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Question 1
Incorrect
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An 80-year-old woman presents to your clinic with complaints of constipation. She reports a four week history of reduced stool frequency with firmer stool consistency. She currently has a bowel movement every other day, whereas prior to the last four weeks she had a bowel movement once a day. She denies any rectal bleeding or diarrhea and has no anal symptoms or incontinence. On examination, her abdomen is soft and non-tender without masses. Rectal examination is also normal. She has been taking codeine phosphate 30 mg qds for her arthritic knee, which was prescribed by a colleague one month ago. Recent blood tests show normal full blood count, ESR, thyroid function, and calcium. What is the most appropriate management for this patient?
Your Answer: Arrange faecal occult blood testing
Correct Answer: Provide advice regarding the constipation and reassure
Explanation:Managing Constipation in a Patient on Analgesia
The patient’s constipation is not a mystery as it coincides with the prescription of codeine phosphate, which slows down bowel transit. There are no other concerning symptoms in the patient’s history or examination that would warrant an urgent referral to a lower gastrointestinal specialist for suspected cancer.
To manage the patient’s constipation, the healthcare provider should provide advice on diet and lifestyle, review the patient’s medication to identify any contributing factors, and counsel the patient on red flags. The patient has already undergone blood tests to investigate secondary causes of constipation, such as hypothyroidism or hypercalcaemia. The healthcare provider can also discuss the use of laxatives with the patient.
Overall, managing constipation in a patient on analgesia involves identifying contributing factors, providing lifestyle advice, and discussing treatment options with the patient.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 2
Correct
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A woman who is 16 weeks pregnant presents as she came into contact with a child who has Chickenpox around 4 days ago. She is unsure if she had the condition herself as a child. Blood tests show the following:
Varicella IgM Negative
Varicella IgG Negative
What is the most appropriate management?Your Answer: Varicella zoster immunoglobulin
Explanation:Chickenpox Exposure in Pregnancy: Risks and Management
Chickenpox is caused by the varicella-zoster virus and can pose risks to both the mother and fetus during pregnancy. The mother is at a five times greater risk of pneumonitis, while the fetus is at risk of developing fetal varicella syndrome (FVS) if the mother is exposed to Chickenpox before 20 weeks gestation. FVS can result in skin scarring, eye defects, limb hypoplasia, microcephaly, and learning disabilities. There is also a risk of shingles in infancy and severe neonatal varicella if the mother develops a rash between 5 days before and 2 days after birth.
To manage Chickenpox exposure in pregnancy, post-exposure prophylaxis (PEP) may be necessary. If the pregnant woman is not immune to varicella, VZIG or antivirals may be given within 10 days of exposure. Waiting until days 7-14 is recommended to reduce the risk of developing clinical varicella. However, the decision on choice of PEP for women exposed from 20 weeks of pregnancy should take into account patient and health professional preference as well as the ability to offer and provide PEP in a timely manner.
If a pregnant woman develops Chickenpox, specialist advice should be sought. Oral aciclovir may be given if the pregnant woman is ≥ 20 weeks and presents within 24 hours of onset of the rash. However, caution should be exercised if the woman is < 20 weeks. Overall, managing Chickenpox exposure in pregnancy requires careful consideration of the risks and benefits to both the mother and fetus.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 3
Correct
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A 25-year-old woman had unprotected sex after an office party 4 days ago. She is currently taking antibiotics for a respiratory tract infection. She has intense difficulty passing urine, accompanied by burning, itching and pain over her labia. On examination there is a crop of vesicles and erosions on her vulva.
Select the single most likely diagnosis.Your Answer: Herpes simplex infection (HSV-2)
Explanation:Understanding Herpes Simplex Infection: Types, Symptoms, and Treatment
Herpes simplex infection is caused by two viral subtypes, HSV-1 and HSV-2. HSV-1 is commonly associated with oral or facial infections, while HSV-2 is mainly responsible for genital infections. After primary infection, the virus enters nerve endings in the skin and remains latent until reactivated. Symptoms usually appear 3-7 days after contact and may include a low-grade fever and general malaise. At the site of infection, symptoms include pain, burning, itching, and tingling, with the presence of groups of vesicles surrounded by erythema. These lesions usually ulcerate and crust over within 48 hours, lasting between 2 and 6 weeks without scarring. Women may experience urinary retention due to associated pain. Recurrent infection may occur due to fatigue, stress, local skin trauma, exposure to sunlight, or the menstrual cycle. Treatment involves the use of antiviral agents such as aciclovir, and prophylactic use of oral antiviral therapy may reduce the frequency and severity of recurrent infection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 4
Incorrect
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Which of the following conditions is NOT inherited in an X-linked recessive fashion?
Your Answer: G6PD deficiency
Correct Answer: Myotonic dystrophy
Explanation:The following are X-linked conditions: Duchenne/Becker, haemophilia, and G6PD.
X-Linked Recessive Conditions: Inherited Disorders with Varying Patterns
X-linked recessive conditions are genetic disorders that are inherited in a specific manner. These conditions are caused by mutations in genes located on the X chromosome, which is one of the two sex chromosomes. As a result, these conditions are more common in males than in females, as males only have one X chromosome while females have two.
Some of the most well-known X-linked recessive conditions include Duchenne muscular dystrophy, haemophilia A and B, and colour blindness. Other conditions such as Fabry’s disease, Lesch-Nyhan syndrome, and Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome are also inherited in this manner.
