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  • Question 1 - A 7-year-old girl presents to the emergency department with sudden onset of shortness...

    Correct

    • A 7-year-old girl presents to the emergency department with sudden onset of shortness of breath. Her parents report that she had a cold for a few days but today her breathing has become more difficult. She has a history of viral-induced wheeze and was recently diagnosed with asthma by her GP.

      Upon examination, her respiratory rate is 28/min, heart rate is 120/min, saturations are 95%, and temperature is 37.5ºC. She has intercostal and subcostal recession and a global expiratory wheeze, but responds well to salbutamol.

      What medications should be prescribed for her acute symptoms upon discharge?

      Your Answer: Salbutamol inhaler + 3 days prednisolone PO

      Explanation:

      It is recommended that all children who experience an acute exacerbation of asthma receive a short course of oral steroids, such as 3-5 days of prednisolone, along with a salbutamol inhaler. This approach should be taken regardless of whether the child is typically on an inhaled corticosteroid. It is important to ensure that patients have an adequate supply of their salbutamol inhaler and understand how to use it. Prescribing antibiotics is not necessary unless there is an indication of an underlying bacterial chest infection. Beclomethasone may be useful for long-term prophylactic management of asthma, but it is not typically used in short courses after acute exacerbations. A course of 10 days of prednisolone is longer than recommended and may not be warranted in all cases. A salbutamol inhaler alone would not meet the recommended treatment guidelines for acute asthma.

      Managing Acute Asthma Attacks in Children

      When it comes to managing acute asthma attacks in children, it is important to assess the severity of the attack and take appropriate action. For children between the ages of 2 and 5, those with severe or life-threatening asthma should be immediately transferred to the hospital. For moderate attacks, children should have a SpO2 level above 92% and no clinical features of severe asthma. However, for severe attacks, children may have a SpO2 level below 92%, be too breathless to talk or feed, have a heart rate above 140/min, and use accessory neck muscles. For life-threatening attacks, children may have a SpO2 level below 92%, a silent chest, poor respiratory effort, agitation, altered consciousness, and cyanosis.

      For children over the age of 5, it is recommended to attempt to measure PEF in all cases. For moderate attacks, children should have a SpO2 level above 92%, a PEF level above 50% best or predicted, and no clinical features of severe asthma. For severe attacks, children may have a SpO2 level below 92%, a PEF level between 33-50% best or predicted, and be unable to complete sentences in one breath or too breathless to talk or feed. For life-threatening attacks, children may have a SpO2 level below 92%, a PEF level below 33% best or predicted, a silent chest, poor respiratory effort, altered consciousness, and cyanosis.

      For children with mild to moderate acute asthma, bronchodilator therapy should be given via a beta-2 agonist and spacer (or close-fitting mask for children under 3 years old). One puff should be given every 30-60 seconds up to a maximum of 10 puffs. If symptoms are not controlled, the beta-2 agonist should be repeated and the child should be referred to the hospital. Steroid therapy should also be given to all children with an asthma exacerbation for 3-5 days, with the usual prednisolone dose varying based on age and weight.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      12.3
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 6-year-old girl is presented to the GP clinic with a flare-up of...

    Correct

    • A 6-year-old girl is presented to the GP clinic with a flare-up of asthma. Upon examination, she displays bilateral expiratory wheezing but no signs of respiratory distress. Her respiratory rate is 24 breaths per minute and PEF is approximately 60% of normal. What is the recommended course of action for steroid treatment?

      Your Answer: Oral prednisolone for 3 days

      Explanation:

      According to the 2016 guidelines of the British Thoracic Society, children should be given a specific dose of steroids based on their age. For children under 2 years, the dose should be 10 mg of prednisolone, for those aged 2-5 years, it should be 20 mg, and for those over 5 years, it should be 30-40 mg. Children who are already taking maintenance steroid tablets should receive a maximum dose of 60 mg or 2 mg/kg of prednisolone. If a child vomits after taking the medication, the dose should be repeated, and if they are unable to retain the medication orally, intravenous steroids should be considered. The duration of treatment should be tailored to the number of days required for recovery, and a course of steroids exceeding 14 days does not require tapering.

      Managing Acute Asthma Attacks in Children

      When it comes to managing acute asthma attacks in children, it is important to assess the severity of the attack and take appropriate action. For children between the ages of 2 and 5, those with severe or life-threatening asthma should be immediately transferred to the hospital. For moderate attacks, children should have a SpO2 level above 92% and no clinical features of severe asthma. However, for severe attacks, children may have a SpO2 level below 92%, be too breathless to talk or feed, have a heart rate above 140/min, and use accessory neck muscles. For life-threatening attacks, children may have a SpO2 level below 92%, a silent chest, poor respiratory effort, agitation, altered consciousness, and cyanosis.

      For children over the age of 5, it is recommended to attempt to measure PEF in all cases. For moderate attacks, children should have a SpO2 level above 92%, a PEF level above 50% best or predicted, and no clinical features of severe asthma. For severe attacks, children may have a SpO2 level below 92%, a PEF level between 33-50% best or predicted, and be unable to complete sentences in one breath or too breathless to talk or feed. For life-threatening attacks, children may have a SpO2 level below 92%, a PEF level below 33% best or predicted, a silent chest, poor respiratory effort, altered consciousness, and cyanosis.

      For children with mild to moderate acute asthma, bronchodilator therapy should be given via a beta-2 agonist and spacer (or close-fitting mask for children under 3 years old). One puff should be given every 30-60 seconds up to a maximum of 10 puffs. If symptoms are not controlled, the beta-2 agonist should be repeated and the child should be referred to the hospital. Steroid therapy should also be given to all children with an asthma exacerbation for 3-5 days, with the usual prednisolone dose varying based on age and weight.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      31.4
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  • Question 3 - A 3-year-old girl with several small bruise-like lesions is brought to the emergency...

