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Question 1
Correct
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A 54-year-old alcoholic man presents with a 5-month history of a painless non-healing ulcer on the underside of his penis. On examination, there is a 1 cm × 1 cm deep, ulcerated lesion of the ventral aspect of the glans penis on retraction of the foreskin. There is no associated discharge or lymphadenopathy.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Penile cancer
Explanation:Distinguishing Penile Cancer from Other Conditions
Penile cancer is characterized by a non-healing painless ulcer that persists for at least six months. The lesion may present as a lump, ulcer, erythematous lesion, or bleeding or discharge from a concealed lesion. The most common locations for tumors are the glans and prepuce. On the other hand, herpes simplex is recurrent and manifests as painful grouped vesicles that rupture, crust, and heal within ten days. Lymphogranuloma venereum (LGV) is a sexually transmitted disease caused by certain strains of Chlamydia trachomatis, which presents as a painless penile or anal papule or shallow ulcer/erosion and painful and swollen regional lymph glands. Poor hygiene may contribute to balanitis, which presents with painful sores and discharge. Finally, primary syphilis presents as a small, firm, red, painless papule that ulcerates and heals within 4-8 weeks without treatment, which is not consistent with the 4-month history and deep ulcerated lesion described in this case. Therefore, it is crucial to distinguish penile cancer from other conditions to ensure prompt and appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 2
Correct
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You have been feeling unwell with weight loss and lethargy over the past few months; a few weeks ago you had a needle stick and are worried you may have HIV. Unfortunately, a subsequent HIV test proves positive.
Which of the following is true with respect to your obligations?Your Answer: You should consult a suitably qualified colleague and take their advice on practice restrictions
Explanation:GMC Guidelines on Prescribing for Patients with Chronic Illnesses
The General Medical Council (GMC) has set clear guidelines regarding the prescribing of medication for patients with serious chronic illnesses. According to these guidelines, it is not appropriate for a doctor or a member of their family to prescribe medication for a patient with a serious chronic illness.
Furthermore, if a doctor has a serious condition that could potentially be passed on to their patients, they must consult with a qualified colleague and follow their recommendations. It is not acceptable for a doctor to rely solely on their own assessment of potential infection risks.
In summary, the GMC guidelines emphasize the importance of ensuring that patients receive appropriate and safe care, particularly when it comes to prescribing medication for those with chronic illnesses. Doctors must always act in the best interests of their patients and seek advice from qualified colleagues when necessary.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Leadership And Management
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old female is attempting to quit smoking. She recently smoked 10 cigarettes a day but has managed to cut down to 5 cigarettes a day by using nicotine gum. She is also curious about the effectiveness of E-cigarettes in aiding smoking cessation.
In your discussion with her, you may want to cover the following:Your Answer: The use of NRT (nicotine replacement therapy) is contraindicated along with the use of E-cigarettes
Correct Answer: It is probably preferable to use E-cigarettes than normal cigarettes as the harm is likely to be less
Explanation:Although E-cigarettes have been found to aid smoking cessation, their short-term use has been linked to harm. However, there is still a lack of long-term data on their effects.
There is growing concern that teenagers who start using E-cigarettes may be more likely to transition to regular cigarette smoking.
It is worth noting that preparations of nicotine replacement therapy are approved for use in children over 12 years old and can be used alongside E-cigarettes without issue.
Overall, the long-term health effects of E-cigarettes are not yet fully understood, and while they may be less harmful than traditional cigarettes, they still contain addictive nicotine and can have negative health consequences.
While E-cigarettes may be helpful for some individuals trying to quit smoking, it is important to remember that they are not FDA-approved for this purpose. Nicotine replacement therapy, such as gum or patches, has been shown to be effective and may be a better option.
Quitting smoking is a challenging process that may require multiple attempts, so it is important to have a support system and be patient with oneself.
Smoking cessation is the process of quitting smoking. In 2008, NICE released guidance on how to manage smoking cessation. The guidance recommends that patients should be offered nicotine replacement therapy (NRT), varenicline or bupropion, and that clinicians should not favour one medication over another. These medications should be prescribed as part of a commitment to stop smoking on or before a particular date, and the prescription should only last until 2 weeks after the target stop date. If unsuccessful, a repeat prescription should not be offered within 6 months unless special circumstances have intervened. NRT can cause adverse effects such as nausea and vomiting, headaches, and flu-like symptoms. NICE recommends offering a combination of nicotine patches and another form of NRT to people who show a high level of dependence on nicotine or who have found single forms of NRT inadequate in the past.
Varenicline is a nicotinic receptor partial agonist that should be started 1 week before the patient’s target date to stop. The recommended course of treatment is 12 weeks, but patients should be monitored regularly and treatment only continued if not smoking. Varenicline has been shown in studies to be more effective than bupropion, but it should be used with caution in patients with a history of depression or self-harm. Nausea is the most common adverse effect, and varenicline is contraindicated in pregnancy and breastfeeding.
Bupropion is a norepinephrine and dopamine reuptake inhibitor, and nicotinic antagonist that should be started 1 to 2 weeks before the patient’s target date to stop. There is a small risk of seizures, and bupropion is contraindicated in epilepsy, pregnancy, and breastfeeding. Having an eating disorder is a relative contraindication.
In 2010, NICE recommended that all pregnant women should be tested for smoking using carbon monoxide detectors. All women who smoke, or have stopped smoking within the last 2 weeks, or those with a CO reading of 7 ppm or above should be referred to NHS Stop Smoking Services. The first-line interventions in pregnancy should be cognitive behaviour therapy, motivational interviewing, or structured self-help and support from NHS Stop Smoking Services. The evidence for the use of NRT in pregnancy is mixed, but it is often used if the above measures fail. There is no evidence that it affects the child’s birthweight. Pregnant women
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
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Question 4
Correct
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Which of the following anti-epileptic medications poses the highest risk of neurodevelopmental delay when taken by expectant mothers?
