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  • Question 1 - A 72-year-old man comes to the Emergency Department with haematuria and haemoptysis. His...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old man comes to the Emergency Department with haematuria and haemoptysis. His vital signs are heart rate 88 bpm, blood pressure 170/110 mmHg, respiratory rate 22 breaths per minute, and temperature 37.8 °C. Urinalysis shows protein and red cell casts. Serum testing reveals antibodies to the glomerular basement membrane. A renal biopsy is conducted.
      What is the probable finding in the renal biopsy?

      Your Answer: Immune complex deposition in the basement membrane

      Correct Answer: Linear immunofluorescence

      Explanation:

      Different Renal Pathologies and their Histological Features

      Nephritic syndrome is a condition characterized by proteinuria, haematuria, and hypertension. Anti-glomerular basement membrane antibodies suggest hypersensitivity angiitis (Goodpasture’s syndrome) as the underlying cause. In hypersensitivity angiitis, crescents are seen on light microscopy of a renal biopsy specimen. Immunofluorescence shows linear IgG deposits along the basement membrane.

      Diffuse membranous glomerulonephritis is characterized by ‘wire looping’ of capillaries. Hereditary nephritis (Alport syndrome) shows splitting of the basement membrane and is associated with deafness. Acute post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis, typically seen in children, shows a ‘lumpy bumpy’ appearance of the glomeruli. Immunoglobulin A (IgA) nephropathy is characterized by immune complex deposition in the basement membrane.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal
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  • Question 2 - A 76-year-old woman is admitted to the hospital feeling generally unwell. She has...

    Incorrect

    • A 76-year-old woman is admitted to the hospital feeling generally unwell. She has also developed a fever and diffuse erythematous rash over the last few days. Urinalysis is positive for blood and protein, and blood tests show raised eosinophils and creatinine. Her General Practitioner started her on a new medication two weeks ago, but she cannot remember the name or what it was for.
      Which of the following drugs would be safe to continue at present, given the suspected diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Diclofenac

      Correct Answer: Prednisolone

      Explanation:

      Drug-Induced Acute Tubulointerstitial Nephritis: Common Culprits and Management Options

      Acute tubulointerstitial nephritis is a condition characterized by fever, rash, and abnormalities on urinalysis. It can be caused by various drugs, including non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs), beta-lactam antibiotics, allopurinol, and proton pump inhibitors (PPIs). In this case, the patient’s raised eosinophil count suggests drug-induced acute tubulointerstitial nephritis.

      Prednisolone, a steroid commonly used to manage this condition, is safe to continue. However, NSAIDs like diclofenac should be stopped as they can inhibit prostaglandins that maintain the glomerular filtration rate. Allopurinol may also need to be withdrawn to determine if it is contributing to the symptoms. Beta-lactam antibiotics like amoxicillin are another common cause and may need to be stopped. PPIs like omeprazole are a relatively rare but known trigger and should be withdrawn promptly. It is important to remember that steroids should not be suddenly stopped in most patients.

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      • Renal
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  • Question 3 - A 30-year-old man presents to the general practitioner (GP) with hypertension which fails...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old man presents to the general practitioner (GP) with hypertension which fails to fall into the normal range after three successive measurements at the practice nurse. These were 155/92 mmHg, 158/96 mmHg and 154/94 mmHg. He has a past history of some urinary tract infections as a child. The GP arranges some routine blood tests.
      Investigations:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Haemoglobin 139 g/l 135–175 g/l
      White cell count (WCC) 5.4 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
      Platelets 201 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
      Sodium (Na+) 139 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
      Potassium (K+) 4.9 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
      Creatinine 187 μmol/l 50–120 μmol/l
      USS Left kidney 8.4 cm and appears scarred.
      Right kidney 10.3 cm
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Chronic reflux nephropathy

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for a 25-Year-Old Man with Renal Issues

      Upon reviewing the history and test results of a 25-year-old man with renal issues, several potential diagnoses can be considered. Chronic reflux nephropathy appears to be the most likely diagnosis, given the patient’s history of urinary tract infections as a child, ultrasound scan results, and elevated creatinine levels. Further testing, such as renal tract computed tomography and a voiding cystourethrogram, can confirm this diagnosis.

