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  • Question 1 - A G2P1 woman visits her obstetrician for a routine antenatal check-up. She is...

    Correct

    • A G2P1 woman visits her obstetrician for a routine antenatal check-up. She is currently 32 weeks pregnant and has had an uneventful pregnancy so far. She denies any symptoms of fatigue, easy bleeding, or bruising.

      During the check-up, her physician orders routine blood tests, and her complete blood count results are as follows:

      - Hemoglobin (Hb): 98 g/L (Male: 135-180, Female: 115-160)
      - Platelets: 110 * 109/L (150-400)
      - White blood cells (WBC): 13 * 109/L (4.0-11.0)

      What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Physiological changes of pregnancy

      Explanation:

      During pregnancy, a woman’s body undergoes various physiological changes. The cardiovascular system experiences an increase in stroke volume, heart rate, and cardiac output, while systolic blood pressure remains unchanged and diastolic blood pressure decreases in the first and second trimesters before returning to normal levels by term. The enlarged uterus may cause issues with venous return, leading to ankle swelling, supine hypotension, and varicose veins.

      The respiratory system sees an increase in pulmonary ventilation and tidal volume, with oxygen requirements only increasing by 20%. This can lead to a sense of dyspnea due to over-breathing and a fall in pCO2. The basal metabolic rate also increases, potentially due to increased thyroxine and adrenocortical hormones.

      Maternal blood volume increases by 30%, with red blood cells increasing by 20% and plasma increasing by 50%, leading to a decrease in hemoglobin levels. Coagulant activity increases slightly, while fibrinolytic activity decreases. Platelet count falls, and white blood cell count and erythrocyte sedimentation rate rise.

      The urinary system experiences an increase in blood flow and glomerular filtration rate, with elevated sex steroid levels leading to increased salt and water reabsorption and urinary protein losses. Trace glycosuria may also occur.

      Calcium requirements increase during pregnancy, with gut absorption increasing substantially due to increased 1,25 dihydroxy vitamin D. Serum levels of calcium and phosphate may fall, but ionized calcium levels remain stable. The liver experiences an increase in alkaline phosphatase and a decrease in albumin levels.

      The uterus undergoes significant changes, increasing in weight from 100g to 1100g and transitioning from hyperplasia to hypertrophy. Cervical ectropion and discharge may increase, and Braxton-Hicks contractions may occur in late pregnancy. Retroversion may lead to retention in the first trimester but usually self-corrects.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive System
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  • Question 2 - You are about to start a young woman on the progesterone-only pill. How...

    Incorrect

    • You are about to start a young woman on the progesterone-only pill. How long will she need to use this form of birth control before it becomes reliable?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It becomes effective after 48 hours

      Explanation:

      Effective contraception with the progestogen-only pill can be achieved immediately if it is started on the first to the fifth day of menstruation. However, if it is started at any other time or if the patient is uncertain, it is recommended to use additional contraceptive methods like condoms or abstinence for the first 48 hours.

      Counselling for Women Considering the Progestogen-Only Pill

      Women who are considering taking the progestogen-only pill (POP) should receive counselling on various aspects of the medication. One of the most common potential adverse effects is irregular vaginal bleeding. It is important to note that the POP should be taken at the same time every day, without a pill-free break, unlike the combined oral contraceptive (COC).

      When starting the POP, immediate protection is provided if commenced up to and including day 5 of the cycle. If started later, additional contraceptive methods such as condoms should be used for the first 2 days. If switching from a COC, immediate protection is provided if continued directly from the end of a pill packet.

      In case of missed pills, if the delay is less than 3 hours, the pill should be taken as usual. If the delay is more than 3 hours, the missed pill should be taken as soon as possible, and extra precautions such as condoms should be used until pill taking has been re-established for 48 hours.

      It is important to note that antibiotics have no effect on the POP, unless the antibiotic alters the P450 enzyme system. Liver enzyme inducers may reduce the effectiveness of the POP. In case of diarrhoea and vomiting, the POP should be continued, but it should be assumed that pills have been missed.

      Finally, it is important to discuss sexually transmitted infections (STIs) with healthcare providers when considering the POP. By providing comprehensive counselling, women can make informed decisions about whether the POP is the right contraceptive choice for them.

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  • Question 3 - A 26-year-old woman visits her doctor, 9 weeks postpartum, with complaints of pain...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old woman visits her doctor, 9 weeks postpartum, with complaints of pain in her left breast while breastfeeding. She is concerned about continuing to feed her baby. During the examination, the doctor observes a 2 cm x 2 cm reddish lesion on the left breast, which is tender and warm to the touch. The right breast appears normal. As the patient has a temperature of 38.2ÂșC, the doctor prescribes antibiotics and advises her to continue breastfeeding. What is the primary location for lymphatic drainage in the affected area?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ipsilateral axillary nodes

      Explanation:

      The primary location for lymphatic drainage of the breast is the ipsilateral axillary nodes. While there have been cases of breast cancer spreading to contralateral axillary nodes, these nodes do not represent the main site of lymphatic drainage for the opposite breast. The parasternal nodes receive some lymphatic drainage, but they are not the primary site for breast drainage. The supraclavicular nodes may occasionally receive drainage from the breast, but this is not significant. The infraclavicular nodes, despite their proximity, do not drain the breast; they instead receive drainage from the forearm and hand.

      The breast is situated on a layer of pectoral fascia and is surrounded by the pectoralis major, serratus anterior, and external oblique muscles. The nerve supply to the breast comes from branches of intercostal nerves from T4-T6, while the arterial supply comes from the internal mammary (thoracic) artery, external mammary artery (laterally), anterior intercostal arteries, and thoraco-acromial artery. The breast’s venous drainage is through a superficial venous plexus to subclavian, axillary, and intercostal veins. Lymphatic drainage occurs through the axillary nodes, internal mammary chain, and other lymphatic sites such as deep cervical and supraclavicular fossa (later in disease).

      The preparation for lactation involves the hormones oestrogen, progesterone, and human placental lactogen. Oestrogen promotes duct development in high concentrations, while high levels of progesterone stimulate the formation of lobules. Human placental lactogen prepares the mammary glands for lactation. The two hormones involved in stimulating lactation are prolactin and oxytocin. Prolactin causes milk secretion, while oxytocin causes contraction of the myoepithelial cells surrounding the mammary alveoli to result in milk ejection from the breast. Suckling of the baby stimulates the mechanoreceptors in the nipple, resulting in the release of both prolactin and oxytocin from the pituitary gland (anterior and posterior parts respectively).

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  • Question 4 - A 28-year-old woman visits her GP at 32 weeks of pregnancy with complaints...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman visits her GP at 32 weeks of pregnancy with complaints of persistent headache and nausea. She reports observing a yellowish tint in the white of her eyes and experiencing an unusual pain in her shoulder. The GP conducts a urine dip, blood pressure reading, and blood tests due to concern. The urine dip reveals proteinuria, and her blood pressure is 169/98 mmHg. Based on the probable diagnosis, what blood test results would you anticipate?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Elevated liver enzymes

      Explanation:

      The patient is exhibiting signs of HELLP syndrome, which is a complication during pregnancy that involves haemolysis, elevated liver enzymes, and low platelets. This condition often occurs alongside pregnancy-induced hypertension or pre-eclampsia. Although the patient is also displaying symptoms of pre-eclampsia such as headache, shoulder tip pain, and nausea, the presence of jaundice indicates that it is HELLP syndrome rather than pre-eclampsia. Pre-eclampsia is a pregnancy disorder that typically involves high blood pressure and damage to another organ system, usually the kidneys in the form of proteinuria. It usually develops after 20 weeks of pregnancy in women who previously had normal blood pressure.