    Correct

    • A 3-year-old girl with several small bruise-like lesions is brought to the emergency department by her father. He reports first noticing these lesions on his daughter's arm when dressing her three days ago, despite no obvious preceding trauma. The bruising does not appear to be spreading.
      Notably, the child had mild cough and fever symptoms two weeks ago, though has now recovered.
      On examination, the child appears well in herself and is playing with toys. There are 3 small petechiae on the patient's arm. The examination is otherwise unremarkable.
      What would be an indication for bone marrow biopsy, given the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Splenomegaly

      Explanation:

      Bone marrow examination is not necessary for children with immune thrombocytopenia (ITP) unless there are atypical features such as splenomegaly, bone pain, or diffuse lymphadenopathy. ITP is an autoimmune disorder that causes the destruction of platelets, often triggered by a viral illness. Folate deficiency, photophobia, and epistaxis are not indications for bone marrow biopsy in children with ITP. While photophobia may suggest meningitis in a patient with a petechial rash, it does not warrant a bone marrow biopsy. Nosebleeds are common in young children with ITP and do not require a bone marrow biopsy.

      Understanding Immune Thrombocytopenia (ITP) in Children

      Immune thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP) is a condition where the immune system attacks the platelets, leading to a decrease in their count. This condition is more common in children and is usually acute, often following an infection or vaccination. The antibodies produced by the immune system target the glycoprotein IIb/IIIa or Ib-V-IX complex, causing a type II hypersensitivity reaction.

      The symptoms of ITP in children include bruising, a petechial or purpuric rash, and less commonly, bleeding from the nose or gums. A full blood count is usually sufficient to diagnose ITP, and a bone marrow examination is only necessary if there are atypical features.

      In most cases, ITP resolves on its own within six months, without any treatment. However, if the platelet count is very low or there is significant bleeding, treatment options such as oral or IV corticosteroids, IV immunoglobulins, or platelet transfusions may be necessary. It is also advisable to avoid activities that may result in trauma, such as team sports. Understanding ITP in children is crucial for prompt diagnosis and management of this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 4 - You are assessing a 9-month-old infant with suspected bronchiolitis. What sign or symptom...

    Correct

    • You are assessing a 9-month-old infant with suspected bronchiolitis. What sign or symptom should raise concern for a possible hospital referral?

      Your Answer: Feeding 50% of the normal amount

      Explanation:

      Bronchiolitis is a condition where the bronchioles become inflamed, and it is most commonly caused by respiratory syncytial virus (RSV). This virus is responsible for 75-80% of cases, with other causes including mycoplasma and adenoviruses. Bronchiolitis is most prevalent in infants under one year old, with 90% of cases occurring in those aged 1-9 months. The condition is more serious in premature babies, those with congenital heart disease or cystic fibrosis. Symptoms include coryzal symptoms, dry cough, increasing breathlessness, and wheezing. Hospital admission is often necessary due to feeding difficulties associated with increasing dyspnoea.

      Immediate referral is recommended if the child has apnoea, looks seriously unwell, has severe respiratory distress, central cyanosis, or persistent oxygen saturation of less than 92% when breathing air. Clinicians should consider referral if the child has a respiratory rate of over 60 breaths/minute, difficulty with breastfeeding or inadequate oral fluid intake, or clinical dehydration. Immunofluorescence of nasopharyngeal secretions may show RSV, and management is largely supportive. Humidified oxygen is given via a head box if oxygen saturations are persistently low, and nasogastric feeding may be necessary if children cannot take enough fluid/feed by mouth. Suction may also be used for excessive upper airway secretions. NICE released guidelines on bronchiolitis in 2015 for more information.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      17.3
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  • Question 5 - Parents bring their infant to see you because their child is not growing...

    Incorrect

    • Parents bring their infant to see you because their child is not growing normally. There is no family history of note. On examination, he is noted to have a large head relative to the limbs. The limbs are relatively shortened, compared to the trunk.
      What is the molecular basis for this condition?

      Your Answer: Trisomy 21

      Correct Answer: Activation of the fibroblast growth factor 3 (FGF3) receptor

      Explanation:

      There are several genetic mutations that can cause developmental abnormalities and disorders. One such mutation is the activation of the fibroblast growth factor 3 (FGF3) receptor, which leads to achondroplasia and stunted bone growth. Another mutation affects the fibrillin-1 gene, causing Marfan’s syndrome and resulting in tall stature, joint hypermobility, and cardiac abnormalities. Mutations in collagen genes can lead to disorders like osteogenesis imperfecta, Ehlers-Danlos syndrome, and Alport disease. Trisomy 18, or Edwards’ syndrome, is caused by an extra copy of chromosome 18 and results in severe developmental abnormalities and organ system dysfunction. Trisomy 21, or Down syndrome, is caused by an extra copy of chromosome 21 and leads to characteristic physical features such as dysplastic ears and a high arched palate, as well as intellectual disability.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      51.7
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  • Question 6 - A couple, one male and one female, seek genetic counselling as a family...

    Incorrect

    • A couple, one male and one female, seek genetic counselling as a family member has been diagnosed with sickle cell anaemia, an autosomal recessive condition. After testing, it is discovered that both individuals are carriers of sickle cell anaemia. The woman is currently 16 weeks pregnant.

      What is the likelihood that their unborn child will also be a carrier of sickle cell anaemia?

      Your Answer: 25%

      Correct Answer: 50%

      Explanation:

      The statement is incorrect because if at least one parent is a carrier of sickle cell anemia, there is a probability greater than zero.

      Understanding Autosomal Recessive Inheritance

      Autosomal recessive inheritance is a genetic pattern where a disorder is only expressed when an individual inherits two copies of a mutated gene, one from each parent. This means that only homozygotes, individuals with two copies of the mutated gene, are affected. Both males and females are equally likely to be affected, and the disorder may not manifest in every generation, as it can skip a generation.

      When two heterozygote parents, carriers of the mutated gene, have children, there is a 25% chance of having an affected (homozygote) child, a 50% chance of having a carrier (heterozygote) child, and a 25% chance of having an unaffected child. On the other hand, if one parent is homozygote for the gene and the other is unaffected, all the children will be carriers.

      Autosomal recessive disorders are often metabolic in nature and can be life-threatening compared to autosomal dominant conditions. Understanding the inheritance pattern of autosomal recessive disorders is crucial in genetic counseling and family planning.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      7.6
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  • Question 7 - A 14-year-old boy comes to the clinic with complaints of central abdominal pain...

