-
Question 1
Incorrect
-
A mother presents with her 3-month-old baby boy to ask advice about his failed newborn hearing screening. Further tests were normal; however, she has been advised to seek medical advice if she has any concerns about his hearing in the future. Which one of the following would warrant referral for a further hearing test?
Your Answer: Not responding to his own name by the age of six months old
Correct Answer: Not babbling or imitating sounds by the age of nine months old
Explanation:Developmental Milestones for Language Acquisition in Children
Language acquisition is an important developmental milestone in children. Here are some key markers to look out for:
– Not babbling or imitating sounds by the age of nine months old: If a baby is not babbling or imitating sounds by this age, it could be a sign of a social, cognitive, speech, or hearing problem. A full developmental assessment would be necessary to ensure there are no other areas of delay.
– Putting two words together by the age of 18 months old: By this age, a child should be using 50+ words and be able to put two words together. If not, a full developmental assessment would be necessary to ensure there are no other areas of delay.
– More than 200 spoken words by the age of two years: A 30-month-old child should be using 200+ words. If not, a full developmental assessment would be necessary to ensure there are no other areas of delay.
– Not responding to his own name by the age of six months old: By the age of one year, a child should respond to their own name. If not, a full developmental assessment would be necessary to ensure there are no other areas of delay.
– Speaking 6-20 words by the age of one year: By the age of one, a child should be using 6-20 words. If not, a full developmental assessment would be necessary to ensure there are no other areas of delay.
It is important to monitor a child’s language development and seek professional help if there are any concerns. Early intervention can make a significant difference in a child’s language acquisition and overall development.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
-
-
Question 2
Correct
-
A 6-year-old male is brought to the emergency department by his mother due to increasing lethargy over the past few days. The child has a temperature of 38.6ºC and appears more pale than usual. Upon physical examination, petechiae and bruising are noted on the lower extremities. The following blood results are obtained: Hb 94 g/L (135-180), Platelets 86 * 109/L (150 - 400), WBC 26 * 109/L (4.0 - 11.0), Neutrophils 1.0 * 109/L (2.0 - 7.0).
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia
Explanation:The most common childhood cancer is ALL, which is characterized by anaemia, neutropaenia, and thrombocytopaenia. Symptoms include pallor, lethargy, splenomegaly, and petechiae. In contrast, aplastic anaemia is characterized by pancytopenia and hypoplastic bone marrow, which would result in leukopenia instead of leukocytosis. Thalassaemia, a genetic condition that causes anaemia, does not match the patient’s blood film or clinical presentation. ITP, an immune-mediated reduction in platelet count, would not explain the leukocytosis and neutropaenia seen in the patient. Meningitis, which can cause fever and purpura, is unlikely to be bacterial meningitis as it would result in neutrophilia instead of neutropaenia.
Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia (ALL) is a type of cancer that commonly affects children and accounts for 80% of childhood leukaemias. It is most prevalent in children between the ages of 2-5 years, with boys being slightly more affected than girls. Symptoms of ALL can be divided into those caused by bone marrow failure, such as anaemia, neutropaenia, and thrombocytopenia, and other features like bone pain, splenomegaly, and hepatomegaly. Fever is also present in up to 50% of new cases, which may indicate an infection or a constitutional symptom. Testicular swelling may also occur.
There are three types of ALL: common ALL, T-cell ALL, and B-cell ALL. Common ALL is the most common type, accounting for 75% of cases, and is characterized by the presence of CD10 and a pre-B phenotype. Poor prognostic factors for ALL include age less than 2 years or greater than 10 years, a white blood cell count greater than 20 * 109/l at diagnosis, T or B cell surface markers, non-Caucasian ethnicity, and male sex.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
-
-
Question 3
Correct
-
A 10-day-old preterm neonate is having difficulty tolerating cow's milk feeds administered by the nurses in the special care baby unit. During the most recent feed, the neonate vomited and the nurse observed bile in the vomit. Although the stools are of normal consistency, the last stool contained fresh red blood. Upon examination, the neonate appears to be well hydrated, but the abdomen is significantly distended. An urgent abdominal x-ray is ordered, which reveals distended loops of bowel with thickening of the bowel wall. What is the next course of action in managing this situation?
Your Answer: Commence broad spectrum antibiotics
Explanation:The infant in this scenario is likely suffering from bacterial necrotising enterocolitis, given their prematurity and symptoms. Immediate administration of broad spectrum antibiotics is necessary due to the severity of the condition. Therefore, the correct answer is option 2. While changing feeds may be helpful in preventing necrotising enterocolitis in bottle-fed infants, it is not useful in treating the condition once it has developed. While IV fluids are important for maintaining hydration, they are not as urgent as antibiotics in this case. Antenatal administration of erythromycin is intended to prevent necrotising enterocolitis, but it is not effective in treating the condition once it has developed.
