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Question 1
Correct
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A 50 year old lady with breast cancer taking Tamoxifen visits her GP complaining of depression. The GP decides to prescribe an antidepressant. What medication should the GP steer clear of due to its interaction with Tamoxifen?
Your Answer: Fluoxetine
Explanation:Tamoxifen and Antidepressant Interactions
Tamoxifen is a medication used to treat breast cancer by reducing relapse rates and increasing overall survival. It works by antagonizing estrogen in the breast, with its anti-estrogen affinity depending on its primary metabolite, endoxifen. However, tamoxifen is metabolized to endoxifen through the liver enzyme CYP2D6, and any drug that inhibits this enzyme can reduce the conversion of tamoxifen to endoxifen.
Women taking tamoxifen for breast cancer treatment of prevention may also take antidepressants for psychiatric disorders of hot flushes. Some antidepressants have been found to inhibit the metabolism of tamoxifen to its more active metabolites by the CYP2D6 enzyme, thereby decreasing its anticancer effect. Strong CYP2D6 inhibitors include paroxetine, fluoxetine, bupropion, and duloxetine, while moderate inhibitors include sertraline, escitalopram, and doxepin, and venlafaxine is a weak inhibitor.
Therefore, it is important for healthcare providers to consider potential drug interactions when prescribing antidepressants to women taking tamoxifen for breast cancer treatment of prevention.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 2
Correct
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At what IQ level is someone considered to have a profound intellectual disability?
Your Answer: <20
Explanation:Classification of Intellectual Disability
Intellectual disability affects approximately 2% of the general population, with an estimated 828,000 adults aged 18 of older affected in England alone. Those with an IQ below 70 are considered to have an intellectual disability, with the average IQ being 100. The severity of intellectual disability is categorized based on IQ scores, with mild intellectual disability being the most common (85% of cases) and profound intellectual disability being the least common (1-2% of cases). People with intellectual disability may require varying levels of support in their daily lives, depending on their individual needs. It is important to use the preferred term ‘people with intellectual disability’ when referring to individuals with this condition.
Level IQ Range Mild IQ 52–69 Moderate IQ 36–51 Severe IQ 20–35 Profound IQ 19 or below -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Learning Disability
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Question 3
Correct
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What is the accuracy of the NICE guidelines for anorexia nervosa?
Your Answer: Oral oestrogen should not be routinely offered to treat bone density problems in children
Explanation:The use of medical treatment for osteoporosis in individuals with anorexia is not advisable. Additionally, administering oestrogen as a solution for bone density issues in children should not be a standard practice. While there are no specific medications recommended for anorexia, they may be useful in addressing concurrent conditions like depression.
Eating Disorders: NICE Guidelines
Anorexia:
For adults with anorexia nervosa, consider individual eating-disorder-focused cognitive behavioural therapy (CBT-ED), Maudsley Anorexia Nervosa Treatment for Adults (MANTRA), of specialist supportive clinical management (SSCM). If these are not acceptable, contraindicated, of ineffective, consider eating-disorder-focused focal psychodynamic therapy (FPT). For children and young people, consider anorexia-nervosa-focused family therapy (FT-AN) of individual CBT-ED. Do not offer medication as the sole treatment.Bulimia:
For adults, the first step is an evidence-based self-help programme. If this is not effective, consider individual CBT-ED. For children and young people, offer bulimia-nervosa-focused family therapy (FT-BN) of individual CBT-ED. Do not offer medication as the sole treatment.Binge Eating Disorder:
The first step is a guided self-help programme. If this is not effective, offer group of individual CBT-ED. For children and young people, offer the same treatments recommended for adults. Do not offer medication as the sole treatment.Advice for those with eating disorders:
Encourage people with an eating disorder who are vomiting to avoid brushing teeth immediately after vomiting, rinse with non-acid mouthwash, and avoid highly acidic foods and drinks. Advise against misusing laxatives of diuretics and excessive exercise.Additional points:
Do not offer physical therapy as part of treatment. Consider bone mineral density scans after 1 year of underweight in children and young people, of 2 years in adults. Do not routinely offer oral of transdermal oestrogen therapy to treat low bone mineral density in children of young people with anorexia nervosa. Consider transdermal 17-β-estradiol of bisphosphonates for women with anorexia nervosa.Note: These guidelines are taken from NICE guidelines 2017.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 4
Correct
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What is the typical age range of individuals who are diagnosed with Munchausen's syndrome by proxy?
Your Answer: 4 years
Explanation:Munchausen’s syndrome by proxy, also known as fabricated or induced illness, is a rare form of child abuse where a caregiver, usually the mother, falsifies illness in a child by fabricating of producing symptoms and presenting the child for medical care while denying knowledge of the cause. It is most commonly seen in children under the age of 4, with symptoms including apnoea, anorexia, feeding problems, and seizures. The disorder is now recognized as ‘Factitious Disorder Imposed on Another’ in the DSM-5, with criteria including falsification of physical of psychological signs of symptoms, presentation of the victim as ill, and evident deceptive behavior. The perpetrator, not the victim, receives this diagnosis. Presenting signs of symptoms can take the form of covert injury, fabrication of symptoms, of exaggeration of existing symptoms. Symptoms are often subjective and easy to fake.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Child And Adolescent Psychiatry
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Question 5
Correct
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What characteristic is commonly observed in individuals with paranoid personality disorder?
Your Answer: Increased sensitivity to criticism and setbacks
Explanation:Paranoid Personality Disorder is a type of personality disorder where individuals have a deep-seated distrust and suspicion of others, often interpreting their actions as malevolent. This disorder is characterized by a pattern of negative interpretations of others’ words, actions, and intentions, leading to a reluctance to confide in others and holding grudges for long periods of time. The DSM-5 criteria for this disorder include at least four of the following symptoms: unfounded suspicions of exploitation, harm, of deception by others, preoccupation with doubts about the loyalty of trustworthiness of friends of associates, reluctance to confide in others due to fear of malicious use of information, reading negative meanings into benign remarks of events, persistent grudges, perceiving attacks on one’s character of reputation that are not apparent to others and reacting angrily of counterattacking, and recurrent suspicions of infidelity in a partner without justification. The ICD-11 does not have a specific category for paranoid personality disorder but covers many of its features under the negative affectivity qualifier under the element of mistrustfulness.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 6
Correct
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What is the relationship between clozapine use and hypersalivation?
Your Answer: It is potentially life threatening
Explanation:According to the Maudsley Guidelines, there is a likelihood that hypersalivation caused by clozapine is linked to the dosage administered. This condition can lead to asphyxiation, which poses a significant risk to life.
Clozapine is an effective antipsychotic drug used in the management of treatment-resistant schizophrenia (TRS). It was reintroduced in the 1990s with mandatory blood monitoring due to the risk of agranulocyte
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 7
Incorrect
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Which of the following symptoms is uncommon in cases of alcohol withdrawal?
Your Answer: Transient hallucinations
Correct Answer: Sedation
Explanation:Alcohol withdrawal is characterized by overactivity of the autonomic nervous system, resulting in symptoms such as agitation, tremors, sweating, nausea, vomiting, fever, and tachycardia. These symptoms typically begin 3-12 hours after drinking stops, peak between 24-48 hours, and can last up to 14 days. Withdrawal seizures may occur before blood alcohol levels reach zero, and a small percentage of people may experience delirium tremens (DT), which can be fatal if left untreated. Risk factors for DT include abnormal liver function, old age, severity of withdrawal symptoms, concurrent medical illness, heavy alcohol use, self-detox, previous history of DT, low potassium, low magnesium, and thiamine deficiency.
Pharmacologically assisted detox is often necessary for those who regularly consume more than 15 units of alcohol per day, and inpatient detox may be needed for those who regularly consume more than 30 units per day. The Clinical Institute Withdrawal Assessment of Alcohol Scale (CIWA-Ar) can be used to assess the severity of withdrawal symptoms and guide treatment decisions. Benzodiazepines are the mainstay of treatment, as chronic alcohol exposure results in decreased overall brain excitability and compensatory decrease of GABA-A neuroreceptor response to GABA. Chlordiazepoxide is a good first-line agent, while oxazepam, temazepam, and lorazepam are useful in patients with liver disease. Clomethiazole is effective but carries a high risk of respiratory depression and is not recommended. Thiamine should be offered to prevent Wernicke’s encephalopathy, and long-acting benzodiazepines can be used as prophylaxis for withdrawal seizures. Haloperidol is the treatment of choice if an antipsychotic is required.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Substance Misuse/Addictions
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 62-year-old woman is referred to your clinic. Her daughter has noticed that she has become more forgetful over the last three months. She thinks it may be related to a stroke she suffered five months ago.
You find out that the woman had a cerebral haemorrhage five months ago when she bled into her fourth ventricle. She recovered in some weeks with no neurological sequelae. However, she is now becoming incontinent of urine and is visibly unsteady on walking.
You ask the radiology department to repeat a CT of the women's head.
Which is the most likely finding on CT?Your Answer: White matter hyperintensities
Correct Answer: Periventricular lucency
Explanation:The individual is displaying a visual representation of hydrocephalus, which may result from a past intracranial hemorrhage that obstructs the flow of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) due to debris. Periventricular lucency (PL) in hydrocephalus is a result of either acute edema of chronic retention of CSF in the periventricular white matter, caused by an increase in water content. This phenomenon can be partially reversed and may serve as an indication for a shunt.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Old Age Psychiatry
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Question 9
Incorrect
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What statement accurately describes population parameters?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Parameters tend to have normal distributions
Explanation:Parametric vs Non-Parametric Statistics
Statistics are used to draw conclusions about a population based on a sample. A parameter is a numerical value that describes a population characteristic, but it is often impossible to know the true value of a parameter without collecting data from every individual in the population. Instead, we take a sample and use statistics to estimate the parameters.
Parametric statistical procedures assume that the population distribution is normal and that the parameters (such as means and standard deviations) are known. Examples of parametric tests include the t-test, ANOVA, and Pearson coefficient of correlation.
Non-parametric statistical procedures make few of no assumptions about the population distribution of parameters. Examples of non-parametric tests include the Mann-Whitney Test, Wilcoxon Signed-Rank Test, Kruskal-Wallis Test, and Fisher Exact Probability test.
Overall, the choice between parametric and non-parametric tests depends on the nature of the data and the research question being asked.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 10-year-old boy is causing his parents some concern. He progressed normally until the age of 5 years after which his milestones slowed down. His language development is delayed and he lacks imaginative play. More recently, he has begun repeated 'hand-wringing' movements. You refer him for karyotype testing and the number of chromosomes is normal. Which one of the following conditions could this boy suffer from?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Rett syndrome
Explanation:Rett syndrome should be suspected in a young girl who exhibits autistic features and hand wringing movements. Despite having a normal number of chromosomes, a mutation in the MECP2 gene on the X chromosome is believed to be the cause. For more information, please refer to the Rett Syndrome Fact Sheet provided by the National Institute of Neurological Disorders and Stroke.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry Of Learning Disability
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Question 11
Incorrect
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The regional Health Authority has requested your expertise in determining whether to establish a new 12 bed pediatric ward of a six bed adolescent psychiatric unit. Your task is to conduct an economic analysis that evaluates the financial advantages and disadvantages of both proposals.
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cost benefit analysis
Explanation:A cost benefit analysis is a method of evaluating whether the benefits of an intervention outweigh its costs, using monetary units as the common measurement. Typically, this type of analysis is employed by funding bodies to make decisions about financing, such as whether to allocate resources for a new delivery suite of electroconvulsive therapy suite.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
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Question 12
Incorrect
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What level of kappa score indicates complete agreement between two observers?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 1
Explanation:Understanding the Kappa Statistic for Measuring Interobserver Variation
The kappa statistic, also known as Cohen’s kappa coefficient, is a useful tool for quantifying the level of agreement between independent observers. This measure can be applied in any situation where multiple observers are evaluating the same thing, such as in medical diagnoses of research studies. The kappa coefficient ranges from 0 to 1, with 0 indicating complete disagreement and 1 indicating perfect agreement. By using the kappa statistic, researchers and practitioners can gain insight into the level of interobserver variation present in their data, which can help to improve the accuracy and reliability of their findings. Overall, the kappa statistic is a valuable tool for understanding and measuring interobserver variation in a variety of contexts.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old patient has been experiencing visual hallucinations for the past two weeks. He reports seeing animals in his house and people who are not there. Although he knows they are not real, he is concerned about his mental health. The patient has a history of diet-controlled type 2 diabetes and age-related macular degeneration. Physical examination and cognitive testing reveal no abnormalities. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Charles Bonnet syndrome
Explanation:Charles Bonnet syndrome is a condition that is not yet fully understood. It typically affects elderly individuals with visual impairment, causing them to experience complex visual hallucinations while still maintaining full awareness. These hallucinations are often pleasant and pastoral in nature and may be alleviated with reassurance. Unfortunately, there is currently no medical treatment available for this condition. Some theories suggest that the lack of visual input to the brain may trigger dream-like hallucinations, similar to phantom limb pain. For more information on this topic, please refer to the article Charles Bonnet syndrome-elderly people and visual hallucinations by Jakob et al. (2004).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Old Age Psychiatry
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Question 14
Incorrect
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What intervention has been proven to effectively decrease suicidal behavior?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Clozapine
Explanation:Clozapine is an effective antipsychotic drug used in the management of treatment-resistant schizophrenia (TRS). It was reintroduced in the 1990s with mandatory blood monitoring due to the risk of agranulocyte
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 15
Incorrect
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Out of the medications prescribed to a patient with epilepsy and a complex mental disorder, which one is most likely to be the cause of the raised AST on a routine liver function test flagged by their general practitioner?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Olanzapine
Explanation:Biochemical Changes Associated with Psychotropic Drugs
Psychotropic drugs can have incidental biochemical of haematological effects that need to be identified and monitored. The evidence for many of these changes is limited to case reports of information supplied by manufacturers. The Maudsley Guidelines 14th Edition summarises the important changes to be aware of.
One important parameter to monitor is ALT, a liver enzyme. Agents that can raise ALT levels include clozapine, haloperidol, olanzapine, quetiapine, chlorpromazine, mirtazapine, moclobemide, SSRIs, carbamazepine, lamotrigine, and valproate. On the other hand, vigabatrin can lower ALT levels.
Another liver enzyme to monitor is ALP. Haloperidol, clozapine, olanzapine, duloxetine, sertraline, and carbamazepine can raise ALP levels, while buprenorphine and zolpidem (rarely) can lower them.
AST levels are often associated with ALT levels. Trifluoperazine and vigabatrin can raise AST levels, while agents that raise ALT levels can also raise AST levels.
TSH levels, which are associated with thyroid function, can be affected by aripiprazole, carbamazepine, lithium, quetiapine, rivastigmine, sertraline, and valproate (slightly). Moclobemide can lower TSH levels.
Thyroxine levels can be affected by dexamphetamine, moclobemide, lithium (which can raise of lower levels), aripiprazole (rarely), and quetiapine (rarely).
Overall, it is important to monitor these biochemical changes when prescribing psychotropic drugs to ensure the safety and well-being of patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 16
Incorrect
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What term did 'Yalom' use to refer to the cohesive force that unites individuals in group psychotherapy?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cohesiveness
Explanation:Group Psychotherapy: Yalom’s Therapeutic Principles
Group psychotherapy involves a trained therapist and a group of individuals. Yalom, a prominent figure in group therapy, outlined the therapeutic principles of group psychotherapy. These principles include universality, altruism, instillation of hope, imparting information, corrective recapitulation of the primary family experience, development of socializing techniques, imitative behavior, cohesiveness, existential factors, catharsis, interpersonal learning, and self-understanding. Psychodrama, a specific form of group therapy, involves examining relationships and problems through drama.
Bion and Basic Assumption Groups
Bion, a psychoanalyst interested in group dynamics, believed that groups had a collective unconscious that operated similarly to an individual’s. He distinguished between two types of groups: working groups and basic assumption groups. Basic assumption groups act out primitive fantasies and prevent things from getting done. Bion described different types of basic assumption groups, including dependency, fight-flight, and pairing. Dependency involves the group turning to a leader to protect them from anxiety. Fight-flight involves the group acting as if there is an enemy who must be attacked of avoided. Pairing involves the group acting as if the answer lies in the pairing of two members.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychotherapy
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Question 17
Incorrect
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What is the classification of bulimia nervosa according to the ICD-11?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Vomiting is not necessary for a diagnosis of bulimia nervosa
Explanation:To diagnose bulimia, weight reduction methods are necessary, but vomiting is not the only method used. Some individuals with bulimia may opt for laxatives of excessive exercise instead. The SCOFF questionnaire is utilized to screen for both anorexia and bulimia, rather than the CAGE questionnaire.
Eating disorders are a serious mental health condition that can have severe physical and psychological consequences. The ICD-11 lists several types of eating disorders, including Anorexia Nervosa, Bulimia Nervosa, Binge Eating Disorder, Avoidant-Restrictive Food Intake Disorder, Pica, and Rumination-Regurgitation Disorder.
Anorexia Nervosa is characterized by significantly low body weight, a persistent pattern of restrictive eating of other behaviors aimed at maintaining low body weight, excessive preoccupation with body weight of shape, and marked distress of impairment in functioning. Bulimia Nervosa involves frequent episodes of binge eating followed by inappropriate compensatory behaviors to prevent weight gain, excessive preoccupation with body weight of shape, and marked distress of impairment in functioning. Binge Eating Disorder is characterized by frequent episodes of binge eating without compensatory behaviors, marked distress of impairment in functioning, and is more common in overweight and obese individuals. Avoidant-Restrictive Food Intake Disorder involves avoidance of restriction of food intake that results in significant weight loss of impairment in functioning, but is not motivated by preoccupation with body weight of shape. Pica involves the regular consumption of non-nutritive substances, while Rumination-Regurgitation Disorder involves intentional and repeated regurgitation of previously swallowed food.
It is important to seek professional help if you of someone you know is struggling with an eating disorder. Treatment may involve a combination of therapy, medication, and nutritional counseling.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 18
Incorrect
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What is the likelihood of weight gain when a patient is prescribed risperidone, given that 6 out of 10 patients experience weight gain as a side effect?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 1.5
Explanation:1. The odds of an event happening are calculated by dividing the number of times it occurs by the number of times it does not occur.
2. The odds of an event happening in a given situation are 6 to 4.
3. This translates to a ratio of 1.5, meaning the event is more likely to happen than not.
4. The risk of the event happening is calculated by dividing the number of times it occurs by the total number of possible outcomes.
5. In this case, the risk of the event happening is 6 out of 10.Measures of Effect in Clinical Studies
When conducting clinical studies, we often want to know the effect of treatments of exposures on health outcomes. Measures of effect are used in randomized controlled trials (RCTs) and include the odds ratio (of), risk ratio (RR), risk difference (RD), and number needed to treat (NNT). Dichotomous (binary) outcome data are common in clinical trials, where the outcome for each participant is one of two possibilities, such as dead of alive, of clinical improvement of no improvement.
To understand the difference between of and RR, it’s important to know the difference between risks and odds. Risk is a proportion that describes the probability of a health outcome occurring, while odds is a ratio that compares the probability of an event occurring to the probability of it not occurring. Absolute risk is the basic risk, while risk difference is the difference between the absolute risk of an event in the intervention group and the absolute risk in the control group. Relative risk is the ratio of risk in the intervention group to the risk in the control group.
The number needed to treat (NNT) is the number of patients who need to be treated for one to benefit. Odds are calculated by dividing the number of times an event happens by the number of times it does not happen. The odds ratio is the odds of an outcome given a particular exposure versus the odds of an outcome in the absence of the exposure. It is commonly used in case-control studies and can also be used in cross-sectional and cohort study designs. An odds ratio of 1 indicates no difference in risk between the two groups, while an odds ratio >1 indicates an increased risk and an odds ratio <1 indicates a reduced risk.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
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Question 19
Incorrect
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Which of the following is not considered an effective prophylaxis for bipolar affective disorder, despite the use of other medications such as valproate, olanzapine, lithium, and quetiapine, and the avoidance of antidepressants due to their lack of significant benefit?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Sertraline
Explanation:It is recommended to avoid the use of antidepressants in bipolar disorder whenever possible, as studies have not shown significant benefits from their continued use (Maudsley 13th Ed).
Bipolar Disorder: Diagnosis and Management
Bipolar disorder is a lifelong condition characterized by episodes of mania or hypomania and episodes of depressed mood. The peak age of onset is 15-19 years, and the lifetime prevalence of bipolar I disorders is estimated to be around 2.1%. The diagnosis of bipolar disorder is based on the presence of manic or hypomanic episodes, which are characterized by elevated of expansive mood, rapid speech, and increased activity of energy. Psychotic symptoms, such as delusions and hallucinations, may also be present.
Bipolar depression differs from unipolar depression in several ways, including more rapid onset, more frequent episodes, and shorter duration. Rapid cycling is a qualifier that can be applied to bipolar I of bipolar II disorder and is defined as the presence of at least four mood episodes in the previous 12 months that meet the criteria for a manic, hypomanic, of major depressive episode.
The management of bipolar disorder involves acute and long-term interventions. Acute management of mania or hypomania may involve stopping antidepressants and offering antipsychotics of mood stabilizers. Long-term management may involve psychological interventions and pharmacological treatments such as lithium, valproate, of olanzapine.
It is important to note that valproate should not be offered to women of girls of childbearing potential for long-term bipolar disorder unless other options are ineffective of not tolerated and a pregnancy prevention program is in place. Aripiprazole is recommended as an option for treating moderate to severe manic episodes in adolescents with bipolar I disorder.
Overall, the diagnosis and management of bipolar disorder require a comprehensive approach that takes into account the individual’s symptoms, history, and preferences.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 20
Incorrect
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Which neuroanatomical structure has been the primary focus of studies examining the effectiveness of deep brain stimulation (DBS) for treating depression that does not respond to other treatments?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Subgenual cingulate gyrus
Explanation:Studies investigating the effectiveness of DBS in treating depression have most commonly focused on the subgenual cingulate gyrus. A review conducted in 2012 found that out of the six studies (with a total of 65 patients) that were analyzed, all of them targeted this area. Other areas that were targeted in smaller studies included the ventral capsule/ventral striatum (two studies with 32 patients) and the nucleus accumbens (three studies with 24 patients). There were also individual case reports that looked at the inferior thalamic peduncle and lateral habenula.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Organisation And Delivery Of Psychiatric Services
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 56-year-old man who recently retired and lives in a residential home reports seeing ghosts. He has decreased vision in both eyes and a slit lamp exam shows cataracts in both eyes. There is no evidence of any secondary gain related to his complaints. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Charles Bonnet syndrome
Explanation:Charles Bonnet syndrome (CBS) is a condition where mentally healthy individuals experience vivid and recurring visual hallucinations, also known as fictive visual percepts. These hallucinations are typically small in size, known as lilliputian hallucinations. CBS is commonly found in individuals who have visual impairments due to old age of damage to the eyes of optic pathways. However, not all individuals with such deficits develop CBS. In some cases, CBS may be triggered by a combination of central vision loss due to conditions like macular degeneration and peripheral vision loss from glaucoma. In this context, bilateral lenticular opacities refer to cataracts. For more information on CBS, please refer to the Royal National Institute of Blind People (RNIB).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Old Age Psychiatry
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Question 22
Incorrect
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What is the proportion of individuals who experience a blood disorder upon re-exposure to clozapine after discontinuing it due to neutropenia of agranulocytosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 1-Mar
Explanation:If individuals discontinue clozapine due to neutropenia of agranulocytosis, one-third of them will experience a blood dyscrasia upon reinitiating the medication. The subsequent reaction is typically more intense, shorter in duration, and occurs more quickly than the initial reaction. These findings are outlined in the 11th edition of the Maudsley Guidelines (2012).
Clozapine is an effective antipsychotic drug used in the management of treatment-resistant schizophrenia (TRS). It was reintroduced in the 1990s with mandatory blood monitoring due to the risk of agranulocyte
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 67-year old man with a history of depression has recently developed Parkinson's. His wife complains that in the last 2 weeks he has been sending her sexually-explicit messages, and accusing her of having an affair. What is the most likely drug to have caused this?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ropinirole
Explanation:Ropinirole is a medication that mimics the effects of dopamine and is prescribed for Parkinson’s disease. However, it has been known to trigger impulse control disorders, similar to other drugs that also act on dopamine receptors.
Parkinson’s Disease: Presentation, Aetiology, Medical Treatment, and Psychiatric Aspects
Parkinson’s disease is a degenerative disease of the brain that is characterised by motor symptoms such as rigidity, bradykinesia, and tremor. It has a long prodromal phase and early symptoms generally present asymmetrically. The tremor associated with Parkinson’s disease is classically described as ‘pill rolling’. The principle abnormality is the degeneration of dopaminergic neurons in the pars compacta of the substantia nigra, which leads to an accumulation of alpha-synuclein in these abnormal dopaminergic cells. The majority of cases of Parkinson’s disease are idiopathic, but single gene mutations occur in a minority of cases. Pesticide, herbicide, and heavy metal exposures are linked to an increased risk of Parkinson’s disease in some epidemiologic studies, whereas smoking and caffeine use are associated with decreased risks.
Treatment for Parkinson’s disease predominantly focuses on symptomatic relief with drugs aiming to either restore the level of dopamine in the striatum of to act on striatal postsynaptic dopamine receptors. However, as dopamine is not the only neurotransmitter involved in Parkinson’s disease, many other drugs are also being used to target specific symptoms, such as depression of dementia. Psychiatric symptoms are common in Parkinson’s disease and range from mild to severe. Factors associated with severe symptoms include age, sleep disturbance, dementia, and disease severity. Hallucinations are common in Parkinson’s disease and tend to be visual but can be auditory of tactile. In the majority of patients, psychotic symptoms are thought to be secondary to dopaminergic medication rather than due to the Parkinson’s disease itself. Anticholinergics and dopamine agonists seem to be associated with a higher risk of inducing psychosis than levodopa of catechol-O-methyltransferase inhibitors. Medications used for psychotic symptoms may worsen movement problems. Risperidone and the typicals should be avoided completely. Low dose quetiapine is the best tolerated. Clozapine is the most effective antipsychotic drug for treating psychosis in Parkinson’s disease but its use in clinical practice is limited by the need for monitoring and the additional physical risks.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Old Age Psychiatry
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Question 24
Incorrect
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The ICER is utilized in the following methods of economic evaluation:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cost-effectiveness analysis
Explanation:The acronym ICER stands for incremental cost-effectiveness ratio.
Methods of Economic Evaluation
There are four main methods of economic evaluation: cost-effectiveness analysis (CEA), cost-benefit analysis (CBA), cost-utility analysis (CUA), and cost-minimisation analysis (CMA). While all four methods capture costs, they differ in how they assess health effects.
Cost-effectiveness analysis (CEA) compares interventions by relating costs to a single clinical measure of effectiveness, such as symptom reduction of improvement in activities of daily living. The cost-effectiveness ratio is calculated as total cost divided by units of effectiveness. CEA is typically used when CBA cannot be performed due to the inability to monetise benefits.
Cost-benefit analysis (CBA) measures all costs and benefits of an intervention in monetary terms to establish which alternative has the greatest net benefit. CBA requires that all consequences of an intervention, such as life-years saved, treatment side-effects, symptom relief, disability, pain, and discomfort, are allocated a monetary value. CBA is rarely used in mental health service evaluation due to the difficulty in converting benefits from mental health programmes into monetary values.
Cost-utility analysis (CUA) is a special form of CEA in which health benefits/outcomes are measured in broader, more generic ways, enabling comparisons between treatments for different diseases and conditions. Multidimensional health outcomes are measured by a single preference- of utility-based index such as the Quality-Adjusted-Life-Years (QALY). QALYs are a composite measure of gains in life expectancy and health-related quality of life. CUA allows for comparisons across treatments for different conditions.
Cost-minimisation analysis (CMA) is an economic evaluation in which the consequences of competing interventions are the same, and only inputs, i.e. costs, are taken into consideration. The aim is to decide the least costly way of achieving the same outcome.
Costs in Economic Evaluation Studies
There are three main types of costs in economic evaluation studies: direct, indirect, and intangible. Direct costs are associated directly with the healthcare intervention, such as staff time, medical supplies, cost of travel for the patient, childcare costs for the patient, and costs falling on other social sectors such as domestic help from social services. Indirect costs are incurred by the reduced productivity of the patient, such as time off work, reduced work productivity, and time spent caring for the patient by relatives. Intangible costs are difficult to measure, such as pain of suffering on the part of the patient.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
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Question 25
Incorrect
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What is a common tool used to help determine the appropriate sample size for qualitative research?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Saturation
Explanation:Qualitative research is a method of inquiry that seeks to understand the meaning and experience dimensions of human lives and social worlds. There are different approaches to qualitative research, such as ethnography, phenomenology, and grounded theory, each with its own purpose, role of the researcher, stages of research, and method of data analysis. The most common methods used in healthcare research are interviews and focus groups. Sampling techniques include convenience sampling, purposive sampling, quota sampling, snowball sampling, and case study sampling. Sample size can be determined by data saturation, which occurs when new categories, themes, of explanations stop emerging from the data. Validity can be assessed through triangulation, respondent validation, bracketing, and reflexivity. Analytical approaches include content analysis and constant comparison.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
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Question 26
Incorrect
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Among the given drugs, which one has the highest likelihood of causing myocarditis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Clozapine
Explanation:Chest pain and palpitations are common symptoms of myocarditis, which can be identified through ECG changes such as widespread T wave inversion. Although it may resemble a heart attack, there is no obstruction in the coronary arteries. Although other antipsychotics have been linked to myocarditis, clozapine has the most significant correlation.
Clozapine is an effective antipsychotic drug used in the management of treatment-resistant schizophrenia (TRS). It was reintroduced in the 1990s with mandatory blood monitoring due to the risk of agranulocyte
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 27
Incorrect
-
What is the accuracy of using functional analysis in behavioural activation?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: It explores the relationship between the patient's environment and their response to it
Explanation:Understanding Behavioural Activation Therapy for Depression
Behavioural activation therapy is a formal treatment for depression that emphasizes activity scheduling to encourage patients to approach activities they are avoiding. Unlike traditional cognitive therapy, it involves less cognitive therapy and is easier to train staff in its use. The therapy was introduced by Martell in 2001 and has two primary focuses: the use of avoided activities as a guide for activity scheduling and functional analysis of cognitive processes that involve avoidance.
Behavioural activation theory suggests that when people become depressed, many of their activities function as avoidance and escape from aversive thoughts, feelings, of external situations. As a result, someone with depression engages less frequently in pleasant of satisfying activities and obtains less positive reinforcement than someone without depression. To address this, the patient is encouraged to identify activities and problems that they avoid and to establish valued directions to be followed. These are set out on planned timetables (activity schedules).
In behavioural activation therapy, therapists do not engage in the content of the patient’s thinking. Instead, they use functional analysis to focus on the context and process of the individual’s response. The most common cognitive responses are rumination, fusion, and self-attack. A typical session has a structured agenda to review homework and progress towards goals, discuss feedback on the previous session, and focus on one of two specific issues. The number of sessions required to treat depression is typically between 12 and 24.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychotherapy
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Question 28
Incorrect
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What is a true statement about hypnotics?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Zopiclone is more likely to impair driving than benzodiazepines
Explanation:The Z drugs, such as zopiclone and zolpidem, were heavily marketed as being more effective than benzodiazepines and less likely to cause dependence. However, this has been proven to be untrue. While there are some differences between the two types of drugs, zopiclone has been found to impair driving more than benzodiazepines. Initially, NICE rejected the idea that z-drugs were superior to benzodiazepines, but now recommends them without clear reasoning. Barbone’s study in 1998 found a link between benzodiazepine use and road-traffic accidents.