It is important to note that some diseases have varying patterns of inheritance, with the majority being in an X-linked recessive fashion. For example, chronic granulomatous disease is inherited in over 70% of cases in an X-linked recessive manner. Understanding the inheritance patterns of these conditions is crucial for genetic counseling and management of affected individuals.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 15-year-old boy presents to your clinic with complaints of persistent nighttime cough, wheezing, and shortness of breath for several months. He has a history of hay fever and eczema. On examination, the patient appears well at rest with normal vital signs. Mild expiratory wheezing is noted, and his peak expiratory flow rate is 85% of predicted. A recent spirometry test was negative.
What would be the most suitable course of action for diagnosing this patient?Your Answer: Serial peak flow testing
Correct Answer: Fractional exhaled nitric oxide (FeNO) test
Explanation:A possible diagnosis for this patient is asthma with a mild exacerbation, even if the spirometry test result is negative. Further investigation is necessary, and a fractional exhaled nitric oxide (FeNO) test should be performed to confirm the diagnosis. A FeNO result of >35ppb would be diagnostic for this patient. Another spirometry test is unlikely to provide more clarity. Treatment for this patient includes a salbutamol reliever inhaler and a preventer inhaler. A respiratory referral is not necessary at this time since there are no complications to the diagnosis or treatment. Although the patient is atopic, there are no concerning risk factors in the history or examination that warrant a chest x-ray.
Asthma diagnosis has been updated by NICE guidelines in 2017, which emphasizes the use of objective tests rather than subjective/clinical judgments. The guidance recommends the use of fractional exhaled nitric oxide (FeNO) test, which measures the level of nitric oxide produced by inflammatory cells, particularly eosinophils. Other established objective tests such as spirometry and peak flow variability are still important. All patients aged five and above should have objective tests to confirm the diagnosis. For patients aged 17 and above, spirometry with a bronchodilator reversibility (BDR) test and FeNO test should be performed. For children aged 5-16, spirometry with a BDR test and FeNO test should be requested if there is normal spirometry or obstructive spirometry with a negative BDR test. For patients under five years old, diagnosis should be made based on clinical judgment. The specific points about the tests include a FeNO level of >= 40 ppb for adults and >= 35 ppb for children considered positive, and a FEV1/FVC ratio less than 70% or below the lower limit of normal considered obstructive for spirometry. A positive reversibility test is indicated by an improvement in FEV1 of 12% or more and an increase in volume of 200 ml or more for adults, and an improvement in FEV1 of 12% or more for children.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Health
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Question 6
Correct
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You see a 3-year-old girl who presents with fever, irritability and offensive smelling urine. A urine dipstick shows leucocytes+, nitrites -.
What would be the next most appropriate management step?Your Answer: Send for MC&S and start antibiotic treatment
Explanation:NICE Guidelines for UTI in Children
According to the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE), children between 3 months to 3 years old with suspected urinary tract infection (UTI) can start antibiotic treatment if their urine sample shows either leucocyte or nitrite positive, or both. However, it is still recommended to send off the sample for culture to confirm the diagnosis and ensure appropriate treatment. These guidelines aim to provide a standardized approach in managing UTI in children and prevent complications associated with untreated infections.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 7
Correct
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A 35-year-old man came to the clinic complaining of a swollen left upper eyelid that had been bothering him for three days. Upon examination, a chalazion was discovered. There was no swelling or redness around the eye. What would be the most appropriate next step in treating this man's condition?
Your Answer: Warm compress and gentle massage
Explanation:Management of Chalazion
A chalazion, also known as a meibomian cyst, can be effectively managed with conservative treatment. The first step is to apply warm compress to the affected eye and gently massage it. This should help settle the active chalazion. Surgical drainage should only be considered if there are remnants after the active/inflamed stage that are affecting the patient. However, it is important to note that surgical drainage should not be attempted while the chalazion is still inflamed, as this can worsen the condition. Referral to an ophthalmologist is not necessary unless the chalazion is not improving or causing more complicated problems to the eye.
It is important to note that ocular lubricants and steroids do not play a role in the management of chalazion during the acute inflamed stage. Antibiotics are also not recommended as a first-line treatment. In an examination setting, it is likely that questions on this subject will follow the latest NICE CKS guidance on the management of meibomian cyst chalazion.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Eyes And Vision
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A concerned mother brings her 2-year-old daughter to see you as she has not had a wet diaper for the past 12 hours. Her mother suspects a lump in her tummy. Additionally, she has been refusing to walk for the past 36 hours and has been crying excessively. What type of cancer is most likely to present with these symptoms?
Your Answer: Wilms' tumour
Correct Answer: Nephroblastoma
Explanation:Recognizing Symptoms of Neuroblastoma in Children
Neuroblastoma is a rare but serious condition that primarily affects children under the age of 5. It can be difficult to detect in primary care due to its rarity and vague symptoms. The most common symptom is a lump in the abdomen, which may cause swelling or pain. However, children with neuroblastoma may also experience general symptoms of metastatic disease, such as malaise, bone pain, and respiratory issues. Other concerning symptoms include proptosis, unexplained back pain, leg weakness, and urinary retention. These symptoms may indicate that the tumour is pressing on the spinal cord or adjacent to the adrenal glands. Excessive catecholamine release can also cause tachycardia, flushing, sweating, weight loss, and watery diarrhoea. If a child presents with symptoms that could be explained by neuroblastoma, an abdominal examination and urgent abdominal ultrasound should be performed, along with a chest x-ray and full blood count. Any identified mass should prompt an urgent referral. Knowing the age at peak incidence can also aid in diagnosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 9
Correct
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For elderly patients who fast during Ramadan, what is the correct approach to managing type 2 diabetes mellitus?
