-
Question 1
Correct
-
In the United Kingdom, which of the following is the most often used intravenous aesthetic:
Your Answer: Propofol
Explanation:In the United Kingdom, propofol is the most widely used intravenous anaesthetic. In adults and children, it can be used to induce or maintain anaesthesia, although it is not commonly used in newborns. It can also be used to sedate individuals in intensive care and for sedation during operations.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anaesthesia
- Pharmacology
-
-
Question 2
Incorrect
-
Which of the following best describes the typical rash of measles:
Your Answer: The typical rash of measles starts on the trunk and spreads upwards towards the neck and face.
Correct Answer: The typical rash of measles is maculopapular, starting behind the ears and spreading downwards to the trunk.
Explanation:A prodromal 2 – 4 day coryzal illness (fever, cough, conjunctivitis, irritability) normally occurs associated with Koplik’s spots (small white papules found on the buccal mucosa near the first premolars), before a morbilliform maculopapular rash appears, first behind the ears and then spreading downwards to whole body.The rash peels off or fades about about 7 – 10 days. The chickenpox rash is characterised by a maculopapular rash progressing to vesicles and then crusting over. Scarlet fever is characterised by a sandpaper like rash associated with a strawberry tongue.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
- Pathogens
-
-
Question 3
Incorrect
-
Which of the following nerves is most important for eversion of the foot:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Superficial fibular nerve
Explanation:Eversion of the foot is primarily produced by the fibularis longus and fibularis brevis, both innervated by the superficial fibular nerve. The fibularis tertius, innervated by the deep fibular nerve, also assists in this action.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Lower Limb
-
-
Question 4
Incorrect
-
You are examining the lower limbs of a 54 year old man who presented after falling from a ladder at home. During your neurological assessment you note a weakness of hip flexion. Which of the following nerves is the most important for flexion of the thigh at the hip joint:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Femoral nerve
Explanation:Flexion of the thigh at the hip joint is produced by the sartorius, psoas major, iliacus and pectineus muscles, assisted by the rectus femoris muscle, all innervated by the femoral nerve (except for the psoas major, innervated by the anterior rami of L1 – 3).
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Lower Limb
-
-
Question 5
Incorrect
-
An elderly man with chronic heart and lung disease develops Legionnaires' Disease. By what route was the infection most likely to have been acquired:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Inhalation of aerosolised contaminated water
Explanation:Legionella pneumophilais a Gram negative bacterium that is found in natural water supplies and in the soil, transmitted predominantly via inhalation of aerosols generated from contaminated water (direct person-to-person spread of infected patients does not occur). It is the cause of Legionnaires’ disease. Outbreaks of Legionnaires’ disease have been linked to poorly maintained air conditioning systems, whirlpool spas and hot tubs.The clinical features of the pneumonic form of Legionnaires’ disease include:Mild flu-like prodrome for 1-3 daysCough (usually non-productive and occurs in approximately 90%)Pleuritic chest painHaemoptysisHeadacheNausea, vomiting and diarrhoeaAnorexiaLegionella pneumophilainfections can be successfully treated with macrolide antibiotics, such as erythromycin, or quinolones, such as ciprofloxacin. Tetracyclines, such as doxycycline, can also be used.The syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion (SIADH) can occur with Legionnaires’ disease and will result in hyponatraemia as is seen in this case.Legionella pneumophilainfections are resistant to amoxicillin but can be successfully treated with macrolide antibiotics, such as erythromycin, or quinolones, such as ciprofloxacin. Tetracyclines, such as doxycycline, can also be used. The majority of cases of Legionnaires’ disease are caused by Legionella pneumophila, however many other species of Legionella have been identified.Legionella longbeachae is another less commonly encountered species that has also been implicated in outbreaks. It is predominantly found in soil and potting compost, and has caused outbreaks of Pontiac fever, the non-respiratory and less severe variant of Legionnaires’ disease.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
- Pathogens
-
-
Question 6
Incorrect
-
Depolarisation of a neuron begins with which of the following:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Opening of ligand-gated Na + channels
Explanation:Action potentials are initiated in nerves by activation of ligand-gated Na+channels by neurotransmitters. Opening of these Na+channels results in a small influx of sodium and depolarisation of the negative resting membrane potential (-70 mV). If the stimulus is sufficiently strong, the resting membrane depolarises enough to reach threshold potential (generally around -55 mV), at which point an action potential can occur. Voltage-gated Na+channels open, causing further depolarisation and activating more voltage-gated Na+channels and there is a sudden and massive sodium influx, driving the cell membrane potential to about +40 mV.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Cellular
- Physiology
-
-
Question 7
Incorrect
-
A patient allergic to penicillin and with marked cellulitis presents and you decide to start him on erythromycin.Which statement about macrolide antibiotics is true?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: They are actively concentrated within leukocytes