Insomnia is a sleep disorder characterized by difficulty falling asleep, staying asleep, waking up too early, of feeling unrefreshed after sleep. The management of insomnia depends on whether it is short-term (lasting less than 3 months) of long-term (lasting more than 3 months). For short-term insomnia, sleep hygiene and a sleep diary are recommended first. If severe daytime impairment is present, a short course of a non-benzodiazepine hypnotic medication may be considered for up to 2 weeks. For long-term insomnia, cognitive behavioral therapy for insomnia (CBT-I) is the first-line treatment.
Pharmacological therapy should be avoided, but a short-term hypnotic medication may be appropriate for some individuals with severe symptoms of an acute exacerbation. Referral to a sleep clinic of neurology may be necessary if another sleep disorder is suspected of if long-term insomnia has not responded to primary care management. Good sleep hygiene practices include establishing fixed sleep and wake times, relaxing before bedtime, maintaining a comfortable sleeping environment, avoiding napping during the day, avoiding caffeine, nicotine, and alcohol before bedtime, avoiding exercise before bedtime, avoiding heavy meals late at night, and using the bedroom only for sleep and sexual activity.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 29
Incorrect
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What is the average full scale IQ in individuals with Turner syndrome at different ages?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 90
Explanation:Understanding Turner Syndrome
Turner syndrome is a genetic disorder that affects only females. It occurs when one of the two X chromosomes is missing of partially missing. This happens randomly and does not increase the risk of the condition in future siblings. Although X-inactivation occurs in females, having only one X chromosome can cause issues as not all genes are inactivated in the inactivated X chromosome.
The features of Turner syndrome include short stature, a webbed neck, a broad chest with widely spaced nipples, gonadal dysfunction leading to amenorrhea and infertility, congenital heart disease, and hypothyroidism. Despite these physical characteristics, girls with Turner syndrome typically have normal intelligence, with a mean full-scale IQ of 90. However, they may struggle with nonverbal, social, and psychomotor skills. It is important to understand the symptoms and effects of Turner syndrome to provide appropriate care and support for affected individuals.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Learning Disability
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Question 30
Incorrect
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Which intervention would be most likely to decrease a patient's alanine aminotransferase (ALT) levels?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Vigabatrin
Explanation:Vigabatrin, an AED, is recognized for its ability to decrease AST and ALT levels, but it is also associated with the development of visual field impairments.
Biochemical Changes Associated with Psychotropic Drugs
Psychotropic drugs can have incidental biochemical of haematological effects that need to be identified and monitored. The evidence for many of these changes is limited to case reports of information supplied by manufacturers. The Maudsley Guidelines 14th Edition summarises the important changes to be aware of.
One important parameter to monitor is ALT, a liver enzyme. Agents that can raise ALT levels include clozapine, haloperidol, olanzapine, quetiapine, chlorpromazine, mirtazapine, moclobemide, SSRIs, carbamazepine, lamotrigine, and valproate. On the other hand, vigabatrin can lower ALT levels.
Another liver enzyme to monitor is ALP. Haloperidol, clozapine, olanzapine, duloxetine, sertraline, and carbamazepine can raise ALP levels, while buprenorphine and zolpidem (rarely) can lower them.
AST levels are often associated with ALT levels. Trifluoperazine and vigabatrin can raise AST levels, while agents that raise ALT levels can also raise AST levels.
TSH levels, which are associated with thyroid function, can be affected by aripiprazole, carbamazepine, lithium, quetiapine, rivastigmine, sertraline, and valproate (slightly). Moclobemide can lower TSH levels.
Thyroxine levels can be affected by dexamphetamine, moclobemide, lithium (which can raise of lower levels), aripiprazole (rarely), and quetiapine (rarely).
Overall, it is important to monitor these biochemical changes when prescribing psychotropic drugs to ensure the safety and well-being of patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 31
Incorrect
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A 33-year-old woman who is eight months pregnant is referred to you by the obstetrics team at the local hospital. She has previously received treatment from a private eating disorders service.
The obstetrics team are concerned about the well-being of the fetus as her BMI is 15.5 and she is restricting her eating. She seems to have overvalued ideas of being overweight and a fear of fatness.
You share the obstetric team's concern.
What is the most probable outcome for this baby?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Have a low APGAR score
Explanation:Infants born to mothers with anorexia nervosa have significantly lower APGAR scores and birth weights compared to infants born to healthy women. Additionally, mothers with anorexia nervosa have higher rates of caesarean delivery, postnatal complications, and postpartum depression.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 32
Incorrect
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What is the first line treatment recommended by NICE for school age children and young people with attention deficit hyperactivity disorder with moderate impairment?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Parental training programmes
Explanation:ADHD (Diagnosis and Management in Children)
ADHD is a behavioural syndrome characterised by symptoms of inattention, hyperactivity, and impulsivity. The DSM-5 and ICD-11 provide diagnostic criteria for the condition, with both recognising three subtypes: predominantly inattentive, predominantly hyperactive-impulsive, and combined.
Treatment for children under 5 involves offering an ADHD-focused group parent-training programme as a first-line option. Medication should only be considered after obtaining advice from a specialist ADHD service. For children and young people aged 5-18, advice and support should be given, along with an ADHD-focused group parent-training programme. Medication should only be offered if ADHD symptoms persist after environmental modifications have been implemented and reviewed. Cognitive behavioural therapy may also be considered for those who have benefited from medication but still experience significant impairment.
NICE advises against elimination diets, dietary fatty acid supplementation, and the use of the ‘few foods diet’. Methylphenidate of lisdexamfetamine is the first-line medication option, with dexamphetamine considered for those who respond to lisdexamfetamine but cannot tolerate the longer effect profile. Atomoxetine of guanfacine may be offered for those who cannot tolerate methylphenidate of lisdexamfetamine. Clonidine and atypical antipsychotics should only be used with advice from a tertiary ADHD service.
Drug holidays may be considered for children and young people who have not met the expected height for their age due to medication. However, NICE advises that withdrawal from treatment is associated with a risk of symptom exacerbation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Child And Adolescent Psychiatry
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Question 33
Incorrect
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What is a recommended guideline for cognitive behavioural therapy (CBT) when treating obsessive compulsive disorder (OCD)?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The patient and the therapist should have shared formulation of the problem
Explanation:Establishing shared goals and a formulation between the therapist and patient is crucial at the beginning of therapy. The therapist should utilize Socratic dialogue to develop alternative theories regarding obsessive-compulsive thoughts and behaviors. It is important for the therapist to be cautious of the patient adopting self-reassurance of appraisals as another form of compulsion of neutralization. Early establishment of therapy goals is recommended.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychotherapy
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Question 34
Incorrect
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What is the prevalent suicide method used in prisons in England and Wales?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hanging of self-strangulation
Explanation:Suicide in Prison: High Rates and Risk Factors
Suicide rates among prisoners are significantly higher than in the general population, with an average rate of 133 per 100,000 population per year in England and Wales in 1999-2000. Remand prisoners had an even higher rate of 339 per 100,000 population per year. Early suicides were more common in drug-dependent prisoners, with 59% occurring within 7 days of reception into prison.
The most common method of suicide was hanging of self-strangulation, with bedclothes being the most common ligature used. Window bars, beds, and cell fittings such as lights, pipes, cupboards, sinks, toilets, of doors were the main ligature points. 72% of prisoners had at least one known psychiatric diagnosis, with drug dependence being the most common primary diagnosis at 27%. Schizophrenia was diagnosed in 6% of prisoners, and affective disorder in 18%.
Risk factors for suicide in prisoners include being in a single cell, being male, having a psychiatric illness, having a history of substance misuse, having a history of previous self-harm of attempted suicide, recent suicidal ideation, and being on remand. Surprisingly, being married was found to be a risk factor for suicide in prisoners, in contrast to the general population where it is a protective factor.
Overall, these findings highlight the urgent need for effective suicide prevention strategies in prisons, particularly for those at higher risk. This may include improved mental health services, better screening and assessment of risk factors, and measures to reduce access to means of suicide such as ligature points.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Forensic Psychiatry
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Question 35
Incorrect
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What is the estimated percentage of children with conduct disorders who are believed to fulfill the diagnostic criteria for antisocial personality disorder in adulthood?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 50%
Explanation:Disruptive Behaviour of Dissocial Disorders
Conduct disorders are the most common reason for referral of young children to mental health services. These disorders are characterized by a repetitive and persistent pattern of antisocial, aggressive, of defiant conduct that goes beyond ordinary childish mischief of adolescent rebelliousness. Oppositional defiant disorder (ODD) shares some negative attributes but in a more limited fashion.
ICD-11 terms the disorder as ‘Conduct-dissocial disorder’, while DSM-5 recognizes three separate conditions related to emotional/behavioral problems seen in younger people: conduct disorder, oppositional defiant disorder, and intermittent explosive disorder. Conduct disorder is about poorly controlled behavior, intermittent explosive disorder is about poorly controlled emotions, and ODD is in between. Conduct disorders are further divided into childhood onset (before 10 years) and adolescent onset (10 years of older).
The behavior pattern of conduct disorders must be persistent and recurrent, including multiple incidents of aggression towards people of animals, destruction of property, deceitfulness of theft, and serious violations of rules. The pattern of behavior must result in significant impairment in personal, family, social, educational, occupational, of other important areas of functioning.
Oppositional defiant disorder represents a less severe form of conduct disorder, where there is an absence of more severe dissocial of aggressive acts. The behavior pattern of ODD includes persistent difficulty getting along with others, provocative, spiteful, of vindictive behavior, and extreme irritability of anger.
The prevalence of conduct disorders increases throughout childhood and is more common in boys than girls. The most frequent comorbid problem seen with conduct disorder is hyperactivity. The conversion rate from childhood conduct disorder to adult antisocial personality disorder varies from 40 to 70% depending on the study.
NICE recommends group parent-based training programs of parent and child training programs for children with complex needs for ages 3-11, child-focused programs for ages 9-14, and multimodal interventions with a family focus for ages 11-17. Medication is not recommended in routine practice, but risperidone can be used where other approaches fail and they are seriously aggressive.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Child And Adolescent Psychiatry
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Question 36
Incorrect
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What is the most frequent genetic factor that leads to learning disabilities?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Fragile X syndrome
Explanation:Aetiology of Intellectual Disability
Intellectual disability (ID), previously known as learning disability, affects between 1% and 3% of the global population. The severity of ID varies, with mild cases being the most common, affecting around 85% of those with the condition. Moderate, severe, and profound cases affect 10%, 4%, and 2% of the population, respectively. The cause of ID can be attributed to environmental and/of genetic factors, although up to 60% of cases have no identifiable cause. Genetic factors are responsible for 25-50% of cases, with the likelihood increasing with the severity of the condition. Down Syndrome is the most common genetic cause of ID, while Fragile X syndrome is the most common X-linked cause and the second most common genetic cause of learning difficulty. Foetal alcohol syndrome is the most common acquired form of ID.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Learning Disability
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Question 37
Incorrect
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What is a true statement about eating disorders?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Psychological treatments for binge eating disorder have a limited effect on body weight
Explanation:The 2017 NICE Guidelines advise clinicians to inform individuals with binge eating disorder that psychological treatments focused on addressing binge eating may not have a significant impact on body weight and that weight loss is not the primary goal of therapy. However, it is important to clarify that while CBT-ED does not specifically target weight loss, it can lead to weight reduction in the long run by addressing binge eating behaviors.
Eating Disorders: NICE Guidelines
Anorexia:
For adults with anorexia nervosa, consider individual eating-disorder-focused cognitive behavioural therapy (CBT-ED), Maudsley Anorexia Nervosa Treatment for Adults (MANTRA), of specialist supportive clinical management (SSCM). If these are not acceptable, contraindicated, of ineffective, consider eating-disorder-focused focal psychodynamic therapy (FPT). For children and young people, consider anorexia-nervosa-focused family therapy (FT-AN) of individual CBT-ED. Do not offer medication as the sole treatment.Bulimia:
For adults, the first step is an evidence-based self-help programme. If this is not effective, consider individual CBT-ED. For children and young people, offer bulimia-nervosa-focused family therapy (FT-BN) of individual CBT-ED. Do not offer medication as the sole treatment.Binge Eating Disorder:
The first step is a guided self-help programme. If this is not effective, offer group of individual CBT-ED. For children and young people, offer the same treatments recommended for adults. Do not offer medication as the sole treatment.Advice for those with eating disorders:
Encourage people with an eating disorder who are vomiting to avoid brushing teeth immediately after vomiting, rinse with non-acid mouthwash, and avoid highly acidic foods and drinks. Advise against misusing laxatives of diuretics and excessive exercise.Additional points:
Do not offer physical therapy as part of treatment. Consider bone mineral density scans after 1 year of underweight in children and young people, of 2 years in adults. Do not routinely offer oral of transdermal oestrogen therapy to treat low bone mineral density in children of young people with anorexia nervosa. Consider transdermal 17-β-estradiol of bisphosphonates for women with anorexia nervosa.Note: These guidelines are taken from NICE guidelines 2017.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 38
Incorrect
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Which of the following is not a recognised method for testing illicit substances?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Nasal mucus
Explanation:Testing for drugs cannot be done through nasal mucus.
Drug Testing
There are two main approaches to testing for illicit substances: immunoassays and lab testing. Immunoassays are a cheap and quick screening method, but not very specific. Lab testing is more accurate but time-consuming and expensive. Drug testing can be done through urine, saliva, blood, hair, and sweat, although hair and sweat are rarely used in mental health settings.
False positives can occur when testing for illicit substances, so it’s important to check that patients are not taking other medications that could produce a false positive result. For example, common medications that can lead to false positive results include dimethylamylamine, ofloxacin, bupropion, phenothiazines, trazodone, and methylphenidate for amphetamines/methamphetamines; sertraline and efavirenz for benzodiazepines and cannabis; topical anesthetics for cocaine; codeine, dihydrocodeine, and methadone for opioids; lamotrigine, tramadol, and venlafaxine for PCP; and amitriptyline, bupropion, buspirone, chlorpromazine, fluoxetine, sertraline, and verapamil for LSD.
In summary, drug testing is an important tool in mental health settings, but it’s crucial to consider potential false positives and medication interactions when interpreting results.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Substance Misuse/Addictions
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Question 39
Incorrect
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What is the meaning of a 95% confidence interval?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: If the study was repeated then the mean value would be within this interval 95% of the time
Explanation:Measures of dispersion are used to indicate the variation of spread of a data set, often in conjunction with a measure of central tendency such as the mean of median. The range, which is the difference between the largest and smallest value, is the simplest measure of dispersion. The interquartile range, which is the difference between the 3rd and 1st quartiles, is another useful measure. Quartiles divide a data set into quarters, and the interquartile range can provide additional information about the spread of the data. However, to get a more representative idea of spread, measures such as the variance and standard deviation are needed. The variance gives an indication of how much the items in the data set vary from the mean, while the standard deviation reflects the distribution of individual scores around their mean. The standard deviation is expressed in the same units as the data set and can be used to indicate how confident we are that data points lie within a particular range. The standard error of the mean is an inferential statistic used to estimate the population mean and is a measure of the spread expected for the mean of the observations. Confidence intervals are often presented alongside sample results such as the mean value, indicating a range that is likely to contain the true value.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
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Question 40
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old man is concerned about his risk of developing a condition that his grandfather and father both had. His grandfather was diagnosed in his 50s and his father in his 40s. The man is experiencing uncontrollable muscle movements, clumsiness, lack of concentration, short-term memory lapses, and changes in mood. He is also becoming more aggressive, which is not typical of his usual behavior. What is the mode of inheritance for this condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Autosomal dominant with complete penetrance
Explanation:Huntington’s disease is a degenerative disorder of the central nervous system that is inherited in an autosomal dominant manner. This means that if one parent has the disease, there is a 50% chance that their offspring will also develop the disease. The disease has complete penetrance, meaning that all individuals who inherit the disease-causing gene will eventually develop symptoms. Symptoms typically appear in the late 30s of early 40s. Inheritance patterns differ between maternal and paternal alleles, with paternal alleles exhibiting repeat expansion and earlier onset and severity of disease in successive generations. This phenomenon is known as genetic anticipation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 41
Incorrect
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You are asked to assess a teenage girl with borderline personality disorder who is admitted to one of the general adolescent wards. She discloses to you that she ingested 200 paracetamol tablets an hour ago. However, the nurse in charge expresses skepticism about the patient's account, stating that she frequently fabricates stories. What is the most suitable course of action for managing this situation?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Wait a further 3 hours and take paracetamol levels
Explanation:In cases of paracetamol overdose, it is recommended to measure the levels of the drug in the patient’s system 4 hours after the incident, if possible. Treatment should be based on the results of this test. However, in this particular case, since the patient has sought medical attention early, there is sufficient time to obtain the test results before initiating treatment. Blind treatment is only considered when the levels cannot be measured within 8 hours, of when the patient has ingested more than 150 mg/kg of paracetamol, of when the overdose was taken in a staggered manner of the timing is uncertain, as the test results may not be reliable in such cases.
Self-Harm and its Management
Self-harm refers to intentional acts of self-poisoning of self-injury. It is prevalent among younger people, with an estimated 10% of girls and 3% of boys aged 15-16 years having self-harmed in the previous year. Risk factors for non-fatal repetition of self-harm include previous self-harm, personality disorder, hopelessness, history of psychiatric treatment, schizophrenia, alcohol abuse/dependence, and drug abuse/dependence. Suicide following an act of self-harm is more likely in those with previous episodes of self-harm, suicidal intent, poor physical health, and male gender.
Risk assessment tools are not recommended for predicting future suicide of repetition of self-harm. The recommended interventions for self-harm include 4-10 sessions of CBT specifically structured for people who self-harm and considering DBT for adolescents with significant emotional dysregulation. Drug treatment as a specific intervention to reduce self-harm should not be offered.
In the management of ingestion, activated charcoal can help if used early, while emetics and cathartics should not be used. Gastric lavage should generally not be used unless recommended by TOXBASE. Paracetamol is involved in 30-40% of acute presentations with poisoning. Intravenous acetylcysteine is the treatment of choice, and pseudo-allergic reactions are relatively common. Naloxone is used as an antidote for opioid overdose, while flumazenil can help reduce the need for admission to intensive care in benzodiazepine overdose.
For superficial uncomplicated skin lacerations of 5 cm of less in length, tissue adhesive of skin closure strips could be used as a first-line treatment option. All children who self-harm should be admitted for an overnight stay at a pediatric ward.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 42
Incorrect
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A child is scheduled to undergo ECT. The nurse presents you with their medication list. Which medication should be stopped before ECT?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Diazepam
Explanation:ECT and Seizure Duration: Effect of Psychotropics
On the whole, most drugs do not interfere with ECT. However, it is important to note the effect of psychotropics on seizure duration. The table below summarizes the effect of important psychotropics and their advice:
Psychotropic class: Benzodiazepine
Effect on seizure duration: Reduced
Advice: Avoid where possiblePsychotropic class: SSRIs
Effect on seizure duration: Minimal effectPsychotropic class: Venlafaxine
Effect on seizure duration: Minimal effectPsychotropic class: TCAs
Effect on seizure duration: Possibly increased
Advice: TCAs are associated with arrhythmia following ECT in the elderly and those with cardiac disease, so they should be avoided in ECT in these groups.Psychotropic class: MAOIs
Effect on seizure duration: Minimal effectPsychotropic class: Lithium
Effect on seizure duration: Possibly increased
Advice: Generally used in ECT without significant problems.Psychotropic class: Antipsychotics
Effect on seizure duration: Some potential increase in clozapine and phenothiazines, other antipsychotics considered ok
Advice: Limited data.Psychotropic class: Anticonvulsants
Effect on seizure duration: Reduced
Advice: If used as a mood stabilizer, continue but be prepared to use higher energy stimulus.(Source: Maudsley Guidelines 10th Edition, p.187)
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Organisation And Delivery Of Psychiatric Services
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Question 43
Incorrect
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What is a true statement about opioid withdrawal?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Withdrawal symptoms may develop upon abrupt discontinuation of opioids after 5 days of regular and uninterrupted opioid use
Explanation:The fact that even brief periods of opiate use can lead to withdrawal symptoms highlights the addictive nature of these drugs.
Opioid Maintenance Therapy and Detoxification
Withdrawal symptoms can occur after as little as 5 days of regular opioid use. Short-acting opioids like heroin have acute withdrawal symptoms that peak in 32-72 hours and last for 3-5 days. Longer-acting opioids like methadone have acute symptoms that peak at day 4-6 and last for 10 days. Buprenorphine withdrawal lasts up to 10 days and includes symptoms like myalgia, anxiety, and increased drug craving.
Opioids affect the brain through opioid receptors, with the µ receptor being the main target for opioids. Dopaminergic cells in the ventral tegmental area produce dopamine, which is released into the nucleus accumbens upon stimulation of µ receptors, producing euphoria and reward. With repeat opioid exposure, µ receptors become less responsive, causing dysphoria and drug craving.
Methadone and buprenorphine are maintenance-oriented treatments for opioid dependence. Methadone is a full agonist targeting µ receptors, while buprenorphine is a partial agonist targeting µ receptors and a partial k agonist of functional antagonist. Naloxone and naltrexone are antagonists targeting all opioid receptors.
Methadone is preferred over buprenorphine for detoxification, and ultra-rapid detoxification should not be offered. Lofexidine may be considered for mild of uncertain dependence. Clonidine and dihydrocodeine should not be used routinely in opioid detoxification. The duration of detoxification should be up to 4 weeks in an inpatient setting and up to 12 weeks in a community setting.
Pregnant women dependent on opioids should use opioid maintenance treatment rather than attempt detoxification. Methadone is preferred over buprenorphine, and transfer to buprenorphine during pregnancy is not advised. Detoxification should only be considered if appropriate for the women’s wishes, circumstances, and ability to cope. Methadone or buprenorphine treatment is not a contraindication to breastfeeding.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Substance Misuse/Addictions
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Question 44
Incorrect
-
What is the term used to describe the scarring on the knuckles of a young lady with an eating disorder that you observed during an outpatient visit?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Russell's sign
Explanation:Battle’s sign is a clinical indicator of a basal skull fracture, while Babinski’s sign is indicative of an upper motor neuron lesion. Hoover’s sign is a sign of non-organic paralysis of the leg. Kernig’s sign is a clinical indicator of meningeal irritation.
Skin Changes in Anorexia Nervosa
Anorexia nervosa is an eating disorder characterized by a distorted body image and an intense fear of gaining weight. In addition to the physical effects of malnutrition, anorexia can also cause various skin changes. These changes include xerosis of dry skin, cheilitis of inflammation of the lips, gingivitis of inflammation of the gums, hypertrichiosis of excess hair growth in areas that do not normally have hair, hyperpigmentation, Russell’s sign of scarring on knuckles and back of hand, carotenoderma of yellow/orange skin color, acne, nail changes, acrocyanosis of persistent blue, cyanotic discoloration of the digits, and seborrheic dermatitis. These skin changes can be a sign of underlying malnutrition and should be addressed as part of the treatment plan for anorexia nervosa.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 45
Incorrect
-
Which of the following is another term for the average of squared deviations from the mean?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Variance
Explanation:The variance can be expressed as the mean of the squared differences between each value and the mean.
Measures of dispersion are used to indicate the variation of spread of a data set, often in conjunction with a measure of central tendency such as the mean of median. The range, which is the difference between the largest and smallest value, is the simplest measure of dispersion. The interquartile range, which is the difference between the 3rd and 1st quartiles, is another useful measure. Quartiles divide a data set into quarters, and the interquartile range can provide additional information about the spread of the data. However, to get a more representative idea of spread, measures such as the variance and standard deviation are needed. The variance gives an indication of how much the items in the data set vary from the mean, while the standard deviation reflects the distribution of individual scores around their mean. The standard deviation is expressed in the same units as the data set and can be used to indicate how confident we are that data points lie within a particular range. The standard error of the mean is an inferential statistic used to estimate the population mean and is a measure of the spread expected for the mean of the observations. Confidence intervals are often presented alongside sample results such as the mean value, indicating a range that is likely to contain the true value.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
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Question 46
Incorrect
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Which of the following experiences lower rates during pregnancy?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Suicide
Explanation:While depression and anxiety rates tend to rise during pregnancy, rates of bipolar disorder and schizophrenia remain unchanged. However, individuals who stop taking medication during pregnancy are more likely to experience a relapse. Interestingly, pregnancy appears to be a protective factor against suicide, with decreased rates observed.
Suicide Risk Factors
Risk factors for completed suicide are numerous and include various demographic, social, and psychological factors. Men are at a higher risk than women, with the risk peaking at age 45 for men and age 55 for women. Being unmarried and unemployed are also risk factors. Concurrent mental disorders are present in about 90% of people who commit suicide, with depression being the most commonly associated disorder. Previous suicide attempts and substance misuse are also significant risk factors. Co-existing serious medical conditions and personality factors such as rigid thinking, pessimism, and perfectionism also increase the risk of suicide. It is important to identify and address these risk factors in order to prevent suicide.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 47
Incorrect
-
What is true about the treatment of attention deficit hyperactivity disorder?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Stimulant medications should be discontinued in those with attention deficit hyperactivity disorder who develop symptoms of mania
Explanation:ADHD (Diagnosis and Management in Children)
ADHD is a behavioural syndrome characterised by symptoms of inattention, hyperactivity, and impulsivity. The DSM-5 and ICD-11 provide diagnostic criteria for the condition, with both recognising three subtypes: predominantly inattentive, predominantly hyperactive-impulsive, and combined.
Treatment for children under 5 involves offering an ADHD-focused group parent-training programme as a first-line option. Medication should only be considered after obtaining advice from a specialist ADHD service. For children and young people aged 5-18, advice and support should be given, along with an ADHD-focused group parent-training programme. Medication should only be offered if ADHD symptoms persist after environmental modifications have been implemented and reviewed. Cognitive behavioural therapy may also be considered for those who have benefited from medication but still experience significant impairment.
NICE advises against elimination diets, dietary fatty acid supplementation, and the use of the ‘few foods diet’. Methylphenidate of lisdexamfetamine is the first-line medication option, with dexamphetamine considered for those who respond to lisdexamfetamine but cannot tolerate the longer effect profile. Atomoxetine of guanfacine may be offered for those who cannot tolerate methylphenidate of lisdexamfetamine. Clonidine and atypical antipsychotics should only be used with advice from a tertiary ADHD service.
Drug holidays may be considered for children and young people who have not met the expected height for their age due to medication. However, NICE advises that withdrawal from treatment is associated with a risk of symptom exacerbation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Child And Adolescent Psychiatry
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Question 48
Incorrect
-
A 12 year old boy is brought to the attention of the criminal justice system for repeated acts of antisocial behaviour in their local town centre. On one occasion they threatened to assault an elderly female who challenged them about their conduct. Which of the following would be the expected course of action?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Imposition of a Local Child Curfew
Explanation:At this point, implementing the Local Child Curfew would be the most suitable course of action as it is the least severe measure and is typically the initial step taken. Pursuing prosecution is not viable as the individuals in question are below the age of 10.
Criminal Responsibility and Age Limits
To be found guilty of a crime, it must be proven that a person committed the act (actus reus) and had a guilty mind (mens rea). In England and Wales, children under the age of 10 cannot be held criminally responsible for their actions and cannot be arrested or charged with a crime. Instead, they may face other punishments such as a Local Child Curfew of a Child Safety Order. Children between the ages of 10 and 17 can be arrested and taken to court, but are treated differently from adults and may be dealt with by youth courts, given different sentences, and sent to special secure centers for young people. Young people aged 18 are treated as adults by the law.
Not Guilty by Reason of Insanity and Other Defenses
A person may be found not guilty by reason of insanity if they did not understand the nature of quality of their actions of did not know that what they were doing was wrong. Automatism is a defense used when the act is believed to have occurred unconsciously, either from an external cause (sane automatism) of an internal cause (insane automatism). Diminished responsibility is a defense used only in the defense of murder and allows for a reduction of the normal life sentence to manslaughter.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Forensic Psychiatry
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Question 49
Incorrect
-
How can a diagnosis of mania be distinguished from depression?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Increased libido
Explanation:While an irritable mood can be present in both mania and depression, the symptom of increased libido is more indicative of mania. Therefore, selecting increased libido as the answer is the most appropriate choice.
Mania: Features and Characteristics
Mania is a mental state characterized by a range of symptoms that can significantly impact an individual’s behavior, thoughts, and emotions. Some of the key features of mania include an elated of irritable mood, restlessness, and overactivity. People experiencing mania may also exhibit disinhibited and reckless behavior, such as excessive spending of engaging in risky activities. They may have over-ambitious plans for the future and experience a flight of ideas and pressured speech. Additionally, mania can involve mood congruent delusions, increased libido, and a decreased need for sleep. Overall, mania can be a challenging and disruptive condition that requires professional treatment and support.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 50
Incorrect
-
Which of the following newly prescribed medications is most likely to trigger a sudden onset of mania in a 70-year-old patient with no prior psychiatric history?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Prednisolone
Explanation:Drug-Induced Mania: Evidence and Precipitating Drugs
There is strong evidence that mania can be triggered by certain drugs, according to Peet (1995). These drugs include levodopa, corticosteroids, anabolic-androgenic steroids, and certain classes of antidepressants such as tricyclic and monoamine oxidase inhibitors.
Additionally, Peet (2012) suggests that there is weaker evidence that mania can be induced by dopaminergic anti-Parkinsonian drugs, thyroxine, iproniazid and isoniazid, sympathomimetic drugs, chloroquine, baclofen, alprazolam, captopril, amphetamine, and phencyclidine.
It is important for healthcare professionals to be aware of the potential for drug-induced mania and to monitor patients closely for any signs of symptoms. Patients should also be informed of the risks associated with these medications and advised to report any unusual changes in mood of behavior.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 51
Incorrect
-
A 65 kg male patient is brought to the emergency department after taking an overdose of paracetamol. He estimates that he took 20 paracetamol tablets over a two hour period approximately 3 hours ago. Which of the following would be the most appropriate course of action?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Administer IV acetylcysteine without delay
Explanation:If someone ingests more than 75 mg/kg of paracetamol, serious toxicity can occur. This means that a 75 kg male would need to ingest approximately 5.5 g (equivalent to 11-12 tablets) for significant harm to occur. Immediate action is necessary in this case. If someone ingests more than 150 mg/kg, they require immediate treatment. In cases of staggered overdoses, IV acetylcysteine should be administered regardless of the plasma paracetamol level.
Self-Harm and its Management
Self-harm refers to intentional acts of self-poisoning of self-injury. It is prevalent among younger people, with an estimated 10% of girls and 3% of boys aged 15-16 years having self-harmed in the previous year. Risk factors for non-fatal repetition of self-harm include previous self-harm, personality disorder, hopelessness, history of psychiatric treatment, schizophrenia, alcohol abuse/dependence, and drug abuse/dependence. Suicide following an act of self-harm is more likely in those with previous episodes of self-harm, suicidal intent, poor physical health, and male gender.
Risk assessment tools are not recommended for predicting future suicide of repetition of self-harm. The recommended interventions for self-harm include 4-10 sessions of CBT specifically structured for people who self-harm and considering DBT for adolescents with significant emotional dysregulation. Drug treatment as a specific intervention to reduce self-harm should not be offered.
In the management of ingestion, activated charcoal can help if used early, while emetics and cathartics should not be used. Gastric lavage should generally not be used unless recommended by TOXBASE. Paracetamol is involved in 30-40% of acute presentations with poisoning. Intravenous acetylcysteine is the treatment of choice, and pseudo-allergic reactions are relatively common. Naloxone is used as an antidote for opioid overdose, while flumazenil can help reduce the need for admission to intensive care in benzodiazepine overdose.