Your Answer: Around 4 out of 5 patients Muslim patients with type 2 diabetes mellitus fast during Ramadan
Explanation:Managing Diabetes Mellitus During Ramadan
Type 2 diabetes mellitus is more prevalent in people of Asian ethnicity, including a significant number of Muslim patients in the UK. With Ramadan falling in the long days of summer, it is crucial to provide appropriate advice to Muslim patients to ensure they can safely observe their fast. While it is a personal decision whether to fast, it is worth noting that people with chronic conditions are exempt from fasting or may delay it to shorter days in winter. However, many Muslim patients with diabetes do not consider themselves exempt from fasting. Around 79% of Muslim patients with type 2 diabetes mellitus fast during Ramadan.
To help patients with type 2 diabetes mellitus fast safely, they should consume a meal containing long-acting carbohydrates before sunrise (Suhoor). Patients should also be given a blood glucose monitor to check their glucose levels, especially if they feel unwell. For patients taking metformin, the dose should be split one-third before sunrise (Suhoor) and two-thirds after sunset (Iftar). For those taking sulfonylureas, the expert consensus is to switch to once-daily preparations after sunset. For patients taking twice-daily preparations such as gliclazide, a larger proportion of the dose should be taken after sunset. No adjustment is necessary for patients taking pioglitazone. Diabetes UK and the Muslim Council of Britain have an excellent patient information leaflet that explores these options in more detail.
Managing diabetes mellitus during Ramadan is crucial to ensure Muslim patients with type 2 diabetes mellitus can safely observe their fast. It is important to provide appropriate advice to patients, including consuming a meal containing long-acting carbohydrates before sunrise, checking glucose levels regularly, and adjusting medication doses accordingly.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 10
Correct
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A 50-year-old man is seen in the diabetes clinic and presents with the following results:
- Urinalysis NAD
- HbA1c 69 mmol/mol
The patient is currently taking metformin and gliclazide is added to his treatment regimen. What is the earliest time frame for repeating the HbA1c test?Your Answer: 3 months
Explanation:NICE recommends regular monitoring of HbA1c every 2-6 months, based on individual requirements, until the patient is stable on a consistent therapy.
Understanding Glycosylated Haemoglobin (HbA1c) in Diabetes Mellitus
Glycosylated haemoglobin (HbA1c) is a commonly used measure of long-term blood sugar control in diabetes mellitus. It is produced when glucose attaches to haemoglobin in red blood cells at a rate proportional to the concentration of glucose in the blood. The level of HbA1c is influenced by the lifespan of red blood cells and the average blood glucose concentration. However, certain conditions such as sickle-cell anaemia, GP6D deficiency, and haemodialysis can interfere with accurate interpretation of HbA1c levels.
HbA1c is believed to reflect blood glucose levels over the past 2-4 weeks, although it is generally thought to represent the previous three months. It is recommended that HbA1c be checked every 3-6 months until stable, and then every 6 months. The Diabetes Control and Complications Trial (DCCT) has studied the complex relationship between HbA1c and average blood glucose levels.
The International Federation of Clinical Chemistry (IFCC) has developed a new standardised method for reporting HbA1c, which reports HbA1c in mmol per mol of haemoglobin without glucose attached. The table above shows the relationship between HbA1c, average plasma glucose, and IFCC-HbA1c. By using this table, one can calculate the average plasma glucose level by using the formula: average plasma glucose = (2 * HbA1c) – 4.5.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 11
Correct
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A mother brings her 5-year-old daughter, Lily, to the clinic with concerns about her persistent fever for the past 6 days. Lily has been complaining of a sore throat and her eyes have become red. She has no medical history, allergies, or regular medication. Upon examination, Lily's vital signs are normal except for her high temperature. She has conjunctival injection in both eyes, a red pharynx, and cracked lips. Additionally, she has desquamation on her feet and palpable cervical lymphadenopathy. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Kawasaki disease
Explanation:Kawasaki disease is indicated by a high fever lasting more than 5 days, along with red palms that peel and a strawberry tongue. Symptoms of this condition also include conjunctivitis and cracked lips. It is important to note that Stevens-Johnson syndrome typically involves erythema multiforme with mucosal involvement, while the other conditions listed would not present in this manner.
Understanding Kawasaki Disease
Kawasaki disease is a rare type of vasculitis that primarily affects children. It is important to identify this disease early on as it can lead to serious complications such as coronary artery aneurysms. The disease is characterized by a high-grade fever that lasts for more than five days, which is resistant to antipyretics. Other features include conjunctival injection, bright red, cracked lips, strawberry tongue, cervical lymphadenopathy, and red palms and soles that later peel.
Diagnosis of Kawasaki disease is based on clinical presentation as there is no specific diagnostic test available. Management of the disease involves high-dose aspirin, which is one of the few indications for aspirin use in children. Intravenous immunoglobulin is also used as a treatment option. Echocardiogram is the initial screening test for coronary artery aneurysms instead of angiography.
Complications of Kawasaki disease include coronary artery aneurysm, which can be life-threatening. Early recognition and treatment of Kawasaki disease can prevent serious complications and improve outcomes for affected children.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 36-year-old pregnant woman comes to the clinic and wants to discuss the possibility of her child having genetic abnormalities. Her father has sickle cell anemia, which is inherited as an autosomal recessive disease. She and her partner have no symptoms of the disease. She knows from her last ultrasound that she is having a girl.
What is the likelihood that her daughter will have sickle cell anemia?Your Answer: 1 in 16
Correct Answer: 1 in 2
Explanation:Probability of Inheriting X-Linked Recessive Conditions
When a parent carries a recessive gene for an X-linked condition, their child’s chances of inheriting the condition depend on their gender. If the child is a boy, he will inherit an X chromosome from his mother and a Y chromosome from his father. If the mother is a carrier of the recessive gene, there is a 50% chance that she will pass it on to her son, resulting in a 1 in 2 chance of the son inheriting the X-linked condition.
