her pregnancy status. Can you identify which medication needs to be changed?
Your Answer: Budesonide
Correct Answer: Rivaroxaban
Explanation:Pregnant women should not use novel oral anticoagulants, so those who are currently taking them should switch to low molecular weight heparin.
Venous Thromboembolism in Pregnancy: Risk Assessment and Prophylactic Measures
Pregnancy increases the risk of developing venous thromboembolism (VTE), a condition that can be life-threatening for both the mother and the fetus. To prevent VTE, it is important to assess a woman’s individual risk during pregnancy and initiate appropriate prophylactic measures. This risk assessment should be done at the first antenatal booking and on any subsequent hospital admission.
Women with a previous history of VTE are automatically considered high risk and require low molecular weight heparin throughout the antenatal period, as well as input from experts. Women at intermediate risk due to hospitalization, surgery, co-morbidities, or thrombophilia should also be considered for antenatal prophylactic low molecular weight heparin.
The risk assessment at booking should include factors that increase the likelihood of developing VTE, such as age over 35, body mass index over 30, parity over 3, smoking, gross varicose veins, current pre-eclampsia, immobility, family history of unprovoked VTE, low-risk thrombophilia, multiple pregnancy, and IVF pregnancy.
If a woman has four or more risk factors, immediate treatment with low molecular weight heparin should be initiated and continued until six weeks postnatal. If a woman has three risk factors, low molecular weight heparin should be initiated from 28 weeks and continued until six weeks postnatal.
If a diagnosis of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is made shortly before delivery, anticoagulation treatment should be continued for at least three months, as in other patients with provoked DVTs. Low molecular weight heparin is the treatment of choice for VTE prophylaxis in pregnancy, while direct oral anticoagulants (DOACs) and warfarin should be avoided.
In summary, a thorough risk assessment and appropriate prophylactic measures can help prevent VTE in pregnancy, which is crucial for the health and safety of both the mother and the fetus.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 8
Correct
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A 25-year-old woman is being assessed in the postpartum unit, 48 hours after a vaginal delivery. The delivery was uncomplicated and she is eager to be discharged. She has initiated breastfeeding and is forming a strong attachment with her newborn.
When inquired about birth control, she reports that she previously used the progesterone-only pill and wishes to resume this method. What is the soonest she can restart this contraception?Your Answer: Immediately
Explanation:The progesterone-only pill can be taken by postpartum women (both breastfeeding and non-breastfeeding) at any time after delivery. It is categorized as UKMEC 1, meaning there are no restrictions on its use. Women can start taking it immediately if they choose to do so, and there is no need to wait for three weeks before starting. The combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP) can be taken as UKMEC 2 after three weeks in non-breastfeeding women, and after six weeks in breastfeeding women or as UKMEC 1 in non-breastfeeding women. In breastfeeding women, the COCP can be taken as UKMEC 1 after six months. The progesterone-only pill is safe for breastfeeding women as it has minimal transfer into breast milk, and there is no harm to the baby.
After giving birth, women need to use contraception after 21 days. The progesterone-only pill (POP) can be started at any time postpartum, according to the FSRH. Additional contraception should be used for the first two days after day 21. A small amount of progesterone enters breast milk, but it is not harmful to the infant. On the other hand, the combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP) is absolutely contraindicated (UKMEC 4) if breastfeeding is less than six weeks post-partum. If breastfeeding is between six weeks and six months postpartum, it is a UKMEC 2. The COCP may reduce breast milk production in lactating mothers. It should not be used in the first 21 days due to the increased venous thromboembolism risk post-partum. After day 21, additional contraception should be used for the first seven days. The intrauterine device or intrauterine system can be inserted within 48 hours of childbirth or after four weeks.
