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Question 1
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At what age would a typical toddler develop the capability to squat down and retrieve a toy?
Your Answer: 18 months
Explanation:Gross Motor Developmental Milestones
Gross motor developmental milestones refer to the physical abilities that a child acquires as they grow and develop. These milestones are important indicators of a child’s overall development and can help parents and healthcare professionals identify any potential delays or concerns. The table below summarizes the major gross motor developmental milestones from 3 months to 4 years of age.
At 3 months, a baby should have little or no head lag when pulled to sit and should have good head control when lying on their abdomen. By 6 months, they should be able to pull themselves to a sitting position and roll from front to back. At 9 months, they should be able to crawl and pull themselves to a standing position. By 12 months, they should be able to cruise and walk with one hand held. At 18 months, they should be able to walk unsupported and squat to pick up a toy. By 2 years, they should be able to run and walk up and down stairs holding onto a rail. At 3 years, they should be able to ride a tricycle using pedals and walk up stairs without holding onto a rail. Finally, at 4 years, they should be able to hop on one leg.
It is important to note that while the majority of children crawl on all fours before walking, some children may bottom-shuffle, which is a normal variant that runs in families. By monitoring a child’s gross motor developmental milestones, parents and healthcare professionals can ensure that they are meeting their developmental goals and identify any potential concerns early on.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 2
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As an out of hours GP, you are presented with a 75-year-old man named John who complains of worsening pain in his right eye over the past 12 hours. He reports slight blurriness in his vision that clears on blinking but denies any other symptoms. John has a medical history of type 2 diabetes and bilateral cataracts, and he underwent surgery for his right cataract 4 days ago. His left eye cataract surgery was uncomplicated and occurred 10 weeks ago. During the examination, you observe redness and purulent discharge. John mentions that his eye has been sticky and wonders if his recent visit to his 6-year-old granddaughter, who had conjunctivitis, could be the cause of his current condition.
What would be the most appropriate course of action?Your Answer: Same day referral to ophthalmologist
Explanation:postoperative endophthalmitis is a rare but serious complication of cataract surgery that requires urgent treatment. It can have an infectious or non-infectious cause and should be considered in patients who experience acute pain, redness, visual loss, discharge, or photophobia after eye surgery. Due to the potential for vision loss, patients should be referred to an ophthalmologist for assessment on the same day. Prescribing prednisolone eye drops may worsen the condition if it is infectious, and chloramphenicol eye drops may delay specialist ophthalmology review and treatment. Referring the patient to be seen in two weeks is not appropriate due to the potential for visual morbidity. While optometrists can refer patients to ophthalmologists, referral to an ophthalmologist should be made without delay.
Understanding Cataracts
A cataract is a common eye condition that occurs when the lens of the eye becomes cloudy, making it difficult for light to reach the retina and causing reduced or blurred vision. Cataracts are more common in women and increase in incidence with age, affecting 30% of individuals aged 65 and over. The most common cause of cataracts is the normal ageing process, but other possible causes include smoking, alcohol consumption, trauma, diabetes mellitus, long-term corticosteroids, radiation exposure, myotonic dystrophy, and metabolic disorders such as hypocalcaemia.
Patients with cataracts typically experience a gradual onset of reduced vision, faded colour vision, glare, and halos around lights. Signs of cataracts include a defect in the red reflex, which is the reddish-orange reflection seen through an ophthalmoscope when a light is shone on the retina. Diagnosis is made through ophthalmoscopy and slit-lamp examination, which reveal a visible cataract.
