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Question 1
Correct
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A 42-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with severe central chest pain that worsens when lying down, is relieved by sitting forward, and radiates to his left shoulder. He has a history of prostate cancer and has recently completed two cycles of radiotherapy. On examination, his blood pressure is 96/52 mmHg (normal <120/80 mmHg), his JVP is elevated, and his pulse is 98 bpm with a decrease in amplitude during inspiration. Heart sounds are faint. The ECG shows low-voltage QRS complexes. What is the most appropriate initial management for this patient?
Your Answer: Urgent pericardiocentesis
Explanation:The patient is experiencing cardiac tamponade, which is caused by fluid in the pericardial sac compressing the heart and reducing ventricular filling. This is likely due to pericarditis caused by recent radiotherapy. Beck’s triad of low blood pressure, raised JVP, and muffled heart sounds are indicative of tamponade. Urgent pericardiocentesis is necessary to aspirate the pericardial fluid, preferably under echocardiographic guidance. A fluid challenge with sodium chloride is not recommended as it may worsen the pericardial fluid. Ibuprofen is not effective in severe cases of pericardial effusion. GTN spray, morphine, clopidogrel, and aspirin are useful in managing myocardial infarction, which is a differential diagnosis to rule out. LMWH is not appropriate for tamponade and may worsen the condition if caused by haemopericardium.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 2
Correct
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A 42-year-old man is admitted with a 30-min history of severe central ‘crushing’ chest pain radiating down the left arm. He is profusely sweating and looks ‘grey’. The electrocardiogram (ECG) shows sinus tachycardia and 3-mm ST elevation in V3–V6.
Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment?Your Answer: Give the patient aspirin, ticagrelor and low-molecular-weight heparin, followed by a primary percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI)
Explanation:Treatment Options for ST Elevation Myocardial Infarction (STEMI)
When a patient presents with a ST elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI), prompt and appropriate treatment is crucial. The gold standard treatment for a STEMI is a primary percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI), which should be performed as soon as possible. In the absence of contraindications, all patients should receive aspirin, ticagrelor, and low-molecular-weight heparin before undergoing PCI.
Delaying PCI by treating the pain with sublingual glyceryl trinitrate (GTN), aspirin, and oxygen, and reviewing the patient in 15 minutes is not recommended. Similarly, giving the patient aspirin, ticagrelor, and low molecular weight heparin without performing PCI is incomplete management.
Thrombolysis therapy can be performed on patients without access to primary PCI. However, if primary PCI is available, it is the preferred treatment option.
It is important to note that waiting for cardiac enzymes is not recommended as it would only result in a delay in definitive management. Early and appropriate treatment is crucial in improving outcomes for patients with STEMI.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 3
Correct
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A 28-year-old man presents with chest pain, 5/10 in intensity, which is aggravated by breathing deeply and improved by leaning forward. The chest pain is not radiating. He has a mild fever but denies nausea, vomiting, cough or haemoptysis. He has self-medicated for a common cold and sore throat 5 days previously. On the electrocardiogram (ECG), there is diffuse, mild ST segment elevation (on leads II, aVF and V2–V6) and PR depression.
Which of the following findings is most likely to be observed on physical examination?Your Answer: Triphasic systolic and diastolic rub
Explanation:Common Heart Murmurs and Their Characteristics
Pericarditis: Triphasic Systolic and Diastolic Rub
Pericarditis is characterized by pleuritic chest pain that improves by leaning forward. A pericardial friction rub, with a scratchy, rubbing quality, is the classic cardiac auscultatory finding of pericarditis. It is often a high-pitched, triphasic systolic and diastolic murmur due to friction between the pericardial and visceral pericardium during ventricular contraction, ventricular filling, and atrial contraction.Mitral Regurgitation: High-Pitched Apical Pan-Systolic Murmur Radiating to the Axilla
A high-pitched apical pan-systolic murmur radiating to the axilla is heard in mitral regurgitation.Coarctation of the Aorta: Continuous Systolic and Diastolic Murmur Obscuring S2 Sound and Radiating to the Back
A continuous systolic and diastolic murmur obscuring S2 sound and radiating to the back is heard in coarctation of the aorta.Mitral Stenosis: Apical Opening Snap and Diastolic Rumble
An apical diastolic rumble and opening snap are heard in mitral stenosis.Aortic Regurgitation: Soft-Blowing Early Diastolic Decrescendo Murmur, Loudest at the Third Left Intercostal Space
A soft-blowing early diastolic decrescendo murmur, loudest at the second or third left intercostal space, is heard in aortic regurgitation. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 4
Correct
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A 50-year-old man with a long-standing history of hypertension visits his primary care physician for a routine check-up. He mentions experiencing a painful, burning sensation in his legs when he walks long distances and feeling cold in his lower extremities. He has no history of dyslipidaemia. Upon examination, his temperature is 37.1 °C; the blood pressure in his left arm is 174/96 mmHg, heart rate 78 bpm, respiratory rate 16 breaths per minute, and oxygen saturation 98% on room air. He has 1+ dorsalis pedis pulses bilaterally, and his lower extremities are cool to the touch. Cardiac auscultation does not reveal any murmurs, rubs, or gallops. His abdominal examination is unremarkable, and no bruits are heard on auscultation. Renal function tests show a creatinine level of 71 μmol/l (50–120 μmol/l), which is his baseline. What is the most likely defect present in this patient?