      Jaundice During Pregnancy

      During pregnancy, jaundice can occur due to various reasons. One of the most common liver diseases during pregnancy is intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy, which affects around 1% of pregnancies and is usually seen in the third trimester. Symptoms include itching, especially in the palms and soles, and raised bilirubin levels. Ursodeoxycholic acid is used for symptomatic relief, and women are typically induced at 37 weeks. However, this condition can increase the risk of stillbirth.

      Acute fatty liver of pregnancy is a rare complication that can occur in the third trimester or immediately after delivery. Symptoms include abdominal pain, nausea, vomiting, headache, jaundice, and hypoglycemia. ALT levels are typically elevated. Supportive care is the initial management, and delivery is the definitive management once the patient is stabilized.

      Gilbert’s and Dubin-Johnson syndrome may also be exacerbated during pregnancy. Additionally, HELLP syndrome, which stands for Haemolysis, Elevated Liver enzymes, Low Platelets, can also cause jaundice during pregnancy. It is important to monitor liver function tests and seek medical attention if any symptoms of jaundice occur during pregnancy.

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      • Reproductive System
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  • Question 5 - Which of the following is a characteristic of the Leydig cells in the...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is a characteristic of the Leydig cells in the testes?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Produce testosterone

      Explanation:

      The production of testosterone in response to LH is carried out by Leydig cells, not Sertoli cells in the testes.

      Leydig cells are responsible for the secretion of testosterone when LH is released from the anterior pituitary gland. On the other hand, Sertoli cells are referred to as nurse cells because they provide nourishment to developing sperm during spermatogenesis. These cells have an elongated shape, secrete androgen-binding protein and tubular fluid, support the development of sperm during spermatogenesis, and form the blood-testes barrier.

      Endocrine Changes During Pregnancy

      During pregnancy, there are several physiological changes that occur in the body, including endocrine changes. Progesterone, which is produced by the fallopian tubes during the first two weeks of pregnancy, stimulates the secretion of nutrients required by the zygote/blastocyst. At six weeks, the placenta takes over the production of progesterone, which inhibits uterine contractions by decreasing sensitivity to oxytocin and inhibiting the production of prostaglandins. Progesterone also stimulates the development of lobules and alveoli.

      Oestrogen, specifically oestriol, is another major hormone produced during pregnancy. It stimulates the growth of the myometrium and the ductal system of the breasts. Prolactin, which increases during pregnancy, initiates and maintains milk secretion of the mammary gland. It is essential for the expression of the mammotropic effects of oestrogen and progesterone. However, oestrogen and progesterone directly antagonize the stimulating effects of prolactin on milk synthesis.

      Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) is secreted by the syncitiotrophoblast and can be detected within nine days of pregnancy. It mimics LH, rescuing the corpus luteum from degenerating and ensuring early oestrogen and progesterone secretion. It also stimulates the production of relaxin and may inhibit contractions induced by oxytocin. Other hormones produced during pregnancy include relaxin, which suppresses myometrial contractions and relaxes the pelvic ligaments and pubic symphysis, and human placental lactogen (hPL), which has lactogenic actions and enhances protein metabolism while antagonizing insulin.

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  • Question 6 - A 20-year-old woman at eight weeks gestation visits her doctor complaining of sporadic...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old woman at eight weeks gestation visits her doctor complaining of sporadic vaginal bleeding for the past four weeks and hyperemesis. During the obstetric examination, a non-tender, uterus larger than expected for the gestational age is observed. What condition is highly indicated by these symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Molar pregnancy

      Explanation:

      Placental abruption, placenta praevia, and ectopic pregnancy can cause vaginal bleeding, but they do not typically result in a non-tender, large-for-dates uterus. Gestational diabetes is not associated with vaginal bleeding or hyperemesis.

      Molar pregnancy is a type of gestational trophoblastic disease that occurs when there is an abnormal fertilization of an empty ovum. There are two types of molar pregnancies: complete and partial. Complete hydatidiform moles have a karyotype of 46 XX or 46 XY, with all genetic material coming from the father. Partial hydatidiform moles have a karyotype of 69 XXX or 69 XXY and contain both maternal and paternal chromosomes. Neither type of molar pregnancy can result in a viable fetus.

      The most common symptom of a molar pregnancy is vaginal bleeding, which can range from light to heavy. In about 25% of complete molar pregnancies, the uterus may be larger than expected for the gestational age. Complete hydatidiform moles produce high levels of beta hCG due to the large amounts of abnormal chorionic villi, which can lead to hyperemesis, hyperthyroidism, and other symptoms. Women who are under 20 years old or over 35 years old are at a higher risk of having a molar pregnancy.

      Gestational trophoblastic disorders refer to a range of conditions that originate from the placental trophoblast. These disorders include complete hydatidiform mole, partial hydatidiform mole, and choriocarcinoma. Complete hydatidiform mole is a benign tumor of trophoblastic material that occurs when an empty egg is fertilized by a single sperm that duplicates its own DNA, resulting in all 46 chromosomes being of paternal origin. Symptoms of this disorder include bleeding in the first or early second trimester, exaggerated pregnancy symptoms, a large uterus for dates, and high levels of human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) in the blood. Hypertension and hyperthyroidism may also be present. Urgent referral to a specialist center is necessary, and evacuation of the uterus is performed. Effective contraception is recommended to avoid pregnancy in the next 12 months. About 2-3% of cases may progress to choriocarcinoma. In partial mole, a normal haploid egg may be fertilized by two sperms or one sperm with duplication of paternal chromosomes, resulting in DNA that is both maternal and paternal in origin. Fetal parts may be visible, and the condition is usually triploid.

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      • Reproductive System
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  • Question 7 - A 25-year-old woman who is 36 weeks pregnant presents to the hospital with...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman who is 36 weeks pregnant presents to the hospital with a blood pressure reading of 160/110 mmHg, proteinuria, headache, blurred vision, and abdominal pain. What typical feature would be anticipated in this scenario?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Haemolysis, elevated liver enzymes and low platelets

      Explanation:

      The patient’s medical history suggests pre-eclampsia, which is characterized by high blood pressure and protein in the urine after 20 weeks of pregnancy. antihypertensive medication should be used to manage blood pressure. Women with this condition may also develop HELLP syndrome, which is characterized by low platelets, elevated liver enzymes, and haemolysis (indicated by raised LDH levels). If left untreated, pre-eclampsia can progress to eclampsia, which can be prevented by administering magnesium sulphate. Delivery is the only definitive treatment for pre-eclampsia.

      Symptoms of shock include tachycardia and hypotension, while Cushing’s triad (bradycardia, hypertension, and respiratory irregularity) is indicative of raised intracranial pressure. Anaphylaxis is characterized by facial swelling, rash, and stridor, while sepsis may present with warm extremities, rigors, and a strong pulse.

      Jaundice During Pregnancy

      During pregnancy, jaundice can occur due to various reasons. One of the most common liver diseases during pregnancy is intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy, which affects around 1% of pregnancies and is usually seen in the third trimester. Symptoms include itching, especially in the palms and soles, and raised bilirubin levels. Ursodeoxycholic acid is used for symptomatic relief, and women are typically induced at 37 weeks. However, this condition can increase the risk of stillbirth.

      Acute fatty liver of pregnancy is a rare complication that can occur in the third trimester or immediately after delivery. Symptoms include abdominal pain, nausea, vomiting, headache, jaundice, and hypoglycemia. ALT levels are typically elevated. Supportive care is the initial management, and delivery is the definitive management once the patient is stabilized.