In the early stages, age-related cataracts can be managed conservatively with stronger glasses or contact lenses and brighter lighting. However, surgery is the only effective treatment for cataracts, involving the removal of the cloudy lens and replacement with an artificial one. Referral for surgery should be based on the presence of visual impairment, impact on quality of life, patient choice, and the risks and benefits of surgery. Complications following surgery may include posterior capsule opacification, retinal detachment, posterior capsule rupture, and endophthalmitis. Despite these risks, cataract surgery has a high success rate, with 85-90% of patients achieving corrected vision of 6/12 or better on a Snellen chart postoperatively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Eyes And Vision
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Question 3
Correct
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A 35-year-old woman, who is typically healthy, presents with a pruritic rash. She is currently pregnant with twins at 32/40 gestation and this is her first pregnancy. The rash initially appeared on her abdomen and has predominantly affected her stretch marks. Upon examination, she displays urticarial papules with some plaques concentrated on the abdomen, while the umbilical area remains unaffected. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Polymorphic eruption of pregnancy
Explanation:The cause of itch during pregnancy can be identified by observing the timing of symptoms and the appearance of the rash. Polymorphic eruption of pregnancy is a common condition that usually occurs in the third trimester and is more likely to affect first-time pregnant women with excessive weight gain or multiple pregnancies. The rash is characterized by itchy urticarial papules that merge into plaques and typically starts on the abdomen, particularly on the striae, but not on the umbilicus region. The rash may remain localized, spread to the buttocks and thighs, or become widespread and generalized. It may later progress to non-urticated erythema, eczematous lesions, and vesicles, but not bullae.
Skin Disorders Associated with Pregnancy
During pregnancy, women may experience various skin disorders. The most common skin disorder found in pregnancy is atopic eruption, which presents as an itchy red rash. However, no specific treatment is needed for this condition. Another skin disorder is polymorphic eruption, which is a pruritic condition associated with the last trimester. Lesions often first appear in abdominal striae, and management depends on severity. Emollients, mild potency topical steroids, and oral steroids may be used. Pemphigoid gestationis is another skin disorder that presents as pruritic blistering lesions. It often develops in the peri-umbilical region, later spreading to the trunk, back, buttocks, and arms. This disorder usually presents in the second or third trimester and is rarely seen in the first pregnancy. Oral corticosteroids are usually required for treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old male patient presents with recurrent urinary symptoms, reporting bothersome hesitancy and nocturia. He is currently taking finasteride.
PSA levels over the past two months have been within normal range for his age, measuring at 3.2 and 3.3 ng/ml. Upon physical examination, including a digital rectal exam, no abnormalities were detected.
What is the appropriate course of action at this juncture?Your Answer: Start an alpha-blocker, such as tamsulosin
Correct Answer: Stop the finasteride and repeat the PSA in six weeks
Explanation:Importance of Checking for Prostate Cancer in Patients on Finasteride
Whilst other possibilities should not be disregarded, it is crucial to prioritize checking for prostate cancer in patients taking Finasteride. It is important to note that PSA values may be significantly reduced by up to 50% in patients taking 5-ARIs such as Finasteride, which can bring abnormal prostates into the normal range in terms of PSA values. Additionally, any increase in PSA levels should be a cause for concern, even if the absolute value is within the normal range, when a patient is taking Finasteride. It is essential to double the PSA readings of patients on Finasteride, which means that the corrected values for this patient are 6.2 and 6.0 ng/ml. Therefore, it is crucial to prioritize checking for prostate cancer in patients taking Finasteride to ensure timely diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 5
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A 45-year-old man received a kidney transplant for end-stage renal disease. After four weeks, he experiences fever, night sweats, and myalgia. He visits his General Practitioner and is referred to the Nephrology Clinic. His CXR reveals bilateral diffuse interstitial pneumonia. What is the probable reason for this patient's symptoms?
Your Answer: Cytomegalovirus
Explanation:Post-Transplant Infections: Common Causes and Symptoms
Renal transplant patients are at risk for various infections due to immunosuppressive therapy. One of the most common infections is caused by cytomegalovirus, which typically presents with nonspecific symptoms such as fever and myalgia. A chest X-ray may reveal bilateral interstitial or reticulonodular infiltrates that start in the lower lobes and spread outwards. Epstein-Barr virus can also cause complications post-transplant, leading to lymphoproliferative disease. However, this tends to develop months to years after transplantation and would not account for the CXR results. Herpes simplex virus usually results in oral or anogenital lesions, while Mycobacterium tuberculosis can present with fever and night sweats but would not explain the diffuse CXR findings. Varicella-zoster virus is more likely to cause a classic Chickenpox rash or shingles-type rash. It is important to monitor for these infections and promptly treat them to prevent further complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 6
Incorrect
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Sophie is a 32 year old woman who has been experiencing symptoms of irritability, anxiety, lethargy, poor concentration and disturbed sleep for a week before her periods. These symptoms disappear after her period starts. Do you think she may have premenstrual syndrome? If so, what are some possible treatment options?