Your Answer: Coarctation of the aorta
Explanation:Cardiovascular Conditions: Symptoms and Characteristics
Coarctation of the Aorta, Patent Ductus Arteriosus, Renal Artery Stenosis, Atrial Septal Defect, and Bilateral Lower Extremity Deep Vein Thrombosis are all cardiovascular conditions that have distinct symptoms and characteristics.
Coarctation of the Aorta is characterized by hypertension in the upper extremities and hypotension in the lower extremities. Patients may also experience lower extremity claudication due to low oxygen delivery. Chest X-rays may reveal notching of the ribs. Treatment involves surgical resection of the narrowed lumen.
Patent Ductus Arteriosus refers to a persistent open lumen in the ductus arteriosus, causing a left-to-right shunt. A constant, machine-like murmur is detected on cardiac auscultation. If left untreated, it can lead to Eisenmenger syndrome and reverse to become a cyanotic right-to-left shunt.
Renal Artery Stenosis causes decreased blood flow to the kidneys, leading to fluid retention and hypertension. A bruit is typically heard on auscultation of the abdomen, and creatinine levels may be elevated due to decreased renal perfusion.
Atrial Septal Defect is a congenital abnormality that causes a left-to-right shunt. It can be detected by a fixed, widely split S2 on cardiac auscultation. If left untreated, it can lead to pulmonary hypertension and right heart failure.
Bilateral Lower Extremity Deep Vein Thrombosis refers to blood clots in the deep veins of the legs, causing lower extremity swelling, warmth, and erythema. It does not cause hypertension, claudication, or cool lower extremities. Lower extremity arterial insufficiency may cause claudication.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A young marine biologist was snorkelling among giant stingrays when the tail (barb) of one of the stingrays suddenly pierced his chest. The tip of the barb pierced the right ventricle and the man instinctively removed it in the water. When he was brought onto the boat, there was absence of heart sounds, reduced cardiac output and engorged jugular veins.
What was the most likely diagnosis for the young marine biologist who was snorkelling among giant stingrays and had the tail (barb) of one of the stingrays pierce his chest, causing the tip of the barb to pierce the right ventricle? Upon being brought onto the boat, the young man exhibited absence of heart sounds, reduced cardiac output and engorged jugular veins.Your Answer: Haemothorax
Correct Answer: Cardiac tamponade
Explanation:Differential diagnosis of a patient with chest trauma
When evaluating a patient with chest trauma, it is important to consider various potential diagnoses based on the clinical presentation and mechanism of injury. Here are some possible explanations for different symptoms:
– Cardiac tamponade: If a projectile penetrates the fibrous pericardium, blood can accumulate in the pericardial cavity and compress the heart, leading to decreased cardiac output and potential death.
– Deep vein thrombosis: This condition involves the formation of a blood clot in a deep vein, often in the leg. However, it does not typically cause the symptoms described in this case.
– Stroke: A stroke occurs when blood flow to the brain is disrupted, usually due to a blockage or rupture of an artery. This is not likely to be the cause of the patient’s symptoms.
– Pulmonary embolism: If a clot from a deep vein thrombosis travels to the lungs and obstructs blood flow, it can cause sudden death. However, given the history of trauma, other possibilities should be considered first.
– Haemothorax: This refers to the accumulation of blood in the pleural cavity around a lung. While it can cause respiratory distress and chest pain, it does not typically affect jugular veins or heart sounds. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 56-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with crushing substernal chest pain that radiates to the jaw. He has a history of poorly controlled hypertension and uncontrolled type II diabetes mellitus for the past 12 years. An electrocardiogram (ECG) reveals ST elevation, and he is diagnosed with acute myocardial infarction. The patient undergoes percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI) and stenting and is discharged from the hospital. Eight weeks later, he experiences fever, leukocytosis, and chest pain that is relieved by leaning forwards. There is diffuse ST elevation in multiple ECG leads, and a pericardial friction rub is heard on auscultation. What is the most likely cause of the patient's current symptoms?
Your Answer: Acute fibrinous pericarditis
Correct Answer: Dressler’s syndrome
Explanation:Complications of Transmural Myocardial Infarction
Transmural myocardial infarction can lead to various complications, including Dressler’s syndrome and ventricular aneurysm. Dressler’s syndrome typically occurs weeks to months after an infarction and is characterized by acute fibrinous pericarditis, fever, pleuritic chest pain, and leukocytosis. On the other hand, ventricular aneurysm is characterized by a systolic bulge in the precordial area and predisposes to stasis and thrombus formation. Acute fibrinous pericarditis, which manifests a few days after an infarction, is not due to an autoimmune reaction. Reinfarction is unlikely in a patient who has undergone successful treatment for STEMI. Infectious myocarditis, caused by viruses such as Coxsackie B, Epstein-Barr, adenovirus, and echovirus, is not the most likely cause of the patient’s symptoms, given his medical history.
Complications of Transmural Myocardial Infarction
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 7
Correct
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A fourth year medical student on a ward round with your team is inquiring about pacemakers.
