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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old man has been referred to a neurologist by his GP due to recent concerns with his speech. He has been experiencing difficulty verbalising his thoughts and finds this frustrating. However, there is no evidence to suggest a reduced comprehension of speech.
He struggles to repeat sentences and well-rehearsed lists (such as months of the year and numbers from one to ten). He is also unable to name common household objects presented to him. Additionally, he constructs sentences using the incorrect tense and his grammar is poor.
Imaging studies reveal that the issue is located in the frontotemporal region of the brain.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Wernicke’s aphasia
Correct Answer: Progressive non-fluent aphasia (PNFA)
Explanation:Different Types of Aphasia and Their Characteristics
Aphasia is a language disorder that affects a person’s ability to communicate effectively. There are different types of aphasia, each with its own set of characteristics. Progressive non-fluent aphasia (PNFA) primarily affects speech and language, causing poor fluency, repetition, grammar, and anomia. Wernicke’s aphasia, on the other hand, is a fluent aphasia that causes impaired comprehension and repetition, nonsensical speech, and neologisms. Broca’s aphasia is a non-fluent aphasia that affects the ability to communicate fluently, but does not affect comprehension. Semantic dementia affects semantic memory, primarily affecting naming of objects, single-word comprehension, and understanding the uses of particular objects. Finally, conductive dysphasia is caused by damage to the arcuate fasciculus, resulting in anomia and poor repetition but preserved comprehension and fluency of speech. Understanding the characteristics of each type of aphasia can help in the diagnosis and treatment of individuals with language disorders.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 2
Correct
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A 28-year-old pregnant woman is recuperating from cavernous venous sinus thrombosis. The wall of the sinus has impacted all nerves passing through it.
What is the most prominent clinical indication of cranial nerve impairment caused by this pathological condition?Your Answer: Ipsilateral corneal reflex absent
Explanation:Trigeminal Nerve Dysfunction and its Effects on Facial and Oral Function
The trigeminal nerve is responsible for carrying sensory and motor information from the face and oral cavity to the brain. Dysfunction of this nerve can lead to various symptoms affecting facial and oral function.
One common symptom is the absence of the ipsilateral corneal reflex, which is carried by the ophthalmic division of the trigeminal nerve. Damage to this nerve interrupts the reflex arc of the corneal reflex.
Another symptom is the inability to resist forced lateral mandibular excursion with the mouth partially open. This is due to damage to the pterygoid muscles, which are innervated by the motor fibers in the mandibular division of the trigeminal nerve.
Loss of sensation over the lower lip is also a result of trigeminal nerve dysfunction. The mandibular division of the trigeminal nerve carries general somatic afferent nerves from the lower lip.
Similarly, loss of somatic sensation over the anterior two-thirds of the tongue is also carried by the trigeminal nerve.
Lastly, the facial nerve innervates the buccinator muscle, which is responsible for the ability to blow out the cheeks. Damage to this nerve can result in the inability to perform this action.
Overall, dysfunction of the trigeminal nerve can have significant effects on facial and oral function, highlighting the importance of this nerve in everyday activities.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 20-year-old man complained of a sudden frontal headache accompanied by photophobia. He also experienced neck stiffness and had a temperature of 38°C. What distinguishing feature would indicate a diagnosis of subarachnoid haemorrhage instead of bacterial meningitis?
Your Answer: A fluctuating conscious level
Correct Answer: A family history of polycystic kidney disease
Explanation:Comparing Risk Factors and Symptoms of Meningitis, SAH, and Cerebral Aneurysms
Fluctuating levels of consciousness are common symptoms of both meningitis and subarachnoid hemorrhage (SAH). While hypertension is a known risk factor for SAH, diabetes does not increase the risk. On the other hand, opiate abuse is not associated with an increased risk of SAH. Cerebral aneurysms, which are a type of SAH, are often linked to polycystic kidney disease. It is important to understand the different risk factors and symptoms associated with these conditions to ensure prompt diagnosis and treatment. By recognizing these factors, healthcare professionals can provide appropriate care and improve patient outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 4
Correct
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A 67-year-old man is brought to the Neurology clinic by his wife because he has had 4 months of progressively worsening dysarthria, gait instability, intention tremor and memory loss. Electroencephalography (EEG) is performed and is significant for triphasic spikes, and cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) is obtained, which shows an elevated 14-3-3 protein. The patient’s clinical course continues to deteriorate, and he dies 7 months after his initial presentation. A researcher obtains permission to procure a brain biopsy specimen to confirm the diagnosis and contribute to a repository of similar diseases.