If both parents are carriers of an autosomal recessive condition, their child has a 1 in 4 chance of inheriting the condition. However, if the condition is X-linked, the chances of inheritance differ based on the child’s gender.
For a girl, there is a 50% chance that she will inherit the recessive gene from her carrier mother, making her a carrier as well. But for a boy, the chances of inheriting the X-linked condition are higher. If the mother is a carrier, the son has a 1 in 2 chance of inheriting the recessive gene and developing the condition. Therefore, the probability of a boy inheriting an X-linked recessive condition from a carrier mother is 1 in 2 or 1 in 16 if both parents are carriers.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genomic Medicine
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old smoker has been experiencing a persistent cough and chest pain. A plain chest x-ray examination suggests a diagnosis of bronchial carcinoma. However, before a tissue diagnosis can be made, the patient unexpectedly dies in the hospital due to a massive haemoptysis. The relatives consent to a post mortem examination, which reveals that the patient actually had tuberculosis and not carcinoma. Is there a requirement to report this to a specific authority, and if so, which one?
Your Answer: Coroner
Correct Answer: Consultant in Communicable Diseases Control
Explanation:Reporting Notifiable Diseases in England and Wales
Doctors in England and Wales have a legal obligation to report suspected cases of certain infectious diseases to the appropriate authorities. The purpose of reporting is to help control the spread of diseases. The local Consultant in Communicable Disease Control is usually the Proper Officer to whom doctors should report. However, if in doubt, doctors can find details of the local Health Protection Unit (HPU) on the Public Health England website.
Doctors should fill out a notification certificate immediately upon diagnosing a suspected notifiable disease, without waiting for laboratory confirmation. The certificate should be sent to the Proper Officer within three days or verbally within 24 hours if the case is considered urgent.
The following diseases are notifiable under the Health Protection (Notification) Regulations 2010: Acute encephalitis, acute infectious hepatitis, acute meningitis, acute poliomyelitis, anthrax, botulism, brucellosis, cholera, diphtheria, enteric fever (typhoid or paratyphoid fever), food poisoning, haemolytic uraemic syndrome (HUS), infectious bloody diarrhoea, invasive group A streptococcal disease, Legionnaires’ disease, leprosy, malaria, measles, meningococcal septicaemia, mumps, plague, rabies, rubella, SARS, scarlet fever, smallpox, tetanus, tuberculosis, typhus, viral haemorrhagic fever (VHF), whooping cough, and yellow fever.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing
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Question 14
Correct
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Emma, aged 23 years, has been experiencing symptoms of irritable bowel syndrome (IBS) for the past 2 months, which she believes is due to the stress of her new job. She often feels bloated and has irregular bowel movements. Emma is hesitant to take medications and seeks advice from her GP, Dr. Patel, who recommends the low-FODMAP diet and refers her to a registered dietitian. What are some examples of safe low-FODMAP foods that can be included in Emma's diet to manage her IBS symptoms?
Your Answer: Salmon
Explanation:Monash University in Australia has developed a low-FODMAP diet to manage irritable bowel syndrome (IBS). FODMAPs are short-chain carbohydrates found in many foods that are poorly absorbed in the small intestine. They can cause diarrhoea by encouraging water intake into the small intestine or bloating by fermenting in the large bowel. A low-FODMAP diet has been shown to reduce symptoms of IBS such as bloating, abdominal pain, and irregular bowel habits. However, this diet is challenging to follow as it excludes many foods that contain oligo-, di-, mono-saccharides, and polyols, including various vegetables, fruits, and grains. Therefore, it is recommended to seek the advice of a dietician rather than initiating the diet without guidance. High-FODMAP foods to avoid include wheat, most dairy products (except aged cheeses), pulses, beans, onion, garlic, and excess fructose. The diet mainly consists of unprocessed meat/fish and low FODMAP vegetables and grains.
Managing irritable bowel syndrome (IBS) can be challenging and varies from patient to patient. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) updated its guidelines in 2015 to provide recommendations for the management of IBS. The first-line pharmacological treatment depends on the predominant symptom, with antispasmodic agents recommended for pain, laxatives (excluding lactulose) for constipation, and loperamide for diarrhea. If conventional laxatives are not effective for constipation, linaclotide may be considered. Low-dose tricyclic antidepressants are the second-line pharmacological treatment of choice. For patients who do not respond to pharmacological treatments, psychological interventions such as cognitive behavioral therapy, hypnotherapy, or psychological therapy may be considered. Complementary and alternative medicines such as acupuncture or reflexology are not recommended. General dietary advice includes having regular meals, drinking at least 8 cups of fluid per day, limiting tea and coffee to 3 cups per day, reducing alcohol and fizzy drink intake, limiting high-fiber and resistant starch foods, and increasing intake of oats and linseeds for wind and bloating.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 33-year-old man visits his GP complaining of difficulty concentrating, muscle aches, and fatigue that have persisted for three months. He works as a gamekeeper in rural Scotland and spends most of his day walking through long grass. He mentions removing ticks from his legs on a daily basis.
During the examination, the GP observes a circular rash measuring 16cm on the lower leg, which is indicative of erythema migrans.