    Correct

    • A 14-year-old boy comes to the clinic with complaints of central abdominal pain and haematuria that have been present for a week. He also reports experiencing pain in both knees. Upon examination, a non-blanching purpuric rash is observed on his legs and buttocks. Urine dipstick results show blood ++ and protein +. Additionally, his renal function is abnormal with urea levels at 26.3 mmol/l and creatinine levels at 289 μmol/l. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Henoch–Schönlein purpura

      Explanation:

      Distinguishing Henoch-Schönlein Purpura from Other Conditions: A Brief Overview

      Henoch-Schönlein purpura (HSP) is a condition that can present with a range of symptoms, including abdominal pain, non-blanching purpuric rash, arthralgia, haematuria, and renal impairment. It is important to distinguish HSP from other conditions that may have similar symptoms.

      Nephrotic syndrome, for example, is characterized by significant proteinuria, hypoalbuminaemia, and oedema, which are not present in HSP. Urinary tract infection, on the other hand, is not associated with a purpuric rash and typically presents with urinary symptoms and positive nitrite and leukocyte dipstick tests.

      Goodpasture’s syndrome is a systemic vasculitis that can cause acute renal failure and pulmonary haemorrhage, but it is not typically associated with a purpuric rash. Appendicitis, which can cause an acute abdomen, is unlikely to cause pain for a week and does not typically present with a rash.

      In summary, recognizing the unique symptoms of HSP and distinguishing it from other conditions is crucial for accurate diagnosis and appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 8 - A child is born at 28 weeks gestation and is transferred to the...

    Correct

    • A child is born at 28 weeks gestation and is transferred to the neonatal unit. After a few hours, the child shows signs of nasal flaring, chest wall indrawing, and appears to have jaundice. The observations show a heart rate of 75/min, a respiratory rate of 68/min, and a temperature of 38.2ºC. What is the most common organism responsible for the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Group B streptococcus

      Explanation:

      The leading cause of early-onset neonatal sepsis in the UK is infection by group B streptococcus.

      Neonatal Sepsis: Causes, Risk Factors, and Management

      Neonatal sepsis is a serious bacterial or viral infection in the blood that affects babies within the first 28 days of life. It is categorized into early-onset (EOS) and late-onset (LOS) sepsis, with each category having distinct causes and common presentations. The most common causes of neonatal sepsis are group B streptococcus (GBS) and Escherichia coli, accounting for approximately two-thirds of cases. Premature and low birth weight babies are at higher risk, as well as those born to mothers with GBS colonization or infection during pregnancy. Symptoms can vary from subtle signs of illness to clear septic shock, and diagnosis is usually established through blood culture. Treatment involves early identification and use of intravenous antibiotics, with duration depending on ongoing investigations and clinical picture. Other important management factors include maintaining adequate oxygenation and fluid and electrolyte status.

      Neonatal Sepsis: Causes, Risk Factors, and Management

      Neonatal sepsis is a serious infection that affects newborn babies within the first 28 days of life. It can be caused by a variety of bacteria and viruses, with GBS and E. coli being the most common. Premature and low birth weight babies, as well as those born to mothers with GBS colonization or infection during pregnancy, are at higher risk. Symptoms can range from subtle signs of illness to clear septic shock, and diagnosis is usually established through blood culture. Treatment involves early identification and use of intravenous antibiotics, with duration depending on ongoing investigations and clinical picture. Other important management factors include maintaining adequate oxygenation and fluid and electrolyte status.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      15.5
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  • Question 9 - A paediatrician is conducting a ward round and comes across a 20-hour-old neonate...

    Incorrect

    • A paediatrician is conducting a ward round and comes across a 20-hour-old neonate without apparent issues. During the round, the mother expresses concern about her child's hearing, citing her own deafness as a potential risk factor. Which screening tool would be most suitable for this patient?

      Your Answer: Pure tone audiometry

      Correct Answer: Otoacoustic emission test

      Explanation:

      The otoacoustic emission test is commonly used for screening hearing problems in newborns. In the UK, it is a routine test and if a newborn fails, they are referred for impedance audiometry testing. However, there is no 6-month speech and language assessment as babies are not yet talking at this stage. Impedance audiometry testing is not routine and is only done if a newborn fails the otoacoustic emission test. It would not be appropriate to ask if the patient failed this test before determining if they had it or not. Pure tone audiometry is an adult hearing test and is only done when necessary. Weber’s and Rinne’s tests are screening tools used by clinicians to assess hearing loss in adults, but they may not be suitable for children who may not comply with the test.

      Hearing Tests for Children

      Hearing tests are important for children to ensure that they are developing normally. There are several tests that may be performed on children of different ages. For newborns, an otoacoustic emission test is typically done as part of the Newborn Hearing Screening Programme. This test involves playing a computer-generated click through a small earpiece and checking for the presence of a soft echo, which indicates a healthy cochlea. If the results of this test are abnormal, an Auditory Brainstem Response test may be done.

      For infants between 6-9 months, a Distraction test may be performed by a health visitor with the help of two trained staff members. For children between 18 months to 2.5 years, a Recognition of familiar objects test may be used, which involves using familiar objects like a teddy or cup and asking the child simple questions like where is the teddy? For children over 2.5 years, Performance testing and Speech discrimination tests may be used, such as the Kendall Toy test or McCormick Toy Test. Pure tone audiometry is typically done at school entry in most areas of the UK for children over 3 years old.

      In addition to these tests, there is also a questionnaire for parents in the Personal Child Health Records called Can your baby hear you? It is important for parents to be aware of these tests and to have their child’s hearing checked regularly to ensure proper development.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      8.1
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  • Question 10 - A 4-year-old boy is admitted to hospital. He was diagnosed with Down syndrome...

    Correct

    • A 4-year-old boy is admitted to hospital. He was diagnosed with Down syndrome soon after birth. He has not opened his bowels for the past few days and complains of abdominal pain. His abdomen is distended, and he has had several episodes of vomiting. The mother denies any complication during pregnancy. An abdominal X-ray does not show any double bubble sign but rather shows a picture of bowel obstruction.
      Which of the following investigations would provide a definitive diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Rectal biopsy

      Explanation:

      Diagnostic Procedures for Hirschsprung’s Disease

      Hirschsprung’s disease is a congenital condition that causes functional obstruction of the colon due to the absence of parasympathetic ganglion cells in the rectum. Diagnosis is made through a rectal biopsy, which confirms the absence of ganglion cells. Other diagnostic procedures, such as abdominal ultrasound, upper GI endoscopy, erect chest X-ray, and colonoscopy, are not useful in diagnosing Hirschsprung’s disease. An abdominal X-ray may be performed to rule out other causes of abdominal distension. However, in most cases, rectal biopsy is the definitive diagnostic procedure for Hirschsprung’s disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      11
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  • Question 11 - A 4-year-old child presents with a 4-month history of recurrent episodes of cough...

