00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00 : 00 : 00
Session Time
00 : 00
Average Question Time ( Mins)
  • Question 1 - A 27-year-old man presents with fatigue and joint pains for the past 8...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old man presents with fatigue and joint pains for the past 8 months. He cannot recall any specific trigger for the symptoms and they have been persistent. During examination, you observe that his skin is quite tanned but no other significant findings are noted.

      The following are his blood test results:

      - Bilirubin: 10 umol/L
      - ALT: 120 IU/L
      - Albumin: 35 g/L
      - Ferritin: 450 mg/mL
      - Transferrin saturation: 70%
      - Random plasma glucose: 17.0 mmol/L

      Afterwards, a genetic test was conducted and returned with positive results. Based on the most probable diagnosis, what is the mode of inheritance for this disease?

      Your Answer: X-linked recessive

      Correct Answer: Autosomal recessive

      Explanation:

      The probable condition affecting the patient is hereditary haemochromatosis, which is inherited in an autosomal recessive manner. The presence of iron overload and abnormal liver function tests are indicative of this diagnosis. Additionally, the patient’s elevated blood glucose levels and skin pigmentation changes may suggest the presence of bronze diabetes.

      Understanding Haemochromatosis: Symptoms and Complications

      Haemochromatosis is a genetic disorder that affects iron absorption and metabolism, leading to iron accumulation in the body. It is caused by mutations in the HFE gene on both copies of chromosome 6. This disorder is prevalent in people of European descent, with 1 in 10 carrying a mutation in the genes affecting iron metabolism. Early symptoms of haemochromatosis are often non-specific, such as lethargy and arthralgia, and may go unnoticed. However, as the disease progresses, patients may experience fatigue, erectile dysfunction, and skin pigmentation.

      Other complications of haemochromatosis include diabetes mellitus, liver disease, cardiac failure, hypogonadism, and arthritis. While some symptoms are reversible with treatment, such as cardiomyopathy, skin pigmentation, diabetes mellitus, hypogonadotrophic hypogonadism, and arthropathy, liver cirrhosis is irreversible.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      66.9
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - Which one of the following statements relating to the pancreas is not true?...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following statements relating to the pancreas is not true?

      Your Answer: The cystic artery is usually located in Calots triangle

      Correct Answer: Cholecystokinin causes relaxation of the gallbladder

      Explanation:

      The contraction of the gallbladder is caused by CCK.

      The gallbladder is a sac made of fibromuscular tissue that can hold up to 50 ml of fluid. Its lining is made up of columnar epithelium. The gallbladder is located in close proximity to various organs, including the liver, transverse colon, and the first part of the duodenum. It is covered by peritoneum and is situated between the right lobe and quadrate lobe of the liver. The gallbladder receives its arterial supply from the cystic artery, which is a branch of the right hepatic artery. Its venous drainage is directly to the liver, and its lymphatic drainage is through Lund’s node. The gallbladder is innervated by both sympathetic and parasympathetic nerves. The common bile duct originates from the confluence of the cystic and common hepatic ducts and is located in the hepatobiliary triangle, which is bordered by the common hepatic duct, cystic duct, and the inferior edge of the liver. The cystic artery is also found within this triangle.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      40
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - Samantha is a 42-year-old woman with a lengthy history of alcohol misuse. She...

    Incorrect

    • Samantha is a 42-year-old woman with a lengthy history of alcohol misuse. She visits her physician complaining of ongoing abdominal discomfort, steatorrhea, and weight loss. There is no jaundice present. Tests indicate an increased lipase level and a normal amylase level. An ERCP is performed to examine the biliary system and pancreas.

      What is the most probable finding in the pancreas during the ERCP?

      Your Answer: Necrosis of the pancreas

      Correct Answer: 'Chain of lakes' appearance

      Explanation:

      Chronic pancreatitis can be diagnosed based on several factors, including alcohol abuse, elevated lipase levels, and normal amylase levels. An ERCP can confirm the diagnosis by revealing the characteristic chain of lakes appearance of the dilated and twisted main pancreatic duct. The absence of systemic symptoms makes a pancreatic abscess or necrosis unlikely, while a normal or absent pancreas is highly improbable.