Which of the following WOULD BE an indication for permanent pacemaker implantation?Your Answer: Third degree AV block (complete heart block)
Explanation:Understanding Indications for Permanent Pacemaker Insertion
A third degree AV block, also known as complete heart block, occurs when the atria and ventricles contract independently of each other. This can lead to syncope, chest pain, or signs of heart failure. Definitive treatment is the insertion of a permanent pacemaker. Other arrhythmias that may require permanent pacing include type 2 second-degree heart block (Mobitz II), sick sinus syndrome, and symptomatic slow atrial fibrillation. Ventricular tachycardia and ventricular fibrillation are not indications for pacing. Type 1 second degree (Mobitz I) AV block is a benign condition that does not require specific treatment. It is important to understand these indications for permanent pacemaker insertion for both exam and clinical purposes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 8
Correct
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A 56-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with chest pain. He has a medical history of angina, hypertension, high cholesterol, and is a current smoker. Upon arrival, a 12-lead electrocardiogram (ECG) is conducted, revealing ST elevation in leads II, III, and aVF. Which coronary artery is most likely responsible for this presentation?
Your Answer: Right coronary artery
Explanation:ECG Changes and Localisation of Infarct in Coronary Artery Disease
Patients with chest pain and multiple risk factors for cardiac disease require prompt evaluation to determine the underlying cause. Electrocardiogram (ECG) changes can help localise the infarct to a particular territory, which can aid in diagnosis and treatment.
Inferior infarcts are often due to lesions in the right coronary artery, as evidenced by ST elevation in leads II, III, and aVF. However, in 20% of cases, this can also be caused by an occlusion of a dominant left circumflex artery.
Lateral infarcts involve branches of the left anterior descending (LAD) and left circumflex arteries, and are characterised by ST elevation in leads I, aVL, and V5-6. It is unusual for a lateral STEMI to occur in isolation, and it usually occurs as part of a larger territory infarction.
Anterior infarcts are caused by blockage of the LAD artery, and are characterised by ST elevation in leads V1-V6.
Blockage of the right marginal artery does not have a specific pattern of ECG changes associated with it, and it is not one of the major coronary vessels.
In summary, understanding the ECG changes associated with different coronary arteries can aid in localising the infarct and guiding appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 9
Correct
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A 57-year-old male with a history of hypertension for six years presents to the Emergency department with complaints of severe chest pain that radiates to his back, which he describes as tearing in nature. He is currently experiencing tachycardia and hypertension, with a blood pressure reading of 185/95 mmHg. A soft early diastolic murmur is also noted. The ECG shows ST elevation of 2 mm in the inferior leads, and a small left-sided pleural effusion is visible on chest x-ray. Based on the patient's clinical history, what is the initial diagnosis that needs to be ruled out?
Your Answer: Aortic dissection
Explanation:Aortic Dissection in a Hypertensive Patient
This patient is experiencing an aortic dissection, which is a serious medical condition. The patient’s hypertension is a contributing factor, and the pain they are experiencing is typical for this condition. One of the key features of aortic dissection is radiation of pain to the back. Upon examination, the patient also exhibits hypertension, aortic regurgitation, and pleural effusion, which are all consistent with this diagnosis. The ECG changes in the inferior lead are likely due to the aortic dissection compromising the right coronary artery. To properly diagnose and treat this patient, it is crucial to thoroughly evaluate their peripheral pulses and urgently perform imaging of the aorta. Proper and timely medical intervention is necessary to prevent further complications and ensure the best possible outcome for the patient.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 10
Correct
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A 50-year-old man with hypertension and type II diabetes mellitus presented to the Emergency Department with diaphoresis, severe central chest pain, and breathlessness. An ECG showed ST elevation in leads II, III, and aVF. Where is the probable location of the responsible arterial stenosis?
Your Answer: Right coronary artery
Explanation:Coronary Arteries and Their Associated Leads
The heart is supplied with blood by the coronary arteries. Each artery supplies a specific area of the heart and can be identified by the leads on an electrocardiogram (ECG).
The right coronary artery supplies the inferior part of the left ventricle, interventricular septum, and right ventricle. The circumflex artery predominantly supplies the left free wall of the left ventricle and would be picked up by leads I, aVL, and V5–6. The left anterior descending artery supplies the septum, apex, and anterior wall of the left ventricle and would be picked up by leads V1–4.
Proximal aortic stenosis is very rare and would cause problems of perfusion in distal organs before reducing enough blood supply to the heart to cause a myocardial infarction. The left main stem splits into both the circumflex and left anterior descending arteries. Acute occlusion at this location would be catastrophic and a person is unlikely to survive to hospital. It would be picked up by leads V1–6, I, and aVL.
Understanding the specific areas of the heart supplied by each coronary artery and their associated leads on an ECG can aid in the diagnosis and treatment of cardiac conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 11
Correct
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A man in his early 60s is undergoing treatment for high blood pressure. During a dental check-up, his dentist informs him that he has gingival hyperplasia. Which medication is the most probable culprit for this condition?
Your Answer: Nifedipine
Explanation:Drugs Associated with Gingival Hyperplasia
Gingival hyperplasia is a condition characterized by an overgrowth of gum tissue, which can lead to discomfort, difficulty in maintaining oral hygiene, and even tooth loss. There are several drugs that have been associated with this condition, including Phenytoin, Ciclosporin, and Nifedipine. These drugs are commonly used to treat various medical conditions, such as epilepsy, organ transplant rejection, and hypertension.
According to Medscape, drug-induced gingival hyperplasia is a well-known side effect of these medications. The exact mechanism by which these drugs cause gingival hyperplasia is not fully understood, but it is believed to be related to their effect on the immune system and the production of collagen in the gums.