What secondary structure would the researcher expect to find in the abnormal brain tissue?Your Answer: Proteinaceous β sheets
Explanation:Secondary Structures in Proteins and Nucleic Acids
Proteins and nucleic acids are essential biomolecules that perform various functions in living organisms. These molecules have unique structural features that enable them to carry out their functions. One such feature is the secondary structure, which refers to the local folding patterns of the molecule.
Proteinaceous β sheets are a type of secondary structure that is associated with prion disorders such as Creutzfeldt–Jakob disease. Prions are infectious protein molecules that can convert normal cellular prion protein into an abnormal form that exists as β sheets.
Nucleic acid hairpin loops are another type of secondary structure that has functional properties in DNA and RNA molecules. These structures are formed when a single strand of nucleic acid folds back on itself to form a loop.
Proteinaceous α helices are a common non-pathological secondary structure of proteins. These structures are formed when the polypeptide chain twists into a helical shape.
Nucleic acid pseudoknots are secondary structures that have functional properties in DNA and RNA molecules. These structures are formed when two regions of a single strand of nucleic acid fold back on each other and form a knot-like structure.
Proteinaceous α sheets are theoretical structures that could represent an intermediate between α helices and β sheets. These structures have not been observed in nature but are predicted based on computational models.
In summary, secondary structures play an important role in the function and stability of proteins and nucleic acids. Understanding these structures is essential for understanding the molecular mechanisms of biological processes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 5
Correct
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A 79-year-old man is brought to see his general practitioner by his daughter who has noticed that he is becoming increasingly forgetful and unsteady on his feet. Unfortunately his daughter does not know anything about his previous medical history or whether he takes any medications. Routine investigations reveal:
Investigation Result Normal Value
Haemaglobin 105 g/l 135–175 g/l
Mean corpuscular value 101 fl 76–98 fl
White cell count 7.2 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
Platelets 80 × 109/l 150–400 x 109/
Sodium 132 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
Potassium 4.8 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
Urea 1.3 mmol/l 2.5–6.5 mmol/l
Creatinine 78 μmol/l 50–120 µmol/l
Random blood sugar 6.1 mmol/l 3.5–5.5 mmol/l
Given these results, which is the most likely cause of his symptoms?Your Answer: Alcohol excess
Explanation:Possible Diagnoses for Abnormal Blood Results: Alcohol Excess, Hypothyroidism, B12 Deficiency, Myelodysplasia, and Phenytoin Toxicity
The patient’s blood results suggest a diagnosis of alcohol excess, which can cause confusion and increase the risk of subdural hematomas and recurrent falls. The macrocytosis, thrombocytopenia, mild hyponatremia, and low urea are all consistent with excess alcohol. Hypothyroidism can also cause macrocytosis and hyponatremia, but not thrombocytopenia or low urea. B12 deficiency may cause pancytopenia and marked macrocytosis, making it the next most likely option after alcohol excess. Myelodysplasia typically presents with shortness of breath and fatigue, and may show macrocytosis and thrombocytopenia on blood results. Phenytoin toxicity may cause macrocytosis and ataxia, as well as a range of other symptoms and signs such as fever and gingival hyperplasia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 6
Correct
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A 28-year-old motorcyclist is brought to the Emergency Department (ED) 45 minutes after a collision with a heavy-goods vehicle. Immediately after the collision she was unconscious for three minutes. Since regaining consciousness, she appears dazed and complains of a headache, nausea and ringing in her ears, and she is aversive to light and sound. Prior to examination she had an episode of vomiting.