    Incorrect

    • A 4-year-old child presents with a 4-month history of recurrent episodes of cough and wheeze. The cough is worse at night. Chest examination is normal between episodes of wheeze, but there is prolonged expiratory wheeze during an episode.
      What is the most appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer: Full blood count

      Correct Answer: Trial of bronchodilators

      Explanation:

      Diagnosis and Treatment of Childhood Asthma: A Guide for Healthcare Professionals

      Asthma is a condition characterized by reversible airways obstruction, and its diagnosis is primarily based on the patient’s history and response to bronchodilators. Objective measurements such as spirometry and peak flow measurements may not be reliable in children under five years old due to poor technique. Therefore, a trial of bronchodilators and a thorough history are sufficient to make a diagnosis in this age group.

      A full blood count is unlikely to be useful in diagnosing asthma, as it is usually normal. Similarly, a chest X-ray is not necessary for routine diagnosis, although it may be helpful in identifying other pathologies. Antibiotics should only be prescribed if there is evidence of a bacterial infection, as the vast majority of asthma exacerbations are non-infective.

      While some cases of asthma may be allergic in nature, antihistamines are not routinely used in the management of childhood asthma. Skin-prick testing and specific immunoglobulin E (IgE) to aeroallergens are not part of routine care.

      The starting step for asthma treatment is based on the patient’s symptoms around the time of presentation. As required bronchodilators may be effective in mild cases, but a stepwise approach should be followed for more severe cases. Regular follow-up and monitoring of symptoms are essential for effective management of childhood asthma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      68.2
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  • Question 12 - A 7-year-old boy is presented to the Emergency department with a sudden onset...

    Correct

    • A 7-year-old boy is presented to the Emergency department with a sudden onset of limping. He denies any history of injury, but experiences pain in his right hip with any movement. Additionally, his temperature is 37.5°C. What investigation would have the greatest impact on your management plan in the next few hours?

      Your Answer: Full blood count (FBC) and C reactive protein (CRP)

      Explanation:

      Assessing Orthopaedic Infection Risk in Limping Children

      In order to assess the risk of orthopaedic infection in a limping child, it is important to consider the most likely diagnoses, which include septic arthritis, osteomyelitis, and trauma. If the child is apyrexial, the risk of septic arthritis is low, but it is still important to measure inflammatory markers and white cell count before considering further testing. If these markers are elevated, blood cultures should be taken and an ultrasound scan performed to look for an effusion that could be aspirated. If the markers are normal, the diagnosis is likely to be transient synovitis of the hip.

      In older apyrexial children, bilateral AP hip x-rays may be performed to investigate for slipped upper femoral epiphysis, although this is rare in children under 8 years old. By carefully assessing the child’s symptoms and conducting appropriate tests, healthcare professionals can accurately diagnose and treat orthopaedic infections in limping children.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      25.8
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  • Question 13 - A 9-month-old baby has become unresponsive in the waiting area of the pediatrician's...

    Incorrect

    • A 9-month-old baby has become unresponsive in the waiting area of the pediatrician's office for an unknown cause. Basic life support for infants is started, and chest compressions are administered. What is the appropriate technique for performing chest compressions in this scenario?

      Your Answer: One-thumb encircling technique

      Correct Answer: Two-thumb encircling technique

      Explanation:

      For infants aged younger than one, the recommended technique for chest compression during paediatric BLS is the two-thumb encircling technique. Using one hand to compress the lower half of the sternum or two hands to compress the upper half of the sternum are incorrect methods. Additionally, using two hands to compress the lower half of the sternum or the one-thumb encircling technique are not recognised techniques for providing chest compressions in any circumstance.

      Paediatric Basic Life Support Guidelines

      Paediatric basic life support guidelines were updated in 2015 by the Resuscitation Council. Lay rescuers should use a compression:ventilation ratio of 30:2 for children under 1 year and between 1 year and puberty, a child is defined. If there are two or more rescuers, a ratio of 15:2 should be used.

      The algorithm for paediatric basic life support starts with checking if the child is unresponsive and shouting for help. The airway should be opened, and breathing should be checked by looking, listening, and feeling for breaths. If the child is not breathing, five rescue breaths should be given, and signs of circulation should be checked.

      For infants, the brachial or femoral pulse should be used, while children should use the femoral pulse. Chest compressions should be performed at a ratio of 15:2, with a rate of 100-120 compressions per minute for both infants and children. The depth of compressions should be at least one-third of the anterior-posterior dimension of the chest, which is approximately 4 cm for an infant and 5 cm for a child.

      In children, the lower half of the sternum should be compressed, while in infants, a two-thumb encircling technique should be used for chest compressions. These guidelines are crucial for anyone who may need to perform basic life support on a child, and it is essential to follow them carefully to ensure the best possible outcome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      8.2
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  • Question 14 - A father attends his GP to discuss concerns he has about his 12-year-old...

    Incorrect

    • A father attends his GP to discuss concerns he has about his 12-year-old daughter. Since the age of three, she has had a lot of routines, such as how she organizes her toys and which way she walks to school, and is very rigid about following them. She does not cope at all well with changes to the routine. She struggles to make friends and seems very uncomfortable in social situations. Apart from going to school, she avoids meeting children; she has been to a few birthday parties, but she was very clingy to her father and demanded to be taken home after a few minutes. On examination, the GP is unable to build a rapport with the girl, as she refuses to speak and will not maintain eye contact. She appears fidgety and gets up and down out of her chair on several occasions to try and leave the room. You suspect a diagnosis but advise her father that more assessment will be needed to confirm a diagnosis.

      The sign to support the diagnosis is the child's rigid adherence to routines and difficulty coping with changes to the routine, as well as their struggles with social situations and avoidance of meeting other children.