The lactational amenorrhoea method (LAM) is 98% effective if the woman is fully breastfeeding (no supplementary feeds), amenorrhoeic, and less than six months post-partum. It is important to note that an inter-pregnancy interval of less than 12 months between childbirth and conceiving again is associated with an increased risk of preterm birth, low birth weight, and small for gestational age babies.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 38-year-old G7P3 mother presents with a show and waters breaking at 34+1 weeks, following three days of fever and left flank pain. Despite hoping for a home birth, she eventually agrees to go to the hospital after three hours of convincing from the midwife. Upon arrival, continuous cardiotocography is initiated and a foetal doppler reveals foetal bradycardia. On abdominal exam, the baby is found to be in a footling breech position, but the uterus is non-tender and contracting. A speculum examination reveals an exposed cord, with a soft 8 cm cervix and an exposed left foot.
What is the most appropriate initial management plan for this patient and her baby?Your Answer: Deliver the baby as breech immediately
Correct Answer: Put the patient on all fours and push the foot back into the uterus
Explanation:In the case of umbilical cord prolapse, the priority is to limit compression on the cord and reduce the chance of cord vasospasm. This can be achieved by pushing any presenting part of the baby back into the uterus, putting the mother on all fours, and retrofilling the bladder with saline. In addition, warm damp towels can be placed over the cord to limit handling. It is important to note that this is a complex emergency that requires immediate attention, as it can lead to foetal bradycardia and limit the oxygen supply to the baby. In this scenario, a category 1 Caesarean section would be necessary, as the pathological CTG demands it. Delivering the baby as breech immediately is not recommended, as it is a high-risk strategy that can lead to morbidity and mortality. IM corticosteroids are indicated for premature rupture of membranes, but the immediate priority is to deal with the emergency. McRobert’s manoeuvre is not appropriate in this case, as it is used to correct shoulder dystocia, which is not the issue at hand.
Understanding Umbilical Cord Prolapse
Umbilical cord prolapse is a rare but serious complication that can occur during delivery. It happens when the umbilical cord descends ahead of the presenting part of the fetus, which can lead to compression or spasm of the cord. This can cause fetal hypoxia and potentially irreversible damage or death. Certain factors increase the risk of cord prolapse, such as prematurity, multiparity, polyhydramnios, twin pregnancy, cephalopelvic disproportion, and abnormal presentations like breech or transverse lie.
Around half of all cord prolapses occur when the membranes are artificially ruptured. Diagnosis is usually made when the fetal heart rate becomes abnormal and the cord is palpable vaginally or visible beyond the introitus. Cord prolapse is an obstetric emergency that requires immediate management. The presenting part of the fetus may be pushed back into the uterus to avoid compression, and the cord should be kept warm and moist to prevent vasospasm. The patient may be asked to go on all fours or assume the left lateral position until preparations for an immediate caesarian section have been carried out. Tocolytics may be used to reduce uterine contractions, and retrofilling the bladder with saline can help elevate the presenting part. Although caesarian section is the usual first-line method of delivery, an instrumental vaginal delivery may be possible if the cervix is fully dilated and the head is low.
In conclusion, umbilical cord prolapse is a rare but serious complication that requires prompt recognition and management. Understanding the risk factors and appropriate interventions can help reduce the incidence of fetal mortality associated with this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 10
Correct
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A 26-year-old woman with type 1 diabetes mellitus visits her General Practitioner (GP) with her partner to seek advice on nutritional supplementation as they plan to start trying for a baby. She is not using any contraception and her diabetes is well managed, with her latest HbA1c level at 32 mmol/mol (recommended by the Royal College of Obstetricians and Gynaecologists < 48 mmol/mol). What is the most suitable recommendation for folic acid supplementation?
Your Answer: Commence folic acid 5 mg daily now and continue until week 12 of gestation
Explanation:Folic Acid Supplementation in Pregnancy
Explanation: Folic acid supplementation is recommended for all women who are trying to conceive and during pregnancy to reduce the risk of neural tube defects and other congenital abnormalities. The recommended dose is 400 micrograms daily from the preconception period until the 12th week of gestation. However, women with certain high-risk factors, such as diabetes, a family history of neural tube defects, or obesity, are advised to take a higher dose of 5 mg daily from the preconception period until the 12th week of gestation. It is important to continue folic acid supplementation until the end of the first trimester to ensure proper formation of the brain and other major organs in the body. Side-effects of folic acid treatment may include abdominal distension, reduced appetite, nausea, and exacerbation of pernicious anaemia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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