Your Answer: Low dose SSRI (selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor) in the follicular phase
Correct Answer: Low dose SSRI (selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor) during luteal phase
Explanation:The only recognized treatment option for premenstrual syndrome among the given choices is a low dose SSRI during the luteal phase. According to the NICE Clinical Knowledge Summary on Premenstrual Syndrome, lifestyle advice should be given to women with severe PMS, and treatment options for moderate PMS include a new-generation combined oral contraceptive, analgesics, or cognitive behavioral therapy. Additionally, an SSRI can be taken continuously or during the luteal phase (days 15-28 of the menstrual cycle, depending on its length).
Understanding Premenstrual Syndrome (PMS)
Premenstrual syndrome (PMS) is a condition that affects women during the luteal phase of their menstrual cycle. It is characterized by emotional and physical symptoms that can range from mild to severe. PMS only occurs in women who have ovulatory menstrual cycles and doesn’t occur before puberty, during pregnancy, or after menopause.
Emotional symptoms of PMS include anxiety, stress, fatigue, and mood swings. Physical symptoms may include bloating and breast pain. The severity of symptoms varies from woman to woman, and management options depend on the severity of symptoms.
Mild symptoms can be managed with lifestyle advice, such as getting enough sleep, exercising regularly, and avoiding smoking and alcohol. Specific advice includes eating regular, frequent, small, balanced meals that are rich in complex carbohydrates.
Moderate symptoms may benefit from a new-generation combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP), such as Yasmin® (drospirenone 3 mg and ethinylestradiol 0.030 mg). Severe symptoms may benefit from a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI), which can be taken continuously or just during the luteal phase of the menstrual cycle (for example, days 15-28, depending on the length of the cycle). Understanding PMS and its management options can help women better cope with this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology And Breast
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Question 7
Correct
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A 62-year-old woman comes to her General Practitioner complaining of a new headache that has been bothering her for about a week. She has been feeling more tired than usual and has been experiencing muscle aches and pains. She has also noticed pain when chewing. Apart from these symptoms, she is in good health.
During the physical examination, an unusual finding is observed.
Which component of the physical examination is most likely to be abnormal?Your Answer: Palpation of the scalp/temporal arteries
Explanation:Clinical Examination for Temporal Arteritis
Temporal arteritis is a condition that should be suspected in patients over 50 years of age who present with a new headache. The headache is often persistent, severe, and worse at night. Palpation of the scalp and temporal arteries may reveal marked tenderness and signs of inflammation, such as erythema, nodularity, and reduced pulsation. Jaw claudication when chewing is also a common feature. Here are some clinical examination techniques that can help diagnose temporal arteritis:
1. Palpation of the scalp/temporal arteries: Marked scalp tenderness is common in patients with temporal arteritis. Approximately half of patients exhibit signs of superficial temporal artery inflammation, which can be detected by palpation.
2. Examination of the neck for muscle tenderness and stiffness: Neck examination may reveal a limitation in the range of movement of the neck and crepitation, especially in tension-type headaches. However, the history in this patient, including generalised muscle aches, jaw claudication and temporal headache are more suggestive of temporal arteritis.
3. Blood pressure (BP) measurement: Raised BP is very rarely a cause of headache. However, patients often think it is and may expect their BP to be measured. Nevertheless, this would neither confirm nor refute a diagnosis of temporal arteritis, the likely diagnosis here.
4. Examination of the jaw and bite: Routine examination of the jaw and bite is unlikely to contribute to the diagnosis here. The jaw pain here is suggestive of claudication, which is a feature associated with temporal arteritis.
5. Examination of the optic fundi: The optic fundi should always be examined in patients presenting with headache. However, this patient is not exhibiting any features that suggest a raised intracranial pressure.
In conclusion, a combination of clinical examination techniques can help diagnose temporal arteritis in patients presenting with a new headache, especially in those over 50 years of age. Palpation of the scalp and temporal arteries, examination of the neck for muscle tenderness and stiffness, and assessment of jaw claudication are particularly useful in this regard.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 8
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You see a 50-year-old lady who complains of a chronic cough, often with yellow sputum that has persisted months. She thinks she is more breathless than her previous baseline. She reports no weight loss, no night sweats and is a non-smoker.