      Your Answer: Lack of social smile by age four weeks

      Correct Answer: Less than ten spoken words by age two years

      Explanation:

      Developmental Milestones and Red Flags in Early Childhood

      By the age of two years, children should be using 50 or more words. If they do not meet this milestone, there may be a social, speech or hearing issue that needs to be assessed by a paediatric team. Lack of spoken words could be a sign of autistic spectrum disorder (ASD).

      A lack of social smile by age three months is considered abnormal and could indicate a social, visual, or cognitive problem. However, it may also signal ASD in some cases.

      Parallel play is normal behavior for two-year-olds. They will happily play next to each other but rarely play with each other. It isn’t until the age of three when they usually start to involve other children in playing.

      Separation anxiety from parents or carers at age ten months is normal behavior. Children can become upset if they are not with their parents or carer until the new person becomes more familiar to them, usually between the ages of six months and three years.

      Temper tantrums at age 18 months are normal behavior. However, if these tantrums persist into later childhood, it could indicate a social or developmental problem.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 15 - A 6-year-old girl is brought to her general practitioner by her mother because...

    Correct

    • A 6-year-old girl is brought to her general practitioner by her mother because she is shorter than most of her classmates. She gets good grades and does well in school. She is below the fifth percentile for height for her age. On examination, she is short and has a webbed neck and widely spaced nipples.
      Which one of the following is karyotyping most likely to reveal?

      Your Answer: 45,XO

      Explanation:

      Understanding Different Karyotypes and Associated Conditions

      Karyotypes are an important tool in diagnosing genetic disorders. Here are some common karyotypes and the associated conditions:

      Turner Syndrome (45,XO): This disorder affects females and is caused by the absence of one or part of an X chromosome. Symptoms include short stature, heart defects, and premature ovarian failure.

      Klinefelter’s Syndrome (47,XXY): This karyotype is associated with males who have an extra X chromosome. Symptoms include delayed puberty, small testes, and learning disabilities.

      Trisomy 21 (47,XX+21): This karyotype is associated with Down syndrome, which causes intellectual disability and physical characteristics such as slanted palpebral fissure and a wide space between the big and second toe.

      47,XYY: This karyotype is associated with males who have an extra Y chromosome. Symptoms include tall stature and an increased risk of learning difficulties and behavioral problems.

      Normal Karyotype: A normal karyotype for a woman is 46,XX. If a different karyotype is present, it may indicate a genetic disorder.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 16 - What are the common symptoms exhibited by a child with recurring upper urinary...

    Incorrect

    • What are the common symptoms exhibited by a child with recurring upper urinary tract infections?

      Your Answer: Loss of appetite

      Correct Answer: Vesicoureteric reflux

      Explanation:

      Vesicoureteral Reflux

      Vesicoureteral reflux (VUR) is a medical condition where urine flows backwards from the bladder to the kidneys. If left untreated, it can lead to serious health complications such as pyelonephritis, hypertension, and progressive renal failure. In children, VUR is usually caused by a congenital abnormality and is referred to as primary VUR. On the other hand, secondary VUR is commonly caused by recurrent urinary tract infections. While horseshoe kidney can increase the risk of UTIs, it is a much rarer condition compared to VUR. It is important to understand the causes and risks associated with VUR to ensure timely diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      9.7
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  • Question 17 - A 3-year-old child presents with a large bruise on the thigh after a...

    Incorrect

    • A 3-year-old child presents with a large bruise on the thigh after a fall. His mother notes that he has always been prone to bruising. Tests reveal: haemoglobin (Hb) 112g/l, platelets 186 × 109/l, prothrombin time (PT) 10 s, activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT) 70 s and normal bleeding time.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Vitamin K deficiency

      Correct Answer: Haemophilia A

      Explanation:

      Common Bleeding Disorders in Children

      Haemophilia A, von Willebrand disease, vitamin K deficiency, childhood cirrhosis, and idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP) are common bleeding disorders in children.

      Haemophilia A is an X-linked recessive inherited bleeding disorder caused by a deficiency in coagulation factor VIII. Patients present with prolonged bleeding after minor trauma, haematoma formation, spontaneous bleeding into joints, soft tissue haemorrhage, and other symptoms. Management involves regular infusions of factor VIII.

      Von Willebrand disease is an inherited bleeding disorder caused by deficiency in vWF. It presents with easy bruising, prolonged bleeding following minor trauma, heavy bleeding following an operation, and other symptoms. Treatment is with the administration of desmopressin, recombinant vWF or a combination of vWF and factor VIII.

      Vitamin K deficiency can occur at any point during a person’s life, but it is most commonly encountered in infancy. Patients most commonly present with prolonged bleeding following minor trauma. This is corrected by the administration of vitamin K.

      Childhood cirrhosis has multiple causes, depending on the age of the patient. In this case, there will be deranged liver function tests, as well as a prolonged PT that is not corrected despite administration of adequate vitamin K. This is an indicator of poor liver synthetic function.

      Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP) is a primary condition caused by a low number of platelets. It presents with bleeding, bruises, and petechiae.

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      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 18 - A 13-year-old girl visits her GP with worries about not having started her...

    Correct

    • A 13-year-old girl visits her GP with worries about not having started her periods yet, unlike her peers. During the examination, the GP notes that she is 143cm tall and has several melanocytic naevi on her arms. She also holds her arms at a wide carrying angle when at rest. There is no relevant family history and her cardiovascular examination is normal. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Turner's syndrome

      Explanation:

      Understanding Turner’s Syndrome

      Turner’s syndrome is a genetic disorder that affects approximately 1 in 2,500 females. It is caused by the absence of one sex chromosome (X) or a deletion of the short arm of one of the X chromosomes. This condition is denoted as 45,XO or 45,X.

      The features of Turner’s syndrome include short stature, a shield chest with widely spaced nipples, a webbed neck, a bicuspid aortic valve (15%), coarctation of the aorta (5-10%), primary amenorrhea, cystic hygroma (often diagnosed prenatally), a high-arched palate, a short fourth metacarpal, multiple pigmented naevi, lymphoedema in neonates (especially feet), and elevated gonadotrophin levels. Hypothyroidism is much more common in Turner’s syndrome, and there is also an increased incidence of autoimmune disease (especially autoimmune thyroiditis) and Crohn’s disease.