      Gilbert’s and Dubin-Johnson syndrome may also be exacerbated during pregnancy. Additionally, HELLP syndrome, which stands for Haemolysis, Elevated Liver enzymes, Low Platelets, can also cause jaundice during pregnancy. It is important to monitor liver function tests and seek medical attention if any symptoms of jaundice occur during pregnancy.

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      • Reproductive System
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  • Question 8 - A 67-year-old woman presents with 6 months of gradually increasing abdominal distension, abdominal...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old woman presents with 6 months of gradually increasing abdominal distension, abdominal pain and feeling full quickly. She has also experienced recent weight loss. Upon examination, her abdomen is distended with signs of ascites. Her cancer antigen 125 (CA-125) level is elevated (550 IU/mL). An abdominal ultrasound reveals a mass in the left ovary. What is the most frequent histological subtype of the mass, based on the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Serous

      Explanation:

      Understanding Ovarian Cancer: Risk Factors, Symptoms, and Management

      Ovarian cancer is a type of cancer that affects women, with the peak age of incidence being 60 years. It is the fifth most common malignancy in females and carries a poor prognosis due to late diagnosis. Around 90% of ovarian cancers are epithelial in origin, with 70-80% of cases being due to serous carcinomas. Interestingly, recent studies suggest that the distal end of the fallopian tube is often the site of origin of many ‘ovarian’ cancers.

      There are several risk factors associated with ovarian cancer, including a family history of mutations of the BRCA1 or the BRCA2 gene, early menarche, late menopause, and nulliparity. Clinical features of ovarian cancer are notoriously vague and can include abdominal distension and bloating, abdominal and pelvic pain, urinary symptoms, early satiety, and diarrhea.

      To diagnose ovarian cancer, a CA125 test is usually done initially. If the CA125 level is raised, an urgent ultrasound scan of the abdomen and pelvis should be ordered. However, a CA125 should not be used for screening for ovarian cancer in asymptomatic women. Diagnosis is difficult and usually involves diagnostic laparotomy.

      Management of ovarian cancer usually involves a combination of surgery and platinum-based chemotherapy. The prognosis for ovarian cancer is poor, with 80% of women having advanced disease at presentation and the all stage 5-year survival being 46%. It is traditionally taught that infertility treatment increases the risk of ovarian cancer, as it increases the number of ovulations. However, recent evidence suggests that there is not a significant link. The combined oral contraceptive pill reduces the risk (fewer ovulations) as does having many pregnancies.

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      • Reproductive System
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  • Question 9 - A 35-year-old female patient complains of symptoms suggestive of endometriosis, including pelvic pain...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old female patient complains of symptoms suggestive of endometriosis, including pelvic pain and pain during bowel movements. Where is the probable site of blood accumulation resulting from the presence of endometrial tissue outside the pelvic region?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pouch of Douglas (rectouterine pouch)

      Explanation:

      The most probable cause of the woman’s pain during defecation is bleeding in either the bowel or the pouch of Douglas. Since the only given option is the latter, it is the correct answer. Bleeding into the ovaries can result in ‘chocolate cysts’ that can be observed during laparoscopy. None of the other options mentioned provide anatomical landmarks that could lead to bleeding in the spaces and pain during defecation.

      Endometriosis is a condition where endometrial tissue grows outside of the uterus, affecting around 10% of women of reproductive age. Symptoms include chronic pelvic pain, painful periods, pain during sex, and subfertility. Diagnosis is made through laparoscopy, and treatment depends on the severity of symptoms. First-line treatments include NSAIDs and hormonal treatments such as the combined oral contraceptive pill or progestogens. If these do not improve symptoms or fertility is a priority, referral to secondary care may be necessary. Treatment options in secondary care include GnRH analogues and surgery, with laparoscopic excision or ablation of endometriosis plus adhesiolysis recommended for women trying to conceive. Ovarian cystectomy may also be necessary for endometriomas.

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      • Reproductive System
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  • Question 10 - A 25-year-old primigravida is having her 12-week booking appointment and is undergoing a...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old primigravida is having her 12-week booking appointment and is undergoing a routine physical examination and blood tests. She has no significant medical or drug history and reports feeling well with no pregnancy-related symptoms. The physical examination is normal, but her urinalysis shows trace glycosuria.

      What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Normal finding

      Explanation:

      During pregnancy, there is a common occurrence of trace glycosuria due to the increase in glomerular filtration rate and decrease in the reabsorption of filtered glucose in the tubules. This means that glycosuria is not a reliable indicator of diabetes in pregnancy and is considered a normal finding.

      Gestational diabetes is characterized by carbohydrate intolerance leading to varying degrees of hyperglycemia during pregnancy. Risk factors include a history of gestational diabetes, obesity, family history of diabetes, previous macrosomia or polyhydramnios, and glycosuria of +1 on multiple occasions or ≄+2 on one occasion. Symptoms include polyhydramnios and glycosuria, and diagnosis is confirmed if fasting glucose levels are >5.6mmol/L or 2-hour oral glucose tolerance test results are >7.8mmol/L.

      Pre-diabetes and type 2 diabetes are typically diagnosed before pregnancy. Pre-diabetes is diagnosed with fasting glucose levels of 6.1-6.9 mmol/L or 2-hour oral glucose tolerance test results of 7.8-11.0mmol/L.

      During pregnancy, a woman’s body undergoes various physiological changes. The cardiovascular system experiences an increase in stroke volume, heart rate, and cardiac output, while systolic blood pressure remains unchanged and diastolic blood pressure decreases in the first and second trimesters before returning to normal levels by term. The enlarged uterus may cause issues with venous return, leading to ankle swelling, supine hypotension, and varicose veins.

      The respiratory system sees an increase in pulmonary ventilation and tidal volume, with oxygen requirements only increasing by 20%. This can lead to a sense of dyspnea due to over-breathing and a fall in pCO2. The basal metabolic rate also increases, potentially due to increased thyroxine and adrenocortical hormones.

      Maternal blood volume increases by 30%, with red blood cells increasing by 20% and plasma increasing by 50%, leading to a decrease in hemoglobin levels. Coagulant activity increases slightly, while fibrinolytic activity decreases. Platelet count falls, and white blood cell count and erythrocyte sedimentation rate rise.

      The urinary system experiences an increase in blood flow and glomerular filtration rate, with elevated sex steroid levels leading to increased salt and water reabsorption and urinary protein losses. Trace glycosuria may also occur.

      Calcium requirements increase during pregnancy, with gut absorption increasing substantially due to increased 1,25 dihydroxy vitamin D. Serum levels of calcium and phosphate may fall, but ionized calcium levels remain stable. The liver experiences an increase in alkaline phosphatase and a decrease in albumin levels.

      The uterus undergoes significant changes, increasing in weight from 100g to 1100g and transitioning from hyperplasia to hypertrophy. Cervical ectropion and discharge may increase, and Braxton-Hicks contractions may occur in late pregnancy. Retroversion may lead to retention in the first trimester but usually self-corrects.

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      • Reproductive System
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  • Question 11 - A pregnant woman in her mid-thirties complains of chronic pelvic pain, dyspareunia, dysuria,...

    Incorrect

    • A pregnant woman in her mid-thirties complains of chronic pelvic pain, dyspareunia, dysuria, and foul-smelling green vaginal discharge. Additionally, she experiences pain in the upper right quadrant. What could be the probable reason for this upper right quadrant pain?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Fitz-Hugh-Curtis syndrome

      Explanation:

      Upper right quadrant pain can be caused by various conditions, but in this case, the woman is suffering from pelvic inflammatory disease, which is often associated with Fitz-Hugh-Curtis syndrome (adhesions of liver to peritoneum).