For superficial uncomplicated skin lacerations of 5 cm of less in length, tissue adhesive of skin closure strips could be used as a first-line treatment option. All children who self-harm should be admitted for an overnight stay at a pediatric ward.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 52
Incorrect
-
What term replaced 'key worker' after the modernisation of the CPA process?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Care coordinator
Explanation:The Care Program Approach (CPA) was implemented in 1991 to enhance community care for individuals with severe mental illness. The CPA comprises four primary components, including assessment, a care plan, a Care Coordinator (formerly known as a Key Worker), and regular review. There are two levels of CPA, namely standard and enhanced. Standard care plans are suitable for individuals who require minimal input from a single agency and pose minimal risk to themselves of others. Enhanced care plans are designed for individuals with complex needs who require collaboration among multiple agencies.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Organisation And Delivery Of Psychiatric Services
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Question 53
Incorrect
-
What is the most suitable option for managing schizophrenia that does not respond to treatment?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Clozapine
Explanation:Clozapine is an effective antipsychotic drug used in the management of treatment-resistant schizophrenia (TRS). It was reintroduced in the 1990s with mandatory blood monitoring due to the risk of agranulocyte
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 54
Incorrect
-
What is a characteristic of data that is positively skewed?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer:
Explanation:Skewed Data: Understanding the Relationship between Mean, Median, and Mode
When analyzing a data set, it is important to consider the shape of the distribution. In a normally distributed data set, the curve is symmetrical and bell-shaped, with the median, mode, and mean all equal. However, in skewed data sets, the distribution is asymmetrical, with the bulk of the data concentrated on one side of the figure.
In a negatively skewed distribution, the left tail is longer, and the bulk of the data is concentrated to the right of the figure. In contrast, a positively skewed distribution has a longer right tail, with the bulk of the data concentrated to the left of the figure. In both cases, the median is positioned between the mode and the mean, as it represents the halfway point of the distribution.
However, the mean is affected by extreme values of outliers, causing it to move away from the median in the direction of the tail. In positively skewed data, the mean is greater than the median, which is greater than the mode. In negatively skewed data, the mode is greater than the median, which is greater than the mean.
Understanding the relationship between mean, median, and mode in skewed data sets is crucial for accurate data analysis and interpretation. By recognizing the shape of the distribution, researchers can make informed decisions about which measures of central tendency to use and how to interpret their results.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
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Question 55
Incorrect
-
What is accurate about the psychiatric components of Parkinson's disease?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Anticholinergics and dopamine agonists are considered to have a higher risk of inducing psychosis than levodopa
Explanation:Parkinson’s Disease: Presentation, Aetiology, Medical Treatment, and Psychiatric Aspects
Parkinson’s disease is a degenerative disease of the brain that is characterised by motor symptoms such as rigidity, bradykinesia, and tremor. It has a long prodromal phase and early symptoms generally present asymmetrically. The tremor associated with Parkinson’s disease is classically described as ‘pill rolling’. The principle abnormality is the degeneration of dopaminergic neurons in the pars compacta of the substantia nigra, which leads to an accumulation of alpha-synuclein in these abnormal dopaminergic cells. The majority of cases of Parkinson’s disease are idiopathic, but single gene mutations occur in a minority of cases. Pesticide, herbicide, and heavy metal exposures are linked to an increased risk of Parkinson’s disease in some epidemiologic studies, whereas smoking and caffeine use are associated with decreased risks.
Treatment for Parkinson’s disease predominantly focuses on symptomatic relief with drugs aiming to either restore the level of dopamine in the striatum of to act on striatal postsynaptic dopamine receptors. However, as dopamine is not the only neurotransmitter involved in Parkinson’s disease, many other drugs are also being used to target specific symptoms, such as depression of dementia. Psychiatric symptoms are common in Parkinson’s disease and range from mild to severe. Factors associated with severe symptoms include age, sleep disturbance, dementia, and disease severity. Hallucinations are common in Parkinson’s disease and tend to be visual but can be auditory of tactile. In the majority of patients, psychotic symptoms are thought to be secondary to dopaminergic medication rather than due to the Parkinson’s disease itself. Anticholinergics and dopamine agonists seem to be associated with a higher risk of inducing psychosis than levodopa of catechol-O-methyltransferase inhibitors. Medications used for psychotic symptoms may worsen movement problems. Risperidone and the typicals should be avoided completely. Low dose quetiapine is the best tolerated. Clozapine is the most effective antipsychotic drug for treating psychosis in Parkinson’s disease but its use in clinical practice is limited by the need for monitoring and the additional physical risks.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Old Age Psychiatry
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Question 56
Incorrect
-
What medication is approved for managing agitation in individuals with Alzheimer's disease?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Risperidone
Explanation:The use of risperidone for behavioural issues in Alzheimer’s patients can be a complex topic. While there are warnings about the potential risk of stroke with risperidone and olanzapine in dementia patients, risperidone is still considered the preferred treatment for managing psychosis and agitation in this population.
Management of Non-Cognitive Symptoms in Dementia
Non-cognitive symptoms of dementia can include agitation, aggression, distress, psychosis, depression, anxiety, sleep problems, wandering, hoarding, sexual disinhibition, apathy, and shouting. Non-pharmacological measures, such as music therapy, should be considered before prescribing medication. Pain may cause agitation, so a trial of analgesics is recommended. Antipsychotics, such as risperidone, olanzapine, and aripiprazole, may be used for severe distress of serious risk to others, but their use is controversial due to issues of tolerability and an association with increased mortality. Cognitive enhancers, such as AChE-Is and memantine, may have a modest benefit on BPSD, but their effects may take 3-6 months to take effect. Benzodiazepines should be avoided except in emergencies, and antidepressants, such as citalopram and trazodone, may have mixed evidence for BPSD. Mood stabilizers, such as valproate and carbamazepine, have limited evidence to support their use. Sedating antihistamines, such as promethazine, may cause cognitive impairment and should only be used short-term. Melatonin has limited evidence to support its use but is safe to use and may be justified in some cases where benefits are seen. For Lewy Body dementia, clozapine is favored over risperidone, and quetiapine may be a reasonable choice if clozapine is not appropriate. Overall, medication should only be used when non-pharmacological measures are ineffective, and the need is balanced with the increased risk of adverse effects.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Old Age Psychiatry
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Question 57
Incorrect
-
How can grounded theory be applied as an analytic technique?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Constant comparison
Explanation:Qualitative research is a method of inquiry that seeks to understand the meaning and experience dimensions of human lives and social worlds. There are different approaches to qualitative research, such as ethnography, phenomenology, and grounded theory, each with its own purpose, role of the researcher, stages of research, and method of data analysis. The most common methods used in healthcare research are interviews and focus groups. Sampling techniques include convenience sampling, purposive sampling, quota sampling, snowball sampling, and case study sampling. Sample size can be determined by data saturation, which occurs when new categories, themes, of explanations stop emerging from the data. Validity can be assessed through triangulation, respondent validation, bracketing, and reflexivity. Analytical approaches include content analysis and constant comparison.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
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Question 58
Incorrect
-
What is the most accurate approximation of the occurrence rate of puerperal psychosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 2 in 1000
Explanation:Puerperal Psychosis: Incidence, Risk Factors, and Treatment
Postpartum psychosis is a subtype of bipolar disorder with an incidence of 1-2 in 1000 pregnancies. It typically occurs rapidly between day 2 and day 14 following delivery, with almost all cases occurring within 8 weeks of delivery. Risk factors for puerperal psychosis include a past history of puerperal psychosis, pre-existing psychotic illness (especially affective psychosis) requiring hospital admission, and a family history of affective psychosis in first of second degree relatives. However, factors such as twin pregnancy, breastfeeding, single parenthood, and stillbirth have not been shown to be associated with an increased risk. Treatment for puerperal psychosis is similar to that for psychosis in general, but special consideration must be given to potential issues if the mother is breastfeeding.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 59
Incorrect
-
A 7-year-old girl is brought to your clinic by her parents who are worried about her excessive need for order and cleanliness. Upon examination, you observe signs of obsessive rumination and compulsions. The girl has a history of streptococcal sore throat, leading you to suspect that it may have played a role in the development of her condition. Which of the following serum titres would be most likely to be elevated if this is the case?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Anti-DNAse
Explanation:Elevated ASLO of antistreptolysin O titres, which are anti-DNAse, are often present in cases of paediatric autoimmune neuropsychiatric disorders associated with streptococcal infection (PANDAS), a syndrome that may be linked to the development of childhood obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Child And Adolescent Psychiatry
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Question 60
Incorrect
-
Which symptom is typically not associated with opiate withdrawal?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pupil constriction
Explanation:Illicit drugs, also known as illegal drugs, are substances that are prohibited by law and can have harmful effects on the body and mind. Some of the most commonly used illicit drugs in the UK include opioids, amphetamines, cocaine, MDMA (ecstasy), cannabis, and hallucinogens.
Opioids, such as heroin, are highly addictive and can cause euphoria, drowsiness, constipation, and respiratory depression. Withdrawal symptoms may include piloerection, insomnia, restlessness, dilated pupils, yawning, sweating, and abdominal cramps.
Amphetamines and cocaine are stimulants that can increase energy, cause insomnia, hyperactivity, euphoria, and paranoia. Withdrawal symptoms may include hypersomnia, hyperphagia, depression, irritability, agitation, vivid dreams, and increased appetite.
MDMA, also known as ecstasy, can cause increased energy, sweating, jaw clenching, euphoria, enhanced sociability, and increased response to touch. Withdrawal symptoms may include depression, insomnia, depersonalisation, and derealisation.
Cannabis, also known as marijuana of weed, can cause relaxation, intensified sensory experience, paranoia, anxiety, and injected conjunctiva. Withdrawal symptoms may include insomnia, reduced appetite, and irritability.
Hallucinogens, such as LSD, can cause perceptual changes, pupillary dilation, tachycardia, sweating, palpitations, tremors, and incoordination. There is no recognised withdrawal syndrome for hallucinogens.
Ketamine, also known as Vitamin K, Super K, Special K, of donkey dust, can cause euphoria, dissociation, ataxia, and hallucinations. There is no recognised withdrawal syndrome for ketamine.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Substance Misuse/Addictions
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Question 61
Incorrect
-
What are the accurate statements about evaluating and handling self-injury in adults?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: A psychosocial assessment should not be delayed until after medical treatment is complete
Explanation:It is important to conduct a psychosocial assessment early on in the treatment process, rather than waiting until after medical treatment is complete. During this assessment, it is crucial to speak with the service user alone to ensure confidentiality and allow for open discussion. In cases where physical treatment may trigger traumatic memories, sedation should be offered beforehand. It is also important to assume mental capacity unless evidence suggests otherwise when assessing and treating individuals who have self-harmed. All members of the healthcare team should be able to assess capacity, and challenging cases should involve a team discussion.
Self-Harm and its Management
Self-harm refers to intentional acts of self-poisoning of self-injury. It is prevalent among younger people, with an estimated 10% of girls and 3% of boys aged 15-16 years having self-harmed in the previous year. Risk factors for non-fatal repetition of self-harm include previous self-harm, personality disorder, hopelessness, history of psychiatric treatment, schizophrenia, alcohol abuse/dependence, and drug abuse/dependence. Suicide following an act of self-harm is more likely in those with previous episodes of self-harm, suicidal intent, poor physical health, and male gender.
Risk assessment tools are not recommended for predicting future suicide of repetition of self-harm. The recommended interventions for self-harm include 4-10 sessions of CBT specifically structured for people who self-harm and considering DBT for adolescents with significant emotional dysregulation. Drug treatment as a specific intervention to reduce self-harm should not be offered.
In the management of ingestion, activated charcoal can help if used early, while emetics and cathartics should not be used. Gastric lavage should generally not be used unless recommended by TOXBASE. Paracetamol is involved in 30-40% of acute presentations with poisoning. Intravenous acetylcysteine is the treatment of choice, and pseudo-allergic reactions are relatively common. Naloxone is used as an antidote for opioid overdose, while flumazenil can help reduce the need for admission to intensive care in benzodiazepine overdose.
For superficial uncomplicated skin lacerations of 5 cm of less in length, tissue adhesive of skin closure strips could be used as a first-line treatment option. All children who self-harm should be admitted for an overnight stay at a pediatric ward.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 62
Incorrect
-
Antipsychotic induced dystonia is most common in which of the following groups?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Young men
Explanation:Extrapyramidal side-effects (EPSE’s) are a group of side effects that affect voluntary motor control, commonly seen in patients taking antipsychotic drugs. EPSE’s include dystonias, parkinsonism, akathisia, and tardive dyskinesia. They can be frightening and uncomfortable, leading to problems with non-compliance and can even be life-threatening in the case of laryngeal dystonia. EPSE’s are thought to be due to antagonism of dopaminergic D2 receptors in the basal ganglia. Symptoms generally occur within the first few days of treatment, with dystonias appearing quickly, within a few hours of administration of the first dose. Newer antipsychotics tend to produce less EPSE’s, with clozapine carrying the lowest risk and haloperidol carrying the highest risk. Akathisia is the most resistant EPSE to treat. EPSE’s can also occur when antipsychotics are discontinued (withdrawal dystonia).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 63
Incorrect
-
What is the most appropriate course of action for a patient with bipolar I disorder who has been stable on lithium for many years but has experienced five hypomanic episodes in the past year and is currently presenting with a hypomanic episode?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Continue the lithium and add olanzapine
Explanation:Based on the case, it appears that the patient is experiencing bipolar I with rapid cycling. According to NICE guidelines, there is no specific treatment recommended for rapid cycling. However, one possible approach would be to add an antipsychotic medication to the patient’s current lithium treatment. Alternatively, the Maudsley Guidelines suggest that combining different mood stabilizers, such as lithium and valproate, may be considered as an alternative treatment option.
Bipolar Disorder: Diagnosis and Management
Bipolar disorder is a lifelong condition characterized by episodes of mania or hypomania and episodes of depressed mood. The peak age of onset is 15-19 years, and the lifetime prevalence of bipolar I disorders is estimated to be around 2.1%. The diagnosis of bipolar disorder is based on the presence of manic or hypomanic episodes, which are characterized by elevated of expansive mood, rapid speech, and increased activity of energy. Psychotic symptoms, such as delusions and hallucinations, may also be present.
Bipolar depression differs from unipolar depression in several ways, including more rapid onset, more frequent episodes, and shorter duration. Rapid cycling is a qualifier that can be applied to bipolar I of bipolar II disorder and is defined as the presence of at least four mood episodes in the previous 12 months that meet the criteria for a manic, hypomanic, of major depressive episode.
The management of bipolar disorder involves acute and long-term interventions. Acute management of mania or hypomania may involve stopping antidepressants and offering antipsychotics of mood stabilizers. Long-term management may involve psychological interventions and pharmacological treatments such as lithium, valproate, of olanzapine.
It is important to note that valproate should not be offered to women of girls of childbearing potential for long-term bipolar disorder unless other options are ineffective of not tolerated and a pregnancy prevention program is in place. Aripiprazole is recommended as an option for treating moderate to severe manic episodes in adolescents with bipolar I disorder.
Overall, the diagnosis and management of bipolar disorder require a comprehensive approach that takes into account the individual’s symptoms, history, and preferences.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 64
Incorrect
-
Which statement accurately describes box and whisker plots?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Each whisker represents approximately 25% of the data
Explanation:Box and whisker plots are a useful tool for displaying information about the range, median, and quartiles of a data set. The whiskers only contain values within 1.5 times the interquartile range (IQR), and any values outside of this range are considered outliers and displayed as dots. The IQR is the difference between the 3rd and 1st quartiles, which divide the data set into quarters. Quartiles can also be used to determine the percentage of observations that fall below a certain value. However, quartiles and ranges have limitations because they do not take into account every score in a data set. To get a more representative idea of spread, measures such as variance and standard deviation are needed. Box plots can also provide information about the shape of a data set, such as whether it is skewed or symmetric. Notched boxes on the plot represent the confidence intervals of the median values.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
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Question 65
Incorrect
-
What is the approximate percentage of individuals in the UK who have engaged in self-harm at some point in their lives?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 6%
Explanation:Self-Harm and its Management
Self-harm refers to intentional acts of self-poisoning of self-injury. It is prevalent among younger people, with an estimated 10% of girls and 3% of boys aged 15-16 years having self-harmed in the previous year. Risk factors for non-fatal repetition of self-harm include previous self-harm, personality disorder, hopelessness, history of psychiatric treatment, schizophrenia, alcohol abuse/dependence, and drug abuse/dependence. Suicide following an act of self-harm is more likely in those with previous episodes of self-harm, suicidal intent, poor physical health, and male gender.
Risk assessment tools are not recommended for predicting future suicide of repetition of self-harm. The recommended interventions for self-harm include 4-10 sessions of CBT specifically structured for people who self-harm and considering DBT for adolescents with significant emotional dysregulation. Drug treatment as a specific intervention to reduce self-harm should not be offered.
In the management of ingestion, activated charcoal can help if used early, while emetics and cathartics should not be used. Gastric lavage should generally not be used unless recommended by TOXBASE. Paracetamol is involved in 30-40% of acute presentations with poisoning. Intravenous acetylcysteine is the treatment of choice, and pseudo-allergic reactions are relatively common. Naloxone is used as an antidote for opioid overdose, while flumazenil can help reduce the need for admission to intensive care in benzodiazepine overdose.
For superficial uncomplicated skin lacerations of 5 cm of less in length, tissue adhesive of skin closure strips could be used as a first-line treatment option. All children who self-harm should be admitted for an overnight stay at a pediatric ward.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 66
Incorrect
-
Which cluster B personality disorder is most prevalent among prisoners aged 50 and above in prisons located in England and Wales?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Antisocial
Explanation:Prisoner Mental Health: Focus on Older Adults
Limited research exists on the mental health of older adults (60 years and above) in prison. However, a study conducted in 2001 in England and Wales revealed high rates of depressive disorder and personality disorder among this population. More than half (53%) of the sample had a psychiatric diagnosis, with approximately 30% diagnosed with depression and another 30% with personality disorder (including 8% with antisocial personality disorder). Only 1% of the sample had dementia. Further research is needed to better understand and address the mental health needs of older adults in prison.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Forensic Psychiatry
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Question 67
Incorrect
-
Which of the following is not considered a known factor that increases the risk of delirium?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Living alone
Explanation:Risk Factors for Delirium
Delirium is a common condition that affects many elderly individuals. There are several risk factors that can increase the likelihood of developing delirium. These risk factors include age, cognitive impairment, severe medical illness, previous history of delirium of neurological disease, psychoactive drug use, polypharmacy, and anticholinergic drug use.
Medications are the most common reversible cause of delirium and dementia in the elderly. Certain classes of drugs, such as opioids, benzodiazepines, and anticholinergics, are strongly associated with the development of drug-induced dementia. Long-acting benzodiazepines are more troublesome than shorter-acting ones. Opioids are associated with an approximately 2-fold increased risk of delirium in medical and surgical patients. Pethidine, a member of the opioid class, appears to have a higher risk of delirium compared with other opioids due to its accumulation in individuals with impaired renal function and conversion to a metabolite with anticholinergic properties.
Overall, it is important to be aware of these risk factors and to carefully monitor medication use in elderly individuals to prevent the development of delirium.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Old Age Psychiatry
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Question 68
Incorrect
-
Who developed the compensatory theory of dreaming?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Jung
Explanation:As an AI language model, I do not have personal opinions of beliefs. However, I can provide a summary of the information presented in the text. The text discusses different models of dream interpretation in psychodynamic therapy, including Freudian interpretation, compensatory theory, content analysis, the Five Star Method, and the cognitive-experiential model. Each model has its own approach to understanding the meaning of dreams, with some focusing on unconscious desires and motivations, while others emphasize personal experiences and attitudes. The text provides an overview of each model and their key assumptions and techniques.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychotherapy
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Question 69
Incorrect
-
What is a partial defence to murder?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Loss of control
Explanation:Some partial defences to murder are available, such as diminished responsibility, loss of control, and killing in accordance with a suicide pact.
Murder and Manslaughter: Understanding the Difference
Homicide is the act of killing another person, but it’s important to distinguish between murder and manslaughter. Murder is committed when a person of sound mind and discretion unlawfully kills another human being who is born alive and breathing through their own lungs, with the intent to kill of cause grievous bodily harm. Manslaughter, on the other hand, can occur in three ways: killing with the intent for murder but where a partial defense applies, conduct that was grossly negligent given the risk of death, and conduct taking the form of an unlawful act involving a danger of some harm that resulted in death. Infanticide is a specific type of manslaughter that applies to women who cause the death of their child under 12 months old by a wilful act of omission, but at the time of the act of omission, the balance of their mind was disturbed by the effects of giving birth of lactation. It’s important to understand these distinctions to properly classify and prosecute these crimes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Forensic Psychiatry
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Question 70
Incorrect
-
What is a true statement about Charles Bonnet syndrome?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Visual hallucinations are not normally associated with an auditory component
Explanation:While Charles Bonnet Syndrome (CBS) typically only presents with visual hallucinations, some experts have proposed diagnostic criteria that require the absence of hallucinations in other sensory modalities. However, there have been documented cases of CBS with auditory hallucinations, so the presence of such hallucinations should not necessarily exclude a diagnosis of CBS.
Charles Bonnet Syndrome: A Condition of Complex Visual Hallucinations
Charles Bonnet Syndrome (CBS) is a condition characterized by persistent of recurrent complex visual hallucinations that occur in clear consciousness. This condition is observed in individuals who have suffered damage to the visual pathway, which can be caused by damage to any part of the pathway from the eye to the cortex. The hallucinations are thought to result from a release phenomenon secondary to the deafferentation of the cerebral cortex. CBS is equally distributed between sexes and does not show any familial predisposition. The most common ophthalmological conditions associated with this syndrome are age-related macular degeneration, followed by glaucoma and cataract.
Risk factors for CBS include advanced age, peripheral visual impairment, social isolation, sensory deprivation, and early cognitive impairment. Well-formed complex visual hallucinations are thought to occur in 10-30 percent of individuals with severe visual impairment. Only around a third of individuals find the hallucinations themselves an unpleasant or disturbing experience. The most effective treatment is reversal of the visual impairment. Antipsychotic drugs are commonly prescribed but are largely ineffective. CBS is a long-lasting condition, with 88% of individuals experiencing it for two years of more, and only 25% resolving at nine years.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Old Age Psychiatry
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Question 71
Incorrect
-
What is the common street name for the illicit drug known as snow?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cocaine
Explanation:Illicit drugs, also known as illegal drugs, are substances that are prohibited by law and can have harmful effects on the body and mind. Some of the most commonly used illicit drugs in the UK include opioids, amphetamines, cocaine, MDMA (ecstasy), cannabis, and hallucinogens.
Opioids, such as heroin, are highly addictive and can cause euphoria, drowsiness, constipation, and respiratory depression. Withdrawal symptoms may include piloerection, insomnia, restlessness, dilated pupils, yawning, sweating, and abdominal cramps.
Amphetamines and cocaine are stimulants that can increase energy, cause insomnia, hyperactivity, euphoria, and paranoia. Withdrawal symptoms may include hypersomnia, hyperphagia, depression, irritability, agitation, vivid dreams, and increased appetite.
MDMA, also known as ecstasy, can cause increased energy, sweating, jaw clenching, euphoria, enhanced sociability, and increased response to touch. Withdrawal symptoms may include depression, insomnia, depersonalisation, and derealisation.
Cannabis, also known as marijuana of weed, can cause relaxation, intensified sensory experience, paranoia, anxiety, and injected conjunctiva. Withdrawal symptoms may include insomnia, reduced appetite, and irritability.
Hallucinogens, such as LSD, can cause perceptual changes, pupillary dilation, tachycardia, sweating, palpitations, tremors, and incoordination. There is no recognised withdrawal syndrome for hallucinogens.
Ketamine, also known as Vitamin K, Super K, Special K, of donkey dust, can cause euphoria, dissociation, ataxia, and hallucinations. There is no recognised withdrawal syndrome for ketamine.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Substance Misuse/Addictions
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Question 72
Incorrect
-
What is the accurate statement about the cognitive decline linked with Huntington's disease?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cognitive impairment is usually a feature of Huntington's
Explanation:Huntington’s disease is categorized as a type of dementia that affects the subcortical region of the brain. Cognitive decline is a prominent feature of the disease and typically manifests early on. However, the use of acetylcholinesterase inhibitors has not been shown to improve cognitive function in individuals with Huntington’s disease. A study published in Neurology in 2008 investigated the effects of donepezil on both motor and cognitive function in individuals with Huntington’s disease. The results showed no significant improvement in either area.
Psychiatric and Behavioural Symptoms of Huntington’s Disease
Huntington’s disease is a condition that affects individuals with a triad of symptoms, including motor, cognitive, and psychiatric symptoms. While the symptoms typically begin in the third and fourth decades of life, individuals with a high number of CAG repeats may experience symptoms before the age of 20, known as juvenile Huntington’s disease.
The psychiatric symptoms of Huntington’s disease can include depression, apathy, dementia, psychosis, anxiety, mania, sexual dysfunction, and even suicide. These symptoms can significantly impact an individual’s quality of life and require appropriate treatment. Advances in psychiatric treatment have been made to address these symptoms and improve the overall well-being of individuals with Huntington’s disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Old Age Psychiatry
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Question 73
Incorrect
-
What is the percentage of female individuals who engage in Munchausen's syndrome by proxy?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 80%
Explanation:Munchausen’s syndrome by proxy, also known as fabricated or induced illness, is a rare form of child abuse where a caregiver, usually the mother, falsifies illness in a child by fabricating of producing symptoms and presenting the child for medical care while denying knowledge of the cause. It is most commonly seen in children under the age of 4, with symptoms including apnoea, anorexia, feeding problems, and seizures. The disorder is now recognized as ‘Factitious Disorder Imposed on Another’ in the DSM-5, with criteria including falsification of physical of psychological signs of symptoms, presentation of the victim as ill, and evident deceptive behavior. The perpetrator, not the victim, receives this diagnosis. Presenting signs of symptoms can take the form of covert injury, fabrication of symptoms, of exaggeration of existing symptoms. Symptoms are often subjective and easy to fake.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Child And Adolescent Psychiatry
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Question 74
Incorrect
-
What is the term used to describe the killing of an infant by their caregiver?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Filicide
Explanation:– Avunculicide: murder of one’s uncle
– Familicide: murder of murder-suicide of at least one spouse and one of more children
– Filicide: murder of a child (under the age of 18) by its parent
– Infanticide: killing of a child aged less than 12 months, can only be committed by the mother in English Law
– Uxoricide: murder of one’s wife
– Matricide: act of killing one’s husband -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Forensic Psychiatry
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Question 75
Incorrect
-
What is a true statement about catatonia?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Patients with schizophrenia who develop catatonia are less likely to respond to treatment than those with mood disorders
Explanation:Catatonia can occur in both functional mental illnesses like schizophrenia and general medical conditions such as infections, drug withdrawal, and endocrine disorders. The primary treatment for catatonia is benzodiazepines, with a typical response time of 3-7 days. If benzodiazepines are ineffective, electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) may be necessary. However, patients with schizophrenia are less likely to respond to either treatment compared to those with mood disorders.
Catatonia Treatment
Catatonia can lead to complications such as dehydration, deep vein thrombosis, pulmonary embolism, and pneumonia. Therefore, prompt treatment is essential. The first-line treatment is benzodiazepines, particularly lorazepam. If this is ineffective, electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) may be considered. The use of antipsychotics is controversial and should be avoided during the acute phase of catatonia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 76
Incorrect
-
A 16-year-old girl is referred to you after being caught stealing a phone from a store and attempting to leave without paying. Her parents are worried as they have heard rumors of her skipping school with friends and using inhalants. She has been displaying more aggressive behavior lately, such as throwing objects at her mother when asked to do chores. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Conduct disorder
Explanation:Conduct disorders are defined by a consistent and recurring pattern of behavior that is defiant, aggressive, of dissocial. This behavior should be severe enough to violate social expectations that are appropriate for the individual’s age, and should not be mistaken for typical adolescent rebellion of childish mischief. The diagnosis is not based on isolated criminal of dissocial acts, but rather on a persistent pattern of behavior.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Child And Adolescent Psychiatry
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Question 77
Incorrect
-
Which group had the highest incidence rates for psychosis according to the AESOP study?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: African-Caribbean
Explanation:The AESOP study is a first-presentation study of schizophrenia and other psychotic disorders that identified all people presenting to services with psychotic symptoms in well-defined catchment areas in South London, Nottingham and Bristol. The study aimed to elucidate the overall rates of psychotic disorder in the 3 centres, confirm and extend previous findings of raised rates of psychosis in certain migrant groups in the UK, and explore in detail the biological and social risk factors in these populations and their possible interactions. The study found that the incidence of all psychoses was higher in African-Caribbean and Black African populations, particularly in schizophrenia and manic psychosis. These groups were also more likely to be compulsorily admitted to hospital and come to the attention of mental health services via police of other criminal justice agencies, and less likely to come via the GP.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 78
Incorrect
-
Which statement accurately describes conduct disorder?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Males develop the condition at a younger age than females
Explanation:Disruptive Behaviour of Dissocial Disorders
Conduct disorders are the most common reason for referral of young children to mental health services. These disorders are characterized by a repetitive and persistent pattern of antisocial, aggressive, of defiant conduct that goes beyond ordinary childish mischief of adolescent rebelliousness. Oppositional defiant disorder (ODD) shares some negative attributes but in a more limited fashion.
ICD-11 terms the disorder as ‘Conduct-dissocial disorder’, while DSM-5 recognizes three separate conditions related to emotional/behavioral problems seen in younger people: conduct disorder, oppositional defiant disorder, and intermittent explosive disorder. Conduct disorder is about poorly controlled behavior, intermittent explosive disorder is about poorly controlled emotions, and ODD is in between. Conduct disorders are further divided into childhood onset (before 10 years) and adolescent onset (10 years of older).
The behavior pattern of conduct disorders must be persistent and recurrent, including multiple incidents of aggression towards people of animals, destruction of property, deceitfulness of theft, and serious violations of rules. The pattern of behavior must result in significant impairment in personal, family, social, educational, occupational, of other important areas of functioning.
Oppositional defiant disorder represents a less severe form of conduct disorder, where there is an absence of more severe dissocial of aggressive acts. The behavior pattern of ODD includes persistent difficulty getting along with others, provocative, spiteful, of vindictive behavior, and extreme irritability of anger.
The prevalence of conduct disorders increases throughout childhood and is more common in boys than girls. The most frequent comorbid problem seen with conduct disorder is hyperactivity. The conversion rate from childhood conduct disorder to adult antisocial personality disorder varies from 40 to 70% depending on the study.
NICE recommends group parent-based training programs of parent and child training programs for children with complex needs for ages 3-11, child-focused programs for ages 9-14, and multimodal interventions with a family focus for ages 11-17. Medication is not recommended in routine practice, but risperidone can be used where other approaches fail and they are seriously aggressive.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Child And Adolescent Psychiatry
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Question 79
Incorrect
-
What statement does NICE make about ECT?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: With unilateral ECT, a higher stimulus dose is associated with greater efficacy
Explanation:While ECT may be considered for moderate depression in certain cases, it should not be administered if it goes against a legally binding advance decision of directive.
ECT (Treatment) – Summary of Effectiveness and Recommendations
ECT (Electroconvulsive Therapy) is a treatment that induces a therapeutic seizure through the application of electrical current under general anesthesia and muscle relaxation. It is prescribed as a course and is usually administered twice weekly for 6 to 12 treatments. ECT is the most effective short-term treatment for major depression, with remission rates of around 60-80% when used as first-line treatment in a severe depressive episode. However, without maintenance treatment, the relapse rate is extremely high (over 80%) in the 6 months after successful ECT.