What is the appropriate course of action for this patient?Your Answer: Conduct further tests and start antibiotics whilst awaiting the result
Correct Answer: Start antibiotics immediately without further tests
Explanation:According to the NICE Clinical Knowledge Summary, if a patient presents with erythema migrans, a characteristic rash associated with Lyme disease, no further laboratory testing is necessary for diagnosis. Prompt treatment with antibiotics is recommended to prevent the development of additional symptoms. However, if a patient presents with specific focal symptoms such as uveitis, facial nerve palsy, or arthritis, referral to a specialist or consultation with a specialist should be considered without delaying antibiotic treatment.
Understanding Lyme Disease
Lyme disease is an illness caused by a type of bacteria called Borrelia burgdorferi, which is transmitted to humans through the bite of infected ticks. The disease can cause a range of symptoms, which can be divided into early and later features.
Early features of Lyme disease typically occur within 30 days of being bitten by an infected tick. These can include a distinctive rash known as erythema migrans, which often appears as a bulls-eye pattern around the site of the tick bite. Other early symptoms may include headache, lethargy, fever, and joint pain.
Later features of Lyme disease can occur after 30 days and may affect different parts of the body. These can include heart block or myocarditis, which affect the cardiovascular system, and facial nerve palsy or meningitis, which affect the nervous system.
To diagnose Lyme disease, doctors may look for the presence of erythema migrans or use blood tests to detect antibodies to Borrelia burgdorferi. Treatment typically involves antibiotics, such as doxycycline or amoxicillin, depending on the stage of the disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 16
Correct
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A 65-year-old woman is seen for follow-up. You had previously seen her with chronic shortness of breath and symptoms of heart failure. After primary care investigation, she was urgently referred to the cardiologists due to an abnormal ECG and elevated brain natriuretic peptide level. The echocardiogram performed by the cardiologists confirmed a diagnosis of heart failure with left ventricular dysfunction.
Her current medications include: lisinopril 10 mg daily, atorvastatin 20 mg daily, furosemide 20 mg daily, and pantoprazole 40 mg daily.
During examination, her blood pressure is 130/80 mmHg, pulse rate is 75 beats per minute and regular, her lungs are clear, and heart sounds are normal. There is no peripheral edema.
What is the most appropriate next step in her pharmacological management at this point?Your Answer: Add in bisoprolol
Explanation:Beta-Blockers for Heart Failure Patients
Beta-blockers are recommended for all patients with heart failure due to left ventricular systolic dysfunction, regardless of age or comorbidities such as peripheral vascular disease, interstitial pulmonary disease, erectile dysfunction, diabetes, or chronic obstructive pulmonary disease without reversibility. However, asthma is a contraindication to beta-blocker use.
Bisoprolol, carvedilol, or nebivolol are the beta-blockers of choice for treating chronic heart failure due to left ventricular systolic dysfunction. These three beta-blockers have been proven effective in clinical trials and have prognostic benefits. Bisoprolol and carvedilol reduce mortality in all grades of stable heart failure, while nebivolol is licensed for stable mild to moderate heart failure in patients over the age of 70.
Even if a patient with heart failure is currently well and showing no signs of fluid overload, beta-blockers are still recommended due to their prognostic benefits.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Older Adults
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Question 17
Correct
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The five stages of change for addictive behaviours are Action, Contemplation, Maintenance, precontemplation, and Preparation. What is the correct rank order for these stages?
Your Answer: 42513
Explanation:The Stages of Change: Understanding Behavioural Transformation
Behavioural change is a process that involves several stages. The precontemplation stage is characterized by a lack of awareness of the problem and no intention to change. In the contemplation stage, individuals acknowledge the problem and consider overcoming it but have not yet committed to taking action. The preparation stage involves intention and behavioural plans, with individuals intending to take action soon. The action stage is where individuals modify their behaviour, experiences, and environment to overcome their problems. The maintenance stage involves preventing relapse and consolidating gains attained during action. It is common for individuals to recycle through these stages several times before terminating the addiction. Understanding where a person is in relation to the stages of change can be helpful to doctors in promoting and supporting change.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 18
Correct
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A 40-year-old woman is severely disabled by agoraphobia
Select from the list the single correct statement regarding agoraphobia.Your Answer: Commonly involves anticipatory anxiety
Explanation:Understanding Agoraphobia: The Fear of Open Spaces and Leaving Home
Agoraphobia is an irrational fear that affects up to one third of patients with panic disorders. It is characterized by a fear of open spaces and leaving home, especially those places from which escape may be difficult. Anxiety attacks are often triggered by provoking situations, and the anxiety experienced is disproportionate to the actual threat. Anticipatory anxiety is also common, with sufferers worrying about the anxiety itself and avoiding situations that may provoke it.
The onset of agoraphobia is bimodal, with peaks in the mid-20s and mid-30s. Prevalence rates of panic disorder suggest that it is a common disorder, affecting 1-5% of the population. Anxiety disorders are twice as common in females and more prevalent in deprived areas. There is also an association with mitral valve prolapse.
The treatments of choice for agoraphobia are self-help techniques and cognitive behavioural therapy, often in combination with antidepressant medication. Understanding agoraphobia and seeking appropriate treatment can help individuals overcome their fears and improve their quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 19
Correct
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A 55-year-old smoker of 20 cigarettes a day, presents with a three month history of persistent hoarseness. On direct questioning he admits to left-sided earache.
On examination he is hoarse and has mild stridor. Examination of his ears is normal. Endoscopy of his upper airway shows an irregular mass in the larynx.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Carcinoma of the larynx
Explanation:Diagnosing Laryngeal Pathology
This patient’s heavy smoking and symptoms suggest laryngeal pathology, with an irregular mass noted on nasal endoscopy. These features point to a diagnosis of laryngeal carcinoma, the most common cause of hoarseness in adults.