      It is important to note that cholecystitis, pulmonary embolisms, pleurisy, and viral hepatitis do not typically present with symptoms such as dyspareunia, dysuria, or vaginal discharge.

      Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) is a condition where the female pelvic organs, including the uterus, fallopian tubes, ovaries, and surrounding peritoneum, become infected and inflamed. It is typically caused by an infection that spreads from the endocervix. The most common causative organism is Chlamydia trachomatis, followed by Neisseria gonorrhoeae, Mycoplasma genitalium, and Mycoplasma hominis. Symptoms of PID include lower abdominal pain, fever, dyspareunia, dysuria, menstrual irregularities, vaginal or cervical discharge, and cervical excitation.

      To diagnose PID, a pregnancy test should be done to rule out an ectopic pregnancy, and a high vaginal swab should be taken to screen for Chlamydia and gonorrhoeae. However, these tests may often be negative, so consensus guidelines recommend having a low threshold for treatment due to the potential complications of untreated PID. Management typically involves oral ofloxacin and oral metronidazole or intramuscular ceftriaxone, oral doxycycline, and oral metronidazole. In mild cases of PID, intrauterine contraceptive devices may be left in, but the evidence is limited, and removal of the IUD may be associated with better short-term clinical outcomes according to recent guidelines.

      Complications of PID include perihepatitis (Fitz-Hugh Curtis Syndrome), which occurs in around 10% of cases and is characterized by right upper quadrant pain that may be confused with cholecystitis, infertility (with a risk as high as 10-20% after a single episode), chronic pelvic pain, and ectopic pregnancy.

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  • Question 12 - A 25-year-old primiparous woman is in the final stages of delivery. The baby's...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old primiparous woman is in the final stages of delivery. The baby's leading shoulder becomes impacted behind her pelvis. The midwife rings the emergency call bell.

      What is the initial step in managing this situation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Flex and abduct the hips as much as possible (McRobert's manoeuvre)

      Explanation:

      The initial step recommended for managing shoulder dystocia is the use of McRobert’s manoeuvre. This involves the mother’s hips being flexed towards her abdomen and abducting them outwards, typically with the assistance of two individuals. By doing so, the pelvis is tilted upwards, causing the pubic symphysis to move in the same direction. This results in an increase in the functional dimensions of the pelvic outlet, providing more space for the anterior shoulder to be delivered. McRobert’s manoeuvre is successful in the majority of cases of shoulder dystocia and should be performed before any invasive or potentially harmful procedures.

      Shoulder dystocia is a complication that can occur during vaginal delivery when the body of the fetus cannot be delivered after the head has already been delivered. This is usually due to the anterior shoulder of the fetus becoming stuck on the mother’s pubic bone. Shoulder dystocia can cause harm to both the mother and the baby.

      There are several risk factors that increase the likelihood of shoulder dystocia, including fetal macrosomia (large baby), high maternal body mass index, diabetes mellitus, and prolonged labor.

      If shoulder dystocia is identified, it is important to call for senior medical assistance immediately. The McRoberts’ maneuver is often used to help deliver the baby. This involves flexing and abducting the mother’s hips to increase the angle of the pelvis and facilitate delivery. An episiotomy may be performed to provide better access for internal maneuvers, but it will not relieve the bony obstruction. Symphysiotomy and the Zavanelli maneuver are not recommended as they can cause significant harm to the mother. Oxytocin administration is not effective in treating shoulder dystocia.

      Complications of shoulder dystocia can include postpartum hemorrhage and perineal tears for the mother, and brachial plexus injury or neonatal death for the baby. It is important to manage shoulder dystocia promptly and effectively to minimize these risks.

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  • Question 13 - A 28-year-old, first-time pregnant woman is currently in the second stage of labor,...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old, first-time pregnant woman is currently in the second stage of labor, actively pushing to deliver her baby. The estimated weight of the baby is slightly above average, which has caused a prolonged second stage of labor. Eventually, the baby is delivered, but the patient experiences a second-degree perineal tear. The tear is immediately sutured to prevent bleeding. What is a risk factor for perineal tears?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Primigravida

      Explanation:

      The only correct risk factor for perineal tears is being a primigravida. Other factors such as IUGR, spontaneous vaginal delivery, and caesarian section do not increase the risk of perineal tears. However, macrosomia and instrumental delivery are known risk factors for perineal tears.

      Understanding Perineal Tears: Classification and Risk Factors

      Perineal tears are a common occurrence during childbirth, and the Royal College of Obstetricians and Gynaecologists (RCOG) has provided guidelines for their classification. First-degree tears are superficial and do not require any repair, while second-degree tears involve the perineal muscle and require suturing by a midwife or clinician. Third-degree tears involve the anal sphincter complex and require repair in theatre by a trained clinician, with varying degrees of severity depending on the extent of the tear. Fourth-degree tears involve the anal sphincter complex, rectal mucosa, and require repair in theatre by a trained clinician.

      There are several risk factors for perineal tears, including being a first-time mother, delivering a large baby, experiencing a precipitant labour, and having a shoulder dystocia or forceps delivery. It is important for healthcare providers to be aware of these risk factors and to provide appropriate care and support during childbirth to minimize the risk of perineal tears. By understanding the classification and risk factors associated with perineal tears, healthcare providers can better prepare for and manage this common complication of childbirth.

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  • Question 14 - A woman in her early menopausal stage is prescribed hormone replacement therapy (HRT)...

    Incorrect

    • A woman in her early menopausal stage is prescribed hormone replacement therapy (HRT) by her physician to relieve her symptoms, which includes both oestrogen and progesterone components. However, the physician cautions her about the potential complications associated with HRT. What is the complication that this woman is at a higher risk of developing?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Stroke

      Explanation:

      The use of HRT is associated with a higher likelihood of thrombotic events, including stroke. This is due to platelet aggregation, which is distinct from the accumulation of cholesterol that primarily contributes to atheroma formation. HRT does not elevate the risk of thrombocytopaenia or vulval cancer, and the inclusion of progesterone in the HRT helps to reduce the risk of developing endometrial cancer.

      Understanding Menopause and Contraception

      Menopause is a natural biological process that marks the end of a woman’s reproductive years. It typically occurs when a woman reaches the age of 51 in the UK. However, prior to menopause, women may experience a period known as the climacteric. During this time, ovarian function starts to decline, and women may experience symptoms such as hot flashes, mood swings, and vaginal dryness.

      It is important for women to understand that they can still become pregnant during the climacteric period. Therefore, it is recommended to use effective contraception until a certain period of time has passed. Women over the age of 50 should use contraception for 12 months after their last period, while women under the age of 50 should use contraception for 24 months after their last period. By understanding menopause and the importance of contraception during the climacteric period, women can make informed decisions about their reproductive health.

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  • Question 15 - What is the primary mechanism of action of the combined oral contraceptive pill?...

    Incorrect

    • What is the primary mechanism of action of the combined oral contraceptive pill?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Inhibition of ovulation

      Explanation:

      How does the Combined Oral Contraceptive Pill work?

      The Combined Oral Contraceptive Pill (COC) is a widely used method of contraception in the UK. It works by preventing ovulation, which means that an egg is not released from the ovaries. In addition to this, the COC also thickens the cervical mucus, making it more difficult for sperm to enter the uterus, and thins the endometrial lining, reducing the chance of implantation.

      By combining these three actions, the COC is highly effective at preventing pregnancy. It is important to note that the COC does not protect against sexually transmitted infections (STIs), so additional protection such as condoms should be used if there is a risk of STIs.

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  • Question 16 - A perimenopausal woman in her late 40s is prescribed Hormone Replacement Therapy consisting...