It is important for healthcare providers to be aware of this potential side effect when prescribing these medications, and to monitor patients for any signs of gingival hyperplasia. Patients who are taking these drugs should also be advised to maintain good oral hygiene and to visit their dentist regularly for check-ups and cleanings.
In summary, Phenytoin, Ciclosporin, and Nifedipine are drugs that have been associated with gingival hyperplasia. Healthcare providers should be aware of this potential side effect and monitor patients accordingly, while patients should maintain good oral hygiene and visit their dentist regularly.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A man in his early 40s comes to you with a rash. Upon examination, you notice that he has eruptive xanthoma. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Familial hypercholesterolaemia
Correct Answer: Familial hypertriglyceridaemia
Explanation:Eruptive Xanthoma and its Association with Hypertriglyceridaemia and Diabetes Mellitus
Eruptive xanthoma is a skin condition that can occur in individuals with hypertriglyceridaemia and uncontrolled diabetes mellitus. Hypertriglyceridaemia is a condition characterized by high levels of triglycerides in the blood, which can be caused by a number of factors including genetics, diet, and lifestyle. Eruptive xanthoma is a type of xanthoma that appears as small, yellowish bumps on the skin, often in clusters.
Of the conditions listed, familial hypertriglyceridaemia is the most likely to be associated with eruptive xanthoma. This is a genetic condition that causes high levels of triglycerides in the blood, and can lead to a range of health problems including cardiovascular disease. Uncontrolled diabetes mellitus, which is characterized by high blood sugar levels, can also be a risk factor for eruptive xanthoma.
It is important for individuals with hypertriglyceridaemia or diabetes mellitus to manage their condition through lifestyle changes and medication, in order to reduce the risk of complications such as eruptive xanthoma. Regular monitoring and treatment can help to prevent the development of this skin condition and other related health problems.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old woman came to the Heart Failure Clinic complaining of shortness of breath. During the examination, a loud pansystolic murmur was heard throughout her chest. The murmur was more audible during inspiration than expiration, and it was difficult to determine where it was loudest. Additionally, she had distended neck veins and an elevated jugular venous pressure (JVP). What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Pulmonary stenosis
Correct Answer: Tricuspid regurgitation (TR)
Explanation:Differentiating Heart Murmurs: A Guide
Heart murmurs are abnormal sounds heard during a heartbeat and can indicate underlying heart conditions. Here is a guide to differentiating some common heart murmurs:
Tricuspid Regurgitation (TR)
TR presents with a loud pan-systolic murmur audible throughout the chest, often loudest in the tricuspid area. The most common cause is heart failure, with regurgitation being functional due to myocardial dilation. Patients may have raised JVPs, distended neck veins, and signs of right-sided heart failure.Aortic Sclerosis
Aortic sclerosis is a loud murmur early in systole, with normal S1 and S2. It does not affect pulse pressure, and there is no radiation to the right carotid artery. Right-sided murmurs are louder on inspiration.Aortic Stenosis
Aortic stenosis is a mid-systolic ejection murmur, heard best over the aortic area or right second intercostal space, with radiation into the right carotid artery. It may reduce pulse pressure to <40 mmHg, and S2 may be diminished. Pulmonary Stenosis
Pulmonary stenosis gives a crescendo-decrescendo ejection systolic murmur, loudest over the pulmonary area. It is not pan-systolic, and S2 splitting is widened due to prolonged pulmonic ejection.Mitral Regurgitation
Mitral regurgitation is a pan-systolic murmur heard best over the mitral area, radiating to the axilla. It is not increased on inspiration.Remember to listen carefully to S1 and S2, check for radiation, and consider associated symptoms to differentiate heart murmurs.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old male patient presents with bilateral ankle oedema. On examination, the jugular venous pressure (JVP) is elevated at 7 cm above the sternal angle and there are large V-waves. On auscultation of the heart, a soft pansystolic murmur is audible at the left sternal edge.
Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Mitral regurgitation
Correct Answer: Tricuspid regurgitation
Explanation:Common Heart Murmurs and their Characteristics
Heart murmurs are abnormal sounds heard during the cardiac cycle. They can be caused by a variety of conditions, including valve disorders. Here are some common heart murmurs and their characteristics:
Tricuspid Regurgitation: This condition leads to an elevated jugular venous pressure (JVP) with large V-waves and a pan-systolic murmur at the left sternal edge. Other features include pulsatile hepatomegaly and left parasternal heave.
Tricuspid Stenosis: Tricuspid stenosis causes a mid-diastolic murmur heard best at the left sternal border.
Pulmonary Stenosis: Pulmonary stenosis causes an ejection systolic murmur in the second left intercostal space.
Mitral Regurgitation: Mitral regurgitation causes a pan-systolic murmur at the apex, which radiates to the axilla.
Mitral Stenosis: Mitral stenosis causes a mid-diastolic murmur at the apex, and severe cases may have secondary pulmonary hypertension (a cause of tricuspid regurgitation).
Knowing the characteristics of these murmurs can aid in their diagnosis and management. It is important to consult with a healthcare professional if you suspect you may have a heart murmur.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 15
Correct
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What do T waves represent on an ECG?