Your Answer: Sodium valproate
Explanation:The use of sodium valproate in pregnant women poses a considerable threat of causing neurodevelopmental delay.
Pregnancy and breastfeeding can be a concern for women with epilepsy. It is generally recommended that women continue taking their medication during pregnancy, as the risks of uncontrolled seizures outweigh the potential risks to the fetus. However, it is important to aim for monotherapy and to take folic acid before pregnancy to reduce the risk of neural tube defects. The use of antiepileptic medication during pregnancy can increase the risk of congenital defects, with sodium valproate being associated with neural tube defects, carbamazepine being considered the least teratogenic of the older antiepileptics, and phenytoin being associated with cleft palate. Lamotrigine may be a safer option, but the dose may need to be adjusted during pregnancy. Breastfeeding is generally safe for mothers taking antiepileptics, except for barbiturates. Women taking phenytoin should be given vitamin K in the last month of pregnancy to prevent clotting disorders in the newborn. It is important to seek specialist neurological or psychiatric advice before starting or continuing antiepileptic medication during pregnancy or in women of childbearing age. Recent evidence has shown a significant risk of neurodevelopmental delay in children following maternal use of sodium valproate, leading to recommendations that it should not be used during pregnancy or in women of childbearing age unless absolutely necessary.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 5
Correct
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A 32-year-old woman who delivered a baby a week ago comes in for a follow-up appointment with her spouse. The husband expresses concern about her mood as she appears to be depressed and is not bonding well with the newborn. He recalls her behavior three days ago when she was speaking rapidly and incoherently about the future. The patient denies experiencing any hallucinations but mentions that she feels like her child has been born into a terrible world. What is the best course of action for managing this situation?
Your Answer: Arrange urgent admission
Explanation:The mother’s behavior suggests that she may be experiencing puerperal psychosis and requires immediate admission for psychiatric assessment.
Although not all psychotic symptoms are present, there are several indications of significant mental health issues, such as the mother’s unusual lack of interaction with her baby, incoherent speech about the future, and expressing concern that the baby has been born into a troubled world.
Therefore, it is crucial that the mother receives prompt psychiatric evaluation.
Understanding Postpartum Mental Health Problems
Postpartum mental health problems can range from mild ‘baby-blues’ to severe puerperal psychosis. To screen for depression, healthcare professionals may use the Edinburgh Postnatal Depression Scale, which is a 10-item questionnaire that indicates how the mother has felt over the previous week. A score of over 13 indicates a ‘depressive illness of varying severity’, and the questionnaire includes a question about self-harm. The sensitivity and specificity of this screening tool are over 90%.
‘Baby-blues’ are seen in around 60-70% of women and typically occur 3-7 days following birth. This condition is more common in primips, and mothers are characteristically anxious, tearful, and irritable. Postnatal depression affects around 10% of women, with most cases starting within a month and typically peaking at 3 months. The features of postnatal depression are similar to depression seen in other circumstances.
Puerperal psychosis affects approximately 0.2% of women and usually occurs within the first 2-3 weeks following birth. The features of this condition include severe swings in mood (similar to bipolar disorder) and disordered perception (e.g. auditory hallucinations). Reassurance and support are important for all these conditions, but admission to hospital is usually required for puerperal psychosis, ideally in a Mother & Baby Unit. Cognitive behavioural therapy may be beneficial, and certain SSRIs such as sertraline and paroxetine may be used if symptoms are severe. While these medications are secreted in breast milk, they are not thought to be harmful to the infant. However, fluoxetine is best avoided due to its long half-life. There is around a 25-50% risk of recurrence following future pregnancies.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 6
Correct
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A 28-year-old woman who is 32 weeks pregnant is evaluated for pre-eclampsia. Her current blood pressure is 160/110 mmHg and the urine dipstick shows:
Protein +
Leucocytes negative
Blood negative
There is no swelling and the patient is asymptomatic. Among the listed medications, which one is the least appropriate to administer?Your Answer: Losartan
Explanation:To prevent birth defects, it is recommended to steer clear of ACE inhibitors and angiotensin-2 receptor blockers. Instead, many healthcare providers opt to prescribe methyldopa or labetalol as the initial treatment for this condition.
Pre-eclampsia is a condition that occurs during pregnancy and is characterized by high blood pressure, proteinuria, and edema. It can lead to complications such as eclampsia, neurological issues, fetal growth problems, liver involvement, and cardiac failure. Severe pre-eclampsia is marked by hypertension, proteinuria, headache, visual disturbances, and other symptoms. Risk factors for pre-eclampsia include hypertension in a previous pregnancy, chronic kidney disease, autoimmune disease, diabetes, chronic hypertension, first pregnancy, age over 40, high BMI, family history of pre-eclampsia, and multiple pregnancy. To reduce the risk of hypertensive disorders in pregnancy, women with high or moderate risk factors should take aspirin daily. Management involves emergency assessment, admission for severe cases, and medication such as labetalol, nifedipine, or hydralazine. Delivery of the baby is the most important step in management, with timing depending on the individual case.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 7
Correct
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A 75-year-old man presents with weight loss and is found to have a serum calcium concentration of 3.22 mmol/l (normal range 2.25-2.5 mmol/l). A skeletal survey is normal. A cancer with non-metastatic hypercalcaemia is suspected.
Which of the following substances is most likely to be secreted by the tumour in this case?Your Answer: Parathyroid hormone-related peptide (PTHrP)
Explanation:Understanding Hypercalcaemia in Cancer Patients: The Role of PTHrP
Hypercalcaemia is a common occurrence in cancer patients, affecting around 10-20% of cases. It is caused by increased bone resorption and calcium release from bone, which can be triggered by osteolytic metastases, tumour secretion of parathyroid hormone-related peptide (PTHrP), and tumour production of calcitriol. Among these mechanisms, PTHrP secretion is the most common cause of hypercalcaemia in patients with non-metastatic solid tumours, also known as humoral hypercalcaemia of malignancy. This condition should be suspected in patients with solid tumours and unexplained hypercalcaemia, as well as those with low serum PTH concentration. Diagnosis can be confirmed by measuring high serum PTHrP concentration. While hypercalcaemia is often associated with advanced cancer and poor prognosis, understanding its underlying mechanisms can help in developing effective treatment strategies.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 72-year-old man presents with palpitations and feeling dizzy. An ECG reveals atrial fibrillation with a heart rate of 130 beats per minute. His blood pressure is within normal limits and there are no other notable findings upon examination of his cardiorespiratory system. He has a medical history of controlled asthma (treated with salbutamol and beclomethasone) and depression (managed with citalopram). He has been experiencing these symptoms for approximately three days. What is the most suitable medication for controlling his heart rate?