    Incorrect

    • A perimenopausal woman in her late 40s is prescribed Hormone Replacement Therapy consisting of oestrogen and progesterone. What roles do these hormones play in HRT?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Oestrogen is for symptomatic relief and progesterone is protective against oestrogenic adverse effects

      Explanation:

      The main cause of menopausal symptoms is low levels of oestrogen, which is why hormone replacement therapy (HRT) aims to alleviate these symptoms by supplementing oestrogen. However, oestrogen can lead to thickening of the endometrium, which increases the risk of neoplasia. To counteract this risk, progesterone is also included in HRT to prevent endometrial thickening and any associated malignancy.

      Therefore, any statement suggesting that progesterone is used for symptomatic relief, that oestrogen is protective, or that progesterone and oestrogen work together in a synergistic manner is incorrect.

      Symptoms of Menopause

      Menopause is a natural biological process that marks the end of a woman’s reproductive years. It is characterized by a decrease in the levels of female hormones, particularly oestrogen, which can lead to a range of symptoms. One of the most common symptoms is a change in periods, including changes in the length of menstrual cycles and dysfunctional uterine bleeding.

      Around 80% of women experience vasomotor symptoms, which can occur daily and last for up to five years. These symptoms include hot flushes and night sweats. Urogenital changes are also common, affecting around 35% of women. These changes can include vaginal dryness and atrophy, as well as urinary frequency.

      In addition to physical symptoms, menopause can also have psychological effects. Approximately 10% of women experience anxiety and depression during this time, as well as short-term memory impairment. It is important to note that menopause can also have longer-term complications, such as an increased risk of osteoporosis and ischaemic heart disease.

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  • Question 17 - A teenage girl visits her GP seeking the morning-after pill, which prevents pregnancy...

    Incorrect

    • A teenage girl visits her GP seeking the morning-after pill, which prevents pregnancy by inhibiting ovulation. What is the specific factor responsible for the release of the oocyte during this physiological process?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Luteinising hormone (LH) surge

      Explanation:

      Ovulation is caused by the LH surge, which is triggered by rising levels of oestrogen. The exact mechanism behind the LH surge is not fully understood, but there are two theories. One suggests that a positive feedback loop between oestradiol and LH is responsible, while the other argues that the LH surge is caused by the inhibition of oestrogen-dependant negative feedback on the anterior pituitary. Although there is a small FSH peak that occurs alongside the LH surge, it is not responsible for ovulation. Pulsatile GnRH secretion stimulates the anterior pituitary to release gonadotropins (LH and FSH), but this process is inhibited by oestrogen and progesterone and does not directly stimulate ovulation.

      Phases of the Menstrual Cycle

      The menstrual cycle is a complex process that can be divided into four phases: menstruation, follicular phase, ovulation, and luteal phase. During the follicular phase, a number of follicles develop in the ovaries, with one follicle becoming dominant around the mid-follicular phase. At the same time, the endometrium undergoes proliferation. This phase is characterized by a rise in follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH), which results in the development of follicles that secrete oestradiol. When the egg has matured, it secretes enough oestradiol to trigger the acute release of luteinizing hormone (LH), which leads to ovulation.

      During the luteal phase, the corpus luteum secretes progesterone, which causes the endometrium to change to a secretory lining. If fertilization does not occur, the corpus luteum will degenerate, and progesterone levels will fall. Oestradiol levels also rise again during the luteal phase. Cervical mucus thickens and forms a plug across the external os following menstruation. Just prior to ovulation, the mucus becomes clear, acellular, low viscosity, and stretchy. Under the influence of progesterone, it becomes thick, scant, and tacky. Basal body temperature falls prior to ovulation due to the influence of oestradiol and rises following ovulation in response to higher progesterone levels. Understanding the phases of the menstrual cycle is important for women’s health and fertility.

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  • Question 18 - A pair of twin sisters are delivered in the delivery room. The midwife...

    Incorrect

    • A pair of twin sisters are delivered in the delivery room. The midwife observes that they are identical. These twins separated after implantation but before day 6. What category of twins do they belong to?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Monochorionic diamniotic

      Explanation:

      The most uncommon and recent occurrence of twins is when they are conjoined, resulting in a unique cleavage.

      When twins share the same placenta, known as monochorionic twins, there is a possibility of uneven blood flow between them. This can lead to one twin receiving more blood than the other, which often requires medical intervention.

      Dizygotic twins, which come from two separate eggs, have a higher chance of occurring in certain situations. These include being between the ages of 35-40, having a family history of twins, previously giving birth to multiples, having a high BMI, smoking, and conceiving in the summer or autumn.

      Around 1 in 10 dichorionic twins are monozygotic, meaning they come from a single fertilized egg that splits into two embryos.

      Triplets can occur when two eggs are fertilized, and one of them splits into a pair of monozygotic twins.

      Twin Pregnancies: Incidence, Types, and Complications

      Twin pregnancies occur in approximately 1 out of 105 pregnancies, with the majority being dizygotic or non-identical twins. Monozygotic or identical twins, on the other hand, develop from a single ovum that has divided to form two embryos. However, monoamniotic monozygotic twins are associated with increased risks of spontaneous miscarriage, perinatal mortality rate, malformations, intrauterine growth restriction, prematurity, and twin-to-twin transfusions. The incidence of dizygotic twins is increasing due to infertility treatment, and predisposing factors include previous twins, family history, increasing maternal age, multigravida, induced ovulation, in-vitro fertilisation, and race, particularly Afro-Caribbean.

      Antenatal complications of twin pregnancies include polyhydramnios, pregnancy-induced hypertension, anaemia, and antepartum haemorrhage. Fetal complications include perinatal mortality, prematurity, light-for-date babies, and malformations, especially in monozygotic twins. Labour complications may also arise, such as postpartum haemorrhage, malpresentation, cord prolapse, and entanglement.

      Management of twin pregnancies involves rest, ultrasound for diagnosis and monthly checks, additional iron and folate, more antenatal care, and precautions during labour, such as having two obstetricians present. Most twins deliver by 38 weeks, and if longer, most are induced at 38-40 weeks. Overall, twin pregnancies require close monitoring and management to ensure the best possible outcomes for both mother and babies.

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  • Question 19 - As a medical student observing a sexual health clinic, you witness a 20-year-old...

    Incorrect

    • As a medical student observing a sexual health clinic, you witness a 20-year-old female patient seeking emergency contraception after engaging in unprotected sexual intercourse. The doctor prescribes ulipristal acetate. Can you explain the mechanism of action of this drug?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Selective progesterone receptor modulator

      Explanation:

      Ulipristal is classified as a selective progesterone receptor modulator, which is utilized for emergency contraception. It is recommended to be taken within 120 hours of unprotected intercourse, and its primary mode of action is believed to be the inhibition of ovulation.

      Selective estrogen receptor modulators are employed in the treatment of breast cancer, osteoporosis, and postmenopausal symptoms.

      Progesterone analogs activate receptors in a manner that closely resembles progesterone itself, and are typically included in hormonal contraceptive preparations.

      Similarly, estrogen analogs imitate natural estrogen and are commonly found in hormonal contraceptives.

      The mechanism of action for levonorgestrel, another frequently used emergency contraceptive, is currently unknown.