On examination, she has coarse crackles in the lower lung zones. A trial of amoxicillin was started but did not improve her symptoms so a sputum sample was sent which grew Pseudomonas aeruginosa. A chest X ray was normal.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Bronchiectasis
Explanation:Bronchiectasis as a Possible Diagnosis for Chronic Non-Productive Cough
Consider bronchiectasis as a possible diagnosis for a patient with a chronic non-productive cough, especially if the patient is a non-smoker. While other diagnoses are also possible, bronchiectasis is more likely if the patient doesn’t exhibit symptoms such as night sweats, weight loss, or the growth of Pseudomonas. It is important to note that a chest X-ray may not always show abnormalities in patients with bronchiectasis, and a CT-scan is often necessary for an accurate diagnosis. Therefore, if a patient presents with a chronic non-productive cough, bronchiectasis should be considered as a possible diagnosis, particularly in non-smokers.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Health
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 38-year-old woman with rheumatoid arthritis has been advised to begin taking methotrexate by her Rheumatologist. She is anxious about potential side effects and wants to discuss the safe administration of the medication. This is her first experience with methotrexate, and she has undergone recent blood tests that indicate normal liver and renal function.
What is the most suitable course of action for managing this patient?Your Answer: Issue a prescription for methotrexate and arrange a full blood count in 4-6 weeks time
Correct Answer: Arrange a chest X-ray (CXR) and issue the methotrexate script if this is normal
Explanation:Guidelines for Prescribing Methotrexate in Rheumatoid Arthritis Patients
Methotrexate is a commonly prescribed medication for patients with rheumatoid arthritis. However, it is important to follow certain guidelines to ensure the safety and efficacy of treatment. Here are some key points to keep in mind when prescribing methotrexate:
Baseline Investigations: Before starting treatment, patients should undergo a chest X-ray, full blood count, urea and electrolytes, and liver function tests. A normal CXR is necessary as methotrexate can cause pulmonary toxicity. Repeat baseline blood tests in 4-6 weeks before commencing methotrexate.
Concurrent Folic Acid: Methotrexate is a folate antagonist, so patients must take folic acid alongside it. Folic acid should be taken daily on the days when methotrexate is not taken.
Regular Monitoring: Patients should have a full blood count every 1-2 weeks until treatment is stabilised, as well as renal and liver function tests. Once treatment is stabilised, monitoring can become less frequent, but should still occur every 2-3 months.
No Loading Dose: There is no need for a loading dose of folic acid to be given before starting methotrexate, as long as baseline investigations are normal.
By following these guidelines, healthcare providers can ensure the safe and effective use of methotrexate in patients with rheumatoid arthritis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of severe pain around his right eye. He has been experiencing these episodes once or twice a day for the past week, with each episode lasting around 30 minutes. Although the pain is severe, it has not been getting worse. His girlfriend reports that during an attack, his eye becomes red and starts to water. Upon examination, his eye appears normal, and his visual acuity is intact. He is currently pain-free, with his last episode occurring about 3 hours ago. What would be the most appropriate next step?
Your Answer: Start carbamazepine
Correct Answer: Discuss with a neurologist the need for neuroimaging
Explanation:These headaches are classified as cluster headaches. It is recommended to consult with a specialist and consider neuroimaging as this is the first occurrence. Simple pain relief medication is not effective for treating cluster headaches.
Cluster headaches are a type of headache that is known to be extremely painful. They are called cluster headaches because they tend to occur in clusters that last for several weeks, usually once a year. These headaches are more common in men and smokers, and alcohol and sleep patterns may trigger an attack. The pain is typically sharp and stabbing, and it occurs around one eye. Patients may experience redness, lacrimation, lid swelling, nasal stuffiness, and miosis and ptosis in some cases.
To manage cluster headaches, acute treatment options include 100% oxygen or subcutaneous triptan. Prophylaxis involves using verapamil as the drug of choice, and a tapering dose of prednisolone may also be effective. It is recommended to seek specialist advice from a neurologist if a patient develops cluster headaches with respect to neuroimaging. Some neurologists use the term trigeminal autonomic cephalgia to group a number of conditions including cluster headache, paroxysmal hemicrania, and short-lived unilateral neuralgiform headache with conjunctival injection and tearing (SUNCT). Patients with these conditions should be referred for specialist assessment as specific treatment may be required, such as indomethacin for paroxysmal hemicrania.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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