Your Answer: Digoxin
Correct Answer: Diltiazem
Explanation:Prescribing a beta-blocker is not recommended due to her asthma history, which is a contraindication. Instead, NICE suggests using a calcium channel blocker that limits the heart rate. Additionally, it is important to consider antithrombotic therapy.
Atrial fibrillation (AF) is a heart condition that requires prompt management. The management of AF depends on the patient’s haemodynamic stability and the duration of the AF. For haemodynamically unstable patients, electrical cardioversion is recommended. For haemodynamically stable patients, rate control is the first-line treatment strategy, except in certain cases. Medications such as beta-blockers, calcium channel blockers, and digoxin are commonly used to control the heart rate. Rhythm control is another treatment option that involves the use of medications such as beta-blockers, dronedarone, and amiodarone. Catheter ablation is recommended for patients who have not responded to or wish to avoid antiarrhythmic medication. The procedure involves the use of radiofrequency or cryotherapy to ablate the faulty electrical pathways that cause AF. Anticoagulation is necessary before and during the procedure to reduce the risk of stroke. The success rate of catheter ablation varies, with around 50% of patients experiencing an early recurrence of AF within three months. However, after three years, around 55% of patients who have undergone a single procedure remain in sinus rhythm.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 9
Correct
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A 15-year-old male with a history of asthma is brought in by his worried father due to the sudden appearance of a rash on his leg. The patient reports no new product usage or trauma. His father also expresses concerns about his recent lack of motivation in school.
Upon examination, there are distinct linear lesions forming geometric shapes on the left lower leg and dorsal aspect of the foot. The patient appears healthy, and there are no other notable findings.
What is the probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Dermatitis artefacta
Explanation:The sudden appearance of well-defined skin lesions in a linear pattern, accompanied by a lack of concern or emotional response, is indicative of dermatitis artefacta. This condition is often associated with self-inflicted injuries that stem from underlying psychological issues, such as deliberate self-harm or attention-seeking behavior. The lesions are typically geometric in shape and appear in easily accessible areas, such as the limbs or face. Patients with dermatitis artefacta may deny causing the lesions themselves. The patient’s declining grades may be linked to psychological difficulties that have led to this form of self-harm.
Understanding Dermatitis Artefacta
Dermatitis artefacta is a rare condition that affects individuals of any age, but is more common in females. It is characterised by self-inflicted skin lesions that patients typically deny are self-induced. The condition is strongly associated with personality disorder, dissociative disorders, and eating disorders, with a prevalence of up to 33% in patients with bulimia or anorexia.
Patients with dermatitis artefacta present with well-demarcated linear or geometric lesions that appear suddenly and do not evolve over time. The lesions may be caused by scratching with fingernails or other objects, burning skin with cigarettes, or chemical exposure. Commonly affected areas include the face and dorsum of the hands. Despite the severity of the skin lesions, patients may display a nonchalant attitude, known as la belle indifference.
Diagnosis of dermatitis artefacta is based on clinical history and exclusion of other dermatological conditions. Biopsy of skin lesions is not routine but may be helpful to exclude other conditions. Psychiatric assessment may be necessary. Differential diagnosis includes other dermatological conditions and factitious disorders such as Munchausen syndrome and malingering.
Management of dermatitis artefacta involves a multidisciplinary approach with dermatologists, psychologists, and psychiatrists. Direct confrontation is unhelpful and may discourage patients from seeking medical help. Treatment includes providing occlusive dressing, topical antibiotics, and bland emollients. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors and cognitive behavioural therapy may be helpful, although evidence is limited.
In summary, dermatitis artefacta is a rare condition that requires a multidisciplinary approach for management. Understanding the clinical features, risk factors, and differential diagnosis is crucial for accurate diagnosis and appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old man presents with exertional chest pain and a positive exercise tolerance test. He refuses to undergo an angiogram and is discharged with a medication regimen consisting of aspirin 75 mg od, simvastatin 40 mg on, atenolol 50 mg od, and a GTN spray prn. Upon examination, his pulse is 72 bpm and his blood pressure is 130/80 mmHg. During follow-up, he continues to frequently use his GTN spray. What is the most appropriate course of action for his management?
Your Answer: Add isosorbide mononitrate 30 mg bd
Correct Answer: Increase atenolol to 100 mg od
Explanation:If a patient with angina doesn’t respond well to the first-line drug (such as a beta-blocker), the dose should be increased before adding another drug. The recommended dose of atenolol for angina is 100 mg daily, and a pulse rate of 72 bpm indicates inadequate beta-blockade. The starting dose of isosorbide mononitrate is 10 mg bd.
Angina pectoris can be managed through lifestyle changes, medication, percutaneous coronary intervention, and surgery. In 2011, NICE released guidelines for the management of stable angina. Medication is an important aspect of treatment, and all patients should receive aspirin and a statin unless there are contraindications. Sublingual glyceryl trinitrate can be used to abort angina attacks. NICE recommends using either a beta-blocker or a calcium channel blocker as first-line treatment, depending on the patient’s comorbidities, contraindications, and preferences. If a calcium channel blocker is used as monotherapy, a rate-limiting one such as verapamil or diltiazem should be used. If used in combination with a beta-blocker, a longer-acting dihydropyridine calcium channel blocker like amlodipine or modified-release nifedipine should be used. Beta-blockers should not be prescribed concurrently with verapamil due to the risk of complete heart block. If initial treatment is ineffective, medication should be increased to the maximum tolerated dose. If a patient is still symptomatic after monotherapy with a beta-blocker, a calcium channel blocker can be added, and vice versa. If a patient cannot tolerate the addition of a calcium channel blocker or a beta-blocker, long-acting nitrate, ivabradine, nicorandil, or ranolazine can be considered. If a patient is taking both a beta-blocker and a calcium-channel blocker, a third drug should only be added while awaiting assessment for PCI or CABG.