Cognitive effects are the main limitation to the wider use of ECT, particularly acute confusion shortly after the treatment, retrograde amnesia, and some losses in autobiographical memory longer term. The current state of evidence does not allow the general use of ECT in the management of schizophrenia. Bilateral ECT is more effective than unilateral ECT but may cause more cognitive impairment. With unilateral ECT, a higher stimulus dose is associated with greater efficacy but also increased cognitive impairment compared with a lower stimulus dose.
NICE (National Institute for Health and Care Excellence) recommends that ECT is used only to achieve rapid and short-term improvement of severe symptoms after an adequate trial of other treatment options has proven ineffective and/of when the condition is considered to be potentially life-threatening. ECT is recommended for individuals with severe depression (that is life-threatening and when a rapid response is required, of when other treatments have failed), moderate depression (consider it if their depression has not responded to multiple drug treatments and psychological treatment), catatonia, and a prolonged of severe manic episode.
The RCPsych (Royal College of Psychiatrists) position on ECT recommends it as a first-line treatment for individuals with high suicidal risk, severe psychomotor retardation and associated problems of compromised eating and drinking and/of physical deterioration, treatment-resistant depression that has responded to ECT in a previous episode of illness, pregnant individuals with severe depression, of severe mixed affective states, mania of catatonia and whose physical health of that of the fetus is at serious risk, and those who prefer this form of treatment. ECT is recommended as a second-line treatment for individuals with treatment-resistant depression, severe side-effects from medication, and persistent of life-threatening symptoms in severe of prolonged mania. ECT is indicated in some circumstances for individuals with bipolar depression, postnatal psychosis, treatment-resistant schizophrenia, treatment-resistant catatonia, and frequent relapses and recurrences of depression (maintenance).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Organisation And Delivery Of Psychiatric Services
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Question 80
Incorrect
-
Which of the following conditions is not considered a type of frontotemporal lobar degeneration?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Lewy body dementia
Explanation:Frontotemporal Lobar Degeneration
Frontotemporal lobar degeneration (FTLD) is a group of neurodegenerative disorders that involve the atrophy of the frontal and temporal lobes. The disease is characterized by progressive dysfunction in executive functioning, behavior, and language, and can mimic psychiatric disorders due to its prominent behavioral features. FTLD is the third most common form of dementia across all age groups and a leading type of early-onset dementia.
The disease has common features such as onset before 65, insidious onset, relatively preserved memory and visuospatial skills, personality change, and social conduct problems. There are three recognized subtypes of FTLD: behavioral-variant (bvFTD), language variant – primary progressive aphasia (PPA), and the language variant is further subdivided into semantic variant PPA (aka semantic dementia) and non-fluent agrammatic variant PPA (nfvPPA).
As the disease progresses, the symptoms of the three clinical variants can converge, as an initially focal degeneration becomes more diffuse and spreads to affect large regions in the frontal and temporal lobes. The key differences between the subtypes are summarized in the table provided. The bvFTD subtype is characterized by poor personal and social decorum, disinhibition, poor judgment and problem-solving, apathy, compulsive/perseverative behavior, hyperorality of dietary changes, and loss of empathy. The nfvPPA subtype is characterized by slow/slurred speech, decreased word output and phrase length, word-finding difficulties, apraxia of speech, and spared single-word comprehension. The svPPA subtype is characterized by intact speech fluency, word-finding difficulties (anomia), impaired single-word comprehension, repetitive speech, and reduced word comprehension.
In conclusion, FTLD is a progressive, heterogeneous, neurodegenerative disorder that affects the frontal and temporal lobes. The disease is characterized by dysfunction in executive functioning, behavior, and language, and can mimic psychiatric disorders due to its prominent behavioral features. There are three recognized subtypes of FTLD, and as the disease progresses, the symptoms of the three clinical variants can converge.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Old Age Psychiatry
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Question 81
Incorrect
-
Which filicide motive was the least commonly observed by Resnick (1969)?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Spouse revenge
Explanation:Out of the 131 accounts of filicide reviewed by Phillip Resnick between 1751 and 1967, the motive of altruism was the most frequently observed, making up 49% of cases. On the other hand, spousal revenge was only found to account for 2% of cases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Forensic Psychiatry
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Question 82
Incorrect
-
What type of child abuse is the most frequently reported?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Neglect
Explanation:The Royal College of Psychiatrists in London published a report in April 2004 on the role of mental health services in addressing child abuse and neglect. The report identifies neglect as the most common form of child abuse, followed by physical abuse, emotional abuse, sexual abuse, and fabricated or induced illness. The report emphasizes the importance of mental health services in addressing and preventing child abuse and neglect.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Child And Adolescent Psychiatry
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Question 83
Incorrect
-
An endocrinologist conducts a study to determine if there is a correlation between a patient's age and their blood pressure. Assuming both age and blood pressure are normally distributed, what statistical test would be most suitable to use?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pearson's product-moment coefficient
Explanation:Since the data is normally distributed and the study aims to evaluate the correlation between two variables, the most suitable test to use is Pearson’s product-moment coefficient. On the other hand, if the data is non-parametric, Spearman’s coefficient would be more appropriate.
Choosing the right statistical test can be challenging, but understanding the basic principles can help. Different tests have different assumptions, and using the wrong one can lead to inaccurate results. To identify the appropriate test, a flow chart can be used based on three main factors: the type of dependent variable, the type of data, and whether the groups/samples are independent of dependent. It is important to know which tests are parametric and non-parametric, as well as their alternatives. For example, the chi-squared test is used to assess differences in categorical variables and is non-parametric, while Pearson’s correlation coefficient measures linear correlation between two variables and is parametric. T-tests are used to compare means between two groups, and ANOVA is used to compare means between more than two groups. Non-parametric equivalents to ANOVA include the Kruskal-Wallis analysis of ranks, the Median test, Friedman’s two-way analysis of variance, and Cochran Q test. Understanding these tests and their assumptions can help researchers choose the appropriate statistical test for their data.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
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Question 84
Incorrect
-
What is the approximate occurrence rate of functional psychosis among male remand prisoners in England and Wales?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 10%
Explanation:Prisoner Mental Health: Epidemiological Data from the UK
The Survey of Psychiatric Morbidity Among Prisoners in England and Wales, conducted by the Department of Health in 1997, is the primary source of epidemiological data on prisoner mental health in the UK. Despite the lack of updates, this survey remains a valuable resource for understanding the mental health needs of prisoners.
Although the prison population represents only 0.1% of the total UK population, prisoners are extensive consumers of mental health services. In 1997, the UK prison population consisted of 46,872 male sentenced prisoners (76%), 12,302 male remand prisoners, and 2,770 female prisoners (<5%). The 1997 study involved interviews with over 3000 prisoners. The key findings of the 1997 study revealed high rates of personality disorders among prisoners, with 78% of male remand, 64% of male sentenced, and 50% of female prisoners having any personality disorder. Antisocial personality disorder had the highest prevalence, followed by paranoid personality disorder. Borderline personality disorder was more common in females than paranoid personality disorder. The study also found high rates of functional psychosis, with prevalence rates of 7% for male sentenced, 10% for male remand, and 14% for females. Rates of suicidal ideation and attempts were higher in remand compared to sentenced prisoners, with women reporting higher rates of suicidal ideation and attempts than males. Overall, the 1997 survey highlights the significant mental health needs of prisoners in the UK and underscores the importance of providing adequate mental health services to this population.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Forensic Psychiatry
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Question 85
Incorrect
-
If a child with attention deficit hyperactivity disorder develops tics due to taking methylphenidate, what would be the appropriate course of action?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Atomoxetine
Explanation:ADHD (Diagnosis and Management in Children)
ADHD is a behavioural syndrome characterised by symptoms of inattention, hyperactivity, and impulsivity. The DSM-5 and ICD-11 provide diagnostic criteria for the condition, with both recognising three subtypes: predominantly inattentive, predominantly hyperactive-impulsive, and combined.
Treatment for children under 5 involves offering an ADHD-focused group parent-training programme as a first-line option. Medication should only be considered after obtaining advice from a specialist ADHD service. For children and young people aged 5-18, advice and support should be given, along with an ADHD-focused group parent-training programme. Medication should only be offered if ADHD symptoms persist after environmental modifications have been implemented and reviewed. Cognitive behavioural therapy may also be considered for those who have benefited from medication but still experience significant impairment.
NICE advises against elimination diets, dietary fatty acid supplementation, and the use of the ‘few foods diet’. Methylphenidate of lisdexamfetamine is the first-line medication option, with dexamphetamine considered for those who respond to lisdexamfetamine but cannot tolerate the longer effect profile. Atomoxetine of guanfacine may be offered for those who cannot tolerate methylphenidate of lisdexamfetamine. Clonidine and atypical antipsychotics should only be used with advice from a tertiary ADHD service.
Drug holidays may be considered for children and young people who have not met the expected height for their age due to medication. However, NICE advises that withdrawal from treatment is associated with a risk of symptom exacerbation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Child And Adolescent Psychiatry
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Question 86
Incorrect
-
What percentage of values fall within a range of 3 standard deviations above and below the mean?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 99.70%
Explanation:Measures of dispersion are used to indicate the variation of spread of a data set, often in conjunction with a measure of central tendency such as the mean of median. The range, which is the difference between the largest and smallest value, is the simplest measure of dispersion. The interquartile range, which is the difference between the 3rd and 1st quartiles, is another useful measure. Quartiles divide a data set into quarters, and the interquartile range can provide additional information about the spread of the data. However, to get a more representative idea of spread, measures such as the variance and standard deviation are needed. The variance gives an indication of how much the items in the data set vary from the mean, while the standard deviation reflects the distribution of individual scores around their mean. The standard deviation is expressed in the same units as the data set and can be used to indicate how confident we are that data points lie within a particular range. The standard error of the mean is an inferential statistic used to estimate the population mean and is a measure of the spread expected for the mean of the observations. Confidence intervals are often presented alongside sample results such as the mean value, indicating a range that is likely to contain the true value.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
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Question 87
Incorrect
-
Which of the following is not a symptom commonly linked to alcohol intoxication?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hyperreflexia
Explanation:Alcohol intoxication typically results in a decrease in reflexes and an increase in reaction times.
Alcohol Intoxication
Symptoms of moderate alcohol intoxication can include a range of effects on the body and mind. These may include poor concentration, impaired reaction times, conjunctival injection, pinpoint pupils, poor coordination, memory difficulties, impaired judgement, and impaired sense of time and space. It is important to be aware of these symptoms and to avoid driving of operating heavy machinery while under the influence of alcohol.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Substance Misuse/Addictions
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Question 88
Incorrect
-
A 35-year-old woman with a diagnosis of bipolar affective disorder has had four episodes of depression and one episode of hypomania over the past 12 months. What should be used as maintenance therapy?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Lithium monotherapy
Explanation:The patient is experiencing rapid cycling bipolar disorder, which NICE recommends managing similarly to conventional bipolar disorder. Lithium monotherapy is the preferred first-line treatment for long-term management, while valproate should be avoided due to the patient’s potential for childbearing.
Bipolar Disorder: Diagnosis and Management
Bipolar disorder is a lifelong condition characterized by episodes of mania or hypomania and episodes of depressed mood. The peak age of onset is 15-19 years, and the lifetime prevalence of bipolar I disorders is estimated to be around 2.1%. The diagnosis of bipolar disorder is based on the presence of manic or hypomanic episodes, which are characterized by elevated of expansive mood, rapid speech, and increased activity of energy. Psychotic symptoms, such as delusions and hallucinations, may also be present.
Bipolar depression differs from unipolar depression in several ways, including more rapid onset, more frequent episodes, and shorter duration. Rapid cycling is a qualifier that can be applied to bipolar I of bipolar II disorder and is defined as the presence of at least four mood episodes in the previous 12 months that meet the criteria for a manic, hypomanic, of major depressive episode.
The management of bipolar disorder involves acute and long-term interventions. Acute management of mania or hypomania may involve stopping antidepressants and offering antipsychotics of mood stabilizers. Long-term management may involve psychological interventions and pharmacological treatments such as lithium, valproate, of olanzapine.
It is important to note that valproate should not be offered to women of girls of childbearing potential for long-term bipolar disorder unless other options are ineffective of not tolerated and a pregnancy prevention program is in place. Aripiprazole is recommended as an option for treating moderate to severe manic episodes in adolescents with bipolar I disorder.
Overall, the diagnosis and management of bipolar disorder require a comprehensive approach that takes into account the individual’s symptoms, history, and preferences.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 89
Incorrect
-
What is a true statement about psychopathy?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Psychopathy is indicated by a score of (of greater than) 30/40 on the PCL-R
Explanation:Psychopathy is typically determined using a score of 30/40 in most studies, which is widely accepted as the standard. However, some European studies may use a lower cut-off of 25/40. Regardless, a score above 30 would indicate psychopathy according to either criterion.
Personality Disorder (Antisocial / Dissocial)
Antisocial personality disorder is characterized by impulsive, irresponsible, and often criminal behavior. The criteria for this disorder differ somewhat between the ICD-11 and DSM-5. The ICD-11 abolished all categories of personality disorder except for a general description of personality disorder. This diagnosis can be further specified as “mild,” “moderate,” of “severe.” Patient behavior can be described using one of more of five personality trait domains; negative affectivity, dissociality, anankastic, detachment, and disinhibition. Clinicians may also specify a borderline pattern qualifier.
The core feature of dissociality is a disregard for the rights and feelings of others, encompassing both self-centeredness and lack of empathy. Common manifestations of Dissociality include self-centeredness and lack of empathy. The DSM-5 defines antisocial personality disorder as a pervasive pattern of disregard for and violation of the rights of others, occurring since age 15, as indicated by three (of more) of the following: failure to conform to social norms with respect to lawful behaviors, deceitfulness, impulsivity of failure to plan ahead, irritability and aggressiveness, reckless disregard for safety of self of others, consistent irresponsibility, and lack of remorse.
Prevalence estimates are between 1%-6% in men and between 0.2-0.8% in women. Antisocial behaviors typically have their onset before age 8 years. Nearly 80% of people with ASPD developed their first symptom by age 11 years. Boys develop symptoms earlier than girls, who may not develop symptoms until puberty. An estimated 25% of girls and 40% of boys with Conduct Disorder will later meet criteria for ASPD.
The 2009 NICE Guidelines essentially make two recommendations on treatment: consider offering group-based cognitive and behavioral interventions and pharmacological interventions should not be routinely used for the treatment of antisocial personality disorder of associated behaviors of aggression, anger, and impulsivity. A Cochrane review found that there is not enough good quality evidence to recommend of reject any psychological treatment for people with a diagnosis of AsPD.
The term psychopathy has varied meanings. Some use the term synonymously with APD and consider it to represent the severe end of the spectrum of APD. Others maintain a clear distinction between psychopathy and APD. Psychopathy has been said to be a richer (broader) concept than APD. The DSM-5 view of APD is largely based on behavioral difficulties whereas the concept of psychopathy considers behavior in addition to personality-based (interpersonal of affective) symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Forensic Psychiatry
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Question 90
Incorrect
-
The prevalence of depressive disease in a village with an adult population of 1000 was assessed using a new diagnostic score. The results showed that out of 1000 adults, 200 tested positive for the disease and 800 tested negative. What is the prevalence of depressive disease in this population?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 20%
Explanation:The prevalence of the disease is 20% as there are currently 200 cases out of a total population of 1000.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
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Question 91
Incorrect
-
In accordance with the laws of England and Wales, when does an individual become accountable for their actions?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 10
Explanation:As of December 2021, the age of criminal responsibility in Scotland is 12, while in England and Wales it remains at 10.
Criminal Responsibility and Age Limits
To be found guilty of a crime, it must be proven that a person committed the act (actus reus) and had a guilty mind (mens rea). In England and Wales, children under the age of 10 cannot be held criminally responsible for their actions and cannot be arrested or charged with a crime. Instead, they may face other punishments such as a Local Child Curfew of a Child Safety Order. Children between the ages of 10 and 17 can be arrested and taken to court, but are treated differently from adults and may be dealt with by youth courts, given different sentences, and sent to special secure centers for young people. Young people aged 18 are treated as adults by the law.
Not Guilty by Reason of Insanity and Other Defenses
A person may be found not guilty by reason of insanity if they did not understand the nature of quality of their actions of did not know that what they were doing was wrong. Automatism is a defense used when the act is believed to have occurred unconsciously, either from an external cause (sane automatism) of an internal cause (insane automatism). Diminished responsibility is a defense used only in the defense of murder and allows for a reduction of the normal life sentence to manslaughter.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Forensic Psychiatry
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Question 92
Incorrect
-
Which drug interacts with a G-coupled receptor to exert its effects?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Heroin
Explanation:The mechanism of action of heroin involves attaching to opiate receptors, which are G-coupled. This attachment results in the suppression of cellular activity through stimulation.
Mechanisms of action for illicit drugs can be classified based on their effects on ionotropic receptors of ion channels, G coupled receptors, of monoamine transporters. Cocaine and amphetamine both increase dopamine levels in the synaptic cleft, but through different mechanisms. Cocaine directly blocks the dopamine transporter, while amphetamine binds to the transporter and increases dopamine efflux through various mechanisms, including inhibition of vesicular monoamine transporter 2 and monoamine oxidase, and stimulation of the intracellular receptor TAAR1. These mechanisms result in increased dopamine levels in the synaptic cleft and reuptake inhibition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 93
Incorrect
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Which of the following is not a recommended intervention for panic disorder according to NICE?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Benzodiazepines
Explanation:Anxiety (NICE guidelines)
The NICE Guidelines on Generalised anxiety disorder and panic disorder were issued in 2011. For the management of generalised anxiety disorder, NICE suggests a stepped approach. For mild GAD, education and active monitoring are recommended. If there is no response to step 1, low-intensity psychological interventions such as CBT-based self-help of psychoeducational groups are suggested. For those with marked functional impairment of those who have not responded to step 2, individual high-intensity psychological intervention of drug treatment is recommended. Specialist treatment is suggested for those with very marked functional impairment, no response to step 3, self-neglect, risks of self-harm or suicide, of significant comorbidity. Benzodiazepines should not be used beyond 2-4 weeks, and SSRIs are first line. For panic disorder, psychological therapy (CBT), medication, and self-help have all been shown to be effective. Benzodiazepines, sedating antihistamines, of antipsychotics should not be used. SSRIs are first line, and if they fail, imipramine of clomipramine can be used. Self-help (CBT based) should be encouraged. If the patient improves with an antidepressant, it should be continued for at least 6 months after the optimal dose is reached, after which the dose can be tapered. If there is no improvement after a 12-week course, an alternative medication of another form of therapy should be offered.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 94
Incorrect
-
What is the primary factor that leads to PTSD in individuals with learning disabilities?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Abuse
Explanation:Both individuals with and without learning difficulties are more likely to develop PTSD if they perceive the trauma to be intentional or deliberate.
Post Traumatic Stress Disorder in People with Learning Difficulties
Post traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) can present differently in people with learning difficulties compared to those without. While nightmares, jumpiness, and sleep disturbance are common in the general population, aggression and behavioral disturbance are more common in those with learning disabilities. Other symptoms may include disruptive of defiant behavior, self-harm, agitation, distractibility, and depressed mood.
The most common cause of PTSD in people with learning difficulties is abuse. Treatment for PTSD in this population is similar to that for those without learning difficulties, including trauma-focused cognitive behavioral therapy of eye movement desensitization and reprocessing (EMDR) with selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) of venlafaxine as an alternative of combined. However, the therapy must be tailored to the individual’s ability to understand and communicate.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Learning Disability
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Question 95
Incorrect
-
Which study design is considered to generate the most robust and reliable evidence?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cohort study
Explanation:Levels and Grades of Evidence in Evidence-Based Medicine
To evaluate the quality of evidence on a subject of question, levels of grades are used. The traditional hierarchy approach places systematic reviews of randomized control trials at the top and case-series/report at the bottom. However, this approach is overly simplistic as certain research questions cannot be answered using RCTs. To address this, the Oxford Centre for Evidence-Based Medicine introduced their 2011 Levels of Evidence system, which separates the type of study questions and gives a hierarchy for each.
The grading approach to be aware of is the GRADE system, which classifies the quality of evidence as high, moderate, low, of very low. The process begins by formulating a study question and identifying specific outcomes. Outcomes are then graded as critical of important. The evidence is then gathered and criteria are used to grade the evidence, with the type of evidence being a significant factor. Evidence can be promoted of downgraded based on certain criteria, such as limitations to study quality, inconsistency, uncertainty about directness, imprecise of sparse data, and reporting bias. The GRADE system allows for the promotion of observational studies to high-quality evidence under the right circumstances.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
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Question 96
Incorrect
-
A woman in her 50s with refractory depression has been tried on several different SSRIs and tricyclic antidepressants and despite this has failed to respond. Which of the following is recommended as first choice by the Maudsley Guidelines in this situation?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Add quetiapine
Explanation:Depression (Refractory)
Refractory depression is a term used when two successive attempts at treatment have failed despite good compliance and adequate doses. There is no accepted definition of refractory depression. The following options are recommended as the first choice for refractory depression, with no preference implied by order:
– Add lithium
– Combined use of olanzapine and fluoxetine
– Add quetiapine to SSRI/SNRI
– Add aripiprazole to antidepressant
– Bupropion + SSRI
– SSRI (of venlafaxine) + mianserin (of mirtazapine)These recommendations are taken from the 13th edition of the Maudsley Guidelines.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 97
Incorrect
-
A 72 year old woman who has been taking sertraline for a depressive illness along with CBT is now in remission. She is happy with her treatment and apart from an occasional dry mouth does not suffer any side effects from her medication. How long should she continue taking sertraline?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 2 years following remission
Explanation:Regardless of any psychological therapy being used, individuals over the age of 65 should maintain their antidepressant medication for a minimum of 2 years after achieving remission.
Antidepressants in the Elderly: Maudsley Guidelines 14th Edition Summary
Antidepressants have a similar response rate in the elderly as in younger adults, but factors such as physical illness, anxiety, and reduced executive functioning can affect prognosis. SSRIs and TCAs are equally effective, but TCAs have higher withdrawal rates in the elderly. NICE recommends starting with an SSRI, then trying another SSRI of a newer generation antidepressant if there is no response. If this fails, an antidepressant from a different class can be considered, but caution is needed with TCAs and MAOIs due to adverse effects and drug interactions. There is no ideal antidepressant for elderly patients, and choice should be based on individual cases. SSRIs are generally better tolerated than TCAs, but increase the risk of gastrointestinal bleeds, hyponatremia, and falls. Agomelatine is effective and well-tolerated in older patients, but requires frequent liver function tests. Fish oils are probably not effective, and highly anticholinergic medicines increase the risk of dementia. Elderly patients may take longer to respond to antidepressants, and it is recommended that they continue taking them for at least 2 years following remission.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Old Age Psychiatry
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Question 98
Incorrect
-
What is the most accurate prediction for the median length of time that patients with dementia survive after being diagnosed?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 6 years
Explanation:Epidemiological Findings on Dementia
Dementia is a disease that primarily affects older individuals, with a doubling of cases every five years. While the median survival time from diagnosis to death is approximately 5-6 years, 2% of those affected are under 65 years of age. In the UK, early onset dementia is more prevalent in men aged 50-65, while late onset dementia is marginally more prevalent in women. Approximately 60% of people with dementia live in private households, with 55% having mild dementia, 30% having moderate dementia, and 15% having severe dementia. These international and UK-specific epidemiological findings provide insight into the prevalence and characteristics of dementia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Old Age Psychiatry
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Question 99
Incorrect
-
Which statement accurately reflects safe alcohol consumption limits?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The Department of Health currently recommends weekly safe drinking limits of 14 U for men and 14 U for women
Explanation:The safe drinking limit recommended by the BMA for both men and women is 21 U per week.
Alcohol Units and Safe Drinking Limits in the UK
The issue of safe drinking limits is a controversial one, with different bodies having different recommendations. In the UK, recommendations are sometimes given in grams of pure alcohol, with one unit equaling 8g. The UK government first recommended in 1992 that for a single week, 21 units for men and 14 units for women was the safe drinking limit. However, in 1995 they produced a report called ‘sensible drinking’, which effectively raised the weekly limits to 28 units for men and 21 units for women. The British Medical Association (BMA) responded to this change, along with the Royal College of Psychiatrists, saying that the original limits should not be relaxed.
In August 2016, the UK Chief Medical Officers Low Risk Drinking Guidelines revised the limits down so that the upper safe limit is now 14 units for both men and women. The Royal College of Psychiatrists welcomed this new guidance, stating that both men and women drinking less than 14 units of alcohol per week (around 7 pints of ordinary strength beer) will be at a low risk for illnesses like heart disease, liver disease, of cancer. However, for people who do drink, they should have three of more alcohol-free days to allow their bodies the opportunity to recover from the harmful effects of alcohol. The BMA also supports this new guidance.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Substance Misuse/Addictions
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Question 100
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old woman presents to your clinic with concerns about her body image and eating habits. Despite having a healthy BMI of 20 kg/m2, she feels overweight and restricts her food intake at times while bingeing at other times. She has not experienced amenorrhea. You decide to utilize the Eating Attitudes Test to assist in your diagnosis.
What is the rating system for this assessment tool?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Self rated
Explanation:The EAT, of Eating Attitudes Test, is a commonly used screening tool for diagnosing eating disorders. It is a self-rated test that evaluates attitudes towards food and eating. The test has been extensively studied and has been found to have good psychometric properties. For more information, see Garner et al.’s 1982 article in Psychol Med of visit the EAT-26 website.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Child And Adolescent Psychiatry
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Question 101
Incorrect
-
What is the name of the harmful substance produced by the body when someone takes too much paracetamol, leading to liver damage?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Benzoquinoneimine
Explanation:Paracetamol’s main byproduct is benzoquinoneimine, a highly reactive substance that typically binds with glutathione. However, when glutathione levels are low, it can bind to liver protein and result in liver damage.
Self-Harm and its Management
Self-harm refers to intentional acts of self-poisoning of self-injury. It is prevalent among younger people, with an estimated 10% of girls and 3% of boys aged 15-16 years having self-harmed in the previous year. Risk factors for non-fatal repetition of self-harm include previous self-harm, personality disorder, hopelessness, history of psychiatric treatment, schizophrenia, alcohol abuse/dependence, and drug abuse/dependence. Suicide following an act of self-harm is more likely in those with previous episodes of self-harm, suicidal intent, poor physical health, and male gender.
Risk assessment tools are not recommended for predicting future suicide of repetition of self-harm. The recommended interventions for self-harm include 4-10 sessions of CBT specifically structured for people who self-harm and considering DBT for adolescents with significant emotional dysregulation. Drug treatment as a specific intervention to reduce self-harm should not be offered.
In the management of ingestion, activated charcoal can help if used early, while emetics and cathartics should not be used. Gastric lavage should generally not be used unless recommended by TOXBASE. Paracetamol is involved in 30-40% of acute presentations with poisoning. Intravenous acetylcysteine is the treatment of choice, and pseudo-allergic reactions are relatively common. Naloxone is used as an antidote for opioid overdose, while flumazenil can help reduce the need for admission to intensive care in benzodiazepine overdose.
For superficial uncomplicated skin lacerations of 5 cm of less in length, tissue adhesive of skin closure strips could be used as a first-line treatment option. All children who self-harm should be admitted for an overnight stay at a pediatric ward.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 102
Incorrect
-
A 56 year-old man attends the out-patient clinic. He was started on fluoxetine eight weeks ago for depression and is now requesting to stop his medication as he feels so well. Your assessment indicates that he is now in remission. What should be recommended regarding his treatment?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: It should be continued for at least another 6 months
Explanation:To minimize the likelihood of relapse, it is recommended to maintain treatment for at least 6 months after achieving remission. It is important to note that antidepressants are not habit-forming, and patients should be reassured of this fact.
Depression Treatment Guidelines by NICE
The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) provides guidelines for the treatment of depression. The following are some general recommendations:
– Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) are preferred when prescribing antidepressants.
– Antidepressants are not the first-line treatment for mild depression.
– After remission, continue antidepressant treatment for at least six months.
– Continue treatment for at least two years if at high risk of relapse of have a history of severe or prolonged episodes of inadequate response.
– Use a stepped care approach to depression treatment, starting at the appropriate level based on the severity of depression.The stepped care approach involves the following steps:
– Step 1: Assessment, support, psychoeducation, active monitoring, and referral for further assessment and interventions.
– Step 2: Low-intensity psychosocial interventions, psychological interventions, medication, and referral for further assessment and interventions.
– Step 3: Medication, high-intensity psychological interventions, combined treatments, collaborative care, and referral for further assessment and interventions.
– Step 4: Medication, high-intensity psychological interventions, electroconvulsive therapy, crisis service, combined treatments, multiprofessional and inpatient care.Individual guided self-help programs based on cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT) principles should be supported by a trained practitioner and last 9 to 12 weeks. Physical activity programs should consist of three sessions per week of moderate duration over 10 to 14 weeks.
NICE advises against using antidepressants routinely to treat persistent subthreshold depressive symptoms of mild depression. However, they may be considered for people with a past history of moderate or severe depression, initial presentation of subthreshold depressive symptoms that have been present for a long period, of subthreshold depressive symptoms of mild depression that persist after other interventions.
NICE recommends a combination of antidepressant medication and a high-intensity psychological intervention (CBT of interpersonal therapy) for people with moderate of severe depression. Augmentation of antidepressants with lithium, antipsychotics, of other antidepressants may be appropriate, but benzodiazepines, buspirone, carbamazepine, lamotrigine, of valproate should not be routinely used.
When considering different antidepressants, venlafaxine is associated with a greater risk of death from overdose compared to other equally effective antidepressants. Tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs) except for lofepramine are associated with the greatest risk in overdose. Higher doses of venlafaxine may exacerbate cardiac arrhythmias, and venlafaxine and duloxetine may exacerbate hypertension. TCAs may cause postural hypotension and arrhythmias, and mianserin requires hematological monitoring in elderly people.
The review frequency depends on the age and suicide risk of the patient. If the patient is over 30 and has no suicide risk, see them after two weeks and then at intervals of 2-4 weeks for the first three months. If the patient is under 30 and has a suicide risk, see them after one week.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 103
Incorrect
-
What is the accuracy of the NICE guidelines for investigating dementia?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: FDG-PET of perfusion SPECT should be used where the diagnosis is uncertain and frontotemporal dementia is suspected
Explanation:As an AI language model, I do not have the ability to perform investigations of provide medical advice. However, I can provide information on the NICE guidelines for investigations in people with dementia. The guidelines suggest routine blood tests to exclude reversible causes, such as full blood count, ESR, CRP, urea and electrolytes, calcium, HbA1c, liver function tests, thyroid function tests, and serum B12 and folate levels. Other investigations that may be appropriate if clinically indicated include urine microscopy and culture, chest X-ray, ECG, syphilis serology, and HIV testing. Structural imaging and CSF analysis may also be necessary to exclude other cerebral pathologies and establish the subtype diagnosis. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) is preferred over CT if the subtype is unclear and vascular is suspected. FDG-PET of perfusion SPECT may be considered if the diagnosis is uncertain and frontotemporal dementia of dementia with Lewy bodies is suspected. However, it is important to note that Apolipoprotein E genotyping and electroencephalography should not be used to diagnose Alzheimer’s disease. It is recommended to consult with a healthcare professional for proper evaluation and management of dementia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Old Age Psychiatry
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Question 104
Incorrect
-
A child with a fear of dogs is encouraged to pet a friendly one. At first, the child is very scared but eventually becomes comfortable and enjoys playing with the dog. What type of therapeutic approach does this demonstrate?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Flooding
Explanation:Flooding as a Treatment for Phobias
Flooding is a treatment method for phobias that involves directly confronting the fear and remaining in the situation until the anxiety subsides. This process is called habituation and is different from systematic desensitization. However, flooding can be challenging for patients as it produces high levels of anxiety, which can cause them to leave the situation before the fear response is extinguished. As a result, desensitization is generally preferred over flooding as a treatment method for phobias.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychotherapy
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Question 105
Incorrect
-
Who is credited with coining the term 'hypnosis'?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Braid
Explanation:History of Psychiatric Terms
In the exams, it is important to be familiar with the individuals associated with certain psychiatric terms. For example, Kraepelin is associated with dementia praecox and manic depression, while Bleuler is associated with schizophrenia. Other terms and their associated individuals include Hebephrenia (Hecker), Catatonia (Kahlbaum), Schizoaffective (Kasanin), Neurasthenia (Beard), Unipolar and bipolar (Kleist), Hypnosis (Braid), Group dynamics (Lewin), Group psychotherapy (Moreno), Psychopathic inferiority (Koch), Psychiatry (Reil), and Institutional Neurosis (Barton).