An ABCDE assessment is performed and the results are below:
Airway Patent, able to speak
Breathing Respiratory rate (RR) 18 per min, SaO2 97% on room air, normal and symmetrical chest expansion, normal percussion note bilaterally, normal vesicular breath sounds throughout
Circulation Heart rate (HR) 97/min, blood pressure (BP) 139/87 mmHg, capillary refill time (CRT) <2 s, ECG with sinus tachycardia, normal heart sounds without added sounds or murmurs
Disability AVPU, pupils equal and reactive to light, Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) = 13 (E4, V4, M5), no signs suggestive of basal skull fracture
Exposure Temperature 36.8 °C, multiple bruises but no sites of external bleeding, abdomen is soft and non-tender
Which of the following would be appropriate in the further management of this patient?Your Answer: Computed tomography (CT) scan within eight hours
Explanation:Management of Head Injury: Guidelines for CT Scan, Intubation, Neurosurgery Referral, Discharge, and Fluid Resuscitation
Head injuries require prompt and appropriate management to prevent further complications. Evidence-based guidelines recommend performing a CT head scan within eight hours for adults who have lost consciousness temporarily or displayed amnesia since the injury, especially those with risk factors such as age >65 years, bleeding or clotting disorders, dangerous mechanism of injury, or more than 30 minutes of retrograde amnesia. If the patient has a GCS of <9, intubation and ventilation are necessary. Immediate referral to neurosurgery is not required unless there is further deterioration or a large bleed is identified on CT scan. Patients with reduced GCS cannot be discharged from the ED and require close monitoring. Fluid resuscitation with crystalloid, such as normal saline and/or blood, is crucial to avoid hypotension and hypovolaemia, while albumin should be avoided due to its association with higher mortality rates.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 20-year-old man without significant history presents with complaints of pain in his left forearm and hand that is relieved by changing the position of his arm. During examination, there is a loss of sensation on the medial aspect of his hand, and a cervical rib is suspected. To confirm involvement of the C8 and T1 roots of the brachial plexus rather than a palsy of the ulnar nerve, which motor test should be used?
Your Answer: Adduction of the thumb
Correct Answer: Flexion of the distal interphalangeal joint of the index finger
Explanation:Assessing Nerve Lesions: Differentiating Between C8/T1 and Ulnar Nerve Lesions
When assessing for nerve lesions, it is important to differentiate between a C8/T1 lesion and an ulnar nerve lesion. One way to do this is by testing specific actions controlled by muscles innervated by these nerves.
Flexion of the distal interphalangeal joint of the index finger is controlled by the flexor digitorum profundus muscle, which is innervated by both the ulnar nerve and the anterior interosseous nerve (a branch of the median nerve) via C8/T1 nerve roots. Weakness in this action would make an ulnar nerve injury unlikely.
Abduction and adduction of the fingers are controlled by the dorsal and palmar interosseous muscles, respectively. These muscles are innervated by the ulnar nerve via C8/T1 nerve roots, making testing these actions unable to differentiate between a C8/T1 lesion and an ulnar nerve lesion.
Adduction of the thumb is controlled by the adductor pollicis muscle, which is also innervated by the ulnar nerve via C8/T1 nerve roots. Testing this action would also not differentiate between a C8/T1 lesion and an ulnar nerve lesion.
Similarly, flexion of the distal interphalangeal joint of the little finger is controlled by the medial aspect of the flexor digitorum profundus muscle, which is innervated by the ulnar nerve via C8/T1 nerve roots. Testing this action would also not differentiate between a C8/T1 lesion and an ulnar nerve lesion.
In summary, assessing for weakness in flexion of the distal interphalangeal joint of the index finger can help differentiate between a C8/T1 lesion and an ulnar nerve lesion. Testing other actions controlled by muscles innervated by these nerves would not provide this differentiation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 8
Correct
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What is the name of the neuron that sends signals from the peripheral nervous system to the central nervous system?