Understanding Necrotising Enterocolitis
Necrotising enterocolitis is a serious condition that is responsible for a significant number of premature infant deaths. The condition is characterized by symptoms such as feeding intolerance, abdominal distension, and bloody stools. If left untreated, these symptoms can quickly progress to more severe symptoms such as abdominal discolouration, perforation, and peritonitis.
To diagnose necrotising enterocolitis, doctors often use abdominal x-rays. These x-rays can reveal a number of important indicators of the condition, including dilated bowel loops, bowel wall oedema, and intramural gas. Other signs that may be visible on an x-ray include portal venous gas, pneumoperitoneum resulting from perforation, and air both inside and outside of the bowel wall. In some cases, an x-ray may also reveal air outlining the falciform ligament, which is known as the football sign.
Overall, understanding the symptoms and diagnostic indicators of necrotising enterocolitis is crucial for early detection and treatment of this serious condition. By working closely with healthcare professionals and following recommended screening protocols, parents and caregivers can help ensure the best possible outcomes for premature infants at risk for this condition.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
-
-
Question 4
Correct
-
A 3-day-old neonate born at term is presenting with tachypnoea, grunting, and cyanosis. The baby is unable to feed and has an oxygen saturation of 70% on room air. On auscultation, a loud S2 and systolic murmur are heard, which is loudest at the left sternal border. The doctors suspect transposition of the great arteries and have started the baby on intravenous fluids, antibiotics, and scheduled surgery. What additional medication should be given in the meantime?
Your Answer: Prostaglandin E1
Explanation:To maintain a patent ductus arteriosus in cyanotic congenital heart diseases, prostaglandin E1 should be administered. It is helpful to recall the 5 T’s for cyanotic CHD, which include Tetralogy of Fallot, Transposition of Great Vessels (TGA), Tricuspid Atresia, Total Anomalous Pulmonary Venous Return, and Truncus Arteriosus. Based on the timing of onset and heart murmur, the patient in this case likely has TGA with a concurrent VSD. TGA typically presents shortly after birth. Prostaglandin E1 is given in ductal dependent cyanotic heart diseases to prevent closure of the patent ductus arteriosus until surgical correction can be performed. This allows for mixing of oxygenated and deoxygenated blood to ensure adequate systemic circulation. Antibiotics should also be administered as prophylaxis for bacterial endocarditis. It is important to note that nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) such as indomethacin and ibuprofen will actually close the ductus arteriosus and should not be used in this situation.
Cyanosis, a bluish discoloration of the skin, is a common occurrence in newborns. Peripheral cyanosis, which affects the hands and feet, is often seen in the first 24 hours of life and can be caused by crying or illness. Central cyanosis, on the other hand, is a more serious condition that occurs when the concentration of reduced hemoglobin in the blood exceeds 5g/dl. To differentiate between cardiac and non-cardiac causes of central cyanosis, doctors may use the nitrogen washout test, which involves giving the infant 100% oxygen for ten minutes and then measuring arterial blood gases. A pO2 of less than 15 kPa indicates cyanotic congenital heart disease, which can be caused by conditions such as tetralogy of Fallot, transposition of the great arteries, and tricuspid atresia.
If cyanotic congenital heart disease is suspected, initial management involves supportive care and the use of prostaglandin E1, such as alprostadil, to maintain a patent ductus arteriosus in ductal-dependent congenital heart defects. This can serve as a temporary measure until a definitive diagnosis is made and surgical correction is performed.
Acrocyanosis, a type of peripheral cyanosis, is a benign condition that is often seen in healthy newborns. It is characterized by bluish discoloration around the mouth and extremities, such as the hands and feet, and is caused by vasomotor changes that result in peripheral vasoconstriction and increased tissue oxygen extraction. Unlike other causes of peripheral cyanosis that may indicate significant pathology, such as septic shock, acrocyanosis occurs immediately after birth in healthy infants and typically resolves within 24 to 48 hours.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
-
-
Question 5
Correct
-
A 4-month-old is brought to the emergency department with a suspected UTI and responds well to antibiotics within 48 hours. An ultrasound may be necessary to determine if this is a typical or atypical UTI. What is the most common indicator of an atypical UTI?