It should be noted that there is some debate over the origins of certain terms. While Kraepelin is often credited with coining the term dementia praecox, some sources suggest that it was first used in its Latin form by Arnold Pick in 1891. The original term demence precoce was first used by Morel in 1852. Despite this, the College appears to favor the Kraepelin attribution.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychotherapy
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Question 106
Incorrect
-
What is a true statement about buprenorphine?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Buprenorphine reduces the effect of additional opioids
Explanation:Higher doses of naloxone are required to displace buprenorphine due to its strong affinity for opioid receptors, which can also result in a blocking effect and precipitated withdrawal if a patient is still using heroin.
Opioid Maintenance Therapy and Detoxification
Withdrawal symptoms can occur after as little as 5 days of regular opioid use. Short-acting opioids like heroin have acute withdrawal symptoms that peak in 32-72 hours and last for 3-5 days. Longer-acting opioids like methadone have acute symptoms that peak at day 4-6 and last for 10 days. Buprenorphine withdrawal lasts up to 10 days and includes symptoms like myalgia, anxiety, and increased drug craving.
Opioids affect the brain through opioid receptors, with the µ receptor being the main target for opioids. Dopaminergic cells in the ventral tegmental area produce dopamine, which is released into the nucleus accumbens upon stimulation of µ receptors, producing euphoria and reward. With repeat opioid exposure, µ receptors become less responsive, causing dysphoria and drug craving.
Methadone and buprenorphine are maintenance-oriented treatments for opioid dependence. Methadone is a full agonist targeting µ receptors, while buprenorphine is a partial agonist targeting µ receptors and a partial k agonist of functional antagonist. Naloxone and naltrexone are antagonists targeting all opioid receptors.
Methadone is preferred over buprenorphine for detoxification, and ultra-rapid detoxification should not be offered. Lofexidine may be considered for mild of uncertain dependence. Clonidine and dihydrocodeine should not be used routinely in opioid detoxification. The duration of detoxification should be up to 4 weeks in an inpatient setting and up to 12 weeks in a community setting.
Pregnant women dependent on opioids should use opioid maintenance treatment rather than attempt detoxification. Methadone is preferred over buprenorphine, and transfer to buprenorphine during pregnancy is not advised. Detoxification should only be considered if appropriate for the women’s wishes, circumstances, and ability to cope. Methadone or buprenorphine treatment is not a contraindication to breastfeeding.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Substance Misuse/Addictions
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Question 107
Incorrect
-
What is the meaning of the P in the PICO model used for creating a research question?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Population
Explanation:Evidence-based medicine involves four basic steps: developing a focused clinical question, searching for the best evidence, critically appraising the evidence, and applying the evidence and evaluating the outcome. When developing a question, it is important to understand the difference between background and foreground questions. Background questions are general questions about conditions, illnesses, syndromes, and pathophysiology, while foreground questions are more often about issues of care. The PICO system is often used to define the components of a foreground question: patient group of interest, intervention of interest, comparison, and primary outcome.
When searching for evidence, it is important to have a basic understanding of the types of evidence and sources of information. Scientific literature is divided into two basic categories: primary (empirical research) and secondary (interpretation and analysis of primary sources). Unfiltered sources are large databases of articles that have not been pre-screened for quality, while filtered resources summarize and appraise evidence from several studies.
There are several databases and search engines that can be used to search for evidence, including Medline and PubMed, Embase, the Cochrane Library, PsycINFO, CINAHL, and OpenGrey. Boolean logic can be used to combine search terms in PubMed, and phrase searching and truncation can also be used. Medical Subject Headings (MeSH) are used by indexers to describe articles for MEDLINE records, and the MeSH Database is like a thesaurus that enables exploration of this vocabulary.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
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Question 108
Incorrect
-
What is a true statement about homicide?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: An estimated 5% of homicides are committed by people with schizophrenia
Explanation:When substance misuse is considered, the majority of harmful actions towards others are not attributed primarily to mental illness. Additionally, individuals with mental illness of intellectual disability are at a higher risk of being subjected to violence rather than being the ones who commit violent acts.
Homicide is classified into three categories in England and Wales: murder, manslaughter, and infanticide. Murder requires intent to kill of cause grievous bodily harm, while manslaughter can be voluntary of involuntary. Mental disorder is significantly associated with homicide, particularly in people diagnosed with schizophrenia and personality disorder. Homicide rates by people with a mental disorder are based on calculations of those with disposals such as ‘diminished responsibility’ and ‘not guilty by reason of insanity’. The age-standardised rate for homicide in people with schizophrenia is estimated to be around 0.1 / 100,000, which translates to about 20-30 mental disorder homicides each year in England and Wales. However, a significant proportion of these cases tend to have a secondary diagnosis of alcohol / drug dependence. Individuals with schizophrenia commit 5-6% of homicides in England.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Forensic Psychiatry
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Question 109
Incorrect
-
What is a factor that increases the risk of agranulocytosis when using clozapine?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Being Asian
Explanation:Clozapine is an effective antipsychotic drug used in the management of treatment-resistant schizophrenia (TRS). It was reintroduced in the 1990s with mandatory blood monitoring due to the risk of agranulocyte
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 110
Incorrect
-
A 35-year-old patient with schizophrenia is found motionless in his bed at home. His sister tells you that he has been that way for a week. He is brought to hospital and will not accept food of fluids and just repeats what you say back to you when you ask him questions. His blood pressure is 170/110 mmhg and pulse is 88 bpm. in the past he had poor compliance on medication. Recently he was on clozapine which he had stopped a month ago. Which of the following would be the most appropriate ways to manage this situation?:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Provide a course of ECT
Explanation:The man’s symptoms suggest that he may be experiencing catatonia, as he is displaying immobility, echolalia, has a history of schizophrenia, and may have stopped taking clozapine. It is alarming that he is not consuming food of water, and urgent action is necessary to prevent a potentially fatal outcome. In cases of acute catatonia, antipsychotics are typically avoided, and benzodiazepines could be considered as a treatment option (although they are not listed as choices in the question). Given the man’s risk of dehydration and electrolyte imbalances, electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) may be a reasonable recommendation.
Catatonia Treatment
Catatonia can lead to complications such as dehydration, deep vein thrombosis, pulmonary embolism, and pneumonia. Therefore, prompt treatment is essential. The first-line treatment is benzodiazepines, particularly lorazepam. If this is ineffective, electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) may be considered. The use of antipsychotics is controversial and should be avoided during the acute phase of catatonia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 111
Incorrect
-
What is the most frequent symptom observed in individuals with Huntington's disease?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Lack of initiative
Explanation:Huntington’s disease is more likely to cause a lack of initiative than a depressed mood.
Psychiatric and Behavioural Symptoms of Huntington’s Disease
Huntington’s disease is a condition that affects individuals with a triad of symptoms, including motor, cognitive, and psychiatric symptoms. While the symptoms typically begin in the third and fourth decades of life, individuals with a high number of CAG repeats may experience symptoms before the age of 20, known as juvenile Huntington’s disease.
The psychiatric symptoms of Huntington’s disease can include depression, apathy, dementia, psychosis, anxiety, mania, sexual dysfunction, and even suicide. These symptoms can significantly impact an individual’s quality of life and require appropriate treatment. Advances in psychiatric treatment have been made to address these symptoms and improve the overall well-being of individuals with Huntington’s disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Old Age Psychiatry
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Question 112
Incorrect
-
Which of the following would be the most appropriate first-line treatment for a 12 year old boy with mild depression that has failed to respond to group based CBT despite 3 months of therapy?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Individual CBT
Explanation:Depression in Young People: NICE Guidelines
The NICE Guidelines for depression in young people are limited to those between the ages of 5-18. For mild depression without significant comorbid problems of active suicidal ideas of plans, watchful waiting is recommended, along with digital CBT, group CBT, group IPT, of group non-directive supportive therapy. For moderate to severe depression, family-based IPT, family therapy, psychodynamic psychotherapy, individual CBT, and fluoxetine may be used for 5-11 year olds, while individual CBT and fluoxetine may be used for 12-18 year olds. Antidepressant medication should not be used for initial treatment of mild depression, and should only be used in combination with concurrent psychological therapy for moderate to severe depression. Fluoxetine is the only antidepressant for which clinical trial evidence shows that the benefits outweigh the risks, and should be used as the first-line treatment. Paroxetine, venlafaxine, tricyclic antidepressants, and St John’s wort should not be used for the treatment of depression in children and young people. Second generation antipsychotics may be used for depression with psychotic symptoms, and ECT should only be considered for those with very severe depression and life-threatening symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Child And Adolescent Psychiatry
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Question 113
Incorrect
-
A consultant psychiatrist presents a case of a depressed patient with cancer who they had reviewed on a hospital ward. She rated the patient's cancer as 'severe'. Her description of the patient's cancer conforms to which of the following data types?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ordinal
Explanation:The use of a scale that categorizes data as mild, moderate, and severe is an example of ordinal data. The data can be arranged in a specific order, where severe cancer is considered worse than moderate, which is worse than mild. However, the difference between mild and moderate may not be the same as the difference between moderate and severe, indicating that this type of data does not follow an interval scale.
Scales of Measurement in Statistics
In the 1940s, Stanley Smith Stevens introduced four scales of measurement to categorize data variables. Knowing the scale of measurement for a variable is crucial in selecting the appropriate statistical analysis. The four scales of measurement are ratio, interval, ordinal, and nominal.
Ratio scales are similar to interval scales, but they have true zero points. Examples of ratio scales include weight, time, and length. Interval scales measure the difference between two values, and one unit on the scale represents the same magnitude on the trait of characteristic being measured across the whole range of the scale. The Fahrenheit scale for temperature is an example of an interval scale.
Ordinal scales categorize observed values into set categories that can be ordered, but the intervals between each value are uncertain. Examples of ordinal scales include social class, education level, and income level. Nominal scales categorize observed values into set categories that have no particular order of hierarchy. Examples of nominal scales include genotype, blood type, and political party.
Data can also be categorized as quantitative of qualitative. Quantitative variables take on numeric values and can be further classified into discrete and continuous types. Qualitative variables do not take on numerical values and are usually names. Some qualitative variables have an inherent order in their categories and are described as ordinal. Qualitative variables are also called categorical of nominal variables. When a qualitative variable has only two categories, it is called a binary variable.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
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Question 114
Incorrect
-
What evidence indicates the presence of dependent personality disorder?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Difficulty in expressing disagreement with others due to fears of losing support
Explanation:It appears that the individual in question may be exhibiting symptoms of obsessive compulsive personality disorder. This disorder is characterized by a preoccupation with orderliness, perfectionism, and control. Individuals with this disorder may have difficulty delegating tasks, may be excessively devoted to work, and may have rigid beliefs and values. They may also be overly conscientious and inflexible, and may struggle with decision-making.
Dependent Personality Disorder is a type of personality disorder where individuals excessively rely on others for support and fear abandonment. This disorder falls under Cluster C personality disorders. The DSM-5 criteria for this disorder includes exhibiting five of more of the following behaviors: difficulty making decisions without input from others, requiring others to take on responsibilities, fear of disagreement, difficulty starting projects without support, excessive need for nurturance and support, feeling vulnerable and helpless when alone, seeking new relationships when one ends, and having an unrealistic fear of being left alone and unable to care for oneself. The ICD-11 removed the specific diagnosis of Dependent Personality Disorder, but individuals can still be diagnosed with a general personality disorder if they exhibit dependent features.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 115
Incorrect
-
Which of the following behaviors of traits may indicate the presence of schizoid personality disorder?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Lack of desire for companionship
Explanation:Schizoid Personality Disorder: A Description of Symptoms
Schizoid personality disorder is a type of personality disorder that falls under cluster A. People with this disorder are often seen as distant, isolated, and emotionally detached. They tend to have a restricted range of emotions and struggle to form close relationships with others. Symptoms typically begin in early adulthood and can be observed in various contexts. To be diagnosed with schizoid personality disorder, an individual must exhibit at least four of the following symptoms:
1. Lack of desire for close relationships
2. Preferring solitary activities
3. Little interest in sexual experiences
4. Finding pleasure in few activities
5. Lack of close friends of confidants
6. Indifference to praise of criticism
7. Emotional coldness, detachment, of flattened affectivity
8. Symptoms cannot be attributed to another medical condition and do not occur in the context of schizophrenia, manic depression, autism spectrum disorder, of another affective disorder with psychotic features.It is important to note that the ICD-11 does not have a specific category for schizoid personality disorder. Instead, it has adopted a dimensional approach to diagnosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 116
Incorrect
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What psychiatric condition has aromatherapy demonstrated effective results for?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Dementia
Explanation:Aromatherapy is a form of complementary therapy that involves the use of essential oils, such as Melissa balm and lavender, which can be applied directly to the skin, heated in a burner, of added to a bath. The benefits of aromatherapy are believed to be primarily due to sensory stimulation, and it can be used in a variety of clinical settings. In fact, 11 randomized controlled trials have shown that aromatherapy is effective in managing the Behavioral and Psychological Symptoms of Dementia (BPSD). As research continues on non-pharmacological interventions for BPSD, it is important to consider the potential benefits of aromatherapy, as well as other interventions such as doll therapy, dance/movement therapy, light therapy, and animal-assisted therapy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychotherapy
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Question 117
Incorrect
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What is the medical condition that is identified by the presence of global confusion, ophthalmoplegia, and ataxia as its triad of symptoms?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Wernicke's encephalopathy
Explanation:Wernicke’s Encephalopathy: Symptoms, Causes, and Treatment
Wernicke’s encephalopathy is a serious condition that is characterized by confusion, ophthalmoplegia, and ataxia. However, the complete triad is only present in 10% of cases, which often leads to underdiagnosis. The condition results from prolonged thiamine deficiency, which is commonly seen in people with alcohol dependency, but can also occur in other conditions such as anorexia nervosa, malignancy, and AIDS.
The onset of Wernicke’s encephalopathy is usually abrupt, but it may develop over several days to weeks. The lesions occur in a symmetrical distribution in structures surrounding the third ventricle, aqueduct, and fourth ventricle. The mammillary bodies are involved in up to 80% of cases, and atrophy of these structures is specific for Wernicke’s encephalopathy.
Treatment involves intravenous thiamine, as oral forms of B1 are poorly absorbed. IV glucose should be avoided when thiamine deficiency is suspected as it can precipitate of exacerbate Wernicke’s. With treatment, ophthalmoplegia and confusion usually resolve within days, but the ataxia, neuropathy, and nystagmus may be prolonged of permanent.
Untreated cases of Wernicke’s encephalopathy can lead to Korsakoff’s syndrome, which is characterized by memory impairment associated with confabulation. The mortality rate associated with Wernicke’s encephalopathy is 10-20%, making early diagnosis and treatment crucial.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Substance Misuse/Addictions
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Question 118
Incorrect
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A teenager with PTSD comes to the clinic with strong opinions on treatment. Which of the following treatments has not been proven effective for PTSD?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Relaxation therapy
Explanation:The effectiveness of non trauma-focused psychological therapies (such as relaxation therapy, hypnosis, and supportive therapy) in treating PTSD has not been supported by any evidence.
Stress disorders, such as Post Traumatic Stress Disorder (PTSD), are emotional reactions to traumatic events. The diagnosis of PTSD requires exposure to an extremely threatening of horrific event, followed by the development of a characteristic syndrome lasting for at least several weeks, consisting of re-experiencing the traumatic event, deliberate avoidance of reminders likely to produce re-experiencing, and persistent perceptions of heightened current threat. Additional clinical features may include general dysphoria, dissociative symptoms, somatic complaints, suicidal ideation and behaviour, social withdrawal, excessive alcohol of drug use, anxiety symptoms, and obsessions of compulsions. The emotional experience of individuals with PTSD commonly includes anger, shame, sadness, humiliation, of guilt. The onset of PTSD symptoms can occur at any time during the lifespan following exposure to a traumatic event, and the symptoms and course of PTSD can vary significantly over time and individuals. Key differentials include acute stress reaction, adjustment disorder, and complex PTSD. Management of PTSD includes trauma-focused cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT), eye movement desensitization and reprocessing (EMDR), and supported trauma-focused computerized CBT interventions. Drug treatments, including benzodiazepines, are not recommended for the prevention of treatment of PTSD in adults, but venlafaxine of a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) may be considered for adults with a diagnosis of PTSD if the person has a preference for drug treatment. Antipsychotics such as risperidone may be considered in addition if disabling symptoms and behaviors are present and have not responded to other treatments. Psychological debriefing is not recommended for the prevention of treatment of PTSD. For children and young people, individual trauma-focused CBT interventions of EMDR may be considered, but drug treatments are not recommended.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 119
Incorrect
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What is the term used to describe the rate at which new cases of a disease are appearing, calculated by dividing the number of new cases by the total time that disease-free individuals are observed during a study period?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Incidence rate
Explanation:Measures of Disease Frequency: Incidence and Prevalence
Incidence and prevalence are two important measures of disease frequency. Incidence measures the speed at which new cases of a disease are emerging, while prevalence measures the burden of disease within a population. Cumulative incidence and incidence rate are two types of incidence measures, while point prevalence and period prevalence are two types of prevalence measures.
Cumulative incidence is the average risk of getting a disease over a certain period of time, while incidence rate is a measure of the speed at which new cases are emerging. Prevalence is a proportion and is a measure of the burden of disease within a population. Point prevalence measures the number of cases in a defined population at a specific point in time, while period prevalence measures the number of identified cases during a specified period of time.
It is important to note that prevalence is equal to incidence multiplied by the duration of the condition. In chronic diseases, the prevalence is much greater than the incidence. The incidence rate is stated in units of person-time, while cumulative incidence is always a proportion. When describing cumulative incidence, it is necessary to give the follow-up period over which the risk is estimated. In acute diseases, the prevalence and incidence may be similar, while for conditions such as the common cold, the incidence may be greater than the prevalence.
Incidence is a useful measure to study disease etiology and risk factors, while prevalence is useful for health resource planning. Understanding these measures of disease frequency is important for public health professionals and researchers in order to effectively monitor and address the burden of disease within populations.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
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Question 120
Incorrect
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A study reports that 76 percent of the subjects receiving fluvoxamine versus 29 percent of the placebo group were treatment responders. Based on this data, what is the number needed to treat?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 2.12
Explanation:To determine the number needed to treat (NNT), we first calculated the absolute risk reduction (ARR) using the formula ARR = CER – EER, where CER is the control event rate and EER is the experimental event rate. In this case, the ARR was 0.47, which is the reciprocal of the NNT. Therefore, the NNT was calculated as 2.12. This means that for every two patients treated with the active medication, at least one patient will have a better outcome compared to those treated with a placebo.
Measures of Effect in Clinical Studies
When conducting clinical studies, we often want to know the effect of treatments of exposures on health outcomes. Measures of effect are used in randomized controlled trials (RCTs) and include the odds ratio (of), risk ratio (RR), risk difference (RD), and number needed to treat (NNT). Dichotomous (binary) outcome data are common in clinical trials, where the outcome for each participant is one of two possibilities, such as dead of alive, of clinical improvement of no improvement.
To understand the difference between of and RR, it’s important to know the difference between risks and odds. Risk is a proportion that describes the probability of a health outcome occurring, while odds is a ratio that compares the probability of an event occurring to the probability of it not occurring. Absolute risk is the basic risk, while risk difference is the difference between the absolute risk of an event in the intervention group and the absolute risk in the control group. Relative risk is the ratio of risk in the intervention group to the risk in the control group.
The number needed to treat (NNT) is the number of patients who need to be treated for one to benefit. Odds are calculated by dividing the number of times an event happens by the number of times it does not happen. The odds ratio is the odds of an outcome given a particular exposure versus the odds of an outcome in the absence of the exposure. It is commonly used in case-control studies and can also be used in cross-sectional and cohort study designs. An odds ratio of 1 indicates no difference in risk between the two groups, while an odds ratio >1 indicates an increased risk and an odds ratio <1 indicates a reduced risk.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
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Question 121
Incorrect
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What is a known cause of difficulty with swallowing in individuals with learning disabilities?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Clonazepam
Explanation:Dysphagia can be caused by sedatives and other CNS depressants as they reduce arousal and suppress brainstem function.
Swallowing Difficulties Caused by Certain Medications
Swallowing difficulties, also known as dysphagia, can be caused by various factors, including certain medications. Benzodiazepines, commonly used to treat anxiety and sleep disorders, have been found to cause swallowing problems in patients with learning difficulties. Additionally, other drugs such as metoclopramide, haloperidol, and phenothiazines have also been linked to dysphagia.
Diagnosis and management of dysphagia is crucial to prevent complications such as aspiration pneumonia and malnutrition. Patients experiencing swallowing difficulties should undergo a thorough evaluation by a healthcare professional, including a clinical examination and imaging studies. Treatment options may include modifying the consistency of food and liquids, swallowing exercises, and medication adjustments. It is important for healthcare providers to be aware of the potential side effects of certain medications and to monitor patients for any signs of dysphagia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Learning Disability
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Question 122
Incorrect
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What condition of situation would make rTMS inappropriate of unsafe to use?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cochlear implant
Explanation:Neurostimulation is a treatment that uses electromagnetic energy targeted at the brain. There are several forms of neurostimulation, including TMS, deep brain stimulation, and ECT. TMS is a non-invasive, non-convulsive technique used to stimulate neural tissue. It involves the placement of an electromagnetic coil on the patient’s scalp to deliver a short, powerful magnetic field pulse through the scalp and induce electric current in the brain. TMS is used to treat depression when standard treatments have failed. Deep brain stimulation is a neurosurgical technique that involves placing an electrode within the brain to deliver a high-frequency current in a specific subcortical of deep cortical structure. It has been used to treat Parkinson’s, dysthymia, OCD, and Tourette syndrome. There is RCT evidence to demonstrate its effectiveness in OCD, but conflicting results in depression and Tourette’s. DBS is also being trailed in other conditions such as anorexia, bipolar, and additions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Organisation And Delivery Of Psychiatric Services
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Question 123
Incorrect
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Which of the following would be the most appropriate first line treatment strategy for a 16 year old girl diagnosed with bulimia nervosa?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Family therapy
Explanation:The NICE Guideline recommends family therapy as the primary treatment option. For adults, guided self-help is the preferred first-line option, while medications are not advised for either children of adults.
Eating Disorders: NICE Guidelines
Anorexia:
For adults with anorexia nervosa, consider individual eating-disorder-focused cognitive behavioural therapy (CBT-ED), Maudsley Anorexia Nervosa Treatment for Adults (MANTRA), of specialist supportive clinical management (SSCM). If these are not acceptable, contraindicated, of ineffective, consider eating-disorder-focused focal psychodynamic therapy (FPT). For children and young people, consider anorexia-nervosa-focused family therapy (FT-AN) of individual CBT-ED. Do not offer medication as the sole treatment.Bulimia:
For adults, the first step is an evidence-based self-help programme. If this is not effective, consider individual CBT-ED. For children and young people, offer bulimia-nervosa-focused family therapy (FT-BN) of individual CBT-ED. Do not offer medication as the sole treatment.Binge Eating Disorder:
The first step is a guided self-help programme. If this is not effective, offer group of individual CBT-ED. For children and young people, offer the same treatments recommended for adults. Do not offer medication as the sole treatment.Advice for those with eating disorders:
Encourage people with an eating disorder who are vomiting to avoid brushing teeth immediately after vomiting, rinse with non-acid mouthwash, and avoid highly acidic foods and drinks. Advise against misusing laxatives of diuretics and excessive exercise.Additional points:
Do not offer physical therapy as part of treatment. Consider bone mineral density scans after 1 year of underweight in children and young people, of 2 years in adults. Do not routinely offer oral of transdermal oestrogen therapy to treat low bone mineral density in children of young people with anorexia nervosa. Consider transdermal 17-β-estradiol of bisphosphonates for women with anorexia nervosa.Note: These guidelines are taken from NICE guidelines 2017.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 124
Incorrect
-
In drug testing, which substance commonly used for weight loss and bodybuilding, is known to cause inaccurate results?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Amphetamines
Explanation:Originally developed as a nasal decongestant, dimethylamylamine is now available as a dietary supplement for purposes such as weight loss, enhancing athletic abilities, and building muscle mass. However, it is important to note that this substance is artificially produced in a laboratory.
Drug Testing
There are two main approaches to testing for illicit substances: immunoassays and lab testing. Immunoassays are a cheap and quick screening method, but not very specific. Lab testing is more accurate but time-consuming and expensive. Drug testing can be done through urine, saliva, blood, hair, and sweat, although hair and sweat are rarely used in mental health settings.
False positives can occur when testing for illicit substances, so it’s important to check that patients are not taking other medications that could produce a false positive result. For example, common medications that can lead to false positive results include dimethylamylamine, ofloxacin, bupropion, phenothiazines, trazodone, and methylphenidate for amphetamines/methamphetamines; sertraline and efavirenz for benzodiazepines and cannabis; topical anesthetics for cocaine; codeine, dihydrocodeine, and methadone for opioids; lamotrigine, tramadol, and venlafaxine for PCP; and amitriptyline, bupropion, buspirone, chlorpromazine, fluoxetine, sertraline, and verapamil for LSD.
In summary, drug testing is an important tool in mental health settings, but it’s crucial to consider potential false positives and medication interactions when interpreting results.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Substance Misuse/Addictions
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Question 125
Incorrect
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What is the lowest amount of olanzapine needed to effectively treat a patient experiencing their first episode of schizophrenia?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 5 mg
Explanation:Antipsychotics: Minimum Effective Doses
The Maudsley Guidelines provide a table of minimum effective oral doses for antipsychotics in schizophrenia. The following doses are recommended for first episode and relapse (multi-episode) cases:
– Chlorpromazine: 200mg (first episode) and 300mg (relapse)
– Haloperidol: 2mg (first episode) and 4mg (relapse)
– Sulpiride: 400mg (first episode) and 800mg (relapse)
– Trifluoperazine: 10mg (first episode) and 15mg (relapse)
– Amisulpride: 300mg (first episode) and 400mg (relapse)
– Aripiprazole: 10mg (first episode and relapse)
– Olanzapine: 5mg (first episode) and 7.5mg (relapse)
– Quetiapine: 150mg (first episode) and 300mg (relapse)
– Risperidone: 2mg (first episode) and 4mg (relapse)The minimum effective doses may vary depending on individual patient factors and response to treatment. It is important to consult with a healthcare professional before making any changes to medication dosages.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 126
Incorrect
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A 7 year old girl presents with persistent bed wetting. She has been able to stay dry during the day since she was 5 years old, but still wets the bed 2-3 nights per week. The girl and her parents are becoming increasingly worried about this issue. Urinalysis results are normal and there are no indications of an underlying medical cause. What recommendations would you make?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The parents should be encouraged to start a reward system
Explanation:NICE (CG111) recommends implementing a reward system and providing advice on fluid intake and using the toilet before sleep as initial measures for bedwetting. If these measures are unsuccessful of if bedwetting occurs less than 1-2 nights per week, alarms are suggested. Desmopressin should only be considered for children aged 7 and above if the alarm method has failed of is not preferred.
Elimination Disorders
Elimination disorders refer to conditions that affect a child’s ability to control their bladder of bowel movements. Enuresis, of lack of control over the bladder, typically occurs between the ages of 1-3, while control over the bowel usually occurs before that of the bladder for most toddlers. Toilet training can be influenced by various factors, including intellectual capacity, cultural determinants, and psychological interactions between the child and their parents.
Enuresis is characterized by involuntary voiding of urine, by day and/of by night, which is abnormal in relation to the individual’s age and is not a result of any physical abnormality. It is not normally diagnosed before age 5 and may be primary (the child never having achieved continence) of secondary. Treatment options include reassurance, enuresis alarms, and medication.
Encopresis refers to repeated stool evacuation in inappropriate places in children over the age of four. The behavior can be either involuntary of intentional and may be due to unsuccessful toilet training (primary encopresis) of occur after a period of normal bowel control (secondary encopresis). Treatment generally involves bowel clearance, prevention of impaction, and behavioral therapy.
Before a diagnosis of encopresis is made, organic causes must be excluded. Hirschsprung’s disease is a condition that results from an absence of parasympathetic ganglion cells in the rectum, colon, and sometimes the small intestine. It leads to a colonic obstruction and is diagnosed in at least half of all cases in the first year of life. It is twice as common in boys than in girls.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Child And Adolescent Psychiatry
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Question 127
Incorrect
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What element was included in the original concept of the alcohol dependence syndrome by Edwards and Gross but is not present in the ICD-11 concept of the dependence syndrome?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Rapid reinstatement of symptoms after a period of abstinence
Explanation:It is important to pay close attention to the question being asked. The question inquires about an item that was present in the original classification but not included in ICD-11. While salience is present in both classifications, the Edwards and Gross feature of ‘salience of drink seeking behaviour’ is equivalent to the ICD-11 feature of ‘Increasing precedence of alcohol use over other aspects of life’. The original classification included ‘rapid reinstatement of symptoms after a period of abstinence’, which is not present in ICD-11.
Alcohol Dependence Syndrome: ICD-11 and DSM 5 Criteria
The criteria for diagnosing alcohol dependence syndrome in the ICD-11 and DSM 5 are quite similar, as both are based on the original concept developed by Edwards and Gross in 1976. The original concept had seven elements, including narrowing of the drinking repertoire, salience of drink seeking behavior, tolerance, withdrawal symptoms, relief of withdrawal by further drinking, compulsion to drink, and rapid reinstatement of symptoms after a period of abstinence.
The DSM-5 Alcohol Use Disorder criteria include a problematic pattern of alcohol use leading to clinically significant impairment of distress, as manifested by at least two of the following occurring within a 12-month period. These include taking alcohol in larger amounts of over a longer period than intended, persistent desire of unsuccessful efforts to cut down of control alcohol use, spending a great deal of time in activities necessary to obtain alcohol, craving of a strong desire of urge to use alcohol, recurrent alcohol use resulting in a failure to fulfill major role obligations, continued alcohol use despite having persistent or recurrent social of interpersonal problems, giving up of reducing important social, occupational, of recreational activities due to alcohol use, recurrent alcohol use in physically hazardous situations, and continued alcohol use despite knowledge of having a persistent or recurrent physical or psychological problem caused or exacerbated by alcohol. Tolerance and withdrawal symptoms are also included in the criteria.