Your Answer: Ventricular repolarisation
Explanation:The Electrical Activity of the Heart and the ECG
The ECG (electrocardiogram) is a medical test that records the electrical activity of the heart. This activity is responsible for different parts of the ECG. The first part is the atrial depolarisation, which is represented by the P wave. This wave conducts down the bundle of His to the ventricles, causing the ventricular depolarisation. This is shown on the ECG as the QRS complex. Finally, the ventricular repolarisation is represented by the T wave.
It is important to note that atrial repolarisation is not visible on the ECG. This is because it is of lower amplitude compared to the QRS complex. the different parts of the ECG and their corresponding electrical activity can help medical professionals diagnose and treat various heart conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old man is referred to the Cardiology Clinic for a check-up. On cardiac auscultation, an early systolic ejection click is found. A blowing diastolic murmur is also present and best heard over the third left intercostal space, close to the sternum. S1 and S2 heart sounds are normal. There are no S3 or S4 sounds. He denies any shortness of breath, chest pain, dizziness or episodes of fainting.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Aortic stenosis and flow murmur
Correct Answer: Bicuspid aortic valve without calcification
Explanation:Differentiating between cardiac conditions based on murmurs and clicks
Bicuspid aortic valve without calcification is a common congenital heart malformation in adults. It is characterized by an early systolic ejection click and can also present with aortic regurgitation and/or stenosis, resulting in a blowing early diastolic murmur and/or systolic ejection murmur. However, if there is no systolic ejection murmur, it can be assumed that there is no valvular stenosis or calcification. Bicuspid aortic valves are not essentially associated with stenosis and only become symptomatic later in life when significant calcification is present.
On the other hand, a bicuspid aortic valve with significant calcification will result in aortic stenosis and an audible systolic ejection murmur. This can cause chest pain, shortness of breath, dizziness, or syncope. The absence of a systolic murmur in this case excludes aortic stenosis.
Mixed aortic stenosis and regurgitation can also be ruled out if there is no systolic ejection murmur. An early systolic ejection click without an ejection murmur or with a short ejection murmur is suggestive of a bicuspid aortic valve.
Aortic regurgitation alone will not cause an early systolic ejection click. This is often associated with aortic or pulmonary stenosis or a bicuspid aortic valve.
Lastly, aortic stenosis causes a systolic ejection murmur, while flow murmurs are always systolic in nature and not diastolic.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 17
Incorrect
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You are requested by a nurse to assess a 66-year-old woman on the Surgical Assessment Unit who is 1-day postoperative, having undergone a laparoscopic cholecystectomy procedure for cholecystitis. She has a medical history of type II diabetes mellitus and chronic kidney disease. Blood tests taken earlier in the day revealed electrolyte imbalances with hyperkalaemia.
Which of the following ECG changes is linked to hyperkalaemia?Your Answer: Peaked P waves
Correct Answer: Peaked T waves
Explanation:Electrocardiogram (ECG) Changes Associated with Hypo- and Hyperkalaemia
Hypo- and hyperkalaemia can cause significant changes in the ECG. Hypokalaemia is associated with increased amplitude and width of the P wave, T wave flattening and inversion, ST-segment depression, and prominent U-waves. As hypokalaemia worsens, it can lead to frequent supraventricular ectopics and tachyarrhythmias, eventually resulting in life-threatening ventricular arrhythmias. On the other hand, hyperkalaemia is associated with peaked T waves, widening of the QRS complex, decreased amplitude of the P wave, prolongation of the PR interval, and eventually ventricular tachycardia/ventricular fibrillation. Both hypo- and hyperkalaemia can cause prolongation of the PR interval, but only hyperkalaemia is associated with flattening of the P-wave. In hyperkalaemia, eventually ventricular tachycardia/ventricular fibrillation is seen, while AF can occur in hypokalaemia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old man visited the dermatology clinic in the summer with a rash on his forearms, shins, and face. Which medication is most likely to be linked with this photosensitive rash?
Your Answer: Digoxin
Correct Answer: Bendroflumethiazide
Explanation:Adverse Effects of Cardiology Drugs
Photosensitivity is a frequently observed negative reaction to certain cardiology drugs, such as amiodarone and thiazide diuretics. This means that patients taking these medications may experience an increased sensitivity to sunlight, resulting in skin rashes or other skin-related issues. Additionally, ACE inhibitors and A2RBs, which are commonly prescribed for cardiovascular conditions, have been known to cause rashes that may also be photosensitive. It is important for patients to be aware of these potential side effects and to take necessary precautions, such as wearing protective clothing and using sunscreen, when exposed to sunlight.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 19
Correct
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A 27-year-old Asian woman complains of palpitations, shortness of breath on moderate exertion and a painful and tender knee. During auscultation, a mid-diastolic murmur with a loud S1 is heard. Echocardiography reveals valvular heart disease with a normal left ventricular ejection fraction.
What is the most probable valvular disease?Your Answer: Mitral stenosis
Explanation:Differentiating Heart Murmurs: Causes and Characteristics
Heart murmurs are abnormal sounds heard during a heartbeat and can indicate underlying heart conditions. Here are some common causes and characteristics of heart murmurs:
Mitral Stenosis: This condition is most commonly caused by rheumatic fever in childhood and is rare in developed countries. Patients with mitral stenosis will have a loud S1 with an associated opening snap. However, if the mitral valve is calcified or there is severe stenosis, the opening snap may be absent and S1 soft.
Mitral Regurgitation and Ventricular Septal Defect: These conditions cause a pan-systolic murmur, which is not the correct option for differentiating heart murmurs.