Laryngeal papillomatosis, caused by HPV genotypes 6 and 11, is more common in children and presents with generalised lumpiness in the larynx and trachea. Familiarity with the condition can aid diagnosis, but biopsy is usually necessary.
Laryngeal lymphoma is extremely rare and is usually accompanied by lymphoma elsewhere in the body. Laryngeal TB can resemble carcinoma but is also very rare. Thyroid cancer presents as a thyroid lump and can also cause hoarseness, but laryngeal carcinoma is the most common cause.
In summary, when presented with a patient who is a heavy smoker and exhibiting symptoms of laryngeal pathology, an irregular mass on nasal endoscopy is highly suggestive of laryngeal carcinoma. Other conditions such as laryngeal papillomatosis, lymphoma, TB, and thyroid cancer should also be considered but are much less common. Biopsy may be necessary for a definitive diagnosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 20
Correct
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As per the latest NICE guidelines on depression, which of the following interventions is not advised for individuals with subthreshold depressive symptoms or mild depression?
Your Answer: Behavioural couples therapy
Explanation:NICE’s recommendation for behavioural couples therapy is limited to patients with moderate or severe depression.
NICE Guidelines for Managing Depression
The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has updated its guidelines for managing depression in 2022. The new guidelines classify depression severity as less severe and more severe based on a PHQ-9 score of <16 and ≥16, respectively. For less severe depression, NICE recommends discussing treatment options with patients and considering the least intrusive and least resource-intensive treatment first. Antidepressant medication should not be routinely offered as first-line treatment unless it is the patient's preference. Treatment options for less severe depression include guided self-help, group cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT), group behavioral activation (BA), individual CBT, individual BA, group exercise, group mindfulness and meditation, interpersonal psychotherapy (IPT), selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs), counseling, and short-term psychodynamic psychotherapy (STPP). For more severe depression, a shared decision should be made between the patient and healthcare provider. Treatment options for more severe depression include a combination of individual CBT and an antidepressant, individual CBT, individual BA, antidepressant medication (SSRI, SNRI, or another antidepressant if indicated based on previous clinical and treatment history), individual problem-solving, counseling, STPP, IPT, guided self-help, and group exercise.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 21
Correct
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A 27-year-old woman who is 16-weeks pregnant comes in with acne vulgaris. Which of the following treatments is recognized to be detrimental to the growth of the fetus?
Your Answer: Topical isotretinoin
Explanation:Women using oral or topical isotretinoin must take effective contraception as both forms are highly prohibited during pregnancy.
Prescribing Considerations for Pregnant Patients
When it comes to prescribing medication for pregnant patients, it is important to exercise caution as very few drugs are known to be completely safe during pregnancy. Some countries have developed a grading system to help guide healthcare professionals in their decision-making process. It is important to note that the following drugs are known to be harmful and should be avoided: tetracyclines, aminoglycosides, sulphonamides and trimethoprim, quinolones, ACE inhibitors, angiotensin II receptor antagonists, statins, warfarin, sulfonylureas, retinoids (including topical), and cytotoxic agents.
In addition, the majority of antiepileptics, including valproate, carbamazepine, and phenytoin, are potentially harmful. However, the decision to stop such treatments can be difficult as uncontrolled epilepsy poses its own risks. It is important for healthcare professionals to carefully weigh the potential risks and benefits of any medication before prescribing it to a pregnant patient.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 66-year-old man undergoes routine blood tests at his General Practice Surgery. These reveal an estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR) of 64 ml/min (normal range: > 90 ml/min).
A repeat test three months later gives an eGFR result of 62 ml/min. A urine albumin : creatinine ratio (ACR) is 2.5 mg/mmol (normal range: < 3 mg/mmol). He is otherwise well with no symptoms.
What is the most appropriate interpretation of these results?Your Answer: Chronic kidney disease (CKD) stage 1
Correct Answer: No CKD
Explanation:Understanding eGFR Results and CKD Stages
When interpreting eGFR results, it is important to consider other markers of kidney damage such as albuminuria. An eGFR of 60-89 ml/min is considered mild and not indicative of CKD in the absence of albuminuria.
A sustained reduction in eGFR over three months is not indicative of acute kidney injury, which typically involves a sudden and drastic reduction in eGFR.
CKD stage 1 is diagnosed when eGFR is >90 ml/min and there is proteinuria (urine ACR >3 mg/mmol). This patient’s eGFR result of 62 ml/min and ACR of 2.5 mg/mmol doesn’t meet these criteria.
CKD stage 2 is diagnosed when eGFR is 60-89 ml/min and ACR is >3 mg/mmol. While the patient’s eGFR result fits this criteria, the sustained drop and normal ACR exclude this diagnosis.
CKD stage 3a is diagnosed when eGFR is 45-59 ml/min with or without other markers of kidney damage. This patient doesn’t meet this diagnostic marker.
In summary, understanding eGFR results and other markers of kidney damage is crucial in determining CKD stages.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 23
Correct
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A 62-year-old woman presents with pruritus vulvae. On examination, there are white thickened shiny patches on the labia minora. There is no abnormal vaginal discharge. The patient reports intense itching.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Lichen sclerosus
Explanation:Dermatological Conditions of the Anogenital Region
Lichen sclerosus is a chronic inflammatory skin condition that commonly affects the anogenital region in women and the glans penis and foreskin in men. It presents as white thickened or crinkled patches that can be extremely itchy or sore and may bruise or ulcerate due to friction. Adhesions or scarring can occur in the vulva or foreskin.
Psoriasis, on the other hand, forms well-demarcated plaques that are bright red and lacking in scale in the flexures. Candidiasis of the groins and vulval area presents with an erythematous inflammatory element and inflamed satellite lesions.