Your Answer: Poor urine flow
Explanation:If an infant under 6 months shows signs of an atypical UTI, it is important to schedule an ultrasound scan during their acute admission. Atypical UTI may be indicated by symptoms such as poor urine flow, an abdominal or bladder mass, raised creatinine, septicaemia, failure to respond to appropriate antibiotics within 48 hours, or infection with non-E. coli organisms. However, raised white blood cells alone do not necessarily indicate septicaemia, and abdominal pain is a common symptom of UTI but does not necessarily indicate an atypical UTI.
Urinary tract infections (UTI) are more common in boys until 3 months of age, after which the incidence is substantially higher in girls. Presentation in childhood depends on age, with infants showing poor feeding, vomiting, and irritability, younger children showing abdominal pain, fever, and dysuria, and older children showing dysuria, frequency, and haematuria. NICE guidelines recommend checking urine samples in children with symptoms or signs suggestive of a UTI, unexplained fever of 38°C or higher, or an alternative site of infection but who remain unwell. Urine collection should be done through clean catch or urine collection pads, and invasive methods should only be used if non-invasive methods are not possible. Management includes referral to a paediatrician for infants less than 3 months old, admission to hospital for children aged more than 3 months old with an upper UTI, and oral antibiotics for 3-10 days for children aged more than 3 months old with a lower UTI. Antibiotic prophylaxis is not given after the first UTI but should be considered with recurrent UTIs.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
-
-
Question 6
Correct
-
A 6-year-old girl arrives at the emergency department with intense pain in her left hip and an inability to bear weight. Her parents are worried about the potential for an infection. She had a cold a week ago, but has since recovered. She seems to be in good health. There has been no hip trauma. Blood tests show normal WBC and ESR levels. An ultrasound of the hip reveals a slight effusion in the joint capsule. What is the best course of action now?
Your Answer: Recommend rest and analgesia
Explanation:Transient synovitis typically resolves on its own and only requires rest and pain relief. This young boy appears to have transient synovitis as he is not showing any signs of systemic illness, which would suggest septic arthritis. Additionally, it is common for transient synovitis to occur after an infection, and the mild effusion present is not indicative of an infection. It is important to note that other options such as an x-ray or surgery are not necessary as transient synovitis is a self-limiting condition. An x-ray may have been considered if there was a history of trauma, but this is not the case here.
Transient synovitis, also known as irritable hip, is a common cause of hip pain in children aged 3-8 years. It typically occurs following a recent viral infection and presents with symptoms such as groin or hip pain, limping or refusal to weight bear, and occasionally a low-grade fever. However, a high fever may indicate other serious conditions such as septic arthritis, which requires urgent specialist assessment. To exclude such diagnoses, NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries recommend monitoring children in primary care with a presumptive diagnosis of transient synovitis, provided they are aged 3-9 years, well, afebrile, mobile but limping, and have had symptoms for less than 72 hours. Treatment for transient synovitis involves rest and analgesia, as the condition is self-limiting.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
-
-
Question 7
Correct
-
A 14-year-old boy comes to the clinic with complaints of central abdominal pain and haematuria that have been present for a week. He also reports experiencing pain in both knees. Upon examination, a non-blanching purpuric rash is observed on his legs and buttocks. Urine dipstick results show blood ++ and protein +. Additionally, his renal function is abnormal with urea levels at 26.3 mmol/l and creatinine levels at 289 μmol/l. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Henoch–Schönlein purpura
Explanation:Distinguishing Henoch-Schönlein Purpura from Other Conditions: A Brief Overview
Henoch-Schönlein purpura (HSP) is a condition that can present with a range of symptoms, including abdominal pain, non-blanching purpuric rash, arthralgia, haematuria, and renal impairment. It is important to distinguish HSP from other conditions that may have similar symptoms.
Nephrotic syndrome, for example, is characterized by significant proteinuria, hypoalbuminaemia, and oedema, which are not present in HSP. Urinary tract infection, on the other hand, is not associated with a purpuric rash and typically presents with urinary symptoms and positive nitrite and leukocyte dipstick tests.
Goodpasture’s syndrome is a systemic vasculitis that can cause acute renal failure and pulmonary haemorrhage, but it is not typically associated with a purpuric rash. Appendicitis, which can cause an acute abdomen, is unlikely to cause pain for a week and does not typically present with a rash.
In summary, recognizing the unique symptoms of HSP and distinguishing it from other conditions is crucial for accurate diagnosis and appropriate treatment.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
-
-
Question 8
Incorrect
-
Which condition is commonly associated with neonatal cyanosis?
Your Answer: Ventricular septal defect (VSD)
Correct Answer: Total anomalous pulmonary venous drainage
Explanation:Total Anomalous Pulmonary Venous Connection
Total anomalous pulmonary venous connection (TAPVC) is a condition that causes cyanosis in newborns. It is characterized by an abnormality in blood flow where all four pulmonary veins drain into systemic veins or the right atrium, with or without pulmonary venous obstruction. This results in the mixing of systemic and pulmonary venous blood in the right atrium.