Nitrate tolerance is a common issue for patients who take nitrates, leading to reduced efficacy. NICE advises patients who take standard-release isosorbide mononitrate to use an asymmetric dosing interval to maintain a daily nitrate-free time of 10-14 hours to minimize the development of nitrate tolerance. However, this effect is not seen in patients who take once-daily modified-release isosorbide mononitrate.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A pharmaceutical company approaches you to inquire if you would like to participate in a study that evaluates the efficacy of a new medication for hypertension. Upon reviewing the investigator's brochure, you notice that it outlines the method for analyzing the findings.
What is the most suitable approach to compare the treatment and control groups for a disparity, given that the study involves a different age group?Your Answer: ANOVA
Correct Answer: Student's t test
Explanation:Statistical Tests for Comparing Means
Blood pressure is a continuous variable that follows a normal distribution. Therefore, the most appropriate statistical test to compare the mean blood pressures between two groups is Student’s t-test. However, this test assumes that individuals in both groups are randomly distributed. ANCOVA is another statistical test that is useful when variables such as age, sex, or race may affect the treatment effectiveness. It tests for covariance between populations. Mann-Whitney U test is suitable for non-parametric data that do not follow a normal distribution. Finally, ANOVA testing is used to assess the statistical significance of the difference between means. It is essential to choose the appropriate statistical test based on the type of data and research question to obtain accurate results.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of pain in both lower legs while running. The pain gradually intensifies after a brief period of running, causing him to stop. However, the pain quickly subsides when he is at rest. Upon examination, there are no abnormal findings, and his peripheral pulses are all palpable. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Chronic exertional compartment syndrome
Correct Answer: Osgood-Schlatter's disease
Explanation:Chronic Exertional Compartment Syndrome
Chronic exertional compartment syndrome (CECS) is a condition that causes exertional leg pain due to the fascial compartment being unable to accommodate the increased volume of the muscle during exercise. It is often mistaken for peripheral arterial disease.
If you experience exertional leg pain with tenderness over the middle of the muscle compartment but no bony tenderness, it may be a sign of CECS. This condition should be suspected when there is no evidence of tibial tuberosity pain, which is common in Osgood-Schlatter’s disease.
Referral for pre- and post-exertional pressure testing may be necessary, and if conservative measures are unsuccessful, a fasciotomy may be required.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 13
Correct
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A 6-year-old child is brought to see you by his parents. They have noticed that he has developed a skin rash and bruising over last 24-36 hours.
The parents report that he has previously been a well child with no serious past medical problems or hospital admissions. The only time they have sought medical attention in the past has been for the occasional upper respiratory tract infection but these have been infrequent.
He last had a viral upper respiratory tract infection about 7-10 days ago. The parents managed this at home without the need for medical assessment as the symptoms were not severe.
On examination he appears well in himself with no temperature, and is interacting and playful. However there is marked superficial bruising and purpura over his trunk and legs. You also note four blood blisters on his tongue. There is no lymphadenopathy or hepatosplenomegaly and the remainder of the clinical examination is unremarkable with normal urine on dipstick testing.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Immune-mediated thrombocytopenic purpura
Explanation:Immune-Mediated Thrombocytopenic Purpura in Children
This condition is the most common cause of low platelets in children and occurs due to immune-mediated platelet destruction. It typically affects children between 2 and 10 years of age, with onset occurring one to two weeks after a viral infection. Children with this condition develop purpura, bruising, nosebleeds, and mucosal bleeding. While intracranial hemorrhage is a rare complication, it is serious. However, in the vast majority of cases, ITP is an acute and self-limiting condition.
While acute lymphoblastic leukemia (ALL) can also present with abnormal bruising, the history and clinical features of this child are more suggestive of ITP. Other features of ALL include malaise, recurrent infections, pallor, hepatosplenomegaly, and lymphadenopathy, which are not present in this case.
Haemolytic-uraemic syndrome is a triad of acute renal failure, thrombocytopenia, and microangiopathic haemolytic anaemia. Patients are typically very unwell. Henoch-Schönlein purpura (HSP) typically presents with a palpable purpura that affects the buttocks and extensor surfaces, along with arthralgia, abdominal pain, and renal problems. Meningococcal septicaemia can also cause purpura, but affected patients are seriously unwell.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 14
Correct
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A 31-year-old female who is 22 weeks pregnant is found to have a blood pressure of 150/90 mmHg on three separate occasions. Urine protein is negative.
Which of the following would be the initial treatment option?Your Answer: Alpha methyldopa
Explanation:Safe Medications for Hypertension in Pregnancy
Beta blockers are considered safe during the third trimester of pregnancy, but they are not commonly used due to concerns about intrauterine growth retardation. Instead, labetalol is often preferred as it has an established track record of safety and efficacy. Magnesium sulphate is a recognized treatment for pre-eclampsia, a condition not mentioned in this context. ACE inhibitors are not recommended for use during pregnancy. Nifedipine may be used as a second-line treatment. Methyldopa is a well-studied medication that has been shown to be both effective and safe for both mother and baby during pregnancy. By carefully selecting the appropriate medication, hypertension in pregnancy can be managed safely and effectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 4-year-old child presents with a six day history of fever, coryzal symptoms, cough and red watery eyes. Yesterday a red maculopapular rash appeared around the ears and face.
On examination, in the mouth there are tiny white spots on an erythematous base, opposite the premolars on the buccal mucosa.