      In summary, Turner’s syndrome is a chromosomal disorder that affects females and can cause a range of physical features and health issues. Early diagnosis and management can help individuals with Turner’s syndrome lead healthy and fulfilling lives.

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      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 19 - A full-term female neonate has bilateral palpable flank masses and oliguria and is...

    Correct

    • A full-term female neonate has bilateral palpable flank masses and oliguria and is in respiratory distress. The mother had little prenatal care, but a third-trimester ultrasound right before delivery showed severe oligohydramnios. An ultrasound of the neonate now shows multiple renal cysts and hepatic fibrosis.
      What is the most likely cause of these findings?

      Your Answer: Autosomal recessive polycystic kidney disease

      Explanation:

      Neonatal Renal Conditions: A Comparison

      Two common neonatal renal conditions are autosomal recessive polycystic kidney disease (ARPKD) and renal agenesis. ARPKD is characterized by the replacement of renal parenchyma with cysts, leading to renal failure and hepatic fibrosis. This condition typically presents in the neonatal period and can cause death perinatally or within the first year of life. In utero, ARPKD can cause oligohydramnios and pulmonary hypoplasia. On the other hand, renal agenesis is lethal in utero and is characterized by the absence of one or both kidneys.

      Autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease (ADPKD) is another renal condition that manifests later in life, typically between the ages of 15-30. It is caused by a mutation in ADPKD1 or ADPKD2 and is inherited in an autosomal dominant pattern. ADPKD is characterized by renal failure and hypertension, as well as other associated findings such as liver cysts, berry aneurysms of the circle of Willis in the brain, and mitral valve prolapse.

      Potter syndrome refers to oligohydramnios and resultant pulmonary hypoplasia seen with in-utero renal failure. This condition is a result of an underlying diagnosis, such as ARPKD.

      Nephroblastoma is a rare condition that can present as a palpable flank mass in infants, but it is very uncommon in neonates. Renal ultrasound would show a solid mass, rather than multiple cysts.

      In summary, neonatal renal conditions can present with various symptoms and have different underlying causes. It is important to accurately diagnose and manage these conditions to prevent further complications and improve outcomes.

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      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 20 - A 4-month-old baby boy is found to have developmental dysplasia of the right...

    Correct

    • A 4-month-old baby boy is found to have developmental dysplasia of the right hip during an ultrasound scan. The hip was noted to be abnormal during clinical examination at birth. What is the probable treatment for this condition?

      Your Answer: Pavlik harness (dynamic flexion-abduction orthosis)

      Explanation:

      Developmental dysplasia of the hip (DDH) is a condition that affects 1-3% of newborns and is more common in females, firstborn children, and those with a positive family history or breech presentation. It used to be called congenital dislocation of the hip (CDH). DDH is more often found in the left hip and can be bilateral in 20% of cases. Screening for DDH is recommended for infants with certain risk factors, and all infants are screened using the Barlow and Ortolani tests at the newborn and six-week baby check. Clinical examination includes testing for leg length symmetry, restricted hip abduction, and knee level when hips and knees are flexed. Ultrasound is used to confirm the diagnosis if clinically suspected, but x-ray is the first line investigation for infants over 4.5 months. Management includes the use of a Pavlik harness for children under 4-5 months and surgery for older children with unstable hips.

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      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 21 - As a healthcare professional in a bustling emergency department, a concerned mother rushes...

    Incorrect

    • As a healthcare professional in a bustling emergency department, a concerned mother rushes in with her 4-year-old son. The child has been crying excessively for the past 12 hours and has experienced bilious vomiting multiple times. Additionally, he passed a stool containing small amounts of blood about 2 hours ago. What initial investigation would you conduct to determine the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: X-Ray

      Correct Answer: Ultrasound

      Explanation:

      Intussusception is best diagnosed using ultrasound, which is the preferred method due to its non-invasive nature, patient comfort, and high sensitivity.

      Understanding Intussusception

      Intussusception is a medical condition that occurs when one part of the bowel folds into the lumen of the adjacent bowel, usually around the ileo-caecal region. This condition is most common in infants between 6-18 months old, with boys being affected twice as often as girls. The symptoms of intussusception include severe, crampy abdominal pain that comes and goes, inconsolable crying, vomiting, and blood stained stool, which is a late sign. During a paroxysm, the infant will typically draw their knees up and turn pale, and a sausage-shaped mass may be felt in the right upper quadrant.

      To diagnose intussusception, ultrasound is now the preferred method of investigation, as it can show a target-like mass. Treatment for intussusception involves reducing the bowel by air insufflation under radiological control, which is now widely used as a first-line treatment instead of the traditional barium enema. If this method fails, or the child shows signs of peritonitis, surgery is performed.

      In summary, intussusception is a medical condition that affects infants and involves the folding of one part of the bowel into the lumen of the adjacent bowel. It is characterized by severe abdominal pain, vomiting, and blood stained stool, among other symptoms. Ultrasound is the preferred method of diagnosis, and treatment involves reducing the bowel by air insufflation or surgery if necessary.

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      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 22 - What is the probable outcome if a fetus has homozygous alpha-thalassaemia, assuming it...

    Correct

    • What is the probable outcome if a fetus has homozygous alpha-thalassaemia, assuming it is at an early stage of development?

      Your Answer: Hydrops fetalis

      Explanation:

      Understanding Alpha-Thalassaemia

      Alpha-thalassaemia is a condition that arises from a deficiency of alpha chains in haemoglobin. This occurs due to the absence or reduced production of alpha-globulin genes located on chromosome 16. The severity of the condition depends on the number of alpha globulin alleles affected. If one or two alleles are affected, the blood picture would be hypochromic and microcytic, but the haemoglobin level would typically be normal. However, if three alleles are affected, it results in a hypochromic microcytic anaemia with splenomegaly, which is known as Hb H disease. In the case where all four alpha globulin alleles are affected, which is known as homozygote, it can lead to death in utero, also known as hydrops fetalis or Bart’s hydrops. Understanding the severity of alpha-thalassaemia is crucial in managing the condition and providing appropriate treatment.