In contrast, conditions such as patent ductus arteriosus (PDA), atrial septal defect (ASD), and ventricular septal defect (VSD) are left to right shunts. Tricuspid atresia is another condition that is typically associated with cyanosis, but mitral regurgitation is not.
It is important to understand the differences between these conditions and their effects on blood flow in order to properly diagnose and treat them. Further reading on TAPVC can be found on Medscape.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
-
-
Question 9
Incorrect
-
A 4-year-old girl is brought to the emergency department by her father with bruising after a fall. During assessment, it is noted that she has a global developmental delay. She walks with difficulty, has some fine motor skills, and is playing with toys during the consultation. There are bruises on her back, right elbow, and right thigh, at different stages of healing.
Her father reports that these bruises are from her being clumsy for the past few months and he himself once had bruising which required oral steroids and thinks she has developed the same condition.
What would be the most appropriate next step in her management?Your Answer: Coagulation screen and coagulopathy testing
Correct Answer: Immediately contact safeguarding lead
Explanation:The presence of multiple bruises at different stages of healing in an infant who has been brought a few months after the injuries occurred should raise suspicion of non-accidental injury. This is because it is unlikely for a child to have so many bruises from clumsiness alone. A delayed presentation may also suggest non-accidental injury. Therefore, the correct course of action is to immediately contact the safeguarding lead. While coagulation screen and coagulopathy testing may be performed later, they are not the first priority. Similarly, oral prednisolone is not the first-line treatment for children with immune thrombocytopenia (ITP) and is not relevant in this case. The priority is to assess the infant for non-accidental injury.
Recognizing Child Abuse: Signs and Symptoms
Child abuse is a serious issue that can have long-lasting effects on a child’s physical and emotional well-being. It is important to be able to recognize the signs and symptoms of child abuse in order to intervene and protect the child. One possible indicator of abuse is when a child discloses abuse themselves. However, there are other factors that may point towards abuse, such as an inconsistent story with injuries, repeated visits to A&E departments, delayed presentation, and a frightened, withdrawn appearance known as frozen watchfulness.
Physical presentations of child abuse can also be a sign of abuse. These may include bruising, fractures (especially metaphyseal, posterior rib fractures, or multiple fractures at different stages of healing), torn frenulum (such as from forcing a bottle into a child’s mouth), burns or scalds, failure to thrive, and sexually transmitted infections like Chlamydia, gonorrhoeae, and Trichomonas. It is important to be aware of these signs and symptoms and to report any concerns to the appropriate authorities to ensure the safety and well-being of the child.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
-
-
Question 10
Correct
-
A father brings his 5-year-old daughter to the paediatric emergency department. She has a fever and he has noticed raised nodes on her neck. Despite giving her paracetamol and ibuprofen, her temperature is not decreasing. Her lips have become extremely dry and cracked, and her tongue is red and slightly swollen. The father has also noticed that her feet are now red and puffy, and she is developing a widespread fine rash. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Kawasaki's disease
Explanation:An eruption characterized by tender papules and vesicles can develop on the hands and feet. Measles typically presents with a fever and symptoms of a cold. Koplik’s spots, which are bright red with a bluish white center, may appear on the oral mucosa. A maculopapular rash usually appears 3-5 days later. Parvovirus B19 is commonly referred to as slapped cheek syndrome. Scarlet fever may also cause an inflamed tongue, but it would not account for the red and swollen feet that later peel.
Understanding Kawasaki Disease
Kawasaki disease is a rare type of vasculitis that primarily affects children. It is important to identify this disease early on as it can lead to serious complications, such as coronary artery aneurysms. The disease is characterized by a high-grade fever that lasts for more than five days and is resistant to antipyretics. Other symptoms include conjunctival injection, bright red, cracked lips, strawberry tongue, cervical lymphadenopathy, and red palms and soles that later peel.
Diagnosis of Kawasaki disease is based on clinical presentation as there is no specific diagnostic test available. Management of the disease involves high-dose aspirin, which is one of the few indications for aspirin use in children. Intravenous immunoglobulin is also used as a treatment option. Echocardiogram is the initial screening test for coronary artery aneurysms, rather than angiography.
Complications of Kawasaki disease can be serious, with coronary artery aneurysm being the most common. It is important to recognize the symptoms of Kawasaki disease early on and seek medical attention promptly to prevent potential complications.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
-
00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00
:
00
:
00
Session Time
00
:
00
Average Question Time (
Mins)