What is the diagnosis?Your Answer: Measles
Correct Answer: Varicella
Explanation:Measles vs Rubella: Understanding the Differences
Measles and rubella are two viral infections that can cause similar symptoms, but they have some key differences. Measles is typically more severe and can have serious consequences, while rubella is usually milder and may go unnoticed in some individuals.
In the case of measles, the illness usually starts with a prodromal phase that includes fever, dry cough, coryza, and conjunctivitis. After a few days, tiny white spots called Koplik’s spots appear on the buccal mucosa, followed by a rash that spreads downwards from the face and behind the ears.
On the other hand, rubella tends to be shorter in duration and milder in symptoms. It may not even be noticed in some individuals. However, if a pregnant woman contracts rubella, it can pose a serious risk to the developing fetus.
Understanding the differences between these two viral infections is important for proper diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 16
Correct
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A 14-year-old girl comes to the clinic complaining of repeated episodes of collapsing. She reports that these episodes happen suddenly while she is playing sports. The patient has no significant medical history or family history. During the physical examination, an ejection systolic murmur is detected. Her blood pressure is 106/70 mmHg, and her pulse is 78 beats per minute. What is the probable cause of her symptoms?
Your Answer: Hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy
Explanation:Hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy is a more frequent cause of sudden death or unexpected collapse in young individuals compared to aortic stenosis.
Hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy (HOCM) is a genetic disorder that affects muscle tissue and is inherited in an autosomal dominant manner. It is caused by mutations in genes that encode contractile proteins, with the most common defects involving the β-myosin heavy chain protein or myosin-binding protein C. HOCM is characterized by left ventricle hypertrophy, which leads to decreased compliance and cardiac output, resulting in predominantly diastolic dysfunction. Biopsy findings show myofibrillar hypertrophy with disorganized myocytes and fibrosis. HOCM is often asymptomatic, but exertional dyspnea, angina, syncope, and sudden death can occur. Jerky pulse, systolic murmurs, and double apex beat are also common features. HOCM is associated with Friedreich’s ataxia and Wolff-Parkinson White. ECG findings include left ventricular hypertrophy, nonspecific ST segment and T-wave abnormalities, and deep Q waves. Atrial fibrillation may occasionally be seen.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 17
Correct
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A 24-year-old-man schedules an appointment due to a nose injury he sustained while playing soccer two days ago. He reports that his nose bled for a few minutes after the injury but has not bled since. He also mentions that his nose did not appear deformed after the incident. He has not sought medical attention before this appointment and is generally healthy with no long-term medications.
During the examination, you notice no signs of nasal bone deviation, but there is significant swelling in the surrounding soft tissue. On anterior rhinoscopy, you observe a bilateral fluctuant swelling of the nasal septum that almost blocks the nostrils.
What is the most suitable course of action?Your Answer: Admit directly to the hospital for same day ENT assessment
Explanation:If there is bilateral purple swelling of the nasal septum, it is likely that the patient has a septal haematoma. It is important to examine the nose for this condition, even if the injury seems minor. A septal haematoma can cause permanent damage to the septal cartilage within 24 hours due to obstructed blood flow. If suspected, the patient should be referred to the on-call ENT team for urgent assessment.
If a nasal bone fracture is suspected, the patient should also be referred to the ENT emergency clinic. This type of fracture can be corrected under local anaesthetic within 2-3 weeks of the injury.
Facial bone x-rays are not useful in diagnosing nasal bone fractures.
If the patient has only experienced simple epistaxis without any other nasal injury, Naseptin may be appropriate.
If there is a septal deviation, routine ENT referral may be necessary. However, if there is any uncertainty, it is best to seek advice from an ENT specialist.
Nasal Septal Haematoma: A Complication of Nasal Trauma
Nasal septal haematoma is a serious complication that can occur after even minor nasal trauma. It is characterized by the accumulation of blood between the septal cartilage and the perichondrium. The most common symptom is nasal obstruction, but pain and rhinorrhoea may also be present. On examination, a bilateral, red swelling arising from the nasal septum is typically seen. It is important to differentiate this from a deviated septum, which will be firm upon probing.
Prompt treatment is necessary to prevent irreversible septal necrosis, which can occur within 3-4 days if left untreated. This is caused by pressure-related ischaemia of the cartilage, leading to necrosis and potentially resulting in a ‘saddle-nose’ deformity. Management typically involves surgical drainage and intravenous antibiotics. It is crucial to be aware of this complication and to promptly seek medical attention if nasal trauma occurs.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 18
Correct
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A 22-year-old woman has reported experiencing occasional post-coital and intermenstrual bleeding for approximately 2 months. She has no complaints of dyspareunia or pelvic discomfort. During a speculum examination, no abnormalities were detected. She consents to being tested for Chlamydia and Gonorrhoea.
Which test would be the most suitable to conduct?Your Answer: A vulvovaginal swab
Explanation:For women, the appropriate location to take swabs for chlamydia and gonorrhoea is the vulvo-vaginal area, specifically the introitus.
Chlamydia is the most common sexually transmitted infection in the UK caused by Chlamydia trachomatis. It is often asymptomatic but can cause cervicitis and dysuria in women and urethral discharge and dysuria in men. Complications include epididymitis, pelvic inflammatory disease, and infertility. Testing is done through nuclear acid amplification tests (NAATs) on urine or swab samples. Screening is recommended for sexually active individuals aged 15-24 years. Doxycycline is the first-line treatment, but azithromycin may be used if contraindicated. Partners should be notified and treated.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology And Breast
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Question 19
Correct
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A middle-aged businesswoman visits you to discuss her medication for rheumatoid arthritis. Her condition is worsening and she now requires a walking aid to move around. She is concerned about the financial burden of her condition and asks if she is eligible for any government assistance, given that she has been a taxpayer for most of her life. She mentions that she still pays higher rate tax on her pensions and investments. Can you advise her on whether she qualifies for Personal Independence Payment (PIP)?