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      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 23 - A 16-year-old girl visits her doctor with primary amenorrhoea and cyclical abdominal pain....

    Correct

    • A 16-year-old girl visits her doctor with primary amenorrhoea and cyclical abdominal pain. The patient has normal secondary sexual characteristics on examination.
      What is the probable cause of her absence of menstrual periods?

      Your Answer: Imperforate hymen

      Explanation:

      The patient is experiencing cyclical abdominal pain and amenorrhoea, indicating a pathological delay in menarche rather than a normal physiological delay. A specialist should assess the patient, as an imperforate hymen may be present, causing obstruction of menstrual blood outflow. An ultrasound scan can confirm the presence of haematocolpos, and initial treatment involves using oral contraceptives to suppress menses and analgesia to manage pain until surgical correction and drainage of collected blood occurs. Congenital uterine deformities are associated with pelvic pain, abnormal bleeding, recurrent miscarriages, and premature delivery. Hyperprolactinaemia and hypothyroidism are less likely causes, as the patient does not exhibit symptoms such as headaches, galactorrhoea, breast pain, fatigue, constipation, weight gain, cold intolerance, muscle weakness, depression, or altered mental function.

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      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 24 - A 10-year-old boy is the shortest in his class, measuring only 125 cm....

    Correct

    • A 10-year-old boy is the shortest in his class, measuring only 125 cm. His parents are worried about his growth. His last three recorded heights have been between the 0.4th and 2nd centile. His mother is 160 cm tall and his father is 175 cm tall. He has no other health issues.

      What could be the probable reason for his short stature?

      Your Answer: Familial short stature

      Explanation:

      Familial Short Stature in Children

      Children who have short parents and are otherwise healthy may have familial short stature. This means that their height and weight fall within the expected range based on their parents’ heights, and growth charts can be used to predict their adult height. In the case of a girl with familial short stature, her predicted adult height would be 154 cm, which falls within the mid-parental range of heights. Delayed puberty would cause a failure to gain height at the beginning of puberty and crossing of height centiles, while inadequate nutrition would cause crossing of both height and weight centiles. Low birth weight can also cause short stature in children, but in the absence of any other history, familial short stature is the most likely explanation. Precocious puberty, on the other hand, causes children to be tall for their age at the onset of puberty, not short.

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      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 25 - A murmur is incidentally discovered by a GP in a 9-year-old girl. The...

    Incorrect

    • A murmur is incidentally discovered by a GP in a 9-year-old girl. The murmur is described as a 'continuous blowing noise' heard below both clavicles. What type of murmur is most likely to be diagnosed?

      Your Answer: Pulmonary flow murmur

      Correct Answer: Venous hum

      Explanation:

      A venous hum is a harmless murmur commonly found in children. It is characterized by a constant blowing sound that can be heard beneath the collarbones. In contrast, a Still’s murmur is also benign but produces a low-pitched noise on the lower left side of the sternum. A pulmonary flow murmur is another harmless murmur, but it is heard on the upper left side of the sternum. The remaining murmurs are considered pathological.

      Innocent murmurs are common in children and are usually harmless. There are different types of innocent murmurs, including ejection murmurs, venous hums, and Still’s murmur. Ejection murmurs are caused by turbulent blood flow at the outflow tract of the heart, while venous hums are due to turbulent blood flow in the great veins returning to the heart. Still’s murmur is a low-pitched sound heard at the lower left sternal edge.

      An innocent ejection murmur is characterized by a soft-blowing murmur in the pulmonary area or a short buzzing murmur in the aortic area. It may vary with posture and is localized without radiation. There is no diastolic component, no thrill, and no added sounds such as clicks. The child is usually asymptomatic, and there are no other abnormalities.

      Overall, innocent murmurs are not a cause for concern and do not require treatment. However, if a child has symptoms such as chest pain, shortness of breath, or fainting, further evaluation may be necessary to rule out any underlying heart conditions.

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      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 26 - A 6-year-old boy is brought to the GP surgery by his mother. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 6-year-old boy is brought to the GP surgery by his mother. He has a two-year history of asthma which has previously been controlled with a salbutamol inhaler twice daily and beclomethasone 50 micrograms bd. He has an audible wheeze that has been gradually worsening over the last few weeks and has not responded to additional doses of salbutamol. His mother also reports that he has a night-time cough for the past 6 weeks.

      What is the most appropriate next step in management?

      Your Answer: Increase the beclomethasone to 100 micrograms bd

      Correct Answer: Add a trial of a leukotriene receptor antagonist

      Explanation:

      If a child under the age of 5 has asthma that is not being controlled by a short-acting beta agonist (SABA) and a low dose of inhaled corticosteroids (ICS), then a leukotriene receptor antagonist should be added to their asthma management plan.

      Managing Asthma in Children: NICE Guidelines

      Asthma management in children has been updated by NICE in 2017, following the 2016 BTS guidelines. The new guidelines for children aged 5-16 are similar to those for adults, with a stepwise approach for treatment. For newly-diagnosed asthma, short-acting beta agonist (SABA) is recommended. If symptoms persist, a combination of SABA and paediatric low-dose inhaled corticosteroid (ICS) is used. Leukotriene receptor antagonist (LTRA) is added if symptoms still persist, followed by long-acting beta agonist (LABA) if necessary. Maintenance and reliever therapy (MART) is used as a combination of ICS and LABA for daily maintenance therapy and symptom relief. For children under 5 years old, clinical judgement plays a greater role in diagnosis. The stepwise approach is similar to that for older children, with an 8-week trial of paediatric moderate-dose ICS before adding LTRA. If symptoms persist, referral to a paediatric asthma specialist is recommended.

      It should be noted that NICE does not recommend changing treatment for well-controlled asthma patients simply to adhere to the latest guidelines. The definitions of low, moderate, and high-dose ICS have also changed, with different definitions for adults and children. For children, <= 200 micrograms budesonide or equivalent is considered a paediatric low dose, 200-400 micrograms is a moderate dose, and > 400 micrograms is a high dose. Overall, the new NICE guidelines provide a clear and concise approach to managing asthma in children.