      Understanding Chronic Pancreatitis

      Chronic pancreatitis is a condition characterized by inflammation that can affect both the exocrine and endocrine functions of the pancreas. While alcohol excess is the leading cause of this condition, up to 20% of cases are unexplained. Other causes include genetic factors such as cystic fibrosis and haemochromatosis, as well as ductal obstruction due to tumors, stones, and structural abnormalities.

      Symptoms of chronic pancreatitis include pain that worsens 15 to 30 minutes after a meal, steatorrhoea, and diabetes mellitus. Abdominal x-rays and CT scans are used to detect pancreatic calcification, which is present in around 30% of cases. Functional tests such as faecal elastase may also be used to assess exocrine function if imaging is inconclusive.

      Management of chronic pancreatitis involves pancreatic enzyme supplements, analgesia, and antioxidants. While there is limited evidence to support the use of antioxidants, one study suggests that they may be beneficial in early stages of the disease. Overall, understanding the causes and symptoms of chronic pancreatitis is crucial for effective management and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      68.5
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 42-year-old man undergoes a partial thyroidectomy and experiences hoarseness upon returning to...

    Correct

    • A 42-year-old man undergoes a partial thyroidectomy and experiences hoarseness upon returning to the ward. As a healthcare professional, you know that this is a common complication of thyroid surgery. Which nerve is most likely responsible for the patient's symptoms?

      Your Answer: Recurrent laryngeal nerve

      Explanation:

      The recurrent laryngeal nerve is a branch of the vagus nerve (CN X) that provides motor supply to all but one of the laryngeal muscles and sensory supply to the larynx below the vocal cords. The left nerve loops under the arch of the aorta and passes deep to the inferior constrictor muscle of the pharynx, while the right nerve usually loops under the right subclavian artery. Both nerves pass close to or through the thyroid ligament, making them susceptible to injury during thyroid surgery. Dysfunction of either nerve can result in a hoarse voice.

      The internal branch of the superior laryngeal nerve is the only other nerve among the given options that innervates the larynx. It carries sensory supply to the larynx above the vocal cords, while the external branch supplies the cricothyroid muscle. Dysfunction of the external branch can cause a hoarse voice, but dysfunction of the internal branch will not.

      The greater auricular nerve and transverse cervical nerve are superficial cutaneous nerves that arise from the cervical plexus and supply the skin overlying the mandible, ear auricle, and neck. The phrenic nerve, also arising from the cervical plexus, provides motor innervation to the diaphragm and sensation to the parietal pericardium and pleura adjacent to the mediastinum.

      During surgical procedures, there is a risk of nerve injury caused by the surgery itself. This is not only important for the patient’s well-being but also from a legal perspective. There are various operations that carry the risk of nerve damage, such as posterior triangle lymph node biopsy, Lloyd Davies stirrups, thyroidectomy, anterior resection of rectum, axillary node clearance, inguinal hernia surgery, varicose vein surgery, posterior approach to the hip, and carotid endarterectomy. Surgeons must have a good understanding of the anatomy of the area they are operating on to minimize the incidence of nerve lesions. Blind placement of haemostats is not recommended as it can also cause nerve damage.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      35
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 55-year-old man is having surgery to remove a tumor in the descending...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man is having surgery to remove a tumor in the descending colon. What embryological structure does this part of the digestive system originate from?

      Your Answer: Fore gut

      Correct Answer: Hind gut

      Explanation:

      The hind gut is responsible for the development of the left colon, which is why it has its own distinct blood supply through the IMA.

      The colon begins with the caecum, which is the most dilated segment of the colon and is marked by the convergence of taenia coli. The ascending colon follows, which is retroperitoneal on its posterior aspect. The transverse colon comes after passing the hepatic flexure and becomes wholly intraperitoneal again. The splenic flexure marks the point where the transverse colon makes an oblique inferior turn to the left upper quadrant. The descending colon becomes wholly intraperitoneal at the level of L4 and becomes the sigmoid colon. The sigmoid colon is wholly intraperitoneal, but there are usually attachments laterally between the sigmoid and the lateral pelvic sidewall. At its distal end, the sigmoid becomes the upper rectum, which passes through the peritoneum and becomes extraperitoneal.