      Emergency contraception is available in the UK through two methods: emergency hormonal contraception and intrauterine device (IUD). Emergency hormonal contraception includes two types of pills: levonorgestrel and ulipristal. Levonorgestrel works by stopping ovulation and inhibiting implantation, and should be taken as soon as possible after unprotected sexual intercourse (UPSI) for maximum efficacy. The single dose of levonorgestrel is 1.5 mg, but should be doubled for those with a BMI over 26 or weight over 70kg. It is safe and well-tolerated, but may cause vomiting in around 1% of women. Ulipristal, on the other hand, is a selective progesterone receptor modulator that inhibits ovulation. It should be taken within 120 hours after intercourse, and may reduce the effectiveness of hormonal contraception. The most effective method of emergency contraception is the copper IUD, which may inhibit fertilization or implantation. It must be inserted within 5 days of UPSI, or up to 5 days after the likely ovulation date. Prophylactic antibiotics may be given if the patient is at high-risk of sexually transmitted infection. The IUD is 99% effective regardless of where it is used in the cycle, and may be left in-situ for long-term contraception.

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  • Question 20 - A 50-year-old woman has recently received her first invitation for routine mammography and...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman has recently received her first invitation for routine mammography and wishes to discuss the potential risks and benefits. Can you explain how breast screening can detect cancers that may not have been clinically significant, resulting in unnecessary treatment? Additionally, for every woman whose life is saved through the breast cancer screening program, how many women are estimated to undergo treatment for breast cancer that would not have been life-threatening?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 3

      Explanation:

      The RCGP curriculum mandates the capability to converse with patients about NHS screening programmes, as part of the objective to promote health and prevent disease. Over-diagnosis and over-treatment are the primary concerns associated with breast cancer screening. Research suggests that for every life saved by the screening programme, three women will receive treatment for a cancer that would not have posed a threat to their lives. Therefore, it is the woman’s personal decision to weigh the benefits against the risks when invited for routine screening.

      Breast Cancer Screening and Familial Risk Factors

      Breast cancer screening is offered to women aged 50-70 years through the NHS Breast Screening Programme, with mammograms offered every three years. While the effectiveness of breast screening is debated, it is estimated that the programme saves around 1,400 lives annually. Women over 70 years may still have mammograms but are encouraged to make their own appointments.

      For those with familial risk factors, NICE guidelines recommend referral to a breast clinic for further assessment. Those with one first-degree or second-degree relative diagnosed with breast cancer do not need referral unless certain factors are present in the family history, such as early age of diagnosis, bilateral breast cancer, male breast cancer, ovarian cancer, Jewish ancestry, or complicated patterns of multiple cancers at a young age. Women with an increased risk of breast cancer due to family history may be offered screening from a younger age.

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  • Question 21 - A 20-year-old male is having a scrotal orchidectomy. During the procedure, the surgeons...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old male is having a scrotal orchidectomy. During the procedure, the surgeons manipulate the spermatic cord. What is the origin of the outermost layer of this structure?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: External oblique aponeurosis

      Explanation:

      The external oblique aponeurosis provides the outermost layer of the spermatic cord, which is acquired during its passage through the superficial inguinal ring.

      Anatomy of the Scrotum and Testes

      The scrotum is composed of skin and dartos fascia, with an arterial supply from the anterior and posterior scrotal arteries. It is also the site of lymphatic drainage to the inguinal lymph nodes. The testes are surrounded by the tunica vaginalis, a closed peritoneal sac, with the parietal layer adjacent to the internal spermatic fascia. The testicular arteries arise from the aorta, just below the renal arteries, and the pampiniform plexus drains into the testicular veins. The left testicular vein drains into the left renal vein, while the right testicular vein drains into the inferior vena cava. Lymphatic drainage occurs to the para-aortic nodes.

      The spermatic cord is formed by the vas deferens and is covered by the internal spermatic fascia, cremasteric fascia, and external spermatic fascia. The cord contains the vas deferens, testicular artery, artery of vas deferens, cremasteric artery, pampiniform plexus, sympathetic nerve fibers, genital branch of the genitofemoral nerve, and lymphatic vessels. The vas deferens transmits sperm and accessory gland secretions, while the testicular artery supplies the testis and epididymis. The cremasteric artery arises from the inferior epigastric artery, and the pampiniform plexus is a venous plexus that drains into the right or left testicular vein. The sympathetic nerve fibers lie on the arteries, while the parasympathetic fibers lie on the vas. The genital branch of the genitofemoral nerve supplies the cremaster. Lymphatic vessels drain to lumbar and para-aortic nodes.

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  • Question 22 - A 25-year-old woman is seeking information about the combined oral contraceptive pill for...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman is seeking information about the combined oral contraceptive pill for contraception purposes. She has concerns about the pill causing cancer and wants to know more about its potential risks. What advice can you provide her?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The combined oral contraceptive pill increases the risk of breast and cervical cancer but is protective against ovarian and endometrial cancer

      Explanation:

      The combined oral contraceptive pill has been found to have a slightly higher risk of breast cancer, but it is protective against ovarian and endometrial cancer. Women with known breast cancer mutations like BRCA1 should avoid taking the pill as the risk may outweigh the benefits. Additionally, women with current breast cancer should not take the pill. After 5 years of use, there is a small increase in cervical cancer risk, which doubles after 10 years. However, cervical cancer is not a reason to avoid using the pill.

      Pros and Cons of the Combined Oral Contraceptive Pill

      The combined oral contraceptive pill is a highly effective method of birth control with a failure rate of less than one per 100 woman years. It is a convenient option that does not interfere with sexual activity and its contraceptive effects are reversible upon stopping. Additionally, it can make periods regular, lighter, and less painful, and may reduce the risk of ovarian, endometrial, and colorectal cancer. It may also protect against pelvic inflammatory disease, ovarian cysts, benign breast disease, and acne vulgaris.

      However, there are also some disadvantages to consider. One of the main drawbacks is that people may forget to take it, which can reduce its effectiveness. It also offers no protection against sexually transmitted infections, so additional precautions may be necessary. There is an increased risk of venous thromboembolic disease, breast and cervical cancer, stroke, and ischaemic heart disease, especially in smokers. Temporary side effects such as headache, nausea, and breast tenderness may also be experienced.

      Despite some reports of weight gain, a Cochrane review did not find a causal relationship between the combined oral contraceptive pill and weight gain. Overall, the combined oral contraceptive pill can be a safe and effective option for birth control, but it is important to weigh the pros and cons and discuss any concerns with a healthcare provider.

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  • Question 23 - A 35-year-old woman contacts her community midwife due to persistent vomiting for the...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman contacts her community midwife due to persistent vomiting for the past two weeks. The vomiting is more severe in the morning and has been gradually worsening since the beginning of her pregnancy. She is currently 14 weeks pregnant, and this is her second pregnancy. She recalls experiencing similar symptoms during her first pregnancy, which was achieved through IVF therapy. The woman reports weight loss, and a urine dipstick test shows ketonuria. An ultrasonographer reports a placental lambda sign.

      What is the probable diagnosis for the cause of this woman's symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Multiple gestation

      Explanation:

      The most likely cause of the patient’s intractable vomiting during pregnancy is multiple gestation. This condition, known as hyperemesis gravidarum, is characterized by vomiting, dehydration, weight loss, and ketonuria. Multiple gestations can lead to hormone imbalances due to increased levels of ÎČhCG, which can increase vomiting. Risk factors for multiple gestations include the use of fertility-enhancing treatments like IVF and older maternal age. The presence of the placental lambda sign is characteristic of a dichorionic pregnancy.

      Complete molar pregnancy is an unlikely diagnosis as it typically presents with abnormal uterine bleeding, pelvic pain, and a snowstorm appearance on ultrasound. Partial molar pregnancy is also unlikely as it is associated with lower levels of ÎČhCG and often has fetal parts present on ultrasound. Physiological vomiting, while common in pregnancy, is not the most likely cause in this case as the patient is experiencing weight loss and ketonuria.