Explanation:Macrolide antibiotics are bacteriostatic. They act by binding to the 50S subunit of the bacterial ribosome inhibit protein synthesis. Macrolide antibiotics are actively concentrated within leukocytes, because of this, they are transported into the site of infection.Macrolide antibiotics are not effective in meningitis as they do not penetrate the central nervous system well. They are mainly against Gram-positive organisms and can be used as an alternative in patients with penicillin allergy.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Infections
- Pharmacology
-
-
Question 8
Incorrect
-
Which of the following best describes the order in which blood passes through the nephron?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Afferent arteriole→Glomerular capillary→Efferent arteriole→Peritubular capillary→Vasa recta
Explanation:The nephron’s blood flow is as follows:Afferent arteriole – Glomerular capillary – Efferent arteriole – Peritubular capillary – Vasa recta – Afferent arteriole – Glomerular capillary – Efferent arteriole – Peritubular capillary – Vasa rectaThe kidney is the only vascular network in the body with two capillary beds. With arterioles supplying and draining the glomerular capillaries, higher hydrostatic pressures at the glomerulus are maintained, allowing for better filtration. A second capillary network at the tubules enables for secretion and absorption in the tubules, as well as concentrating urine.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
- Renal Physiology
-
-
Question 9
Incorrect
-
Which of the following nerves has been damaged when a patient presents with a foot drop?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Common peroneal nerve
Explanation:The common peroneal nerve often referred to as the common fibular nerve, is a major nerve that innervates the lower extremity. It is one of the two major branches off the sciatic nerve and receives fibres from the posterior divisions of L4 through S2 nerve roots. The common peroneal nerve separates from the sciatic nerve in the distal posterior thigh proximal to the popliteal fossa. After branching off of the sciatic nerve, it continues down the thigh, running posteroinferior to the biceps femoris muscle, and crosses laterally to the head of the lateral gastrocnemius muscle through the posterior intermuscular septum. The nerve then curves around the fibular neck before dividing into two branches, the superficial peroneal nerve (SPN) and the deep peroneal nerve (DPN). The common peroneal nerve does not have any motor innervation before dividing; however, it provides sensory innervation to the lateral leg via the lateral sural nerve.The superficial peroneal nerve innervates the lateral compartment of the leg, and the deep peroneal nerve innervates the anterior compartment of the leg and the dorsum of the foot. These two nerves are essential in the eversion of the foot and dorsiflexion of the foot, respectively. The superficial and deep peroneal nerves provide both motor and sensory innervation.The most common presentation with common peroneal nerve injury or palsy is acute foot drop, although symptoms may be progressive and can include sensory loss or pain. Weakness in foot eversion may occur if the superficial peroneal nerve component is involved.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Lower Limb
-
-
Question 10
Incorrect
-
A 30-year-old male farmer presents to the Emergency Department due to a wound on his right forearm sustained two days ago while working on the farm. He cleaned the wound under a tap, but there was still some dirt and debris on examination. Past medical history reveals that he never received a tetanus vaccine. After cleaning the wound and prescribing antibiotics, which ONE of the following actions should be taken to manage his tetanus risk?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Tetanus vaccination and 500 IU tetanus immunoglobulin
Explanation:If a patient presents with one of the following types of wounds, they are at risk of contracting tetanus and should be vaccinated immediately:1) Contaminated puncture-type wounds from gardening and farming (as they may contain tetanus spores)2) Wounds containing foreign bodies3) Open (compound) fractures4) Wounds or burns with sepsis5) Animal bites and scratches (animal saliva does not contain tetanus spores unless the animal was routing in soil or lives in an agriculture setting)Extremely high-risk tetanus-prone wounds are any of the above wounds with one of the following:1) Any wound contaminated by materials containing tetanus spores, e.g., soil, manure2) Burns or wounds with extensive devitalised tissue3) Wounds or burns with surgical intervention delayed for more than six hours even if the initial injury was not heavily contaminatedThe CDC recommends that adults who have never been vaccinated for tetanus receive a quick shot of the tetanus vaccine along with a booster dose ten years later. A tetanus-prone wound in an unvaccinated individual should also receive a high dose of tetanus immunoglobulin. The injected antibodies will prevent tetanus infection as the patient does not have any pre-existing antibodies against the disease.In this case, the patient has a high risk, contaminated wound. He should receive a high dose of tetanus immunoglobulin along with the tetanus vaccine. (The preventative dose of tetanus immunoglobulin is 250 IU in most cases unless over 24 hours have passed since the injury or the wound is heavily contaminated, then 500 IU should be given.) His physician also needs to be contacted to arrange the remainder of the course as indicated in this case.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
- Specific Pathogen Groups
-
00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00
:
00
:
00
Session Time
00
:
00
Average Question Time (
Secs)