Aortic Regurgitation: This condition leads to an early diastolic murmur.
Aortic Stenosis: Aortic stenosis causes an ejection systolic murmur.
Ventricular Septal Defect: As discussed, a ventricular septal defect will cause a pan-systolic murmur.
By understanding the causes and characteristics of different heart murmurs, healthcare professionals can better diagnose and treat underlying heart conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A patient comes to your general practice with deteriorating shortness of breath and ankle swelling. You have been treating them for a few years for their congestive cardiac failure, which has been gradually worsening. Currently, the patient is at ease when resting, but standing up and walking a few steps cause their symptoms to appear. According to the New York Heart Association (NYHA) classification, what stage of heart failure are they in?
Your Answer: V
Correct Answer: III
Explanation:Understanding NYHA Classification for Heart Failure Patients
The NYHA classification system is used to assess the severity of heart failure symptoms in patients. Class I indicates no limitation of physical activity, while class IV indicates severe limitations and symptoms even at rest. This patient falls under class III, with marked limitation of physical activity but no symptoms at rest. It is important for healthcare professionals to understand and use this classification system to properly manage and treat heart failure patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 21
Correct
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A 40-year-old male patient complains of shortness of breath, weight loss, and night sweats for the past six weeks. Despite being generally healthy, he is experiencing these symptoms. During the examination, the patient's fingers show clubbing, and his temperature is 37.8°C. His pulse is 88 beats per minute, and his blood pressure is 128/80 mmHg. Upon listening to his heart, a pansystolic murmur is audible. What signs are likely to be found in this patient?
Your Answer: Splinter haemorrhages
Explanation:Symptoms and Diagnosis of Infective Endocarditis
This individual has a lengthy medical history of experiencing night sweats and has developed clubbing of the fingers, along with a murmur. These symptoms are indicative of infective endocarditis. In addition to splinter hemorrhages in the nails, other symptoms that may be present include Roth spots in the eyes, Osler’s nodes and Janeway lesions in the palms and fingers of the hands, and splenomegaly instead of cervical lymphadenopathy. Cyanosis is not typically associated with clubbing and may suggest idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis or cystic fibrosis in younger individuals. However, this individual has no prior history of cystic fibrosis and has only been experiencing symptoms for six weeks.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 22
Incorrect
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Which statement about congenital heart disease is accurate?
Your Answer: Atrial septal defects (ASDs), in contrast with ventricular septal defects, never close spontaneously
Correct Answer: In Down's syndrome with an endocardial cushion defect, irreversible pulmonary hypertension occurs earlier than in children with normal chromosomes
Explanation:Common Congenital Heart Defects and their Characteristics
An endocardial cushion defect, also known as an AVSD, is the most prevalent cardiac malformation in individuals with Down Syndrome. This defect can lead to irreversible pulmonary hypertension, which is known as Eisenmenger’s syndrome. It is unclear why children with Down Syndrome tend to have more severe cardiac disease than unaffected children with the same abnormality.
ASDs, or atrial septal defects, may close on their own, and the likelihood of spontaneous closure is related to the size of the defect. If the defect is between 5-8 mm, there is an 80% chance of closure, but if it is larger than 8 mm, the chance of closure is minimal.
Tetralogy of Fallot, a cyanotic congenital heart disease, typically presents after three months of age. The murmur of VSD, or ventricular septal defect, becomes more pronounced after one month of life. Overall, the characteristics of these common congenital heart defects is crucial for proper diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 23
Correct
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A 60-year-old man presents to cardiology outpatients after being lost to follow-up for 2 years. He has a significant cardiac history, including two previous myocardial infarctions, peripheral vascular disease, and three transient ischemic attacks. He is also a non-insulin-dependent diabetic. During examination, his JVP is raised by 2 cm, and he has peripheral pitting edema to the mid-calf bilaterally and bilateral basal fine inspiratory crepitations. His last ECHO, performed 3 years ago, showed moderately impaired LV function and mitral regurgitation. He is currently taking bisoprolol, aspirin, simvastatin, furosemide, ramipril, and gliclazide. Which medication, if added, would provide prognostic benefit?
Your Answer: Spironolactone
Explanation:Heart Failure Medications: Prognostic and Symptomatic Benefits
Heart failure is a prevalent disease that can be managed with various medications. These medications can be divided into two categories: those with prognostic benefits and those with symptomatic benefits. Prognostic medications help improve long-term outcomes, while symptomatic medications provide relief from symptoms.
Prognostic medications include selective beta-blockers, angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors, angiotensin II antagonists, and spironolactone. In the RALES trial, spironolactone was shown to reduce all-cause mortality by 30% in patients with heart failure and an ejection fraction of less than 35%.
Symptomatic medications include loop diuretics, digoxin, and vasodilators such as nitrates and hydralazine. These medications provide relief from symptoms but do not improve long-term outcomes.
Other medications, such as nifedipine, sotalol, and naftidrofuryl, are used to manage other conditions such as angina, hypertension, and peripheral and cerebrovascular disorders, but are not of prognostic benefit in heart failure.
Treatment for heart failure can be tailored to each individual case, and heart transplant remains a limited option for certain patient groups. Understanding the benefits and limitations of different medications can help healthcare providers make informed decisions about the best course of treatment for their patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 24
Correct
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A 65-year-old man arrives at the Emergency Department complaining of central crushing chest pain that spreads to his arm and jaw. Upon examination, his ECG reveals ST elevation in leads II, III, and aVF, with reciprocal changes in I and aVL. Based on this information, which of the following vessels is most likely obstructed?