      Hyperemesis gravidarum is a severe form of nausea and vomiting that affects around 1% of pregnancies. It is usually experienced between 8 and 12 weeks of pregnancy but can persist up to 20 weeks. The condition is thought to be related to raised beta hCG levels and is more common in women who are obese, nulliparous, or have multiple pregnancies, trophoblastic disease, or hyperthyroidism. Smoking is associated with a decreased incidence of hyperemesis.

      The Royal College of Obstetricians and Gynaecologists recommend that a woman must have a 5% pre-pregnancy weight loss, dehydration, and electrolyte imbalance before a diagnosis of hyperemesis gravidarum can be made. Validated scoring systems such as the Pregnancy-Unique Quantification of Emesis (PUQE) score can be used to classify the severity of NVP.

      Management of hyperemesis gravidarum involves using antihistamines as a first-line treatment, with oral cyclizine or oral promethazine being recommended by Clinical Knowledge Summaries. Oral prochlorperazine is an alternative, while ondansetron and metoclopramide may be used as second-line treatments. Ginger and P6 (wrist) acupressure can be tried, but there is little evidence of benefit. Admission may be needed for IV hydration.

      Complications of hyperemesis gravidarum can include Wernicke’s encephalopathy, Mallory-Weiss tear, central pontine myelinolysis, acute tubular necrosis, and fetal growth restriction, pre-term birth, and cleft lip/palate (if ondansetron is used during the first trimester). The NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries recommend considering admission if a woman is unable to keep down liquids or oral antiemetics, has ketonuria and/or weight loss (greater than 5% of body weight), or has a confirmed or suspected comorbidity that may be adversely affected by nausea and vomiting.

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  • Question 24 - The emergency buzzer is activated for a 32-year-old woman in labour. Despite gentle...

    Incorrect

    • The emergency buzzer is activated for a 32-year-old woman in labour. Despite gentle traction, the midwife is unable to deliver the foetal shoulders after the head is delivered during a vaginal cephalic delivery. What is the most probable risk factor for this labour complication?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Foetal macrosomia

      Explanation:

      Shoulder dystocia is the labour complication discussed in this case, and it is more likely to occur in cases of foetal macrosomia. This is because larger babies have a greater shoulder diameter, making it more difficult for the shoulders to pass through the pelvic outlet.

      Maternal pre-eclampsia is a risk factor for small for gestational age (SGA) pregnancies, but it is not directly linked to shoulder dystocia.

      Obstetric cholestasis is a liver disorder that can occur during pregnancy, but it does not increase the risk of shoulder dystocia.

      While a previous caesarean section may increase the likelihood of placenta praevia, placenta accreta, or uterine rupture, it is not a direct risk factor for shoulder dystocia.

      A previous post-term delivery may increase the likelihood of future post-term deliveries, but it does not directly increase the risk of shoulder dystocia.

      Shoulder dystocia is a complication that can occur during vaginal delivery when the body of the fetus cannot be delivered after the head has already been delivered. This is usually due to the anterior shoulder of the fetus becoming stuck on the mother’s pubic bone. Shoulder dystocia can cause harm to both the mother and the baby.

      There are several risk factors that increase the likelihood of shoulder dystocia, including fetal macrosomia (large baby), high maternal body mass index, diabetes mellitus, and prolonged labor.

      If shoulder dystocia is identified, it is important to call for senior medical assistance immediately. The McRoberts’ maneuver is often used to help deliver the baby. This involves flexing and abducting the mother’s hips to increase the angle of the pelvis and facilitate delivery. An episiotomy may be performed to provide better access for internal maneuvers, but it will not relieve the bony obstruction. Symphysiotomy and the Zavanelli maneuver are not recommended as they can cause significant harm to the mother. Oxytocin administration is not effective in treating shoulder dystocia.

      Complications of shoulder dystocia can include postpartum hemorrhage and perineal tears for the mother, and brachial plexus injury or neonatal death for the baby. It is important to manage shoulder dystocia promptly and effectively to minimize these risks.

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  • Question 25 - A 26-year-old first-time mother is interested in learning about the benefits of breastfeeding...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old first-time mother is interested in learning about the benefits of breastfeeding for her newborn. You inform her that breast milk contains essential nutrients and enzymes, including lactoferrin.

      What is the function of lactoferrin in breast milk?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Promotes rapid absorption of iron

      Explanation:

      Breast Milk lactoferrin facilitates the quick absorption of iron in the gut, while simultaneously limiting the amount of iron accessible to gut bacteria due to its antibacterial properties. Additionally, lactoferrin has been found to promote bone health by increasing bone formation and reducing bone resorption.

      Advantages and Disadvantages of Breastfeeding

      Breastfeeding has numerous advantages for both the mother and the baby. For the mother, it promotes bonding with the baby and helps with the involution of the uterus. It also provides protection against breast and ovarian cancer and is a cheap alternative to formula feeding as there is no need to sterilize bottles. However, it should not be relied upon as a contraceptive method as it is unreliable.

      Breast milk contains immunological components such as IgA, lysozyme, and lactoferrin that protect mucosal surfaces, have bacteriolytic properties, and ensure rapid absorption of iron so it is not available to bacteria. This reduces the incidence of ear, chest, and gastrointestinal infections, as well as eczema, asthma, and type 1 diabetes mellitus. Breastfeeding also reduces the incidence of sudden infant death syndrome.

      One of the advantages of breastfeeding is that the baby is in control of how much milk it takes. However, there are also disadvantages such as the transmission of drugs and infections such as HIV. Prolonged breastfeeding may also lead to nutrient inadequacies such as vitamin D and vitamin K deficiencies, as well as breast milk jaundice.

      In conclusion, while breastfeeding has numerous advantages, it is important to be aware of the potential disadvantages and to consult with a healthcare professional to ensure that both the mother and the baby are receiving adequate nutrition and care.

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  • Question 26 - Emma, a 28-year-old female, arrives at the Emergency Department on Sunday evening complaining...

    Incorrect

    • Emma, a 28-year-old female, arrives at the Emergency Department on Sunday evening complaining of a sudden, intense pain in her lower abdomen that extends to her right shoulder tip.

      After conducting a pregnancy test, it is revealed that Emma is pregnant.

      The consultant's primary concern is a ruptured ectopic pregnancy.

      To determine if Emma has a hemoperitoneum, the medical team decides to perform a culdocentesis and extract fluid from the rectouterine pouch.

      Through which route will a needle be inserted to aspirate fluid from the rectouterine pouch during the culdocentesis procedure?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Posterior fornix of the vagina

      Explanation:

      To obtain fluid from the rectouterine pouch, a needle is inserted through the posterior fornix of the vagina.

      The vagina has four fornices, including the anterior, posterior, and two lateral fornices. The anterior fornix of the vagina is closely associated with the vesicouterine pouch.

      Culdocentesis is a procedure that involves using a needle to extract fluid from the rectouterine pouch (also known as the pouch of Douglas) through the posterior fornix of the vagina.

      Culdocentesis is now mostly replaced by ultrasound examination and minimally invasive surgery, such as in cases of ectopic pregnancy.

      Anatomy of the Uterus

      The uterus is a female reproductive organ that is located within the pelvis and is covered by the peritoneum. It is supplied with blood by the uterine artery, which runs alongside the uterus and anastomoses with the ovarian artery. The uterus is supported by various ligaments, including the central perineal tendon, lateral cervical, round, and uterosacral ligaments. The ureter is located close to the uterus, and injuries to the ureter can occur when there is pathology in the area.