The ICD-11 Alcohol Dependence criteria include a pattern of recurrent episodic of continuous use of alcohol with evidence of impaired regulation of alcohol use, manifested by impaired control over alcohol use, increasing precedence of alcohol use over other aspects of life, and physiological features indicative of neuroadaptation to the substance, including tolerance to the effects of alcohol of a need to use increasing amounts of alcohol to achieve the same effect, withdrawal symptoms following cessation of reduction in use of alcohol, of repeated use of alcohol of pharmacologically similar substances to prevent of alleviate withdrawal symptoms. The features of dependence are usually evident over a period of at least 12 months, but the diagnosis may be made if use is continuous for at least 3 months.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Substance Misuse/Addictions
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Question 128
Incorrect
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In a healthy right-handed man, which structure is typically larger in the left hemisphere compared to the right hemisphere?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Planum temporale
Explanation:Cerebral Asymmetry in Planum Temporale and its Implications in Language and Auditory Processing
The planum temporale, a triangular region in the posterior superior temporal gyrus, is a highly lateralized brain structure involved in language and music processing. Studies have shown that the planum temporale is up to ten times larger in the left cerebral hemisphere than the right, with this asymmetry being more prominent in men. This asymmetry can be observed in gestation and is present in up to 70% of right-handed individuals.
Recent research suggests that the planum temporale also plays an important role in auditory processing, specifically in representing the location of sounds in space. However, reduced planum temporale asymmetry has been observed in individuals with dyslexia, stuttering, and schizophrenia. These findings highlight the importance of cerebral asymmetry in the planum temporale and its implications in language and auditory processing.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 129
Incorrect
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A medical colleague contacts you for advice regarding the management of a teenage patient with HIV. You have previously looked after this patient due to her having borderline personality disorder and mania. The patient has a long history of self-harm and remains at high risk of suicide. Which of the following antiretrovirals would you suggest your colleague specifically avoid in this case?:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Efavirenz
Explanation:For exams, it is important to be aware that Efavirenz, an antiretroviral, has been associated with both mania and fatal suicide.
HIV and Mental Health: Understanding the Relationship and Treatment Options
Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) is a blood-borne virus that causes cellular immune deficiency, resulting in a decrease in the number of CD4+ T-cells. People with severe mental illness are at increased risk of contracting and transmitting HIV, and the prevalence of HIV infection among them is higher than in the general population. Antiretroviral drugs are used to manage HIV, but they are not curative.
Depression is the most common mental disorder in the HIV population, and it can result from HIV of the psycho-social consequences of having the condition. HIV-associated neurocognitive disorder (HAND) is the umbrella term for the spectrum of neurocognitive impairment induced by HIV, ranging from mild impairment through to dementia. Poor episodic memory is the most frequently reported cognitive difficulty in HIV-positive individuals.
Treatment options for mental health issues in people with HIV include atypical antipsychotics for psychosis, SSRIs for depression and anxiety, valproate for bipolar disorder, and antiretroviral therapy for HAND. It is important to avoid benzodiazepines for delirium and MAOIs for depression. Understanding the relationship between HIV and mental health and providing appropriate treatment options can improve the quality of life for people living with HIV.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 130
Incorrect
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The initial application of deep brain stimulation (DBS) was for the treatment of which condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Chronic pain
Explanation:The human cortex was first directly stimulated in 1874, followed by the use of frontal tract stimulation for chronic pain in 1948. Thalamic stimulation for tremor was introduced in 1960, and basal ganglia stimulation for Parkinson’s tremor in 1968. The effectiveness of stimulation in treating epilepsy was discovered in 1973, and for depression in 1987.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Organisation And Delivery Of Psychiatric Services
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Question 131
Incorrect
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Which feature is not included in Kernberg's description of 'borderline personality organisation'?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Negative automatic thoughts
Explanation:The psychoanalyst Kernberg introduced the idea of ‘borderline personality organization’ and played a role in advancing the Transference-Focused Therapy approach to treatment.
Personality Disorder (Borderline)
History and Terminology
The term borderline personality disorder originated from early 20th-century theories that the disorder was on the border between neurosis and psychosis. The term borderline was coined by Adolph Stern in 1938. Subsequent attempts to define the condition include Otto Kernberg’s borderline personality organization, which identified key elements such as ego weakness, primitive defense mechanisms, identity diffusion, and unstable reality testing.
Features
The DSM-5 and ICD-11 both define borderline personality disorder as a pervasive pattern of instability in interpersonal relationships, self-image, and affects, and marked impulsivity. Symptoms include efforts to avoid abandonment, unstable relationships, impulsivity, suicidal behavior, affective instability, chronic feelings of emptiness, difficulty controlling temper, and transient dissociative symptoms.
Abuse
Childhood abuse and neglect are extremely common among borderline patients, with up to 87% having suffered some form of trauma. The effect of abuse seems to depend on the stage of psychological development at which it takes place.
comorbidity
Borderline PD patients are more likely to receive a diagnosis of major depressive disorder, bipolar disorder, panic disorder, PTSD, OCD, eating disorders, and somatoform disorders.
Psychological Therapy
Dialectical Behavioral Therapy (DBT), Mentalization-Based Treatment (MBT), Schema-Focused Therapy (SFT), and Transference-Focused Psychotherapy (TFP) are the main psychological treatments for BPD. DBT is the most well-known and widely available, while MBT focuses on improving mentalization, SFT generates structural changes to a patient’s personality, and TFP examines dysfunctional interpersonal dynamics that emerge in interactions with the therapist in the transference.
NICE Guidelines
The NICE guidelines on BPD offer very little recommendations. They do not recommend medication for treatment of the core symptoms. Regarding psychological therapies, they make reference to DBT and MBT being effective but add that the evidence base is too small to draw firm conclusions. They do specifically say Do not use brief psychotherapeutic interventions (of less than 3 months’ duration) specifically for borderline personality disorder of for the individual symptoms of the disorder.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 132
Incorrect
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You receive a call from a doctor in the emergency department regarding a middle-aged female patient with a history of depression under psychiatric care who has presented with a gastrointestinal bleed. The doctor is inquiring about the potential contribution of any medications to the bleed. Which medication would you consider as the most likely culprit?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Fluoxetine
Explanation:SSRI and Bleeding Risk: Management Strategies
SSRIs have been linked to an increased risk of bleeding, particularly in vulnerable populations such as the elderly, those with a history of bleeding, and those taking medications that predispose them to bleeding. The risk of bleeding is further elevated in patients with comorbidities such as liver of renal disease, smoking, and alcohol of drug misuse.
To manage this risk, the Maudsley recommends avoiding SSRIs in patients receiving NSAIDs, aspirin, of oral anticoagulants, of those with a history of cerebral of GI bleeds. If SSRI use cannot be avoided, close monitoring and prescription of gastroprotective proton pump inhibitors are recommended. The degree of serotonin reuptake inhibition varies among antidepressants, with some having weaker of no inhibition, which may be associated with a lower risk of bleeding.
NICE recommends caution when using SSRIs in patients taking aspirin and suggests considering alternative antidepressants such as trazodone, mianserin, of reboxetine. In patients taking warfarin of heparin, SSRIs are not recommended, but mirtazapine may be considered with caution.
Overall, healthcare providers should carefully weigh the risks and benefits of SSRI use in patients at risk of bleeding and consider alternative antidepressants of gastroprotective measures when appropriate.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Old Age Psychiatry
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Question 133
Incorrect
-
What is the focus of assessment in interpersonal psychotherapy?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Current relationships
Explanation:Interpersonal Therapy: A Structured Approach to Addressing Social Functioning Problems
Interpersonal therapy (IPT) is a structured form of psychotherapy that is often used to treat depression. It is based on the belief that social functioning problems have a significant impact on psychological problems. IPT is a time-limited therapy that typically runs for 10-16 one hour sessions. The therapy is organized into three phases, with the first phase involving data collection and formulation. The remaining sessions explore the formulation in more detail.
IPT focuses on four areas of social functioning problems: grief, role transitions, interpersonal deficits, and interpersonal disputes. The therapy aims to intervene at the level of social functioning, rather than focusing on personality. The therapy has been found to be effective in treating depression, particularly in patients with severe depression. However, it may be less effective in treating people with depression and comorbid personality disorders.
The evidence base for IPT is most developed for eating disorders, and the intervention is recommended in NICE guidelines for eating disorders. Overall, IPT is a structured approach to addressing social functioning problems that can be effective in treating depression and other psychological problems.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychotherapy
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Question 134
Incorrect
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What is the most frequently observed behavior in children diagnosed with conduct disorder?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hyperactivity
Explanation:Disruptive Behaviour of Dissocial Disorders
Conduct disorders are the most common reason for referral of young children to mental health services. These disorders are characterized by a repetitive and persistent pattern of antisocial, aggressive, of defiant conduct that goes beyond ordinary childish mischief of adolescent rebelliousness. Oppositional defiant disorder (ODD) shares some negative attributes but in a more limited fashion.
ICD-11 terms the disorder as ‘Conduct-dissocial disorder’, while DSM-5 recognizes three separate conditions related to emotional/behavioral problems seen in younger people: conduct disorder, oppositional defiant disorder, and intermittent explosive disorder. Conduct disorder is about poorly controlled behavior, intermittent explosive disorder is about poorly controlled emotions, and ODD is in between. Conduct disorders are further divided into childhood onset (before 10 years) and adolescent onset (10 years of older).
The behavior pattern of conduct disorders must be persistent and recurrent, including multiple incidents of aggression towards people of animals, destruction of property, deceitfulness of theft, and serious violations of rules. The pattern of behavior must result in significant impairment in personal, family, social, educational, occupational, of other important areas of functioning.
Oppositional defiant disorder represents a less severe form of conduct disorder, where there is an absence of more severe dissocial of aggressive acts. The behavior pattern of ODD includes persistent difficulty getting along with others, provocative, spiteful, of vindictive behavior, and extreme irritability of anger.
The prevalence of conduct disorders increases throughout childhood and is more common in boys than girls. The most frequent comorbid problem seen with conduct disorder is hyperactivity. The conversion rate from childhood conduct disorder to adult antisocial personality disorder varies from 40 to 70% depending on the study.
NICE recommends group parent-based training programs of parent and child training programs for children with complex needs for ages 3-11, child-focused programs for ages 9-14, and multimodal interventions with a family focus for ages 11-17. Medication is not recommended in routine practice, but risperidone can be used where other approaches fail and they are seriously aggressive.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Child And Adolescent Psychiatry
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Question 135
Incorrect
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Which of the following factors does not increase the risk of self-injury in individuals with learning disabilities?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Polypharmacy
Explanation:Medication for Self-Mutilating Behaviour in People with Learning Disability
Self-injurious behaviour is a common issue among people with learning disability, and several risk factors have been identified, including younger age, lower developmental ability, autistic symptoms, and sensory impairment. According to R Collacott’s study published in the British Journal of Psychiatry in 1998, these factors increase the likelihood of self-injury in this population.
Currently, lithium is the only medication that is licensed for the treatment of self-mutilating behaviour in people with learning disability. Other medications may be prescribed off-label, but their effectiveness and safety in this population are not well-established. Therefore, healthcare professionals should carefully consider the risks and benefits of medication use and closely monitor their patients for any adverse effects.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Learning Disability
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Question 136
Incorrect
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What publication was commissioned following Graham Young's conditional discharge from Broadmoor Hospital and subsequent murder of two colleagues?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Butler Committee Report
Explanation:The Butler Committee report was initiated after Graham Young murdered two colleagues following his release from Broadmoor Hospital. It suggested that each health authority should have a regional secure unit. Similarly, the Glancy Report recommended the development of secure hospital units for patients who could not be managed on open wards. The Reed Report recommended that mentally ill offenders should receive care and treatment from health and social services instead of custodial care. The Fallon Inquiry report highlighted serious deficiencies in the Personality Disorder Unit at Ashworth Special Hospital, leading to the Tilt Report, which reviewed security at three English High Security Hospitals (Broadmoor, Ashworth, and Rampton).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Forensic Psychiatry
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Question 137
Incorrect
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You design an experiment investigating whether 3 different exercise routines each with a different intensity level affect a person's heart rate to a different degree. Which of the following tests would you use to demonstrate a statistically significant difference between the exercise routines?:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: ANOVA
Explanation:Choosing the right statistical test can be challenging, but understanding the basic principles can help. Different tests have different assumptions, and using the wrong one can lead to inaccurate results. To identify the appropriate test, a flow chart can be used based on three main factors: the type of dependent variable, the type of data, and whether the groups/samples are independent of dependent. It is important to know which tests are parametric and non-parametric, as well as their alternatives. For example, the chi-squared test is used to assess differences in categorical variables and is non-parametric, while Pearson’s correlation coefficient measures linear correlation between two variables and is parametric. T-tests are used to compare means between two groups, and ANOVA is used to compare means between more than two groups. Non-parametric equivalents to ANOVA include the Kruskal-Wallis analysis of ranks, the Median test, Friedman’s two-way analysis of variance, and Cochran Q test. Understanding these tests and their assumptions can help researchers choose the appropriate statistical test for their data.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
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Question 138
Incorrect
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What is the most frequently reported side-effect of methylphenidate?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Insomnia
Explanation:It is important to note that while these side-effects are listed as very common, not everyone will experience them. It is also important to discuss any concerns of side-effects with a healthcare professional before making any changes to medication. Additionally, it is important to weigh the potential benefits of medication in treating ADHD symptoms against the potential side-effects.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Child And Adolescent Psychiatry
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Question 139
Incorrect
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What is true about the process of alcohol detoxification?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Home detoxification is usually complete within 5-9 days
Explanation:Alcohol detoxification can be done at home of in an inpatient setting. Studies have shown that there is no significant difference between the two methods, but inpatient detox is much more expensive. However, inpatient detox is recommended for patients who have a high risk of seizures during alcohol withdrawal, which occurs in 5-10% of patients. Age, prolactin, blood alcohol concentration on admission, and elevated homocysteine levels are all risk factors for seizures, with the latter being the strongest predictor. Chronic alcohol intake can lead to elevated homocysteine levels due to impaired metabolism from B12 and folate deficiency.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Substance Misuse/Addictions
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Question 140
Incorrect
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How would you rephrase the question Which of the following refers to the proportion of people scoring positive on a test that actually have the condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Positive predictive value
Explanation:Clinical tests are used to determine the presence of absence of a disease of condition. To interpret test results, it is important to have a working knowledge of statistics used to describe them. Two by two tables are commonly used to calculate test statistics such as sensitivity and specificity. Sensitivity refers to the proportion of people with a condition that the test correctly identifies, while specificity refers to the proportion of people without a condition that the test correctly identifies. Accuracy tells us how closely a test measures to its true value, while predictive values help us understand the likelihood of having a disease based on a positive of negative test result. Likelihood ratios combine sensitivity and specificity into a single figure that can refine our estimation of the probability of a disease being present. Pre and post-test odds and probabilities can also be calculated to better understand the likelihood of having a disease before and after a test is carried out. Fagan’s nomogram is a useful tool for calculating post-test probabilities.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
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Question 141
Incorrect
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What is the most frequently reported side-effect of methylphenidate?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Anorexia
Explanation:It is important to note that while these side-effects are listed as very common, not everyone will experience them. It is also important to discuss any concerns of side-effects with a healthcare professional before making any changes to medication. Additionally, it is important to weigh the potential benefits of medication in treating ADHD symptoms against the potential side-effects.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Child And Adolescent Psychiatry
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Question 142
Incorrect
-
What is the most suitable course of action for managing a patient with Alzheimer's disease who exhibits signs of psychosis and poses a threat to others?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Risperidone
Explanation:Risperidone has been approved as a viable treatment for behavioral issues associated with Alzheimer’s disease.
Management of Non-Cognitive Symptoms in Dementia
Non-cognitive symptoms of dementia can include agitation, aggression, distress, psychosis, depression, anxiety, sleep problems, wandering, hoarding, sexual disinhibition, apathy, and shouting. Non-pharmacological measures, such as music therapy, should be considered before prescribing medication. Pain may cause agitation, so a trial of analgesics is recommended. Antipsychotics, such as risperidone, olanzapine, and aripiprazole, may be used for severe distress of serious risk to others, but their use is controversial due to issues of tolerability and an association with increased mortality. Cognitive enhancers, such as AChE-Is and memantine, may have a modest benefit on BPSD, but their effects may take 3-6 months to take effect. Benzodiazepines should be avoided except in emergencies, and antidepressants, such as citalopram and trazodone, may have mixed evidence for BPSD. Mood stabilizers, such as valproate and carbamazepine, have limited evidence to support their use. Sedating antihistamines, such as promethazine, may cause cognitive impairment and should only be used short-term. Melatonin has limited evidence to support its use but is safe to use and may be justified in some cases where benefits are seen. For Lewy Body dementia, clozapine is favored over risperidone, and quetiapine may be a reasonable choice if clozapine is not appropriate. Overall, medication should only be used when non-pharmacological measures are ineffective, and the need is balanced with the increased risk of adverse effects.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Old Age Psychiatry
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Question 143
Incorrect
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A teenage patient with multiple sclerosis attends clinic with their parent. The parent explains that the patient has been experiencing uncontrollable episodes of crying which occur without an apparent triggering stimulus. The problem has been present for several months and is causing the patient to avoid social situations. Which of the following medications would you suggest in an attempt to address this problem?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Amitriptyline
Explanation:Based on the patient’s history, it appears that they are experiencing pathological crying. In such cases, medications such as amitriptyline or fluoxetine are recommended. However, it is important to note that if the pathological laughing/crying is a result of a stroke, citalopram or sertraline may be more appropriate.
Psychiatric Consequences of Multiple Sclerosis
Multiple sclerosis (MS) is a neurological disorder that affects individuals between the ages of 20 and 40. It is characterized by multiple demyelinating lesions in the optic nerves, cerebellum, brainstem, and spinal cord. MS presents with diverse neurological signs, including optic neuritis, internuclear ophthalmoplegia, and ocular motor cranial neuropathy.
Depression is the most common psychiatric condition seen in MS, with a lifetime prevalence of 25-50%. The symptoms of depression in people with MS tend to be different from those without MS. The preferred diagnostic indicators for depression in MS include pervasive mood change, diurnal mood variation, suicidal ideation, functional change not related to physical disability, and pessimistic of negative patterns of thinking. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) are considered first-line treatment for depression in patients with MS.
Suicide is common in MS, with recognized risk factors including male gender, young age at onset of illness, current of previous history of depression, social isolation, and substance misuse. Mania is more common in people with MS, and mood stabilizers are recommended for treatment. Pathological laughing and crying, defined as uncontrollable laughing and/of crying without the associated affect, occurs in approximately 10% of cases of MS. Emotional lability, defined as an excessive emotional response to a minor stimulus, is also common in MS and can be treated with amitriptyline and SSRIs.
The majority of cases of neuropsychiatric side effects from corticosteroids fit an affective profile of mania and/of depression. Psychotic symptoms, particularly hallucinations, are present in up to half of these cases. Glatiramer acetate has not been associated with neuropsychiatric side-effects. The data regarding the risk of mood symptoms related to interferon use is conflicting.
In conclusion, MS has significant psychiatric consequences, including depression, suicide, mania, pathological laughing and crying, emotional lability, and neuropsychiatric side effects from treatment. Early recognition and treatment of these psychiatric symptoms are essential for improving the quality of life of individuals with MS.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 144
Incorrect
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Which of the following is an atypical characteristic of avoidant personality disorder?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Urgent search for another relationship as a source of care and support when a close relationship ends
Explanation:Dependent personality disorder is characterized by an immediate and desperate search for a new relationship to provide care and support after the end of a close relationship.
Personality Disorder: Avoidant
Avoidant Personality Disorder (AVPD) is characterized by a pervasive pattern of social inhibition, feelings of inadequacy, and hypersensitivity to negative evaluation. According to the DSM-5, individuals with AVPD exhibit at least four of the following symptoms: avoidance of occupational activities that involve interpersonal contact, unwillingness to be involved unless certain of being liked, restraint in intimate relationships due to fear of ridicule, preoccupation with being criticized of rejected in social situations, inhibition in new interpersonal situations due to feelings of inadequacy, viewing oneself as inept and inferior to others, and reluctance to take personal risks of engage in new activities due to potential embarrassment.
In contrast, the ICD-11 does not have a specific category for AVPD but instead uses the qualifier of detachment trait. The Detachment trait domain is characterized by a tendency to maintain interpersonal and emotional distance. Common manifestations of Detachment include social detachment (avoidance of social interactions, lack of friendships, and avoidance of intimacy) and emotional detachment (reserve, aloofness, and limited emotional expression and experience). It is important to note that not all individuals with Detachment will exhibit all of these symptoms at all times.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 145
Incorrect
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What has research shown about the provision of services for individuals with eating disorders?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Outpatient services are more cost effective compared to in-patient care
Explanation:Research has consistently shown that out-patient services, whether they are general of specialized eating disorder clinics, are more likely to be cost-effective than in-patient care. The majority of patients with eating disorders can be effectively managed in out-patient clinics, with only a small percentage requiring in-patient care. When comparing outpatient treatment models, including general child and adolescent mental health services, with in-patient treatment, there were significant improvements in all groups at different points during follow-up, with no significant differences between the two types of treatment. The availability of out-patient care is associated with a lower rate of admission to inpatient units. Clinically and economically, lengthy in-patient stays are not recommended, as they are associated with worse outcomes, particularly when they disrupt the patient’s life, such as their work, studies, of time away from family.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Organisation And Delivery Of Psychiatric Services
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Question 146
Incorrect
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Which statement is incorrect about perinatal mental health issues?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Infanticide rates are decreasing
Explanation:Psychiatric Issues in the Postpartum Period
The period following childbirth, known as the postpartum period, can be a time of significant psychiatric challenges for women. Many women experience a temporary mood disturbance called baby blues, which is characterized by emotional instability, sadness, and tearfulness. This condition typically resolves within two weeks.
However, a minority of women (10-15%) experience postpartum depression, which is similar to major depression in its clinical presentation. In contrast, a very small number of women (1-2 per 1000) experience postpartum psychosis, also known as puerperal psychosis. This is a severe form of psychosis that occurs in the weeks following childbirth.
Research suggests that there may be a link between puerperal psychosis and mood disorders, as approximately 50% of women who develop the condition have a family history of mood disorder. Puerperal psychosis typically begins within the first two weeks following delivery. It is important for healthcare providers to be aware of these potential psychiatric issues and to provide appropriate support and treatment to women during the postpartum period.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 147
Incorrect
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Among which group did the AESOP study report the least occurrence of psychosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: White British
Explanation:The AESOP study is a first-presentation study of schizophrenia and other psychotic disorders that identified all people presenting to services with psychotic symptoms in well-defined catchment areas in South London, Nottingham and Bristol. The study aimed to elucidate the overall rates of psychotic disorder in the 3 centres, confirm and extend previous findings of raised rates of psychosis in certain migrant groups in the UK, and explore in detail the biological and social risk factors in these populations and their possible interactions. The study found that the incidence of all psychoses was higher in African-Caribbean and Black African populations, particularly in schizophrenia and manic psychosis. These groups were also more likely to be compulsorily admitted to hospital and come to the attention of mental health services via police of other criminal justice agencies, and less likely to come via the GP.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 148
Incorrect
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In what way can the study on depression be deemed as having limited applicability to the average patient population?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: External validity
Explanation:When a study has good external validity, its findings can be applied to other populations with confidence.
Validity in statistics refers to how accurately something measures what it claims to measure. There are two main types of validity: internal and external. Internal validity refers to the confidence we have in the cause and effect relationship in a study, while external validity refers to the degree to which the conclusions of a study can be applied to other people, places, and times. There are various threats to both internal and external validity, such as sampling, measurement instrument obtrusiveness, and reactive effects of setting. Additionally, there are several subtypes of validity, including face validity, content validity, criterion validity, and construct validity. Each subtype has its own specific focus and methods for testing validity.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
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Question 149
Incorrect
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Which of the options below is not necessary to meet the Pritchard criteria for determining fitness to plead?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: A defendant is able to recall the events surrounding the alleged offence
Explanation:Although amnesia is not rare in criminal cases, it does not automatically make a person incapable of entering a plea. To be able to make an informed decision about their plea, a defendant must comprehend the evidence presented and the charges against them.
Fitness to Plead: Criteria and Process
Fitness to plead is determined by specific criteria established by the Pritchard case law in 1836. The criteria include the ability to instruct solicitor and counsel, understand the charges, decide whether to plead guilty of not, follow court proceedings, challenge a juror, and give evidence in one’s defense. Schizophrenia and other enduring mental illnesses are the most common conditions associated with unfitness to plead, particularly when positive psychotic symptomatology is present. Intellectual impairment is not a significant factor in most cases. If the issue is raised by the defense, it must be established on a balance of probability, while if raised by the prosecution of judge, it must be proved beyond reasonable doubt. Amnesia does not render someone unfit to plead. The decision on fitness to plead is made by a judge, not a jury. If someone is found unfit to plead, they are subject to the Criminal Procedures Act 1991, which involves a trial of facts, complete acquittal if the facts are not found, and flexible disposal by the judge if the facts are found, except for murder, which requires mandatory committal to hospital.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Forensic Psychiatry
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Question 150
Incorrect
-
Who were ineligible to participate in the voting process during the 2015 UK parliamentary election?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Prisoners serving a custodial sentence
Explanation:Individuals who are serving a custodial sentence were excluded from voting in the 2015 UK general election. However, patients undergoing treatment for mental illness have the right to vote, except for those who have been detained by the courts due to a criminal conviction. People with disabilities that may affect their ability to vote, such as those with intellectual disabilities, are still eligible to vote and should be provided with extra assistance to help them exercise their right to vote.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Organisation And Delivery Of Psychiatric Services
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Question 151
Incorrect
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What is the ratio of the risk of stroke within a 3 year period for high-risk psychiatric patients taking the new oral antithrombotic drug compared to those taking warfarin, based on the given data below? Number who had a stroke within a 3 year period vs Number without stroke New drug: 10 vs 190 Warfarin: 10 vs 490
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 2.5
Explanation:The relative risk (RR) of the event of interest in the exposed group compared to the unexposed group is 2.5.
RR = EER / CER
EER = 10 / 200 = 0.05
CER = 10 / 500 = 0.02
RR = EER / CER
= 0.05 / 0.02 = 2.5This means that the exposed group has a 2.5 times higher risk of experiencing the event compared to the unexposed group.
Measures of Effect in Clinical Studies
When conducting clinical studies, we often want to know the effect of treatments of exposures on health outcomes. Measures of effect are used in randomized controlled trials (RCTs) and include the odds ratio (of), risk ratio (RR), risk difference (RD), and number needed to treat (NNT). Dichotomous (binary) outcome data are common in clinical trials, where the outcome for each participant is one of two possibilities, such as dead of alive, of clinical improvement of no improvement.
To understand the difference between of and RR, it’s important to know the difference between risks and odds. Risk is a proportion that describes the probability of a health outcome occurring, while odds is a ratio that compares the probability of an event occurring to the probability of it not occurring. Absolute risk is the basic risk, while risk difference is the difference between the absolute risk of an event in the intervention group and the absolute risk in the control group. Relative risk is the ratio of risk in the intervention group to the risk in the control group.
The number needed to treat (NNT) is the number of patients who need to be treated for one to benefit. Odds are calculated by dividing the number of times an event happens by the number of times it does not happen. The odds ratio is the odds of an outcome given a particular exposure versus the odds of an outcome in the absence of the exposure. It is commonly used in case-control studies and can also be used in cross-sectional and cohort study designs. An odds ratio of 1 indicates no difference in risk between the two groups, while an odds ratio >1 indicates an increased risk and an odds ratio <1 indicates a reduced risk.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
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Question 152
Incorrect
-
What is a true statement about transference?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: It is largely an unconscious process
Explanation:Transference and Countertransference
Transference is the unconscious transfer of feelings, attitudes, thoughts, desires, fantasies, of behaviors from past significant relationships to a current interpersonal relationship. It is often observed in therapy, and the therapist interprets its meaning and source to help the patient understand how their past experiences affect their current relationships. Factors that increase transference include anxiety, frequent contact with a key worker, and borderline personality disorder. Effective management of transference involves recognizing the importance of the relationship to the patient, maintaining professional boundaries, interpreting the transference, and being a reliable therapist.
Countertransference, on the other hand, refers to the therapist’s emotional, cognitive, of behavioral response to the patient, triggered by some characteristic of the patient but ultimately resulting from unresolved conflicts within the therapist. There are different conceptions of countertransference, including the classical definition, the totalistic conception, the complementary conception, and the relational perspective. However, a working definition suggests that countertransference is a response to the patient triggered by unresolved conflicts within the therapist. Effective management of countertransference involves understanding the patient’s interpersonal style of relating and framing therapeutic interventions accordingly.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychotherapy
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Question 153
Incorrect
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A 32-year old woman with a 10 year history of treatment-resistant depression has not responded to medication of therapy. She continues to struggle with feelings of worthlessness and hopelessness.
What psychological techniques could be considered in her management?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cognitive behavioural therapy
Explanation:The patient is exhibiting delusions that are not responding to treatment. However, recent studies such as the London-East Anglia trials suggest that cognitive behavioural therapy could be effective in addressing these delusions. This therapy involves challenging the evidence supporting and contradicting the beliefs through cognitive means.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychotherapy
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Question 154
Incorrect
-
A worldwide epidemic of influenza is known as a:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pandemic
Explanation:Epidemiology Key Terms
– Epidemic (Outbreak): A rise in disease cases above the anticipated level in a specific population during a particular time frame.
– Endemic: The regular of anticipated level of disease in a particular population.
– Pandemic: Epidemics that affect a significant number of individuals across multiple countries, regions, of continents. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
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Question 155
Incorrect
-
What is the truth about psychosis in individuals with Parkinson's disease?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Neuroleptics can worsen movement disorders in Parkinson's disease
Explanation:Parkinson’s Disease: Presentation, Aetiology, Medical Treatment, and Psychiatric Aspects
Parkinson’s disease is a degenerative disease of the brain that is characterised by motor symptoms such as rigidity, bradykinesia, and tremor. It has a long prodromal phase and early symptoms generally present asymmetrically. The tremor associated with Parkinson’s disease is classically described as ‘pill rolling’. The principle abnormality is the degeneration of dopaminergic neurons in the pars compacta of the substantia nigra, which leads to an accumulation of alpha-synuclein in these abnormal dopaminergic cells. The majority of cases of Parkinson’s disease are idiopathic, but single gene mutations occur in a minority of cases. Pesticide, herbicide, and heavy metal exposures are linked to an increased risk of Parkinson’s disease in some epidemiologic studies, whereas smoking and caffeine use are associated with decreased risks.
Treatment for Parkinson’s disease predominantly focuses on symptomatic relief with drugs aiming to either restore the level of dopamine in the striatum of to act on striatal postsynaptic dopamine receptors. However, as dopamine is not the only neurotransmitter involved in Parkinson’s disease, many other drugs are also being used to target specific symptoms, such as depression of dementia. Psychiatric symptoms are common in Parkinson’s disease and range from mild to severe. Factors associated with severe symptoms include age, sleep disturbance, dementia, and disease severity. Hallucinations are common in Parkinson’s disease and tend to be visual but can be auditory of tactile. In the majority of patients, psychotic symptoms are thought to be secondary to dopaminergic medication rather than due to the Parkinson’s disease itself. Anticholinergics and dopamine agonists seem to be associated with a higher risk of inducing psychosis than levodopa of catechol-O-methyltransferase inhibitors. Medications used for psychotic symptoms may worsen movement problems. Risperidone and the typicals should be avoided completely. Low dose quetiapine is the best tolerated. Clozapine is the most effective antipsychotic drug for treating psychosis in Parkinson’s disease but its use in clinical practice is limited by the need for monitoring and the additional physical risks.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Old Age Psychiatry
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Question 156
Incorrect
-
At what age does the severity of symptoms typically reach its highest point in one of the following childhood disorders?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Tourette Syndrome
Explanation:The severity of tics in Tourette’s syndrome reaches its highest point at the age of 11 and typically decreases afterwards.