Your Answer: Afferent
Explanation:Afferent Neurones
Afferent neurones are responsible for transmitting sensory signals from the periphery, such as receptors, organs, and other neurones, to the central nervous system, which includes the brain and spinal cord. These neurones are often referred to as sensory neurones. It is important to note that afferent neurones are not the same as bipolar, efferent, interneurone, or multipolar neurones.
Bipolar neurones are simply neurones that have only two extensions, such as those found in the retina or the ganglia of the vestibulocochlear nerve. Efferent neurones, on the other hand, transmit impulses from the central nervous system to the periphery, which is the opposite action of afferent neurones. Interneurones are neurones that connect afferent and efferent neurones in neural pathways. Finally, multipolar neurones are neurones that have a large number of dendrites, usually one long axon, and are found mostly in the brain and spinal cord for the integration of multiple incoming signals.
In summary, afferent neurones are responsible for transmitting sensory signals from the periphery to the central nervous system. They are distinct from other types of neurones, such as bipolar, efferent, interneurone, and multipolar neurones.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 9
Incorrect
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You are investigating the genetic implications for developing Alzheimer's disease as a part of a research paper.
Which of the following gene alleles is protective against developing Alzheimer's disease in individuals over the age of 60?Your Answer: ApoE-e4
Correct Answer: ApoE-e2
Explanation:Understanding the Role of Apolipoprotein E Gene Alleles in Alzheimer’s Disease and Cardiovascular Risk
Apolipoprotein E (ApoE) is a crucial component of very low-density lipoprotein (VLDL) and has three common gene alleles: ApoE-e2, e3, and e4. Among these, e3 is the most prevalent, found in 50% of the population. However, the presence of different alleles can have varying effects on an individual’s health.
ApoE-e2 is considered a protective gene against the development of Alzheimer’s disease. On the other hand, ApoE-e4 is regarded as a positive predictor for developing the disease and is also associated with the development of atheromatous disease, making it a predictor of cardiovascular risk.
It is important to note that ApoE-e1 and e5 are not significant in terms of their association with Alzheimer’s disease or cardiovascular risk. Therefore, understanding the role of ApoE gene alleles can help in predicting an individual’s susceptibility to these diseases and developing appropriate preventive measures.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 10
Correct
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A 66-year-old man is referred to the Elderly Medicine Clinic with a 6-month history of changed behaviour. He has been hoarding newspapers and magazines around the house and refuses to change his clothes for weeks on end. His wife has noticed that he tells the same stories repeatedly, often just minutes apart. He has a new taste for potato crisps and has gained 4 kg in weight. On examination, his mini-mental state examination (MMSE) is 27/30.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Fronto-temporal dementia (FTD)
Explanation:Different Types of Dementia and Their Characteristics
Dementia is a term used to describe a group of symptoms that affect memory, thinking, and social abilities. There are several types of dementia, each with its own set of characteristics. Here are some of the most common types of dementia and their features:
1. Fronto-temporal dementia (FTD)
FTD is characterized by a lack of attention to personal hygiene, repetitive behavior, hoarding/criminal behavior, and new eating habits. Patients with FTD tend to perform well on cognitive tests, but may experience loss of fluency, lack of empathy, ignoring social etiquette, and loss of abstraction.2. Diogenes syndrome
Diogenes syndrome, also known as senile squalor syndrome, is characterized by self-neglect, apathy, social withdrawal, and compulsive hoarding.3. Lewy body dementia
Lewy body dementia is characterized by parkinsonism and visual hallucinations.4. Alzheimer’s dementia
Alzheimer’s dementia shows progressive cognitive decline, including memory loss, difficulty with language, disorientation, and mood swings.5. Vascular dementia
Vascular dementia is characterized by stepwise cognitive decline, usually with a history of vascular disease.Understanding the different types of dementia and their characteristics can help with early detection and appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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