Your Answer: Higher rate tax payers are not eligible for PIP
Explanation:Understanding Personal Independence Payment (PIP)
Personal Independence Payment (PIP) is a government benefit that provides financial assistance to individuals with long-term conditions or disabilities that are expected to last for at least 12 months. PIP is divided into two components: Daily Living and Mobility, each with standard and enhanced rates. Unlike other benefits, PIP is not income-related and is not affected by earnings, savings, or taxes. It is available to anyone, regardless of their employment status.
To qualify for PIP, an individual must have required assistance with daily living or mobility activities for at least three months and be reasonably likely to need help for the next nine months. However, individuals can submit a claim for PIP during the first three months of needing assistance. It is important to note that PIP is based on how a person’s condition affects them, not the condition itself. This means that the severity of the condition is not the only factor considered when determining eligibility for PIP.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Consulting In General Practice
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Question 20
Correct
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A 27-year-old female patient who has a previous medical history of hypothyroidism visits the clinic with complaints of weakness, specifically in her arms, which has been ongoing for the past four months. Additionally, she has been experiencing double vision towards the end of the day, despite having a recent normal eye examination. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Myasthenia gravis
Explanation:Myasthenia gravis is an autoimmune disorder that results in muscle weakness and fatigue, particularly in the eyes, face, neck, and limbs. It is more common in women and is associated with thymomas and other autoimmune disorders. Diagnosis is made through electromyography and testing for antibodies to acetylcholine receptors. Treatment includes acetylcholinesterase inhibitors and immunosuppression, and in severe cases, plasmapheresis or intravenous immunoglobulins may be necessary.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 21
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You are requested by the community midwives to assess a 26-year-old woman who was discharged four days ago following the delivery of her first child via caesarean section. The infant is healthy. During the examination, she complains of diffuse tenderness in her abdomen, especially around her caesarean scar. She has a fever of 38.1°C and is experiencing a bloody discharge per vaginum, which has a notably strong odour.
What is the most significant risk factor associated with postpartum infection?Your Answer: Prolonged labour
Explanation:Endometritis and its association with Caesarean section and Prolonged Labour
Endometritis is a common infection that affects women after childbirth. The two main factors that increase the risk of endometritis are Caesarean section and Prolonged labour. However, Caesarean section is more likely to result in infection than Prolonged labour. Studies have shown that the rate of endometritis is higher in women who have undergone Caesarean section compared to those who have had vaginal deliveries. Symptoms such as scar tenderness, abdominal tenderness, pyrexia, and strong/foul smelling vaginal discharge support the diagnosis of endometritis.
Prolonged labour and multiparity may also increase the risk of retained products of conception, which can lead to infection. Combination antibiotic therapy with an aminoglycoside and metronidazole may be used to treat endometritis. Pelvic ultrasound can be helpful in identifying haematoma or a collection of fluid that may require drainage. It is important to monitor and treat endometritis promptly to prevent complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 22
Correct
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A 30-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner complaining of thirst and polyuria of recent onset. He is a software engineer with an irregular daily routine.
On examination, his body mass index (BMI) is 24 kg/m2 and he is not aware of any weight loss. A random blood sugar is 15.8 mmol/l (normal range: 3.9–7.1 mmol/l). He has glycosuria but no ketonuria.
A diagnosis of type I diabetes is suspected. He is referred to the diabetes specialist team for immediate review that day.
What is the most likely treatment option this patient will be discharged on?
Your Answer: A basal-bolus insulin regimen
Explanation:Understanding Insulin Regimens for Type I Diabetes
When a patient is diagnosed with type I diabetes, it is crucial to refer them to a diabetes specialist team for immediate care. One of the recommended treatment regimens is the basal-bolus insulin regimen, which involves taking a longer-acting insulin to stabilize blood glucose levels during fasting periods (basal regimen) and separate injections of shorter-acting insulin to prevent post-meal blood sugar spikes (bolus regimen). This is the preferred treatment according to NICE guidelines.
A bolus insulin regimen involves monitoring blood sugar levels multiple times a day and administering insulin in response to rises in blood sugar. However, this is not recommended for newly diagnosed type I diabetes. A basal insulin regimen involves taking a long-acting basal insulin injection at regular intervals, but with no additional insulin to compensate for postprandial blood sugar spikes. This may be appropriate for severe insulin resistance in poorly managed type II diabetes, but not for type I diabetes.
Oral hypoglycemic agents are used in the management of type II diabetes, but not for type I diabetes, which requires insulin. A twice-daily mixed insulin regimen may be suitable for those with a regular daily routine that includes three main meals at similar times each day. However, NICE guidance recommends against non-basal-bolus insulin regimens for adults with newly diagnosed type I diabetes. This patient, a student with an irregular daily routine, would not be suitable for a twice-daily mixed insulin regimen.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 29-year-old man presents to you with a history of intermittent 'stabbing' headaches.
He reports experiencing excruciating unilateral headache around his right eye and over the right temporal area. The headaches last anywhere from a couple of minutes to half an hour. He also experiences lacrimation, nasal epiphora, and a slightly red eye on the affected side during a headache episode.
He reports having about 20 attacks of the headache a day, which tend to occur during the daytime rather than the night. During attacks, he tends to go and 'curl up in bed' to try and let things settle.
What is the most appropriate treatment for this headache?Your Answer: High flow oxygen
Correct Answer: Amitriptyline orally
Explanation:Differentiating Episodic Paroxysmal Hemicrania from Cluster Headache
Episodic paroxysmal hemicrania (EPH) and cluster headache (CH) share similar characteristics, making it difficult to differentiate between the two. However, there are key elements in their history that can help clinicians make an accurate diagnosis. EPH is characterized by frequent attacks of unilateral pain focused around the eye or temporal region, lasting from 2-30 minutes and occurring during the day. In contrast, CH attacks typically last between 15 and 180 minutes, start one to two hours after falling asleep, and occur in clusters ranging from one every other day to eight a day.