Vitiligo, characterized by the loss of pigment, doesn’t cause itching and is an unlikely diagnosis for this patient. Vulval carcinoma, which involves tumour formation and ulceration, is also not present in this case.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 24
Correct
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A 32-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner three weeks after an Eastern Mediterranean holiday with her family, during which they ate out a lot. She complains of malaise, lack of appetite, jaundice and dark urine. She thinks she was febrile at the start, but the fever subsided once the jaundice appeared. On examination, she has a palpable liver and is tender in the right upper quadrant.
Investigations:
Investigation Result Normal value
Bilirubin 132 µmol /l < 21 µmol/l
Alanine aminotransferase (ALT) 4104 IU/l < 40 IU/l
Aspartate aminotransferase (AST) 3476 U/l < 33 U/l
Alkaline phosphatase (ALP) 184 IU/l 40–129 IU/l
What is the single most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Hepatitis A
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis for a Patient with Flu-like Symptoms and Jaundice
Hepatitis A is a vaccine-preventable infection commonly acquired during travel. It spreads through contaminated food and presents with flu-like symptoms followed by jaundice and dark urine. Biliary colic may cause right upper quadrant pain but is unlikely to cause fever or significantly raised liver transaminase levels. Hepatitis B is transmitted through sexual contact, needle sharing, blood transfusions, organ transplantation, or from mother to child during delivery. Pancreatic carcinoma presents with weight loss, obstructive jaundice, mid-epigastric or back pain, and disproportionately raised alkaline phosphatases levels. Salmonella enteritidis causes food poisoning with diarrhea, fever, and colicky abdominal pain.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 25
Correct
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A 67-year-old man presents to the General Practitioner for a consultation. He has been diagnosed with lung cancer and is experiencing persistent minor haemoptysis which is causing him anxiety. He has also coughed up a larger amount of blood on one occasion. What is the most suitable initial treatment for his persistent bleeding?
Your Answer: Tranexamic acid
Explanation:Managing Haemoptysis in Terminal Lung Cancer Patients
Haemoptysis is a common symptom experienced by 20-30% of patients with lung cancer, with 3% experiencing massive haemoptysis as a terminal event. The management of haemoptysis in terminal lung cancer patients depends on the volume of blood loss, its cause, and prognosis.
For massive haemoptysis, intramuscular or intravenous morphine and midazolam are indicated, and the use of dark-coloured towels can mask blood. For smaller, self-limiting haemorrhage, tranexamic acid 1 g three times a day can often be effective.
In this scenario, there is no information to suggest a cause other than tumour progression, so tranexamic acid is the correct answer. It would be reasonable to try tranexamic acid first before considering radiotherapy.
In the secondary care setting, protamine is given intravenously as a reversal agent to heparin, should this be required. However, it is not usually used in the community.
Overall, managing haemoptysis in terminal lung cancer patients requires careful consideration of the individual’s situation and needs.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- End Of Life
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old woman presents with a history of diarrhoea for the past eight weeks and fresh rectal bleeding for the past few weeks. She has a past medical history of irritable bowel syndrome and frequently experiences bloating, which has worsened in recent weeks. She started a new job two months ago, which has been stressful. On examination, there is abdominal tenderness but no other abnormal signs.
What would be the most appropriate next step in management?Your Answer: Refer for an urgent outpatient appointment
Correct Answer: Prescribe GTN ointment and review in a month
Explanation:Urgent Referral for Rectal Bleeding and Diarrhoea
This woman is experiencing persistent diarrhoea and rectal bleeding, which cannot be attributed to irritable bowel syndrome. According to NICE guidelines, she requires urgent referral for suspected cancer pathway referral within two weeks. This is because she is under 50 years of age and has rectal bleeding with unexplained symptoms such as abdominal pain, weight loss, and iron-deficiency anaemia.
Prescribing GTN ointment or loperamide would not be appropriate in this case as they would only delay diagnosis and not address the underlying issue. Carcinoembryonic antigen testing is useful for assessing prognosis and monitoring treatment in colorectal cancer patients, but it should only be ordered after malignancy has been confirmed. Similarly, TTG testing for coeliac disease is good practice for patients with IBS-like symptoms, but it would not be appropriate in the presence of rectal bleeding of unknown origin.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old man presents with haemoptysis and a cough for four weeks. Has been a publican for 35 years. He is a lifelong non-smoker and drinks around 20 units of alcohol per week.
He did not worry too much about his symptoms because he is a non-smoker, the amount of blood was very small and he also has a cold with a productive cough.
He has no abnormality in his chest on examination.
What is the most appropriate management?Your Answer: Arrange an urgent chest x ray and review with the result
Correct Answer: Arrange urgent admission to hospital
Explanation:Lung Cancer and Passive Smoking
According to NICE NG12 guidelines, individuals with chest X-ray findings that suggest lung cancer or those aged 40 and over with unexplained haemoptysis should be referred for an appointment within two weeks. While smoking is the leading cause of lung cancer, a small but significant proportion of cases are not linked to smoking. The International Agency for Research on Cancer (IARC) evaluates evidence on the carcinogenic risk to humans of various exposures, including tobacco, alcohol, infections, radiation, occupational exposures, and medications. The World Cancer Research Fund/American Institute for Cancer Research (WCRF/AICR) evaluates evidence for other exposures, such as diet, overweight and obesity, and physical exercise.