      Essential hypertension, while a risk factor for reno-vascular disease, would not explain the patient’s creatinine rise or asymmetrical kidneys. Renal artery stenosis, while potentially causing a unilaterally reduced kidney size, is rare in young patients and does not fit with the patient’s history of urinary tract infections. White coat hypertension, which is a transient rise in blood pressure in a medical setting, would not explain the patient’s creatinine rise or reduced kidney size and scarring.

      IgA nephropathy, which typically presents with haematuria following an upper respiratory or other infection, does not fit with the patient’s history of urinary tract infections or lack of haematuria. Therefore, chronic reflux nephropathy remains the most likely diagnosis for this patient.

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      • Renal
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  • Question 4 - A 49-year-old man presents to the doctor with a week history of frank...

    Correct

    • A 49-year-old man presents to the doctor with a week history of frank haematuria. He has no other symptoms to note and is otherwise well although he has been a little tired. He has a history of hypertension which is well controlled on with perindopril. He smokes 10 cigarettes a day and has done so since his teens.
      Examination of the abdomen reveals no abnormalities. A dipstick test of the urine reveals blood +++.
      The patient is especially concerned that he may have a kidney tumour, as his father died from the condition over 20 years ago.
      Which of the following malignancies of the kidney the most common in the adult population ?

      Your Answer: Renal cell carcinoma

      Explanation:

      Types of Kidney Tumors: An Overview

      Kidney tumors are abnormal growths that can develop in different parts of the kidney. The most common type of kidney cancer in adults is renal cell carcinoma, which accounts for about 80% of all renal malignancies. Risk factors for this condition include obesity, hypertension, smoking, and certain genetic conditions. Family history of renal cell carcinoma also increases the risk of developing the disease. Symptoms may include blood in the urine, flank pain, abdominal mass, fatigue, and weight loss. Treatment options depend on the stage of the tumor and may include surgery, immunotherapy, chemotherapy, and radiotherapy.

      Other types of kidney tumors are much rarer. Primary renal lymphoma, for instance, is a very uncommon cancer that affects less than 1% of patients. Transitional cell carcinoma, also known as urothelial carcinoma, accounts for about 15% of all adult renal tumors and often starts in the renal pelvis. Renal sarcoma is a rare tumor that makes up less than 2% of all renal tumors in adults. Finally, nephroblastoma, or Wilms tumor, is the most common type of kidney cancer in children but is very rare in adults.

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      • Renal
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  • Question 5 - A 60-year-old woman presents for review of her chronic kidney disease.
    Her investigation results...

    Correct

    • A 60-year-old woman presents for review of her chronic kidney disease.
      Her investigation results show:
      Investigation Result Normal range
      Calcium 1.70 mmol/l 2.20–2.60 mmol/l
      Potassium 6 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
      Phosphate 2.5 mmol/l 0.70–1.40 mmol/l
      Urea 80 mmol/l 2.5–6.5 mmol/l
      Creatinine 400 μmol/l 50–120 μmol/l
      What is the mechanism for the low calcium?

      Your Answer: Reduced vitamin D hydroxylation

      Explanation:

      This patient has hypocalcaemia due to chronic renal failure, which reduces the production of calcitriol, the active form of vitamin D that plays a crucial role in calcium absorption. Calcitriol increases the permeability of tight junctions in the small intestine, allowing for the absorption of calcium through both passive and active pathways. In the active pathway, calcitriol stimulates the production of calbindin, which helps transport calcium into the enteral cells. However, in chronic kidney disease, the hydroxylation of calcidiol to calcitriol is impaired, leading to reduced calcium absorption and hypocalcaemia. Other potential causes of hypocalcaemia, such as increased tubular loss of calcium or a parathyroid tumour, have been ruled out in this patient.

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      • Renal
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  • Question 6 - A 42-year-old accountant presents to the General Practitioner (GP) with flank pain and...

    Correct

    • A 42-year-old accountant presents to the General Practitioner (GP) with flank pain and an episode of frank haematuria. She has a history of recurrent urinary tract infections (UTIs) and has had similar symptoms before. She attributes this episode to another UTI. She also has hypertension which is well controlled with ramipril. The doctor is concerned regarding the history of recurrent UTIs, and patient is further investigated for her symptoms with blood tests and ultrasound imaging. Results of the bloods and ultrasound confirms a diagnosis of polycystic kidney disease (PKD). Which of the following is true regarding PKD?