Furthermore, EPH is associated with autonomic symptoms and responds well to treatment with indomethacin (25-75 mg TDS), while CH doesn’t. Indomethacin is a useful differentiator, as it is not commonly prescribed in practice but can have a significant impact on the patient’s symptoms if the diagnosis is correct. By understanding the duration, frequency, and timing of the headaches, clinicians can accurately differentiate between EPH and CH and provide appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A GP receives a shared care document from the dementia specialist team, requesting him to take over the prescribing of donepezil for a patient with Alzheimer's disease. If the patient's repeat prescription includes which medication, it may pose the most significant potential contraindication to donepezil?
Your Answer: Glyceryltrinitrate spray
Correct Answer: Verapamil
Explanation:The acetylcholinesterase inhibitors (donepezil, rivastigmine and galantamine) can cause bradycardia, SA block or AV block, which are important potential side effects. Therefore, caution should be exercised when prescribing these medications to patients with conduction abnormalities or those taking negatively chronotropic medications such as beta blockers, rate-limiting calcium channel blockers or digoxin. Other possible side effects include gastrointestinal symptoms (nausea, vomiting, anorexia, diarrhea), agitation, hallucinations, syncope, and less commonly gastrointestinal ulcers, seizures, conduction disorders, urinary retention and extrapyramidal symptoms. The BNF also lists neuroleptic malignant syndrome as a very rare adverse reaction.
Currently, only specialists with expertise in prescribing these medications (such as Psychiatrists, Elderly Care specialists, Neurologists) are authorized to initiate their use. However, GPs may be asked to take over prescribing and monitoring of these medications under Shared Care Agreements. Therefore, it is important for GPs to be aware of the potential prescribing issues.
Dementia is a condition that affects a significant number of people in the UK, with Alzheimer’s disease being the most common cause followed by vascular and Lewy body dementia. Diagnosis can be challenging and often delayed, but assessment tools such as the 10-point cognitive screener and 6-Item cognitive impairment test are recommended by NICE for non-specialist settings. However, tools like the abbreviated mental test score, General practitioner assessment of cognition, and mini-mental state examination are not recommended. A score of 24 or less out of 30 on the MMSE suggests dementia.
In primary care, a blood screen is usually conducted to exclude reversible causes like hypothyroidism. NICE recommends tests such as FBC, U&E, LFTs, calcium, glucose, ESR/CRP, TFTs, vitamin B12, and folate levels. Patients are often referred to old-age psychiatrists working in memory clinics. In secondary care, neuroimaging is performed to exclude other reversible conditions like subdural haematoma and normal pressure hydrocephalus and provide information on aetiology to guide prognosis and management. The 2011 NICE guidelines state that structural imaging is essential in investigating dementia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing
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Question 25
Incorrect
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Which of the following can cause a small pupil?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pontine haemorrhage
Explanation:Causes of Pupil Size Changes
Small pupils can be caused by a variety of factors, including Horner’s syndrome, old age, pontine hemorrhage, Argyll Robertson pupil, drugs, and poisons such as opiates and organophosphates. On the other hand, dilated pupils can be caused by Holmes-Adie (myotonic) pupil, third nerve palsy, drugs, and poisons such as atropine, CO, and ethylene glycol. It is important to identify the cause of pupil size changes as it can provide valuable information for diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Eyes And Vision
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old man presents with classic symptoms of benign paroxysmal positional vertigo (BPPV) and is concerned about the likelihood of recurrence. He reports multiple episodes of the room spinning when he moves his head, lasting 30 seconds to 1 minute. You explain that while symptoms often resolve without treatment over several weeks, the Epley manoeuvre can be offered to alleviate symptoms. The patient, who is a driver, is disabled by his symptoms and would like to know the chances of recurrence over the next 3-5 years.
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 50%
Explanation:Approximately 50% of individuals diagnosed with BPPV will experience a relapse of symptoms within 3 to 5 years.
Benign paroxysmal positional vertigo (BPPV) is a common cause of vertigo that occurs suddenly when there is a change in head position. It is more prevalent in individuals over the age of 55 and is less common in younger patients. Symptoms of BPPV include dizziness and vertigo, which can be accompanied by nausea. Each episode typically lasts for 10-20 seconds and can be triggered by rolling over in bed or looking upwards. A positive Dix-Hallpike manoeuvre, which is indicated by vertigo and rotatory nystagmus, can confirm the diagnosis of BPPV.
Fortunately, BPPV has a good prognosis and usually resolves on its own within a few weeks to months. Treatment options include the Epley manoeuvre, which is successful in around 80% of cases, and vestibular rehabilitation exercises such as the Brandt-Daroff exercises. While medication such as Betahistine may be prescribed, it tends to have limited effectiveness. However, it is important to note that around half of individuals with BPPV may experience a recurrence of symptoms 3-5 years after their initial diagnosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 47-year-old male presents with frequent episodes of waking up in distress. He reports feeling breathless and his heart racing late at night. These episodes are causing him significant worry. His wife notes that he snores loudly and sometimes stops if he changes position. Additionally, he has been taking short naps during the day which is impacting his work as an IT technician. The patient has a history of type 2 diabetes and obesity.
What is the most appropriate diagnostic test for this patient's condition?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Polysomnography (PSG)
Explanation:Understanding Obstructive Sleep Apnoea/Hypopnoea Syndrome
Obstructive sleep apnoea/hypopnoea syndrome (OSAHS) is a condition that causes interrupted breathing during sleep due to a blockage in the airway. This can lead to a range of health problems, including daytime somnolence, respiratory acidosis, and hypertension. There are several predisposing factors for OSAHS, including obesity, macroglossia, large tonsils, and Marfan’s syndrome. Partners of those with OSAHS often complain of excessive snoring and periods of apnoea.
To assess sleepiness, patients may complete the Epworth Sleepiness Scale questionnaire, and undergo the Multiple Sleep Latency Test (MSLT) to measure the time it takes to fall asleep in a dark room. Diagnostic tests for OSAHS include sleep studies (polysomnography), which measure a range of physiological factors such as EEG, respiratory airflow, thoraco-abdominal movement, snoring, and pulse oximetry.