Tourette’s Syndrome: Understanding the Disorder and Management Options
Tourette’s syndrome is a type of tic disorder characterized by multiple motor tics and one of more vocal tics. Tics are sudden, involuntary movements of vocalizations that serve no apparent purpose and can be suppressed for varying periods of time. Unlike stereotyped repetitive movements seen in other disorders, tics lack rhythmicity. Manneristic motor activities tend to be more complex and variable than tics, while obsessive-compulsive acts have a defined purpose.
Tourette’s syndrome typically manifests in childhood, with a mean age of onset of six to seven years. Tics tend to peak in severity between nine and 11 years of age and may be exacerbated by external factors such as stress, inactivity, and fatigue. The estimated prevalence of Tourette’s syndrome is 1% of children, and it is more common in boys than girls. A family history of tics is also common.
Management of Tourette’s syndrome may involve pharmacological options of behavioral programs. Clonidine is recommended as first-line medication, with antipsychotics as a second-line option due to their side effect profile. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) have not been found to be effective in suppressing tics. However, most people with tics never require medication, and behavioral programs appear to work equally as well.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Child And Adolescent Psychiatry
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Question 157
Incorrect
-
Sara is referred to you by her GP. Sara had a road traffic accident 3 months ago and is suffering with symptoms of PTSD. She is struggling to sleep and is experiencing problems in her relationship. She also reports thoughts of self-harm since the incident and last week took an overdose of tablets.
All of the following would be appropriate to offer, except:Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Supported trauma-focused computerised CBT
Explanation:Computer-based CBT should not be provided in situations where there is a potential for self-harm.
Stress disorders, such as Post Traumatic Stress Disorder (PTSD), are emotional reactions to traumatic events. The diagnosis of PTSD requires exposure to an extremely threatening of horrific event, followed by the development of a characteristic syndrome lasting for at least several weeks, consisting of re-experiencing the traumatic event, deliberate avoidance of reminders likely to produce re-experiencing, and persistent perceptions of heightened current threat. Additional clinical features may include general dysphoria, dissociative symptoms, somatic complaints, suicidal ideation and behaviour, social withdrawal, excessive alcohol of drug use, anxiety symptoms, and obsessions of compulsions. The emotional experience of individuals with PTSD commonly includes anger, shame, sadness, humiliation, of guilt. The onset of PTSD symptoms can occur at any time during the lifespan following exposure to a traumatic event, and the symptoms and course of PTSD can vary significantly over time and individuals. Key differentials include acute stress reaction, adjustment disorder, and complex PTSD. Management of PTSD includes trauma-focused cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT), eye movement desensitization and reprocessing (EMDR), and supported trauma-focused computerized CBT interventions. Drug treatments, including benzodiazepines, are not recommended for the prevention of treatment of PTSD in adults, but venlafaxine of a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) may be considered for adults with a diagnosis of PTSD if the person has a preference for drug treatment. Antipsychotics such as risperidone may be considered in addition if disabling symptoms and behaviors are present and have not responded to other treatments. Psychological debriefing is not recommended for the prevention of treatment of PTSD. For children and young people, individual trauma-focused CBT interventions of EMDR may be considered, but drug treatments are not recommended.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 158
Incorrect
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Which vitamin is referred to as thiamine?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Vitamin B1
Explanation:Korsakoff’s Syndrome
Korsakoff’s Syndrome, also known as amnesic syndrome, is a chronic condition that affects recent and anterograde memory in an alert and responsive patient. It is caused by prolonged thiamine (vitamin B1) deficiency and often follows Wernicke’s encephalopathy. The syndrome is characterized by a lack of insight, apathy, and confabulation. Thiamine is essential for glucose metabolism in the brain, and its deficiency leads to a toxic buildup of glucose, causing neuronal loss. The Mammillary bodies are the main areas affected in Korsakoff’s syndrome.
While intelligence on the WAIS is preserved, episodic memory is severely affected in Korsakoff’s syndrome. Semantic memory is variably affected, but implicit aspects of memory, such as response to priming and procedural memory, are preserved. Immediate memory tested with the digit span is normal, but information can only be retained for a few minutes at most. Patients with Korsakoff’s syndrome often display apathy, lack of initiative, and profound lack of insight.
Source: Kopelman M (2009) The Korsakoff Syndrome: Clinical Aspects, Psychology and Treatment. Alcohol and Alcoholism 44 (2): 148-154.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Substance Misuse/Addictions
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Question 159
Incorrect
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What is the minimum effective dose of amisulpride recommended for treating first-episode psychosis in an adult male?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 300 mg
Explanation:Antipsychotics: Minimum Effective Doses
The Maudsley Guidelines provide a table of minimum effective oral doses for antipsychotics in schizophrenia. The following doses are recommended for first episode and relapse (multi-episode) cases:
– Chlorpromazine: 200mg (first episode) and 300mg (relapse)
– Haloperidol: 2mg (first episode) and 4mg (relapse)
– Sulpiride: 400mg (first episode) and 800mg (relapse)
– Trifluoperazine: 10mg (first episode) and 15mg (relapse)
– Amisulpride: 300mg (first episode) and 400mg (relapse)
– Aripiprazole: 10mg (first episode and relapse)
– Olanzapine: 5mg (first episode) and 7.5mg (relapse)
– Quetiapine: 150mg (first episode) and 300mg (relapse)
– Risperidone: 2mg (first episode) and 4mg (relapse)The minimum effective doses may vary depending on individual patient factors and response to treatment. It is important to consult with a healthcare professional before making any changes to medication dosages.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 160
Incorrect
-
As per Rapoport, what is the principle of permissiveness in therapeutic communities?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: To follow rules and respect boundaries
Explanation:Rapoport’s four principles of therapeutic communities include permissiveness, democratisation, communalism, and reality confrontation. Permissiveness allows members to express themselves freely while respecting the community’s rules and boundaries. This principle encourages members to investigate and discuss their behavior to gain insight. However, permissiveness should not negatively affect other members of exclude them. Communalism involves communication, task-sharing, and interdependence, promoting belonging and primary bond development. Reality confrontation helps members find their place among others. Democratisation involves participation in decision-making and voting.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychotherapy
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Question 161
Incorrect
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A 62 year old man is worried about the possibility of having Parkinson's disease. During a neurological examination, which of the following clinical observations would be most indicative of this condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Increased limb rigidity, usually more marked on one side
Explanation:Parkinson’s disease is characterized by a decrease of slowing of both voluntary and spontaneous blinking, whereas a cerebellar lesion typically presents with an intention tremor and a wide based gait. It is important to note that Parkinson’s is caused by an abnormality in the substantia nigra of the midbrain.
Parkinson’s Disease: Presentation, Aetiology, Medical Treatment, and Psychiatric Aspects
Parkinson’s disease is a degenerative disease of the brain that is characterised by motor symptoms such as rigidity, bradykinesia, and tremor. It has a long prodromal phase and early symptoms generally present asymmetrically. The tremor associated with Parkinson’s disease is classically described as ‘pill rolling’. The principle abnormality is the degeneration of dopaminergic neurons in the pars compacta of the substantia nigra, which leads to an accumulation of alpha-synuclein in these abnormal dopaminergic cells. The majority of cases of Parkinson’s disease are idiopathic, but single gene mutations occur in a minority of cases. Pesticide, herbicide, and heavy metal exposures are linked to an increased risk of Parkinson’s disease in some epidemiologic studies, whereas smoking and caffeine use are associated with decreased risks.
Treatment for Parkinson’s disease predominantly focuses on symptomatic relief with drugs aiming to either restore the level of dopamine in the striatum of to act on striatal postsynaptic dopamine receptors. However, as dopamine is not the only neurotransmitter involved in Parkinson’s disease, many other drugs are also being used to target specific symptoms, such as depression of dementia. Psychiatric symptoms are common in Parkinson’s disease and range from mild to severe. Factors associated with severe symptoms include age, sleep disturbance, dementia, and disease severity. Hallucinations are common in Parkinson’s disease and tend to be visual but can be auditory of tactile. In the majority of patients, psychotic symptoms are thought to be secondary to dopaminergic medication rather than due to the Parkinson’s disease itself. Anticholinergics and dopamine agonists seem to be associated with a higher risk of inducing psychosis than levodopa of catechol-O-methyltransferase inhibitors. Medications used for psychotic symptoms may worsen movement problems. Risperidone and the typicals should be avoided completely. Low dose quetiapine is the best tolerated. Clozapine is the most effective antipsychotic drug for treating psychosis in Parkinson’s disease but its use in clinical practice is limited by the need for monitoring and the additional physical risks.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Old Age Psychiatry
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Question 162
Incorrect
-
How can disinhibited social engagement disorder be distinguished from reactive attachment disorder based on their respective features?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Invading social boundaries
Explanation:Both reactive attachment disorder and disinhibited social engagement disorder share a common history of inadequate caregivers, which makes it difficult to distinguish between the two. However, children with reactive attachment disorder tend to exhibit more inhibited behavior similar to those with autism spectrum disorder, while children with disinhibited social engagement disorder tend to display more disinhibited behavior similar to those with attention deficit hyperactivity disorder.
Disorders resulting from inadequate caregiving during childhood are recognised by both the DSM-5 and the ICD-11, with two distinct forms of disorder identified: Reactive attachment disorder and Disinhibited social engagement disorder. Reactive attachment disorder is characterised by social withdrawal and aberrant attachment behaviour, while Disinhibited social engagement disorder is characterised by socially disinhibited behaviour. Diagnosis of these disorders involves a history of grossly insufficient care, and symptoms must be evident before the age of 5. Treatment options include video feedback programs for preschool aged children and parental training with group play sessions for primary school aged children. Pharmacological interventions are not recommended in the absence of coexisting mental health problems.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Child And Adolescent Psychiatry
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Question 163
Incorrect
-
A young refugee from Somalia residing in the US has a daughter who was recently identified as having a developmental disability. What are some common traits of individuals from ethnic minority communities who have learning disabilities?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Have strong ethnic identity
Explanation:Individuals with learning disabilities who belong to black and minority ethnic (BME) groups typically have a strong sense of ethnic identity and adhere to cultural practices related to grooming, attire, and personal hygiene. IQ testing can pose challenges due to variations in educational systems, language barriers, and difficulties in utilizing interpreters. Unfortunately, people with learning disabilities from BME communities often encounter more discrimination, with rates up to twice as high as their white counterparts. They frequently originate from extended families that are not dysfunctional and are often cared for by their relatives rather than in institutional settings. Additionally, they commonly marry and have children.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry Of Learning Disability
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Question 164
Incorrect
-
A client is referred with depression and is eager to begin medication. You find out that they have hypertension. What would be the most suitable treatment option?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Fluoxetine
Explanation:Antidepressants and Diabetes
Depression is a prevalent condition among patients with diabetes. It is crucial to select the appropriate antidepressant as some may have negative effects on weight and glucose levels. The first-line treatment for depression in diabetic patients is selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs), with fluoxetine having the most supporting data. Serotonin-norepinephrine reuptake inhibitors (SNRIs) are also likely to be safe, but there is less evidence to support their use. Tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs) and monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs) should be avoided. These recommendations are based on the Maudsley Guidelines 10th Edition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 165
Incorrect
-
What is the approximate occurrence rate of autistic spectrum disorder?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 1%
Explanation:Autism Spectrum Disorder (ASD) is a lifelong disorder characterized by deficits in communication and social understanding, as well as restrictive and repetitive behaviors. The distinction between autism and Asperger’s has been abandoned, and they are now grouped together under the ASD category. Intellectual ability is difficult to assess in people with ASD, with an estimated 33% having an intellectual disability. ASD was first described in Europe and the United States using different terms, with Leo Kanner and Hans Asperger being the pioneers. Diagnosis is based on persistent deficits in social communication and social interaction, as well as restricted, repetitive patterns of behavior. The worldwide population prevalence is about 1%, with comorbidity being common. Heritability is estimated at around 90%, and both genetic and environmental factors seem to cause ASD. Currently, there are no validated pharmacological treatments that alleviate core ASD symptoms, but second-generation antipsychotics are the first-line pharmacological treatment for children and adolescents with ASD and associated irritability.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Child And Adolescent Psychiatry
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Question 166
Incorrect
-
What is the estimated percentage of female inmates in England and Wales who are believed to have borderline personality disorder?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 20%
Explanation:Prisoner Mental Health: Epidemiological Data from the UK
The Survey of Psychiatric Morbidity Among Prisoners in England and Wales, conducted by the Department of Health in 1997, is the primary source of epidemiological data on prisoner mental health in the UK. Despite the lack of updates, this survey remains a valuable resource for understanding the mental health needs of prisoners.
Although the prison population represents only 0.1% of the total UK population, prisoners are extensive consumers of mental health services. In 1997, the UK prison population consisted of 46,872 male sentenced prisoners (76%), 12,302 male remand prisoners, and 2,770 female prisoners (<5%). The 1997 study involved interviews with over 3000 prisoners. The key findings of the 1997 study revealed high rates of personality disorders among prisoners, with 78% of male remand, 64% of male sentenced, and 50% of female prisoners having any personality disorder. Antisocial personality disorder had the highest prevalence, followed by paranoid personality disorder. Borderline personality disorder was more common in females than paranoid personality disorder. The study also found high rates of functional psychosis, with prevalence rates of 7% for male sentenced, 10% for male remand, and 14% for females. Rates of suicidal ideation and attempts were higher in remand compared to sentenced prisoners, with women reporting higher rates of suicidal ideation and attempts than males. Overall, the 1997 survey highlights the significant mental health needs of prisoners in the UK and underscores the importance of providing adequate mental health services to this population.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Forensic Psychiatry
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Question 167
Incorrect
-
A 67-year-old female with a history of dementia is brought in by her family due to an increase in aggressive behavior. She appears to be in good physical health. What is the most suitable treatment for her outbursts of aggression?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Risperidone
Explanation:Non-drug approaches should be the first line of defense in managing aggression in Alzheimer’s disease, including identifying triggers and utilizing behavioral techniques. However, in some cases, drug treatment may be necessary. Atypical neuroleptics like quetiapine and haloperidol are not recommended due to increased risk of death of stroke and potential cognitive decline. Risperidone is licensed for short-term treatment of persistent aggression in moderate to severe Alzheimer’s disease if non-pharmacological alternatives have been tried and there is a risk of harm. Valproate has been used for calming effects, but evidence of its efficacy is limited. Benzodiazepines are not recommended due to increased risk of falls and worsening cognitive decline.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Old Age Psychiatry
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Question 168
Incorrect
-
What diagnosis is suggested by the MRI findings of ventricular enlargement with preserved medial temporal lobe structures in a patient with memory impairment?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Lewy body dementia
Explanation:Dementia is a condition that can be diagnosed and supported with the use of neuroimaging techniques. In Alzheimer’s disease, MRI and CT scans are used to assess volume changes in specific areas of the brain, such as the mesial temporal lobe and temporoparietal cortex. SPECT and PET scans can also show functional changes, such as hypoperfusion and glucose hypometabolism. Vascular dementia can be detected with CT and MRI scans that show atrophy, infarcts, and white matter lesions, while SPECT scans reveal a patchy multifocal pattern of hypoperfusion. Lewy body dementia tends to show nonspecific and subtle changes on structural imaging, but SPECT and PET scans can reveal posterior deficits and reduced D2 receptor density. Frontotemporal dementia is characterized by frontal lobe atrophy, which can be seen on CT and MRI scans, while SPECT scans show anterior perfusion deficits. NICE recommends the use of MRI for early diagnosis and detection of subcortical vascular changes, SPECT for differentiating between Alzheimer’s disease, vascular dementia, and frontotemporal dementia, and DaTscan for establishing a diagnosis of dementia with Lewy bodies.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Old Age Psychiatry
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Question 169
Incorrect
-
A 70-year-old man with a 5-year history of Parkinson's has been experiencing distressing visual and tactile hallucinations for the past 4 months. An attempt was made to reduce his Parkinson's medication, but this led to a severe deterioration in his mobility. Which of the following medications would you suggest he try?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Clozapine
Explanation:Only clozapine and quetiapine are appropriate antipsychotics for Parkinson’s disease, with clozapine being supported by randomized controlled trials with placebo (Friedman, 2010).
Parkinson’s Disease: Presentation, Aetiology, Medical Treatment, and Psychiatric Aspects
Parkinson’s disease is a degenerative disease of the brain that is characterised by motor symptoms such as rigidity, bradykinesia, and tremor. It has a long prodromal phase and early symptoms generally present asymmetrically. The tremor associated with Parkinson’s disease is classically described as ‘pill rolling’. The principle abnormality is the degeneration of dopaminergic neurons in the pars compacta of the substantia nigra, which leads to an accumulation of alpha-synuclein in these abnormal dopaminergic cells. The majority of cases of Parkinson’s disease are idiopathic, but single gene mutations occur in a minority of cases. Pesticide, herbicide, and heavy metal exposures are linked to an increased risk of Parkinson’s disease in some epidemiologic studies, whereas smoking and caffeine use are associated with decreased risks.
Treatment for Parkinson’s disease predominantly focuses on symptomatic relief with drugs aiming to either restore the level of dopamine in the striatum of to act on striatal postsynaptic dopamine receptors. However, as dopamine is not the only neurotransmitter involved in Parkinson’s disease, many other drugs are also being used to target specific symptoms, such as depression of dementia. Psychiatric symptoms are common in Parkinson’s disease and range from mild to severe. Factors associated with severe symptoms include age, sleep disturbance, dementia, and disease severity. Hallucinations are common in Parkinson’s disease and tend to be visual but can be auditory of tactile. In the majority of patients, psychotic symptoms are thought to be secondary to dopaminergic medication rather than due to the Parkinson’s disease itself. Anticholinergics and dopamine agonists seem to be associated with a higher risk of inducing psychosis than levodopa of catechol-O-methyltransferase inhibitors. Medications used for psychotic symptoms may worsen movement problems. Risperidone and the typicals should be avoided completely. Low dose quetiapine is the best tolerated. Clozapine is the most effective antipsychotic drug for treating psychosis in Parkinson’s disease but its use in clinical practice is limited by the need for monitoring and the additional physical risks.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Old Age Psychiatry
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Question 170
Incorrect
-
What is a true statement about the utilization of lithium?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: People over the age of 65 should have lithium levels checked every 3 months once stabilised
Explanation:It is recommended to check lithium levels every 6 months if the person has been stabilized for over a year, of every 3 months if there are additional factors such as older age, drug interactions, impaired renal of thyroid function, raised calcium levels, poor symptom control, poor adherence, of previous plasma lithium levels of 0.8 mmol per litre of higher. Thyroid function should also be checked every 6 months. Lithium is typically taken at night to allow for a blood test at least 12 hours after the last dose, and once-daily prescribing is preferred.
Lithium – Clinical Usage
Lithium is primarily used as a prophylactic agent for bipolar disorder, where it reduces the severity and number of relapses. It is also effective as an augmentation agent in unipolar depression and for treating aggressive and self-mutilating behavior, steroid-induced psychosis, and to raise WCC in people using clozapine.
Before prescribing lithium, renal, cardiac, and thyroid function should be checked, along with a Full Blood Count (FBC) and BMI. Women of childbearing age should be advised regarding contraception, and information about toxicity should be provided.
Once daily administration is preferred, and various preparations are available. Abrupt discontinuation of lithium increases the risk of relapse, and if lithium is to be discontinued, the dose should be reduced gradually over a period of at least 4 weeks.
Inadequate monitoring of patients taking lithium is common, and it is often an exam hot topic. Lithium salts have a narrow therapeutic/toxic ratio, and samples should ideally be taken 12 hours after the dose. The target range for prophylaxis is 0.6–0.75 mmol/L.
Risk factors for lithium toxicity include drugs altering renal function, decreased circulating volume, infections, fever, decreased oral intake of water, renal insufficiency, and nephrogenic diabetes insipidus. Features of lithium toxicity include GI and neuro symptoms.
The severity of toxicity can be assessed using the AMDISEN rating scale.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 171
Incorrect
-
Which of the options below is not included in the DSM-5 criteria for diagnosing attention deficit hyperactivity disorder?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Often loses temper
Explanation:ADHD (Diagnosis and Management in Children)
ADHD is a behavioural syndrome characterised by symptoms of inattention, hyperactivity, and impulsivity. The DSM-5 and ICD-11 provide diagnostic criteria for the condition, with both recognising three subtypes: predominantly inattentive, predominantly hyperactive-impulsive, and combined.
Treatment for children under 5 involves offering an ADHD-focused group parent-training programme as a first-line option. Medication should only be considered after obtaining advice from a specialist ADHD service. For children and young people aged 5-18, advice and support should be given, along with an ADHD-focused group parent-training programme. Medication should only be offered if ADHD symptoms persist after environmental modifications have been implemented and reviewed. Cognitive behavioural therapy may also be considered for those who have benefited from medication but still experience significant impairment.
NICE advises against elimination diets, dietary fatty acid supplementation, and the use of the ‘few foods diet’. Methylphenidate of lisdexamfetamine is the first-line medication option, with dexamphetamine considered for those who respond to lisdexamfetamine but cannot tolerate the longer effect profile. Atomoxetine of guanfacine may be offered for those who cannot tolerate methylphenidate of lisdexamfetamine. Clonidine and atypical antipsychotics should only be used with advice from a tertiary ADHD service.
Drug holidays may be considered for children and young people who have not met the expected height for their age due to medication. However, NICE advises that withdrawal from treatment is associated with a risk of symptom exacerbation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Child And Adolescent Psychiatry
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Question 172
Incorrect
-
NICE recommends which treatment as the initial approach for opioid detoxification?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Methadone
Explanation:The recommended initial treatment for opioid detoxification is methadone of buprenorphine.
Opioid Maintenance Therapy and Detoxification
Withdrawal symptoms can occur after as little as 5 days of regular opioid use. Short-acting opioids like heroin have acute withdrawal symptoms that peak in 32-72 hours and last for 3-5 days. Longer-acting opioids like methadone have acute symptoms that peak at day 4-6 and last for 10 days. Buprenorphine withdrawal lasts up to 10 days and includes symptoms like myalgia, anxiety, and increased drug craving.
Opioids affect the brain through opioid receptors, with the µ receptor being the main target for opioids. Dopaminergic cells in the ventral tegmental area produce dopamine, which is released into the nucleus accumbens upon stimulation of µ receptors, producing euphoria and reward. With repeat opioid exposure, µ receptors become less responsive, causing dysphoria and drug craving.
Methadone and buprenorphine are maintenance-oriented treatments for opioid dependence. Methadone is a full agonist targeting µ receptors, while buprenorphine is a partial agonist targeting µ receptors and a partial k agonist of functional antagonist. Naloxone and naltrexone are antagonists targeting all opioid receptors.
Methadone is preferred over buprenorphine for detoxification, and ultra-rapid detoxification should not be offered. Lofexidine may be considered for mild of uncertain dependence. Clonidine and dihydrocodeine should not be used routinely in opioid detoxification. The duration of detoxification should be up to 4 weeks in an inpatient setting and up to 12 weeks in a community setting.
Pregnant women dependent on opioids should use opioid maintenance treatment rather than attempt detoxification. Methadone is preferred over buprenorphine, and transfer to buprenorphine during pregnancy is not advised. Detoxification should only be considered if appropriate for the women’s wishes, circumstances, and ability to cope. Methadone or buprenorphine treatment is not a contraindication to breastfeeding.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Substance Misuse/Addictions
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Question 173
Incorrect
-
What is the most probable cause of withdrawal symptoms in an opioid-dependent patient who has not completed their detox program when starting a particular medication?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Buprenorphine
Explanation:Opioid Maintenance Therapy and Detoxification
Withdrawal symptoms can occur after as little as 5 days of regular opioid use. Short-acting opioids like heroin have acute withdrawal symptoms that peak in 32-72 hours and last for 3-5 days. Longer-acting opioids like methadone have acute symptoms that peak at day 4-6 and last for 10 days. Buprenorphine withdrawal lasts up to 10 days and includes symptoms like myalgia, anxiety, and increased drug craving.
Opioids affect the brain through opioid receptors, with the µ receptor being the main target for opioids. Dopaminergic cells in the ventral tegmental area produce dopamine, which is released into the nucleus accumbens upon stimulation of µ receptors, producing euphoria and reward. With repeat opioid exposure, µ receptors become less responsive, causing dysphoria and drug craving.
Methadone and buprenorphine are maintenance-oriented treatments for opioid dependence. Methadone is a full agonist targeting µ receptors, while buprenorphine is a partial agonist targeting µ receptors and a partial k agonist of functional antagonist. Naloxone and naltrexone are antagonists targeting all opioid receptors.
Methadone is preferred over buprenorphine for detoxification, and ultra-rapid detoxification should not be offered. Lofexidine may be considered for mild of uncertain dependence. Clonidine and dihydrocodeine should not be used routinely in opioid detoxification. The duration of detoxification should be up to 4 weeks in an inpatient setting and up to 12 weeks in a community setting.
Pregnant women dependent on opioids should use opioid maintenance treatment rather than attempt detoxification. Methadone is preferred over buprenorphine, and transfer to buprenorphine during pregnancy is not advised. Detoxification should only be considered if appropriate for the women’s wishes, circumstances, and ability to cope. Methadone or buprenorphine treatment is not a contraindication to breastfeeding.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Substance Misuse/Addictions
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Question 174
Incorrect
-
How can a patient's history indicate the presence of mania instead of hypomania?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Auditory hallucinations
Explanation:While psychotic symptoms such as delusions and hallucinations can manifest during mania, they are not a requirement for diagnosis. Hypomania, on the other hand, is a milder form of mania that does not involve psychotic symptoms.
Bipolar Disorder Diagnosis
Bipolar and related disorders are mood disorders characterized by manic, mixed, of hypomanic episodes alternating with depressive episodes. The lifetime risk of suicide in individuals with bipolar disorder is estimated to be at least 15 times that of the general population. Under the ICD-11, there are three subtypes of bipolar disorder: Bipolar I, Bipolar II, and Cyclothymic disorder.
Bipolar I disorder is diagnosed when an individual has a history of at least one manic of mixed episode. The typical course of the disorder is characterized by recurrent depressive and manic of mixed episodes. Onset of the first mood episode most often occurs during the late teen years, but onset of bipolar type I can occur at any time through the life cycle. The lifetime prevalence of bipolar I disorder is estimated to be around 2.1%.
Bipolar II disorder is diagnosed when an individual has a history of at least one hypomanic episode and at least one depressive episode. The typical course of the disorder is characterized by recurrent depressive and hypomanic episodes. Onset of bipolar type II most often occurs during the mid-twenties. The number of lifetime episodes tends to be higher for bipolar II disorder than for major depressive disorder of bipolar I disorder.
Cyclothymic disorder is diagnosed when an individual experiences mood instability over an extended period of time characterized by numerous hypomanic and depressive periods. The symptoms are present for more days than not, and there is no history of manic or mixed episodes. The course of cyclothymic disorder is often gradual and persistent, and onset commonly occurs during adolescence of early adulthood.
Rapid cycling is not a subtype of bipolar disorder but instead is a qualifier. It is defined as the presence of at least four mood episodes in the previous 12 months that meet the criteria for a manic, hypomanic, of major depressive episode. Rapid cycling is associated with an increased risk of suicide and tends to be precipitated by stressors such as life events, alcohol abuse, use of antidepressants, and medical disorders.
Overall, the diagnosis of bipolar disorder requires careful evaluation of an individual’s symptoms and history. Treatment typically involves a combination of medication and psychotherapy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 175
Incorrect
-
A 65-year-old patient develops tardive dyskinesia while taking zuclopenthixol. What is the most suitable course of action in this scenario?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Switch to olanzapine
Explanation:The practice of reducing the dosage of antipsychotics is outdated and no longer recommended, as per Cochrane’s 2006 findings. Instead, a more effective approach is to switch to an antipsychotic medication that has a lower risk of causing the condition.
Tardive Dyskinesia: Symptoms, Causes, Risk Factors, and Management
Tardive dyskinesia (TD) is a condition that affects the face, limbs, and trunk of individuals who have been on neuroleptics for months to years. The movements fluctuate over time, increase with emotional arousal, decrease with relaxation, and disappear with sleep. The cause of TD remains theoretical, but the postsynaptic dopamine (D2) receptor supersensitivity hypothesis is the most persistent. Other hypotheses include the presynaptic dopaminergic/noradrenergic hyperactivity hypothesis, the cholinergic interneuron burnout hypothesis, the excitatory/oxidative stress hypothesis, and the synaptic plasticity hypothesis. Risk factors for TD include advancing age, female sex, ethnicity, longer illness duration, intellectual disability and brain damage, negative symptoms in schizophrenia, mood disorders, diabetes, smoking, alcohol and substance misuse, FGA vs SGA treatment, higher antipsychotic dose, anticholinergic co-treatment, and akathisia.
Management options for TD include stopping any anticholinergic, reducing antipsychotic dose, changing to an antipsychotic with lower propensity for TD, and using tetrabenazine, vitamin E, of amantadine as add-on options. Clozapine is the antipsychotic most likely to be associated with resolution of symptoms. Vesicular monoamine transporter type 2 (VMAT2) inhibitors are agents that cause a depletion of neuroactive peptides such as dopamine in nerve terminals and are used to treat chorea due to neurodegenerative diseases of dyskinesias due to neuroleptic medications (tardive dyskinesia).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 176
Incorrect
-
What type of amnesia is typically associated with Korsakoff's syndrome?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Anterograde amnesia
Explanation:Korsakoff’s syndrome is characterized by a significant and disproportionate loss of the ability to form new memories, known as anterograde amnesia, in an otherwise cognitively intact individual (Caulo 2005). Additionally, individuals with this syndrome may experience source amnesia, where they can recall information but cannot remember where of how they learned it, as well as prosopamnesia, which is the inability to recognize of remember faces.
Korsakoff’s Syndrome
Korsakoff’s Syndrome, also known as amnesic syndrome, is a chronic condition that affects recent and anterograde memory in an alert and responsive patient. It is caused by prolonged thiamine (vitamin B1) deficiency and often follows Wernicke’s encephalopathy. The syndrome is characterized by a lack of insight, apathy, and confabulation. Thiamine is essential for glucose metabolism in the brain, and its deficiency leads to a toxic buildup of glucose, causing neuronal loss. The Mammillary bodies are the main areas affected in Korsakoff’s syndrome.
While intelligence on the WAIS is preserved, episodic memory is severely affected in Korsakoff’s syndrome. Semantic memory is variably affected, but implicit aspects of memory, such as response to priming and procedural memory, are preserved. Immediate memory tested with the digit span is normal, but information can only be retained for a few minutes at most. Patients with Korsakoff’s syndrome often display apathy, lack of initiative, and profound lack of insight.
Source: Kopelman M (2009) The Korsakoff Syndrome: Clinical Aspects, Psychology and Treatment. Alcohol and Alcoholism 44 (2): 148-154.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Substance Misuse/Addictions
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Question 177
Incorrect
-
What was the term used by Freud to refer to the death instinct?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Thanatos
Explanation:Aggression – Freud
According to Freud, aggression is a result of the primary instinct called thanatos, also known as the death instinct. He believed that every individual possesses this drive, which aims to cause complete destruction and death. Additionally, Freud proposed the existence of an opposing instinct called eros, which is the life instinct. He also introduced the concept of catharsis, which is a process of releasing libidinal energy and inducing a sense of calmness. This process occurs when we witness an aggressive act of engage in a mildly aggressive act.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychotherapy
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Question 178
Incorrect
-
What conditions would make a person unable to enter a plea?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: If they cannot understand the charge
Explanation:It’s important to note that fitness to plead pertains to an individual’s capacity to engage in a legal proceeding. Merely exhibiting symptoms of psychosis is insufficient; it’s necessary to demonstrate that they do not meet the criteria of the Pritchard test.