Living with someone who smokes increases the risk of lung cancer in non-smokers by about a quarter. Exposure to passive smoke in the home is estimated to cause around 11,000 deaths every year in the UK from lung cancer, stroke, and ischaemic heart disease. This patient, who is not a smoker, has worked for many years in an environment where he would have been exposed to significant levels of smoke over a prolonged period (passive smoking), which is a risk factor for lung cancer. It is important to note that the smoking ban in public places was only introduced in the UK over the period 2006 to 2007, so individuals like this patient would have been exposed to passive smoke for many years before this time.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Health
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Question 28
Correct
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A 75-year-old man who is known to have severe OA of both his knees presents with increasing pain of the right knee. He is on the waiting list to see an orthopaedic surgeon, with at least a 6 month wait.
He is currently taking 1 g of paracetamol QDS, 2400 mg of ibuprofen daily with PPI cover. He has tried taking codeine and tramadol in the past and it made him feel very unwell, he also tried numerous NSAIDs and found ibuprofen to be the most effective. He is not keen on any other opioid-based medications because he lives on his own and is afraid he may lose his balance. He uses a walking stick and wears sensible walking shoes all the time.
A few months previously he had a very similar episode and applied ice to the knee to good effect but this time it has not helped that much. He is systemically well.
On examination the knee is cool, there is no noticeable redness, there is a mild effusion on the right knee, no joint margin tenderness, and ligaments are intact.
According to established guidelines, which one of the following is the best management option?Your Answer: Intra-articular corticosteroid injection
Explanation:Management of Osteoarthritis Flare
The patient has been diagnosed with an osteoarthritis flare, which is not uncommon for someone with severe OA of the knee. Despite having tried several NSAIDs in the past, ibuprofen has been found to be the most effective for this patient. However, since he is intolerant of opioid medications, management options are limited. Non-pharmacological options such as ice or heat have also been tried without success. According to NICE guidelines on Osteoarthritis (CG177), intra-articular corticosteroid injections are recommended as an adjunct to core therapies when pain is moderate to severe. Other options such as Traumeel injections, intra-articular hyaluronan injections, rubefacients, chondroitin, glucosamine, or chondroitin and glucosamine combinations are not recommended. However, there are other options such as topical capsaicin, transcutaneous electrical nerve stimulation (TENS), and assessment for bracing/joint supports/insoles that may be helpful. Expert advice from occupational therapists or disability equipment assessment centres may also be required.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 29
Correct
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A 6-year-old girl presents to the clinic with complaints of dysuria. Upon examination, her temperature is 37.2ºC, her abdomen appears normal, and a urine dipstick test reveals the presence of leukocytes and nitrites. The patient has no significant medical history. Besides urine microscopy, what is the most suitable course of action for management?
Your Answer: Oral antibiotics for 3 days + follow-up if not settled
Explanation:Urinary Tract Infection in Children: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Treatment
Urinary tract infections (UTIs) are more common in boys until 3 months of age, after which the incidence is substantially higher in girls. At least 8% of girls and 2% of boys will have a UTI in childhood. The presentation of UTIs in childhood depends on age. Infants may experience poor feeding, vomiting, and irritability, while younger children may have abdominal pain, fever, and dysuria. Older children may experience dysuria, frequency, and haematuria. Features that may suggest an upper UTI include a temperature of over 38ºC and loin pain or tenderness.
According to NICE guidelines, a urine sample should be checked in a child if there are any symptoms or signs suggestive of a UTI, with unexplained fever of 38°C or higher (test urine after 24 hours at the latest), or with an alternative site of infection but who remain unwell (consider urine test after 24 hours at the latest). A clean catch is the preferable method for urine collection. If not possible, urine collection pads should be used. Invasive methods such as suprapubic aspiration should only be used if non-invasive methods are not possible.
Infants less than 3 months old should be referred immediately to a paediatrician. Children aged more than 3 months old with an upper UTI should be considered for admission to the hospital. If not admitted, oral antibiotics such as cephalosporin or co-amoxiclav should be given for 7-10 days. Children aged more than 3 months old with a lower UTI should be treated with oral antibiotics for 3 days according to local guidelines, usually trimethoprim, nitrofurantoin, cephalosporin, or amoxicillin. Parents should be asked to bring the children back if they remain unwell after 24-48 hours. Antibiotic prophylaxis is not given after the first UTI but should be considered with recurrent UTIs.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 62-year-old man and his wife have come to the clinic with concerns about a new treatment he has recently started. He has a lengthy history of severe and debilitating depression that has not responded well to treatment with various selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) and tricyclic antidepressants. He was referred to specialist mental health services for further management.
His wife reports that he has been prescribed a new medication called 'phenelzine'. Unfortunately, she was unable to attend the psychiatry appointment with him. He informed her that the psychiatrist had advised him to avoid certain foods, but he cannot recall them and left the information leaflet he was given on the bus by mistake.
What is the best way to advise them?Your Answer: He should avoid spinach, rhubarb, nuts and chocolate
Correct Answer: He should avoid citrus fruits and bananas
Explanation:Dietary Restrictions for Certain Medical Conditions
Monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs) are not commonly prescribed in general practice due to the risk of hypertensive crisis when combined with certain foods or medications. Patients taking MAOIs must avoid tyramine-containing foods and should not take tricyclic antidepressants. Haemodialysis patients are advised to limit their intake of potassium-rich foods such as citrus fruits and bananas. Those with gout should avoid purine-containing foods like offal and shellfish. Patients with coeliac disease must avoid gluten-containing foods like wheat, barley, rye, and sometimes oats. Individuals with oxalate renal stones should avoid oxalate-containing foods like spinach, rhubarb, nuts, and chocolate. By following these dietary restrictions, patients can better manage their medical conditions and avoid potential complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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