      Your Answer: Is associated with berry aneurysms of the circle of Willis

      Explanation:

      Polycystic Kidney Disease: Causes, Symptoms, and Associations

      Polycystic kidney disease (PKD) is a genetic disorder that affects the kidneys and other organs. It is caused by mutations in either the PKD1 or PKD2 gene, which leads to the formation of multiple cysts in the kidneys. Here are some important facts about PKD:

      Associations with other conditions: PKD is associated with cerebral berry aneurysms, liver cysts, hepatic fibrosis, diverticular disease, pancreatic cysts, and mitral valve prolapse or aortic incompetence.

      Inheritance: PKD is usually inherited as an autosomal dominant condition, meaning that a person only needs to inherit one copy of the mutated gene from one parent to develop the disease. Autosomal recessive PKD is rare and has a poor prognosis.

      Kidney involvement: Both kidneys are affected by PKD, with cysts replacing the functioning renal parenchyma and leading to renal failure.

      Age of onset: PKD usually presents in adult life, but cysts start to develop during the teenage years. The mean age of ESRD is 57 years in PKD1 cases and 69 years in PKD2 cases.

      PKD is a complex disorder that can have serious consequences for affected individuals. Early diagnosis and management are crucial for improving outcomes.

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      • Renal
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  • Question 7 - A 67-year-old retired bus driver presents to the Emergency Department with end-stage renal...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old retired bus driver presents to the Emergency Department with end-stage renal disease due to diabetic nephropathy. What is the most probable histological finding on kidney biopsy for this patient?

      Your Answer: Immune complex deposition

      Correct Answer: Kimmelstiel–Wilson nodules

      Explanation:

      Renal Biopsy Findings in Diabetic Nephropathy and Other Renal Diseases

      Diabetic nephropathy is a progressive kidney disease that damages the glomerular filtration barrier, leading to proteinuria. Renal biopsy is a diagnostic test that can reveal various findings associated with different renal diseases.

      Kimmelstiel–Wilson nodules are a hallmark of diabetic nephropathy, which are nodules of hyaline material that accumulate in the glomerulus. In contrast, immune complex deposition is commonly found in crescentic glomerulonephritis, anti-GBM disease, lupus, and IgA/post-infectious GN.

      Rouleaux formation, the abnormal stacking of red blood cells, is not associated with diabetic nephropathy but can cause diabetic retinopathy. Clear cells, a classification of renal cell carcinoma, are not a finding associated with diabetic nephropathy either.

      Finally, mesangial amyloid deposits are not associated with diabetic nephropathy but may be found in the mesangium, glomerular capillary walls, interstitium, or renal vessels in amyloidosis. Renal biopsy is a valuable tool in diagnosing and managing various renal diseases, including diabetic nephropathy.

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      • Renal
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  • Question 8 - A 12-year-old male patient is referred to the renal physicians after several episodes...

    Incorrect

    • A 12-year-old male patient is referred to the renal physicians after several episodes of frank haematuria. He does not recall any abdominal or loin pain. He had an upper respiratory tract infection a few days ago. Urine dipstick shows blood, and blood tests are normal.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis

      Correct Answer: IgA nephropathy

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Glomerulonephritis and Other Possible Causes of Haematuria in a Young Patient

      Haematuria in a young patient can be caused by various conditions, including glomerulonephritis, post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis, minimal change disease, sexually transmitted infections, and bladder cancer. IgA nephropathy, also known as Berger’s Disease, is the most common glomerulonephritis in the developed world and commonly affects young men. It presents with macroscopic haematuria a few days after a viral upper respiratory tract infection. A renal biopsy will show IgA deposits in the mesangium, and treatment is with steroids or cyclophosphamide if renal function is deteriorating.

      Post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis, on the other hand, presents in young children usually one to two weeks post-streptococcal infection with smoky urine and general malaise. Proteinuria is also expected in a glomerulonephritis. Minimal change disease is the most common cause of nephrotic syndrome in children and is associated with an upper respiratory tract infection. However, nephrotic syndrome involves proteinuria, which this patient does not have.