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      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 27 - A 17-year-old boy with cystic fibrosis is due for his yearly check-up. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 17-year-old boy with cystic fibrosis is due for his yearly check-up. He was diagnosed with cystic fibrosis 16 years ago. Despite having good exercise tolerance and minimal gastrointestinal symptoms, he has been hospitalized twice in the past year. His recent blood work shows iron-deficient anemia, and multiple sputum cultures have tested positive for Burkholderia species. His latest FEV1 is 55% of his predicted value. What aspect of his medical history poses the greatest risk for mortality?

      Your Answer: FEV1 value

      Correct Answer: Burkholderia species on sputum culture

      Explanation:

      Increases the likelihood of death and illness to a greater extent.

      Managing Cystic Fibrosis: A Multidisciplinary Approach

      Cystic fibrosis (CF) is a chronic condition that requires a multidisciplinary approach to management. Regular chest physiotherapy and postural drainage, as well as deep breathing exercises, are essential to maintain lung function and prevent complications. Parents are usually taught how to perform these techniques. A high-calorie diet, including high-fat intake, is recommended to meet the increased energy needs of patients with CF. Vitamin supplementation and pancreatic enzyme supplements taken with meals are also important.

      Patients with CF should try to minimize contact with each other to prevent cross-infection with Burkholderia cepacia complex and Pseudomonas aeruginosa. Chronic infection with Burkholderia cepacia is an important CF-specific contraindication to lung transplantation. In cases where lung transplantation is necessary, careful consideration is required to ensure the best possible outcome.

      Lumacaftor/Ivacaftor (Orkambi) is a medication used to treat cystic fibrosis patients who are homozygous for the delta F508 mutation. Lumacaftor increases the number of CFTR proteins that are transported to the cell surface, while ivacaftor is a potentiator of CFTR that is already at the cell surface. This increases the probability that the defective channel will be open and allow chloride ions to pass through the channel pore.

      It is important to note that the standard recommendation for CF patients has changed from high-calorie, low-fat diets to high-calorie diets to reduce the amount of steatorrhea. With a multidisciplinary approach to management, patients with CF can lead fulfilling lives and manage their condition effectively.

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      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 28 - The mother of a 3-year-old child is worried about her child's developmental progress....

    Incorrect

    • The mother of a 3-year-old child is worried about her child's developmental progress. Upon assessment, you observe that the child can only build a tower of five blocks at most and can only speak in two to three-word phrases. What is the typical age range for a healthy child to achieve these developmental milestones?

      Your Answer: 18 months

      Correct Answer: 2 ½ years

      Explanation:

      Developmental Delay in Children

      Developmental delay in children can be a cause for concern, especially when they fail to meet certain milestones at their age. For instance, a 4-year-old child should be able to speak in full sentences, play interactively, and build structures with building blocks. However, when a child exhibits a degree of developmental delay, it could be due to various factors such as neurological and neurodevelopmental problems like cerebral palsy and epilepsy, unmet physical and psychological needs, sensory impairment, genetic conditions like Down’s syndrome, and ill health.

      It is important to understand the causes of developmental delay in children to provide appropriate interventions and support. Parents and caregivers should observe their child’s development and seek professional help if they notice any delays or abnormalities. Early intervention can help address developmental delays and improve a child’s overall well-being. By the factors that contribute to developmental delay, we can work towards creating a supportive environment that promotes healthy growth and development in children.

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      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 29 - You are working in a district general hospital and are asked to perform...

    Correct

    • You are working in a district general hospital and are asked to perform a routine check on a 6-month-old infant. You're part of the paediatric team and haven't had any access to the previous medical records.
      On examination, the infant appears healthy with appropriate weight for age and has a strong cry. There are no signs of respiratory distress and no abnormal heart sounds on auscultation. However, you notice a cleft palate. What is the most likely association with this finding?

      Your Answer: Maternal anti-epileptic use in pregnancy

      Explanation:

      The use of anti-epileptic medication by expectant mothers can lead to the development of orofacial clefts in their babies. Orofacial clefts are a common birth defect that can be caused by various factors, including smoking, benzodiazepine use, anti-epileptic medication, and rubella infection during pregnancy. Treatment for orofacial clefts requires a team of specialists, including plastic and orthodontic surgeons, paediatricians, and speech therapists. It is important to note that congenital heart disease does not increase the risk of orofacial clefts.

      Understanding Cleft Lip and Palate

      Cleft lip and palate are common congenital deformities that affect approximately 1 in every 1,000 babies. These conditions can occur as isolated developmental malformations or as a component of over 200 birth defects. The most common variants of cleft lip and palate are isolated cleft lip, isolated cleft palate, and combined cleft lip and palate.

      The pathophysiology of cleft lip and palate involves polygenic inheritance and an increased risk for babies whose mothers use antiepileptic medication. Cleft lip occurs when the fronto-nasal and maxillary processes fail to fuse, while cleft palate results from the failure of the palatine processes and nasal septum to fuse.

      Children with cleft lip and palate may experience problems with feeding and speech. Orthodontic devices can be helpful for feeding, while speech therapy can help 75% of children develop normal speech. Babies with cleft palate are at an increased risk of developing otitis media.

      Management of cleft lip and palate involves repairing the cleft lip earlier than the cleft palate. The timing of repair varies, with some practices repairing the cleft lip in the first week of life and others waiting up to three months. Cleft palates are typically repaired between 6-12 months of age.

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      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 30 - A 15-year-old boy presents to the Emergency Department at night with a sudden...

    Incorrect

    • A 15-year-old boy presents to the Emergency Department at night with a sudden onset of severe pain in his left testicle that started four hours ago. Upon examination, his left testis is visibly swollen and extremely tender to touch. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Epididymo-orchitis

      Correct Answer: Testicular torsion

      Explanation:

      Testicular Torsion Diagnosis

      Testicular torsion is the most probable diagnosis based on the patient’s history and examination. To confirm this, it is essential to perform a surgical procedure under general anesthesia. The symptoms and signs presented by the patient are highly indicative of testicular torsion, and it is crucial to address this condition promptly. Therefore, it is necessary to conduct a thorough examination and perform the necessary tests to confirm the diagnosis. Once confirmed, appropriate treatment can be initiated to prevent further complications. It is essential to act quickly in such cases to avoid any long-term damage to the testicles.

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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Paediatrics (16/30) 53%
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