      The uterus is typically anteverted and anteflexed in most women. Its topography can be visualized through imaging techniques such as ultrasound or MRI. Understanding the anatomy of the uterus is important for diagnosing and treating various gynecological conditions.

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  • Question 27 - A 32-year-old woman presents for a routine antenatal check-up at 28 weeks gestation....

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman presents for a routine antenatal check-up at 28 weeks gestation. She complains of feeling breathless, and her vital signs reveal a heart rate of 92bpm, blood pressure of 118/78 mmHg, temperature of 36.7ÂșC, respiratory rate of 18/min, and oxygen saturation of 98%. To rule out any respiratory issues, an arterial blood gas is performed, which indicates respiratory alkalosis. What physiological change during pregnancy could have caused this?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Increase in tidal volume and increase in pulmonary ventilation

      Explanation:

      The correct answer is an increase in tidal volume and pulmonary ventilation. Pregnancy leads to an increase in tidal volume without any change in respiratory rate, resulting in an overall increase in pulmonary ventilation. This can cause respiratory alkalosis due to the loss of carbon dioxide.

      Incorrect options include a decrease in tidal volume and an increase in pulmonary ventilation, which is not observed during pregnancy. Similarly, an increase in tidal volume and a decrease in pulmonary ventilation, or no change in either tidal volume or pulmonary ventilation, are also not accurate descriptions of respiratory changes during pregnancy.

      During pregnancy, a woman’s body undergoes various physiological changes. The cardiovascular system experiences an increase in stroke volume, heart rate, and cardiac output, while systolic blood pressure remains unchanged and diastolic blood pressure decreases in the first and second trimesters before returning to normal levels by term. The enlarged uterus may cause issues with venous return, leading to ankle swelling, supine hypotension, and varicose veins.

      The respiratory system sees an increase in pulmonary ventilation and tidal volume, with oxygen requirements only increasing by 20%. This can lead to a sense of dyspnea due to over-breathing and a fall in pCO2. The basal metabolic rate also increases, potentially due to increased thyroxine and adrenocortical hormones.

      Maternal blood volume increases by 30%, with red blood cells increasing by 20% and plasma increasing by 50%, leading to a decrease in hemoglobin levels. Coagulant activity increases slightly, while fibrinolytic activity decreases. Platelet count falls, and white blood cell count and erythrocyte sedimentation rate rise.

      The urinary system experiences an increase in blood flow and glomerular filtration rate, with elevated sex steroid levels leading to increased salt and water reabsorption and urinary protein losses. Trace glycosuria may also occur.

      Calcium requirements increase during pregnancy, with gut absorption increasing substantially due to increased 1,25 dihydroxy vitamin D. Serum levels of calcium and phosphate may fall, but ionized calcium levels remain stable. The liver experiences an increase in alkaline phosphatase and a decrease in albumin levels.

      The uterus undergoes significant changes, increasing in weight from 100g to 1100g and transitioning from hyperplasia to hypertrophy. Cervical ectropion and discharge may increase, and Braxton-Hicks contractions may occur in late pregnancy. Retroversion may lead to retention in the first trimester but usually self-corrects.

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  • Question 28 - A 65-year-old woman presents to her GP with symptoms indicating a possible vaginal...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old woman presents to her GP with symptoms indicating a possible vaginal prolapse. During an internal examination, it is discovered that her uterus has prolapsed into the vagina. Can you identify the typical anatomical position of the uterus?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Anteverted and anteflexed

      Explanation:

      In most women, the uterus is positioned in an anteverted and anteflexed manner. Anteversion refers to the uterus being tilted forward towards the bladder in the coronal plane, while retroversion describes a posterior tilt towards the rectum. Anteflexion refers to the position of the uterus body in relation to the cervix, with the fundus being anterior to the cervix in the sagittal plane.

      Anatomy of the Uterus

      The uterus is a female reproductive organ that is located within the pelvis and is covered by the peritoneum. It is supplied with blood by the uterine artery, which runs alongside the uterus and anastomoses with the ovarian artery. The uterus is supported by various ligaments, including the central perineal tendon, lateral cervical, round, and uterosacral ligaments. The ureter is located close to the uterus, and injuries to the ureter can occur when there is pathology in the area.

      The uterus is typically anteverted and anteflexed in most women. Its topography can be visualized through imaging techniques such as ultrasound or MRI. Understanding the anatomy of the uterus is important for diagnosing and treating various gynecological conditions.

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  • Question 29 - A 32-year-old woman visits her GP after receiving a positive pregnancy test result....

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman visits her GP after receiving a positive pregnancy test result. During her pregnancy, she will require regular blood tests due to the potential risk of haemolytic disease of the newborn. What is the underlying pathology of this condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Maternal production of IgG antibodies against fetal red blood cells

      Explanation:

      The development of haemolytic disease of the newborn is caused by the production of IgG antibodies by the mother against the red blood cells of the fetus, which then cross the placenta and attack the fetal red blood cells. This condition is not caused by antibodies to platelets or the bone marrow, and it is the maternal antibodies that are the problem, not the fetal antibodies.

      Rhesus negative mothers can develop anti-D IgG antibodies if they deliver a Rh +ve child, which can cause haemolysis in future pregnancies. Prevention involves testing for D antibodies and giving anti-D prophylaxis at 28 and 34 weeks. Anti-D should also be given in various situations, such as delivery of a Rh +ve infant or amniocentesis. Tests include cord blood FBC, blood group, direct Coombs test, and Kleihauer test. Affected fetuses may experience oedema, jaundice, anaemia, hepatosplenomegaly, heart failure, and kernicterus, and may require transfusions and UV phototherapy.

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  • Question 30 - A 16-year-old girl has missed her period by 6 days, which is unusual...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old girl has missed her period by 6 days, which is unusual given her regular 30-day cycle. She purchases a pregnancy test and receives a positive result. What substance is released upon fertilization of the egg to prevent polyspermy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Calcium ions

      Explanation:

      Fertilization happens when a sperm reaches an egg that has been released during ovulation. The process begins with the sperm penetrating the outer layer of the egg, called the corona radiata, using enzymes in the plasma membrane of its head. These enzymes bind to receptors on the next inner layer of the egg, called the zona pellucida, triggering the acrosome reaction. This reaction causes the acrosomal hydrolytic enzymes to digest the zona pellucida, creating a pathway to the egg’s plasma membrane. The sperm then enters the egg’s cytoplasm, and the two cells fuse together to form a diploid zygote. The sperm also stimulates the release of calcium ions from the cortical granules of the egg, which inactivate the receptors on the zona pellucida to prevent polyspermy. After fertilization, the zygote undergoes rapid mitotic cell divisions to form an embryo.

      The Process of Fertilisation

      Fertilisation is the process by which a sperm cell reaches and penetrates an egg cell that has been released during ovulation. The first step involves the sperm penetrating the corona radiata, which is the outer layer of the ovum, using enzymes in the plasma membrane of the sperm’s head. These enzymes bind to the ZP3 receptors on the zona pellucida, which is the next inner layer of the ovum, triggering the acrosome reaction. This reaction involves the acrosomal hydrolytic enzymes digesting the zona pellucida, creating a pathway to the ovum plasma membrane.

      Once the sperm enters the ovum cytoplasm, the two cells fuse together, resulting in the formation of a diploid zygote. The sperm also stimulates the release of calcium ions from the cortical granules of the ovum, which inactivate the ZP3 receptors to prevent polyspermy. After fertilisation, rapid mitotic cell divisions occur, resulting in the production of an embryo.

      In summary, fertilisation is a complex process that involves the penetration of the ovum by the sperm, the fusion of the two cells, and the subsequent development of the zygote into an embryo.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive System
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