Your Answer: Right coronary artery
Explanation:Differentiating Myocardial Infarctions Based on ECG Changes
Myocardial infarction (MI) is a serious condition that requires prompt diagnosis and treatment. Electrocardiogram (ECG) changes can help differentiate the location of the MI and guide appropriate management. Here are the ECG changes expected in different types of MI:
Right Coronary Artery (RCA) Infarction: An inferior MI affects the RCA in 80% of cases, with ST elevation in leads II, III, and aVF, and reciprocal changes in leads I and aVL.
Left Circumflex Artery (LCX) Infarction: LCX infarction presents with ST elevation in leads I, aVL, V5, and V6 (lateral leads), and reciprocal changes in the inferior leads II, III, and aVF.
Left Coronary Artery (LCA) Infarction: If the clot is in the LCA before bifurcation, ST changes are expected in leads I, aVL, and V1–V6 (anterolateral leads).
Posterior Descending Artery (PDA) Infarction: PDA infarction gives ECG changes in keeping with a posterior MI, such as ST depression in the anterior leads.
Left Anterior Descending Artery (LAD) Infarction: LAD runs in the anterior of the heart, almost parallel to the septum, and then lateralizes. Therefore, in an LAD infarction, ST changes are expected in leads V1–V6 (anteroseptal leads).
In conclusion, recognizing the ECG changes in different types of MI can help clinicians make an accurate diagnosis and provide appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 25
Correct
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A 47-year-old woman is admitted with central chest pain of 18 hours’ duration and shortness of breath. Her troponin is elevated, and her electrocardiogram (ECG) shows changes in leads V2–V6. While undergoing initial management in preparation for primary percutaneous coronary intervention (primary PCI), she deteriorates suddenly and goes into cardiac arrest. Efforts to resuscitate her are unsuccessful. At post-mortem, rupture of the left ventricular cardiac wall is evident at the apex.
Which is the most likely blood vessel to have been involved in the infarct?Your Answer: The anterior interventricular (left anterior descending) artery
Explanation:Coronary Arteries and Their Blood Supply to the Heart
The heart is supplied with blood by the coronary arteries. There are four main coronary arteries that provide blood to different parts of the heart.
The anterior interventricular artery, also known as the left anterior descending artery, supplies blood to the apex of the heart, as well as the anterior part of the interventricular septum and adjacent anterior walls of the right and left ventricles.
The right marginal artery supplies the anteroinferior aspect of the right ventricle.
The posterior interventricular artery supplies the interventricular septum and adjacent right and left ventricles on the diaphragmatic surface of the heart, but does not reach the apex.
The circumflex artery supplies the posterolateral aspect of the left ventricle.
Finally, the conus branch of the right coronary artery supplies the outflow tract of the right ventricle.
Understanding the blood supply to different parts of the heart is important in diagnosing and treating heart conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 58-year-old man experiences a myocardial infarction (MI) that results in necrosis of the anterior papillary muscle of the right ventricle. This has led to valve prolapse. Which structure is most likely responsible for the prolapse?
Your Answer: Anterior and septal cusps of the mitral valve
Correct Answer: Anterior and posterior cusps of the tricuspid valve
Explanation:Cusps and Papillary Muscles of the Tricuspid and Mitral Valves
The tricuspid and mitral valves are important structures in the heart that regulate blood flow between the atria and ventricles. These valves are composed of cusps and papillary muscles that work together to ensure proper function.
The tricuspid valve has three cusps: anterior, posterior, and septal. The papillary muscles of the right ventricle attach to these cusps, with the anterior papillary muscle connecting to both the anterior and posterior cusps.
The mitral valve, located between the left atrium and ventricle, has only two cusps: anterior and posterior.
The posterior and septal cusps of the tricuspid valve attach to the posterior papillary muscle of the right ventricle, while the anterior and septal cusps attach to the septal papillary muscle.
Understanding the anatomy and function of these cusps and papillary muscles is crucial in diagnosing and treating heart conditions such as mitral valve prolapse and tricuspid regurgitation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 27
Correct
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You are asked to see a 63-year-old man who has been admitted overnight following a road traffic accident. He sustained extensive bruising to his chest from the steering wheel. The nurses are concerned as he has become hypotensive and tachycardic. There is a history of a previous inferior myocardial infarction some 7 years ago, but nil else of note. On examination his BP is 90/50 mmHg, pulse is 95/min and regular. He looks peripherally shut down. There are muffled heart sounds and pulsus paradoxus.
Investigations – arterial blood gas - reveal:
Investigation Result Normal Value
pH 7.29 7.35–7.45
pO2 11.9 kPa 11.2–14.0 kPa
pCO2 6.1 kPa 4.7–6.0 kPa
ECG Widespread anterior T wave inversion
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Cardiac tamponade
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis for a Patient with Hypotension, Tachycardia, and Muffled Heart Sounds Following a Road Traffic Accident: Cardiac Tamponade, Myocarditis, NSTEMI, Pericarditis, and STEMI
A 67-year-old man presents with hypotension, tachycardia, and poor peripheral perfusion following a road traffic accident with a steering wheel injury. On examination, muffled heart sounds and pulsus paradoxus are noted, and an ECG shows widespread anterior T-wave inversion. The patient has a history of inferior wall MI seven years ago. Arterial blood gas analysis reveals respiratory acidosis.