Management of OSAHS includes weight loss and the use of continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP) as a first-line treatment for moderate or severe cases. Intra-oral devices, such as mandibular advancement, may be used if CPAP is not tolerated or for patients with mild OSAHS without daytime sleepiness. It is important to inform the DVLA if OSAHS is causing excessive daytime sleepiness. While there is limited evidence to support the use of pharmacological agents, they may be considered in certain cases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Health
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 20-year-old male presents at your clinic with symptoms resembling the flu. He has recently been diagnosed with type 1 diabetes and seeks guidance on managing his diabetes during illness. What is one of the 'sick-day rules' that insulin-dependent diabetics should follow when they are sick?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Aim to drink at least 3L of fluid
Explanation:It is recommended that patients consume a minimum of 3 liters of fluids within a 24-hour period. Patients should maintain their regular insulin routine but monitor their blood glucose levels more frequently, making options 1 and 2 incorrect. It is not advisable to replace main meals with sugary foods, but if a patient is having difficulty eating, they may consume sugary beverages. Additionally, ketone levels should be checked more frequently, every 3-4 hours or more frequently based on the results.
Managing Diabetes Mellitus during Illness: Sick Day Rules
When a patient with diabetes mellitus becomes unwell, it is important to provide them with key messages to manage their condition. Increasing the frequency of blood glucose monitoring to at least four hourly is crucial, as well as encouraging fluid intake of at least 3 litres in 24 hours. If the patient is struggling to eat, sugary drinks may be necessary to maintain carbohydrate intake. Educating patients to have a box of sick day supplies can also be helpful. Access to a mobile phone has been shown to reduce the progression of ketosis to diabetic ketoacidosis.
Patients taking oral hypoglycemic medication should continue taking their medication even if they are not eating much. However, metformin should be stopped if the patient is becoming dehydrated due to its potential impact on renal function. Patients on insulin must not stop taking it, as this can lead to diabetic ketoacidosis. They should continue their normal insulin regime and check their blood sugars frequently. If ketone levels are raised and blood sugars are also raised, corrective doses of insulin may be necessary. The corrective dose varies by patient, but a rule of thumb is the total daily insulin dose divided by 6 (maximum 15 units).
Possible indications for hospital admission include suspicion of underlying illness requiring hospital treatment, inability to keep fluids down for more than a few hours, persistent diarrhea, significant ketosis in an insulin-dependent diabetic despite additional insulin, blood glucose persistently >20 mmol/l despite additional insulin, patient unable to manage adjustments to usual diabetes management, and lack of support at home (e.g., a patient who lives alone and is at risk of becoming unconscious). By following these sick day rules, patients with diabetes mellitus can better manage their condition during illness.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman is moderately disabled by multiple sclerosis. She can use a wheelchair to move around the house. She has been troubled by urinary incontinence and has a palpable enlarged bladder. Testing indicates sensory loss in the 2nd-4th sacral dermatome areas.
Select from the list the single most appropriate management option.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Intermittent self-catheterisation
Explanation:Intermittent Self-Catheterisation: A Safe and Effective Way to Manage Urinary Retention and Incontinence
Intermittent self-catheterisation is a safe and effective method for managing urinary retention or incontinence caused by a neuropathic or hypotonic bladder. This technique provides patients with freedom from urinary collection systems. Although it may not be feasible for some patients, severe disability is not a contra-indication. Patients in wheelchairs have successfully mastered the technique despite various physical and mental challenges.
Single-use catheters are sterile and come with either a hydrophilic or gel coating. The former requires immersion in water for 30 seconds to activate, while the latter doesn’t require any preparation before use. Reusable catheters are made of polyvinyl chloride and can be washed and reused for up to a week.
While other types of catheterisation are available, intermittent self-catheterisation is typically the first choice. Oxybutynin, an anticholinergic medication, is used to relieve urinary difficulties, including frequent urination and urge incontinence, by decreasing muscle spasms of the bladder. However, in patients with overflow incontinence due to diabetes or neurological diseases like multiple sclerosis or spinal cord trauma, oxybutynin can worsen overflow incontinence because the fundamental problem is the bladder not contracting. The same is true for imipramine.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 72-year-old woman with metastatic breast cancer presents with chest wall pain and pain in her left hip. She is under the oncologists and recent imaging revealed diffuse metastatic deposits throughout her pelvis, spine and ribs, some of which appear to account for her present pain.
The patient has come to see you to discuss pain relief as she currently takes only regular paracetamol. You discuss the options and she agrees that the next step is to use a non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID). Her past medical history includes angina which gives her relatively frequent symptoms and for which she continues to receive medication to treat.
Which is the most appropriate NSAID to prescribe for this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ketorolac 10 mg QDS
Explanation:Managing Symptoms in Patients with Metastatic Cancer: Considerations for Prescribing Anti-Inflammatory Medications
When managing symptoms in patients with metastatic cancer, it is important to consider the potential side effects of medications. For example, if a patient has angina, prescribing an anti-inflammatory medication should take into account their cardiac risk to avoid thrombotic complications that could cause additional pain and suffering.
Cyclo-oxygenase-2 selective inhibitors (COX-2 inhibitors) carry an increased risk of myocardial infarction and stroke and should only be used over non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) if specifically indicated. However, even among NSAIDs, there is variation in terms of thrombotic risk. Diclofenac at 150 mg daily and high dose ibuprofen at 2.4 g daily are linked with an increased thrombotic risk, while naproxen 1 g daily and lower doses of ibuprofen (=<1.2 g daily) have not been shown to be associated with an increased risk of myocardial infarction. Therefore, when prescribing anti-inflammatory medications for patients with metastatic cancer, it is important to consider their individual cardiovascular risk and choose the medication with the best safety profile. The lowest effective dose of NSAID should be prescribed for the shortest period of time to control symptoms, and the need for long-term treatment should be reviewed periodically.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- End Of Life
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