      It is also important to exclude sexually transmitted infections, as many are asymptomatic, but signs of infection and inflammation would likely show up on urine dipstick. Bladder cancer is unlikely in such a young patient devoid of other symptoms. Therefore, a thorough evaluation and proper diagnosis are necessary to determine the underlying cause of haematuria in a young patient.

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      • Renal
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  • Question 9 - A 45-year-old writer presents to his routine follow up at the Nephrology Clinic...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old writer presents to his routine follow up at the Nephrology Clinic complaining of numbness and tingling sensation of his right fingers. This worsens when he types for more than an hour and slightly improves when he stops typing. He suffers from diabetes mellitus and end-stage kidney disease and has been on regular haemodialysis via brachiocephalic fistula on his right antecubital fossa. On examination, his right radial artery is palpable and he has reduced sensation in all his right fingers, predominantly affecting the fingertips. The numbness does not worsen with tapping over the wrist nor with forced flexion of his wrists. His capillary refill time over his right fingers is prolonged to three seconds.
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Fistula steal syndrome

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for Numbness in a Patient with Arteriovenous Fistula

      Fistula Steal Syndrome, Carpal Tunnel Syndrome, and Diabetic Neuropathy are Possible Causes of Numbness in a Patient with Arteriovenous Fistula

      Arteriovenous fistula is a common procedure for patients undergoing hemodialysis. However, up to 20% of patients may develop complications such as fistula steal syndrome, which occurs when the segment of artery distal to the fistula is narrowed, leading to reduced arterial blood flow to the limb extremities. This can cause numbness and worsening of symptoms on usage of the hands.

      Other possible causes of numbness in this patient include carpal tunnel syndrome, which is a common complication among patients on long-term renal replacement therapy due to protein deposition in the carpal tunnel, and diabetic neuropathy, which is a common complication of chronic diabetes mellitus. However, the loss of sensation in peripheral neuropathy in diabetic patients is symmetrical in nature, commonly following a glove and stocking pattern.

      Radial nerve palsy and ulnar styloid fracture are less likely causes of numbness in this patient, as they typically present with muscle weakness and a history of trauma, respectively. A thorough differential diagnosis is necessary to determine the underlying cause of numbness in patients with arteriovenous fistula.

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      • Renal
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  • Question 10 - A 43-year-old man is suspected of having a renal calculus. He has some...

    Incorrect

    • A 43-year-old man is suspected of having a renal calculus. He has some investigations carried out by the general practitioner to monitor the effects of his medication. The following results are obtained:
      Plasma
      Na+ 138 mmol/l (135–145 mmol/l)
      K+ 3.1 mmol/l (3.5–5 mmol/l)
      24-hour urine sample:
      Ca2+ 40 mg/day (100–300 mg/day)
      Given the results above, which one of the following is the patient most likely taking?

      Your Answer: A carbonic anhydrase inhibitor

      Correct Answer: Bendroflumethiazide

      Explanation:

      Overview of Different Types of Diuretics and Their Effects on Electrolytes and Renal Calculi Formation

      Diuretics are medications that increase urine output and are commonly used to treat conditions such as hypertension and edema. However, different types of diuretics have varying effects on electrolyte balance and renal calculi formation.

      Thiazide diuretics, such as bendroflumethiazide, work in the distal tubule of the nephron and result in sodium and potassium loss in urine, with calcium resorption. This makes them useful in controlling chronic renal calculi formation. However, they can also cause hypokalemia and hypercalcemia.

      Loop diuretics, such as furosemide, work in the thick ascending limb of the loop of Henle and result in sodium, potassium, and calcium loss in urine. This can increase the risk of renal calculi formation.

      Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors, such as acetazolamide, work in the proximal convoluted tubule and produce alkaline urine rich in bicarbonate. Continued use can lead to metabolic acidosis and an increased risk of renal calculi formation.

      Aldosterone antagonists, such as spironolactone, work in the distal part of the distal tubule and collecting tubules and inhibit aldosterone-mediated sodium absorption and potassium excretion. This can result in hyperkalemia.

      Mannitol, a osmotic diuretic, may cause hyponatremia but does not usually affect plasma potassium or urinary calcium excretion.

      Overall, understanding the different types of diuretics and their effects on electrolyte balance and renal calculi formation is important in selecting the appropriate medication for a patient’s specific needs.

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      • Renal
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Renal (5/10) 50%
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