The differential diagnosis includes cardiac tamponade, myocarditis, NSTEMI, pericarditis, and STEMI. While myocarditis can cause similar symptoms and ECG changes, the presence of muffled heart sounds and pulsus paradoxus suggests fluid in the pericardium and cardiac tamponade. NSTEMI and STEMI can also cause acute onset of symptoms and ECG changes, but the absence of ST elevation and the history of trauma make cardiac tamponade more likely. Pericarditis can cause muffled heart sounds and pulsus paradoxus, but the absence of peripheral hypoperfusion and the presence of non-specific ST-T changes on ECG make it less likely.
In conclusion, the clinical scenario is most consistent with traumatic cardiac tamponade, which requires urgent echocardiography for confirmation and possible guided pericardiocentesis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 28
Correct
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A 27-year-old intravenous drug user presents with a systolic murmur that is most audible at the fifth costal cartilage on the left sternal edge. What is the most probable anatomical site of the disease causing the murmur?
Your Answer: Tricuspid valve
Explanation:Auscultation of Heart Murmurs and Associated Cardiac Structures
When listening to heart sounds, the location of the murmur can provide clues about the underlying cardiac structure involved. A pansystolic murmur heard at the left sternal margin at the fifth costal cartilage suggests tricuspid regurgitation, likely caused by infective endocarditis in an intravenous drug user. A ventricular septal defect can be auscultated as a pansystolic murmur, while an atrial septal defect is associated with an ejection systolic murmur and split second heart sound over the pulmonary area. Abnormalities of the mitral valve are heard in the fifth intercostal space at the mid-clavicular line, and the aortic valve can be auscultated at the second intercostal space in the right sternal edge. Understanding the relationship between heart murmurs and associated cardiac structures can aid in diagnosis and management of cardiac conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 29
Correct
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A typically healthy and fit 35-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department (ED) with palpitations that have been ongoing for 4 hours. He reports no chest pain, has a National Early Warning Score (NEWS) of 0, and the only physical finding is an irregularly irregular pulse. An electrocardiogram (ECG) confirms that the patient is experiencing atrial fibrillation. The patient has no notable medical history.
What is the most suitable course of action?Your Answer: Medical cardioversion (amiodarone or flecainide)
Explanation:Management of Atrial Fibrillation: Treatment Options and Considerations
Atrial fibrillation (AF) is a common cardiac arrhythmia that requires prompt management to prevent complications. The following are the treatment options and considerations for managing AF:
Investigations for Reversible Causes
Before initiating any treatment, the patient should be investigated for reversible causes of AF, such as hyperthyroidism and alcohol. Blood tests (TFTs, FBC, U and Es, LFTs, and coagulation screen) and a chest X-ray should be performed.Medical Cardioversion
If no reversible causes are found, medical cardioversion is the most appropriate treatment for haemodynamically stable patients who present within 48 hours of the onset of AF. Amiodarone or flecainide can be used for this purpose.DC Cardioversion
DC cardioversion is indicated for haemodynamically unstable patients, including those with shock, syncope, myocardial ischaemia, and heart failure. It is also appropriate if medical cardioversion fails.Anticoagulation Therapy with Warfarin
Patients who remain in persistent AF for over 48 hours should have their CHA2DS2 VASc score calculated. If the score is equal to or greater than 1 for men or equal to or greater than 2 for women, anticoagulation therapy with warfarin should be initiated.Radiofrequency Ablation
Radiofrequency ablation is not a suitable treatment for acute AF.24-Hour Three Lead ECG Tape
Sending the patient home with a 24-hour three lead ECG tape and reviewing them in one week is not necessary as the diagnosis of AF has already been established.In summary, the management of AF involves investigating for reversible causes, considering medical or DC cardioversion, initiating anticoagulation therapy with warfarin if necessary, and avoiding radiofrequency ablation for acute AF.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman presents to her Accident and Emergency with visual loss. She has known persistently uncontrolled hypertension, previously managed in the community. Blood tests are performed as follows:
Investigation Patient Normal value
Sodium (Na+) 148 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
Potassium (K+) 2.7 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
Creatinine 75 μmol/l 50–120 µmol/
Chloride (Cl–) 100 mEq/l 96–106 mEq/l
What is the next most appropriate investigation?Your Answer: Aldosterone levels
Correct Answer: Aldosterone-to-renin ratio
Explanation:Investigating Hypertension in a Young Patient: The Importance of Aldosterone-to-Renin Ratio
Hypertension in a young patient with hypernatraemia and hypokalaemia can be caused by renal artery stenosis or an aldosterone-secreting adrenal adenoma. To determine the cause, measuring aldosterone levels alone is not enough. Both renin and aldosterone levels should be measured, and the aldosterone-to-renin ratio should be evaluated. If hyperaldosteronism is confirmed, CT or MRI of the adrenal glands is done to locate the cause. If both are normal, adrenal vein sampling may be performed. MR angiogram of renal arteries is not a first-line investigation. Similarly, CT angiogram of renal arteries should not be the first choice. 24-hour urine metanephrine levels are not useful in this scenario. The electrolyte abnormalities point towards elevated aldosterone levels, not towards a phaeochromocytoma.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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