Fitness to Plead: Criteria and Process
Fitness to plead is determined by specific criteria established by the Pritchard case law in 1836. The criteria include the ability to instruct solicitor and counsel, understand the charges, decide whether to plead guilty of not, follow court proceedings, challenge a juror, and give evidence in one’s defense. Schizophrenia and other enduring mental illnesses are the most common conditions associated with unfitness to plead, particularly when positive psychotic symptomatology is present. Intellectual impairment is not a significant factor in most cases. If the issue is raised by the defense, it must be established on a balance of probability, while if raised by the prosecution of judge, it must be proved beyond reasonable doubt. Amnesia does not render someone unfit to plead. The decision on fitness to plead is made by a judge, not a jury. If someone is found unfit to plead, they are subject to the Criminal Procedures Act 1991, which involves a trial of facts, complete acquittal if the facts are not found, and flexible disposal by the judge if the facts are found, except for murder, which requires mandatory committal to hospital.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Forensic Psychiatry
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Question 179
Incorrect
-
What percentage of alcoholic beverages were estimated to be sold at a price lower than their cost before the ban was implemented in 2014?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer:
Explanation:In May 2014, the UK implemented a ban on selling alcohol below the cost of duty and VAT, known as below-cost selling. Prior to the ban, only 0.7% of all units sold were estimated to be sold below duty plus VAT. A recent study by the University of Sheffield suggests that the ban will prevent 14 deaths and 500 hospital admissions annually in England. However, if the ban had been set at a higher price point, between 40 pence and 50 pence per unit, the impact would have been much greater, preventing 624 deaths and 23,700 admissions, and affecting almost a quarter (23.2%) of all alcohol units sold.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Organisation And Delivery Of Psychiatric Services
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Question 180
Incorrect
-
What is a true statement about Beck's Depression Inventory?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Is used to assess the severity of depression
Explanation:The Beck Depression Inventory consists of 21 questions, with a maximum score of 63. Each question is scored on a scale of 0 to 3, and the assessment is used to determine the severity of depression. It is a self-rated questionnaire.
In psychiatry, various questionnaires and interviews are used to assess different conditions and areas. It is important for candidates to know whether certain assessment tools are self-rated of require clinical assistance. The table provided by the college lists some of the commonly used assessment tools and indicates whether they are self-rated of clinician-rated. For example, the HAMD and MADRS are clinician-rated scales used to assess the severity of depression, while the GDS is a self-rated scale used to screen for depression in the elderly. The YMRS is a clinician-rated scale used to assess the severity of mania in patients with bipolar disorder, while the Y-BOCS is used to measure both the severity of OCD and the response to treatment. The GAF provides a single measure of global functioning, while the CGI requires the clinician to rate the severity of the patient’s illness at the time of assessment. The CAMDEX is a tool developed to assist in the early diagnosis and measurement of dementia in the elderly.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 181
Incorrect
-
What is the accurate formula for determining the likelihood ratio of a positive test outcome?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Sensitivity / (1 - specificity)
Explanation:Clinical tests are used to determine the presence of absence of a disease of condition. To interpret test results, it is important to have a working knowledge of statistics used to describe them. Two by two tables are commonly used to calculate test statistics such as sensitivity and specificity. Sensitivity refers to the proportion of people with a condition that the test correctly identifies, while specificity refers to the proportion of people without a condition that the test correctly identifies. Accuracy tells us how closely a test measures to its true value, while predictive values help us understand the likelihood of having a disease based on a positive of negative test result. Likelihood ratios combine sensitivity and specificity into a single figure that can refine our estimation of the probability of a disease being present. Pre and post-test odds and probabilities can also be calculated to better understand the likelihood of having a disease before and after a test is carried out. Fagan’s nomogram is a useful tool for calculating post-test probabilities.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
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Question 182
Incorrect
-
What is the likelihood of spina bifida occurring in a fetus if a pregnant woman is prescribed Epilim?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 1 in 100
Explanation:Valproate Use During Pregnancy Can Cause Birth Defects and Developmental Problems in Children
Valproate is a medication that is commonly used to treat epilepsy and bipolar disorder. However, when taken by pregnant women, it can cause serious birth defects in their babies. Studies have shown that around 1 in 10 babies born to women who took valproate during pregnancy will have a birth defect. These defects can include malformations of the spine, face, skull, limbs, heart, kidney, urinary tract, and sexual organs.
In addition to birth defects, children exposed to valproate in the womb may also experience developmental problems. About 3-4 children in every 10 may have issues with learning to walk and talk, lower intelligence than their peers, poor speech and language skills, and memory problems. There is also evidence to suggest that these children may be at a higher risk of developing autism or autistic spectrum disorders, as well as symptoms of attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD).
It is important for women who are pregnant of planning to become pregnant to discuss the risks and benefits of taking valproate with their healthcare provider. Alternative medications of treatment options may be available that are safer for both the mother and the developing baby.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 183
Incorrect
-
What is the initial medication prescribed for a 9 year old boy with ADHD and no other medical conditions?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Methylphenidate
Explanation:ADHD (Diagnosis and Management in Children)
ADHD is a behavioural syndrome characterised by symptoms of inattention, hyperactivity, and impulsivity. The DSM-5 and ICD-11 provide diagnostic criteria for the condition, with both recognising three subtypes: predominantly inattentive, predominantly hyperactive-impulsive, and combined.
Treatment for children under 5 involves offering an ADHD-focused group parent-training programme as a first-line option. Medication should only be considered after obtaining advice from a specialist ADHD service. For children and young people aged 5-18, advice and support should be given, along with an ADHD-focused group parent-training programme. Medication should only be offered if ADHD symptoms persist after environmental modifications have been implemented and reviewed. Cognitive behavioural therapy may also be considered for those who have benefited from medication but still experience significant impairment.
NICE advises against elimination diets, dietary fatty acid supplementation, and the use of the ‘few foods diet’. Methylphenidate of lisdexamfetamine is the first-line medication option, with dexamphetamine considered for those who respond to lisdexamfetamine but cannot tolerate the longer effect profile. Atomoxetine of guanfacine may be offered for those who cannot tolerate methylphenidate of lisdexamfetamine. Clonidine and atypical antipsychotics should only be used with advice from a tertiary ADHD service.
Drug holidays may be considered for children and young people who have not met the expected height for their age due to medication. However, NICE advises that withdrawal from treatment is associated with a risk of symptom exacerbation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Child And Adolescent Psychiatry
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Question 184
Incorrect
-
Which of the following symptoms is uncommon in cases of alcohol withdrawal?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Persistent hallucinations
Explanation:It is uncommon for individuals experiencing alcohol withdrawal to have transient hallucinations, as they are not a typical symptom.
Alcohol withdrawal is characterized by overactivity of the autonomic nervous system, resulting in symptoms such as agitation, tremors, sweating, nausea, vomiting, fever, and tachycardia. These symptoms typically begin 3-12 hours after drinking stops, peak between 24-48 hours, and can last up to 14 days. Withdrawal seizures may occur before blood alcohol levels reach zero, and a small percentage of people may experience delirium tremens (DT), which can be fatal if left untreated. Risk factors for DT include abnormal liver function, old age, severity of withdrawal symptoms, concurrent medical illness, heavy alcohol use, self-detox, previous history of DT, low potassium, low magnesium, and thiamine deficiency.
Pharmacologically assisted detox is often necessary for those who regularly consume more than 15 units of alcohol per day, and inpatient detox may be needed for those who regularly consume more than 30 units per day. The Clinical Institute Withdrawal Assessment of Alcohol Scale (CIWA-Ar) can be used to assess the severity of withdrawal symptoms and guide treatment decisions. Benzodiazepines are the mainstay of treatment, as chronic alcohol exposure results in decreased overall brain excitability and compensatory decrease of GABA-A neuroreceptor response to GABA. Chlordiazepoxide is a good first-line agent, while oxazepam, temazepam, and lorazepam are useful in patients with liver disease. Clomethiazole is effective but carries a high risk of respiratory depression and is not recommended. Thiamine should be offered to prevent Wernicke’s encephalopathy, and long-acting benzodiazepines can be used as prophylaxis for withdrawal seizures. Haloperidol is the treatment of choice if an antipsychotic is required.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Substance Misuse/Addictions
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Question 185
Incorrect
-
What is the frequency of episodes of mania, hypomania, of depression within a 12 month period that characterizes rapid cycling bipolar affective disorder?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 4 of more
Explanation:Bipolar Disorder Diagnosis
Bipolar and related disorders are mood disorders characterized by manic, mixed, of hypomanic episodes alternating with depressive episodes. The lifetime risk of suicide in individuals with bipolar disorder is estimated to be at least 15 times that of the general population. Under the ICD-11, there are three subtypes of bipolar disorder: Bipolar I, Bipolar II, and Cyclothymic disorder.
Bipolar I disorder is diagnosed when an individual has a history of at least one manic of mixed episode. The typical course of the disorder is characterized by recurrent depressive and manic of mixed episodes. Onset of the first mood episode most often occurs during the late teen years, but onset of bipolar type I can occur at any time through the life cycle. The lifetime prevalence of bipolar I disorder is estimated to be around 2.1%.
Bipolar II disorder is diagnosed when an individual has a history of at least one hypomanic episode and at least one depressive episode. The typical course of the disorder is characterized by recurrent depressive and hypomanic episodes. Onset of bipolar type II most often occurs during the mid-twenties. The number of lifetime episodes tends to be higher for bipolar II disorder than for major depressive disorder of bipolar I disorder.
Cyclothymic disorder is diagnosed when an individual experiences mood instability over an extended period of time characterized by numerous hypomanic and depressive periods. The symptoms are present for more days than not, and there is no history of manic or mixed episodes. The course of cyclothymic disorder is often gradual and persistent, and onset commonly occurs during adolescence of early adulthood.
Rapid cycling is not a subtype of bipolar disorder but instead is a qualifier. It is defined as the presence of at least four mood episodes in the previous 12 months that meet the criteria for a manic, hypomanic, of major depressive episode. Rapid cycling is associated with an increased risk of suicide and tends to be precipitated by stressors such as life events, alcohol abuse, use of antidepressants, and medical disorders.
Overall, the diagnosis of bipolar disorder requires careful evaluation of an individual’s symptoms and history. Treatment typically involves a combination of medication and psychotherapy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 186
Incorrect
-
At what age is enuresis typically diagnosed?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Age 5
Explanation:Elimination Disorders
Elimination disorders refer to conditions that affect a child’s ability to control their bladder of bowel movements. Enuresis, of lack of control over the bladder, typically occurs between the ages of 1-3, while control over the bowel usually occurs before that of the bladder for most toddlers. Toilet training can be influenced by various factors, including intellectual capacity, cultural determinants, and psychological interactions between the child and their parents.
Enuresis is characterized by involuntary voiding of urine, by day and/of by night, which is abnormal in relation to the individual’s age and is not a result of any physical abnormality. It is not normally diagnosed before age 5 and may be primary (the child never having achieved continence) of secondary. Treatment options include reassurance, enuresis alarms, and medication.
Encopresis refers to repeated stool evacuation in inappropriate places in children over the age of four. The behavior can be either involuntary of intentional and may be due to unsuccessful toilet training (primary encopresis) of occur after a period of normal bowel control (secondary encopresis). Treatment generally involves bowel clearance, prevention of impaction, and behavioral therapy.
Before a diagnosis of encopresis is made, organic causes must be excluded. Hirschsprung’s disease is a condition that results from an absence of parasympathetic ganglion cells in the rectum, colon, and sometimes the small intestine. It leads to a colonic obstruction and is diagnosed in at least half of all cases in the first year of life. It is twice as common in boys than in girls.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Child And Adolescent Psychiatry
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Question 187
Incorrect
-
How would you define the term archetype in the context of psychodynamic theory?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: A symbolic image in the collective unconscious
Explanation:Neo-Freudians were therapists who developed their own theories while still retaining core Freudian components. Some important neo-Freudians include Alfred Adler, Carl Jung, Erik Erickson, Harry Stack Sullivan, Wilfred Bion, John Bowlby, Anna Freud, Otto Kernberg, Margaret Mahler, and Donald Winnicott. Each of these individuals contributed unique ideas to the field of psychology. For example, Carl Jung introduced the concept of the persona and differentiated between the personal and collective unconscious, while Erik Erickson is known for his stages of psychosocial development. Margaret Mahler developed theories on child development, including the three main phases of autistic, symbiotic, and separation-individuation. Donald Winnicott introduced the concept of the transitional object and the good enough mother. Overall, neo-Freudians expanded upon Freud’s ideas and helped to shape modern psychotherapy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychotherapy
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Question 188
Incorrect
-
What statement accurately describes the mean?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Is sensitive to a change in any value in the data set
Explanation:Measures of Central Tendency
Measures of central tendency are used in descriptive statistics to summarize the middle of typical value of a data set. There are three common measures of central tendency: the mean, median, and mode.
The median is the middle value in a data set that has been arranged in numerical order. It is not affected by outliers and is used for ordinal data. The mode is the most frequent value in a data set and is used for categorical data. The mean is calculated by adding all the values in a data set and dividing by the number of values. It is sensitive to outliers and is used for interval and ratio data.
The appropriate measure of central tendency depends on the measurement scale of the data. For nominal and categorical data, the mode is used. For ordinal data, the median of mode is used. For interval data with a normal distribution, the mean is preferable, but the median of mode can also be used. For interval data with skewed distribution, the median is used. For ratio data, the mean is preferable, but the median of mode can also be used for skewed data.
In addition to measures of central tendency, the range is also used to describe the spread of a data set. It is calculated by subtracting the smallest value from the largest value.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
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Question 189
Incorrect
-
After discovering that a child with attention deficit hyperactivity disorder has developed tics while taking lisdexamfetamine, and having previously experienced similar results with methylphenidate, a discussion with the parents leads to the decision to try a different medication. Which of the following options would be the most suitable choice?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Atomoxetine
Explanation:A long-acting version of methylphenidate is Medikinet XL, which is recommended for ADHD cases where stimulant use leads to complications with tics.
ADHD (Diagnosis and Management in Children)
ADHD is a behavioural syndrome characterised by symptoms of inattention, hyperactivity, and impulsivity. The DSM-5 and ICD-11 provide diagnostic criteria for the condition, with both recognising three subtypes: predominantly inattentive, predominantly hyperactive-impulsive, and combined.
Treatment for children under 5 involves offering an ADHD-focused group parent-training programme as a first-line option. Medication should only be considered after obtaining advice from a specialist ADHD service. For children and young people aged 5-18, advice and support should be given, along with an ADHD-focused group parent-training programme. Medication should only be offered if ADHD symptoms persist after environmental modifications have been implemented and reviewed. Cognitive behavioural therapy may also be considered for those who have benefited from medication but still experience significant impairment.
NICE advises against elimination diets, dietary fatty acid supplementation, and the use of the ‘few foods diet’. Methylphenidate of lisdexamfetamine is the first-line medication option, with dexamphetamine considered for those who respond to lisdexamfetamine but cannot tolerate the longer effect profile. Atomoxetine of guanfacine may be offered for those who cannot tolerate methylphenidate of lisdexamfetamine. Clonidine and atypical antipsychotics should only be used with advice from a tertiary ADHD service.
Drug holidays may be considered for children and young people who have not met the expected height for their age due to medication. However, NICE advises that withdrawal from treatment is associated with a risk of symptom exacerbation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Child And Adolescent Psychiatry
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Question 190
Incorrect
-
You are requested to prepare a Court report for a client of yours who is charged with grievous bodily harm, having stabbed a teacher at his school. The client is a 16-year-old boy, diagnosed with paranoid schizophrenia. Following his arrest for the stabbing, he informed the police that he attacked the victim as he had been hearing the victim's voice threatening to harm him. He also believed that the victim had been spying on him and spreading rumors about him. He tells you that he's happy that he stabbed the victim, but knew that what he was doing when he stabbed him was against the law.
You assess him in a juvenile detention center, where he is being held. He discusses these experiences, and they appear to be auditory and visual hallucinations. He admits that he had been non-compliant with his oral risperidone for the past two months and had also been using £50 worth of cannabis a week.
The defense attorney asks for your professional opinion as to whether the client could make a defense of Not Guilty by Reason of Insanity (NGRI).
What would you advise?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: He cannot make a defence of NGRI as he knew his actions were legally wrong
Explanation:The defendant can only plead Not Guilty by Reason of Insanity (NGRI) if they have a defect of reason caused by a disease of the mind, which resulted in them not knowing the nature of their actions of not knowing that their actions were wrong. The causes of this defect of reason are broad, but acute intoxication is not included. However, if the defendant believed their actions were morally justified, this does not qualify as a defence of NGRI as the legal test only considers whether the defendant knew their actions were legally wrong. Despite feeling provoked and morally justified, the defendant still knew that stabbing someone was against the law. NGRI is a rare defence, used in less than 1% of cases, and is successful in only one in four of these cases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Forensic Psychiatry
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Question 191
Incorrect
-
If a case-control study investigates 60 potential risk factors for bipolar affective disorder with a significance level of 0.05, how many risk factors would be expected to show a significant association with the disorder due to random chance?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 3
Explanation:If we consider the above example as 60 separate experiments, we would anticipate that 3 variables would show a connection purely by chance. This is because a p-value of 0.05 indicates that there is a 5% chance of obtaining the observed result by chance, of 1 in every 20 times. Therefore, if we multiply 1 in 20 by 60, we get 3, which is the expected number of variables that would show an association by chance alone.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
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Question 192
Incorrect
-
What statistical test would be appropriate to compare the mean cholesterol levels of individuals who were given antipsychotics versus those who were given a placebo in a study with a sample size of 100 participants divided into two groups?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Independent t-test
Explanation:Choosing the right statistical test can be challenging, but understanding the basic principles can help. Different tests have different assumptions, and using the wrong one can lead to inaccurate results. To identify the appropriate test, a flow chart can be used based on three main factors: the type of dependent variable, the type of data, and whether the groups/samples are independent of dependent. It is important to know which tests are parametric and non-parametric, as well as their alternatives. For example, the chi-squared test is used to assess differences in categorical variables and is non-parametric, while Pearson’s correlation coefficient measures linear correlation between two variables and is parametric. T-tests are used to compare means between two groups, and ANOVA is used to compare means between more than two groups. Non-parametric equivalents to ANOVA include the Kruskal-Wallis analysis of ranks, the Median test, Friedman’s two-way analysis of variance, and Cochran Q test. Understanding these tests and their assumptions can help researchers choose the appropriate statistical test for their data.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
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Question 193
Incorrect
-
A young woman diagnosed with bipolar disorder and a history of severe mania has been effectively managed on lithium during her pregnancy. As she approaches her due date, she is eager to discuss the plan for her medication as she plans to breastfeed. What guidance would you offer?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Switch from lithium to olanzapine
Explanation:Consider prescribing olanzapine of quetiapine as prophylactic medication for women with bipolar disorder who stop taking lithium during pregnancy of plan to breastfeed, according to the Maudsley Prescribing Guidelines 13th edition. These medications can also be considered for post-partum initiation.
Paroxetine Use During Pregnancy: Is it Safe?
Prescribing medication during pregnancy and breastfeeding is challenging due to the potential risks to the fetus of baby. No psychotropic medication has a UK marketing authorization specifically for pregnant of breastfeeding women. Women are encouraged to breastfeed unless they are taking carbamazepine, clozapine, of lithium. The risk of spontaneous major malformation is 2-3%, with drugs accounting for approximately 5% of all abnormalities. Valproate and carbamazepine are associated with an increased risk of neural tube defects, and lithium is associated with cardiac malformations. Benzodiazepines are associated with oral clefts and floppy baby syndrome. Antidepressants have been linked to preterm delivery and congenital malformation, but most findings have been inconsistent. TCAs have been used widely without apparent detriment to the fetus, but their use in the third trimester is known to produce neonatal withdrawal effects. Sertraline appears to result in the least placental exposure among SSRIs. MAOIs should be avoided in pregnancy due to a suspected increased risk of congenital malformations and hypertensive crisis. If a pregnant woman is stable on an antipsychotic and likely to relapse without medication, she should continue the antipsychotic. Depot antipsychotics should not be offered to pregnant of breastfeeding women unless they have a history of non-adherence with oral medication. The Maudsley Guidelines suggest specific drugs for use during pregnancy and breastfeeding. NICE CG192 recommends high-intensity psychological interventions for moderate to severe depression and anxiety disorders. Antipsychotics are recommended for pregnant women with mania of psychosis who are not taking psychotropic medication. Promethazine is recommended for insomnia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 194
Incorrect
-
For which condition is AChE-I considered an appropriate initial treatment option?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Dementia with Lewy bodies
Explanation:Treatment of Dementia: AChE Inhibitors and Memantine
Dementia is a debilitating condition that affects millions of people worldwide. Acetylcholinesterase inhibitors (AChE inhibitors) and memantine are two drugs used in the management of dementia. AChE inhibitors prevent cholinesterase from breaking down acetylcholine, which is deficient in Alzheimer’s due to loss of cholinergic neurons. Donepezil, galantamine, and rivastigmine are AChE inhibitors used in the management of Alzheimer’s. Memantine is an NMDA receptor antagonist that blocks the effects of pathologically elevated levels of glutamate that may lead to neuronal dysfunction.
NICE guidelines recommend the use of AChE inhibitors for managing mild to moderate Alzheimer’s and memantine for managing moderate to severe Alzheimer’s. For those already taking an AChE inhibitor, memantine can be added if the disease is moderate of severe. AChE inhibitors are also recommended for managing mild, moderate, and severe dementia with Lewy bodies, while memantine is considered if AChE inhibitors are not tolerated of contraindicated. AChE inhibitors and memantine are not recommended for vascular dementia, frontotemporal dementia, of cognitive impairment due to multiple sclerosis.
The British Association for Psychopharmacology recommends AChE inhibitors as the first choice for Alzheimer’s and mixed dementia, while memantine is the second choice. AChE inhibitors and memantine are also recommended for dementia with Parkinson’s and dementia with Lewy bodies.
In summary, AChE inhibitors and memantine are important drugs used in the management of dementia. The choice of drug depends on the type and severity of dementia, as well as individual patient factors.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Old Age Psychiatry
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Question 195
Incorrect
-
A woman in her 50s who has a lengthy history of schizophrenia has experimented with various antipsychotics before and is now interested in trying a new one. She cannot remember the names of the ones she has taken in the past but remembers being informed that she experienced anticholinergic side-effects and wants to avoid them at all costs. Which of the following choices is most probable to lead to anticholinergic side-effects?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Clozapine
Explanation:Clozapine exhibits significant anticholinergic effects, resulting in both xerostomia and excessive salivation.
Antipsychotics: Common Side Effects and Relative Adverse Effects
Antipsychotics are medications used to treat various mental health conditions, including schizophrenia and bipolar disorder. However, they can also cause side effects that can be bothersome of even serious. The most common side effects of antipsychotics are listed in the table below, which includes the adverse effects associated with their receptor activity.
Antidopaminergic effects: These effects are related to the medication’s ability to block dopamine receptors in the brain. They can cause galactorrhoea, gynecomastia, menstrual disturbance, lowered sperm count, reduced libido, Parkinsonism, dystonia, akathisia, and tardive dyskinesia.
Anticholinergic effects: These effects are related to the medication’s ability to block acetylcholine receptors in the brain. They can cause dry mouth, blurred vision, urinary retention, and constipation.
Antiadrenergic effects: These effects are related to the medication’s ability to block adrenaline receptors in the body. They can cause postural hypotension and ejaculatory failure.
Histaminergic effects: These effects are related to the medication’s ability to block histamine receptors in the brain. They can cause drowsiness.
The Maudsley Guidelines provide a rough guide to the relative adverse effects of different antipsychotics. The table below summarizes their findings, with +++ indicating a high incidence of adverse effects, ++ indicating a moderate incidence, + indicating a low incidence, and – indicating a very low incidence.
Drug Sedation Weight gain Diabetes EPSE Anticholinergic Postural Hypotension Prolactin elevation
Amisulpride – + + + – – +++
Aripiprazole – +/- – +/- – – –
Asenapine + + +/- +/- – – +/-
Clozapine +++ +++ +++ – +++ +++ –
Flupentixol + ++ + ++ ++ + +++
Fluphenazine + + + +++ ++ + +++
Haloperidol + + +/- +++ + + +++
Olanzapine ++ +++ +++ +/- + + +
Paliperidone + ++ + + + ++ +++
Pimozide + + – + + + +++
Quetiapine ++ ++ ++ – + ++ –
Risperidone + ++ + + + ++ +++
Zuclopenthixol ++ ++ + ++ ++ + +++Overall, it is important to discuss the potential side effects of antipsychotics with a healthcare provider and to monitor for any adverse effects while taking these medications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 196
Incorrect
-
What is the most prevalent personality disorder among individuals in Great Britain?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Anankastic
Explanation:Personality Disorder: Understanding the Clinical Diagnosis
A personality disorder is a long-standing pattern of behavior and inner experience that deviates significantly from cultural expectations, is inflexible and pervasive, and causes distress of impairment. The DSM-5 and ICD-11 have different approaches to classifying personality disorders. DSM-5 divides them into 10 categories, while ICD-11 has a general category with six trait domains that can be added. To diagnose a personality disorder, clinicians must first establish that the general diagnostic threshold is met before identifying the subtype(s) present. The course of personality disorders varies, with some becoming less evident of remitting with age, while others persist.
DSM-5 and ICD-11 have different classification systems for personality disorders. DSM-5 divides them into three clusters (A, B, and C), while ICD-11 has a general category with six trait domains that can be added. The prevalence of personality disorders in Great Britain is 4.4%, with Cluster C being the most common. Clinicians are advised to avoid diagnosing personality disorders in children, although a diagnosis can be made in someone under 18 if the features have been present for at least a year (except for antisocial personality disorder).
Overall, understanding the clinical diagnosis of personality disorders is important for effective treatment and management of these conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 197
Incorrect
-
The ICD-11 defines a condition characterized by distressing emotional, behavioral, and physical symptoms that occur in the premenstrual phase of the menstrual cycle as:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Premenstrual dysphoric disorder
Explanation:There is currently no evidence to support the use of vitamin supplements for the treatment of premenstrual dysphoric disorder. However, lifestyle changes such as regular exercise, a healthy diet, and stress reduction techniques may be helpful in managing symptoms. It is important to consult with a healthcare provider to determine the best course of treatment for individual cases of PMDD.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 198
Incorrect
-
What is the most frequently observed defence mechanism in individuals with borderline personality disorder?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Projection
Explanation:Defense Mechanisms in Specific Conditions
Certain psychiatric conditions are characterized by specific defense mechanisms. These mechanisms are used by individuals to protect themselves from anxiety and other negative emotions. The following conditions and the associated defenses tend to come up on membership exams.
Phobias are characterized by intense and irrational fears of specific objects of situations. The defense mechanisms commonly used in phobias are repression and displacement. Repression involves pushing the anxiety-provoking thoughts of memories out of conscious awareness. Displacement involves redirecting the anxiety onto a less threatening object of situation.
Obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) is characterized by intrusive and repetitive thoughts (obsessions) and/of repetitive behaviors (compulsions). The defense mechanisms commonly used in OCD are isolation, undoing, and reaction formation. Isolation involves separating the anxiety-provoking thought from the associated emotion. Undoing involves performing a ritual of action to undo the anxiety-provoking thought. Reaction formation involves expressing the opposite emotion of the anxiety-provoking thought.
Borderline personality disorder (BPD) is characterized by unstable moods, relationships, and self-image. The defense mechanisms commonly used in BPD are projection and splitting. Projection involves attributing one’s own unacceptable thoughts of feelings onto another person. Splitting involves seeing people of situations as either all good of all bad.
Narcissistic personality disorder (NPD) is characterized by a grandiose sense of self-importance, a need for admiration, and a lack of empathy. The defense mechanisms commonly used in NPD are projection and splitting, similar to BPD.
Agoraphobia is characterized by a fear of being in situations where escape may be difficult of embarrassing. The defense mechanism commonly used in agoraphobia is displacement, which involves redirecting the anxiety onto a less threatening object of situation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychotherapy
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Question 199
Incorrect
-
The clinical director of a pediatric unit conducts an economic evaluation study to determine which type of treatment results in the greatest improvement in asthma symptoms (as measured by the Asthma Control Test). She compares the costs of three different treatment options against the average improvement in asthma symptoms achieved by each. What type of economic evaluation method did she employ?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cost-effectiveness analysis
Explanation:Methods of Economic Evaluation
There are four main methods of economic evaluation: cost-effectiveness analysis (CEA), cost-benefit analysis (CBA), cost-utility analysis (CUA), and cost-minimisation analysis (CMA). While all four methods capture costs, they differ in how they assess health effects.
Cost-effectiveness analysis (CEA) compares interventions by relating costs to a single clinical measure of effectiveness, such as symptom reduction of improvement in activities of daily living. The cost-effectiveness ratio is calculated as total cost divided by units of effectiveness. CEA is typically used when CBA cannot be performed due to the inability to monetise benefits.
Cost-benefit analysis (CBA) measures all costs and benefits of an intervention in monetary terms to establish which alternative has the greatest net benefit. CBA requires that all consequences of an intervention, such as life-years saved, treatment side-effects, symptom relief, disability, pain, and discomfort, are allocated a monetary value. CBA is rarely used in mental health service evaluation due to the difficulty in converting benefits from mental health programmes into monetary values.
Cost-utility analysis (CUA) is a special form of CEA in which health benefits/outcomes are measured in broader, more generic ways, enabling comparisons between treatments for different diseases and conditions. Multidimensional health outcomes are measured by a single preference- of utility-based index such as the Quality-Adjusted-Life-Years (QALY). QALYs are a composite measure of gains in life expectancy and health-related quality of life. CUA allows for comparisons across treatments for different conditions.
Cost-minimisation analysis (CMA) is an economic evaluation in which the consequences of competing interventions are the same, and only inputs, i.e. costs, are taken into consideration. The aim is to decide the least costly way of achieving the same outcome.
Costs in Economic Evaluation Studies
There are three main types of costs in economic evaluation studies: direct, indirect, and intangible. Direct costs are associated directly with the healthcare intervention, such as staff time, medical supplies, cost of travel for the patient, childcare costs for the patient, and costs falling on other social sectors such as domestic help from social services. Indirect costs are incurred by the reduced productivity of the patient, such as time off work, reduced work productivity, and time spent caring for the patient by relatives. Intangible costs are difficult to measure, such as pain of suffering on the part of the patient.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
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Question 200
Incorrect
-
What is a commonly known negative outcome of undergoing psychodynamic psychotherapy?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Malignant regression and suicide
Explanation:Selecting appropriate psychological interventions for individual patients can be challenging. Psychodynamic psychotherapy may not always be suitable for patients as it can potentially exacerbate their symptoms and lead to dangerous behaviors such as self-harm, suicide, violence, and stalking. However, prolonged psychosis is unlikely to occur unless the patient has a severe and enduring mental illness, which may make them unsuitable for psychodynamic psychotherapy. While the cost of attending sessions and ambivalence towards decision-making may be minor adverse effects, increased distress after sessions can occur, although it may indicate an appropriate response to the session’s content. Nonetheless, patients should not leave feeling uncontained.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychotherapy
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