      The arterial supply of the colon comes from the superior mesenteric artery and inferior mesenteric artery, which are linked by the marginal artery. The ascending colon is supplied by the ileocolic and right colic arteries, while the transverse colon is supplied by the middle colic artery. The descending and sigmoid colon are supplied by the inferior mesenteric artery. The venous drainage comes from regional veins that accompany arteries to the superior and inferior mesenteric vein. The lymphatic drainage initially follows nodal chains that accompany supplying arteries, then para-aortic nodes.

      The colon has both intraperitoneal and extraperitoneal segments. The right and left colon are part intraperitoneal and part extraperitoneal, while the sigmoid and transverse colon are generally wholly intraperitoneal. The colon has various relations with other organs, such as the right ureter and gonadal vessels for the caecum/right colon, the gallbladder for the hepatic flexure, the spleen and tail of pancreas for the splenic flexure, the left ureter for the distal sigmoid/upper rectum, and the ureters, autonomic nerves, seminal vesicles, prostate, and urethra for the rectum.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      32
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 16-year-old boy undergoes an emergency splenectomy for trauma and is discharged home...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old boy undergoes an emergency splenectomy for trauma and is discharged home after making a full recovery. After eight weeks, his general practitioner performs a full blood count with a blood film. What is the most likely finding?

      Your Answer: Multinucleated giant cells

      Correct Answer: Howell-Jolly bodies

      Explanation:

      After a splenectomy, the blood film may show the presence of Howell-Jolly bodies, Pappenheimer bodies, target cells, and irregular contracted erythrocytes due to the absence of the spleen’s filtration function.

      Blood Film Changes after Splenectomy

      After undergoing splenectomy, the body loses its ability to remove immature or abnormal red blood cells from circulation. This results in the appearance of cytoplasmic inclusions such as Howell-Jolly bodies, although the red cell count remains relatively unchanged. In the first few days following the procedure, target cells, siderocytes, and reticulocytes may be observed in the bloodstream. Additionally, agranulocytosis composed mainly of neutrophils is seen immediately after the operation, which is then replaced by a lymphocytosis and monocytosis over the next few weeks. The platelet count is typically elevated and may persist, necessitating the use of oral antiplatelet agents in some patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      60
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 68-year-old man presents with an abdominal aortic aneurysm that causes displacement of...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old man presents with an abdominal aortic aneurysm that causes displacement of the left renal vein. At this level, which branch of the aorta is most likely to be affected?

      Your Answer: Inferior mesenteric artery

      Correct Answer: Superior mesenteric artery

      Explanation:

      The left renal vein is situated posterior to the SMA at its point of origin from the aorta. In cases of juxtarenal AAA, separation of the left renal vein may be necessary, but if the SMA is directly affected, a combination of surgical bypass and endovascular occlusion may be required.

      Branches of the Abdominal Aorta

      The abdominal aorta is a major blood vessel that supplies oxygenated blood to the abdominal organs and lower extremities. It gives rise to several branches that supply blood to various organs and tissues. These branches can be classified into two types: parietal and visceral.

      The parietal branches supply blood to the walls of the abdominal cavity, while the visceral branches supply blood to the abdominal organs. The branches of the abdominal aorta include the inferior phrenic, coeliac, superior mesenteric, middle suprarenal, renal, gonadal, lumbar, inferior mesenteric, median sacral, and common iliac arteries.

      The inferior phrenic artery arises from the upper border of the abdominal aorta and supplies blood to the diaphragm. The coeliac artery supplies blood to the liver, stomach, spleen, and pancreas. The superior mesenteric artery supplies blood to the small intestine, cecum, and ascending colon. The middle suprarenal artery supplies blood to the adrenal gland. The renal arteries supply blood to the kidneys. The gonadal arteries supply blood to the testes or ovaries. The lumbar arteries supply blood to the muscles and skin of the back. The inferior mesenteric artery supplies blood to the descending colon, sigmoid colon, and rectum. The median sacral artery supplies blood to the sacrum and coccyx. The common iliac arteries are the terminal branches of the abdominal aorta and supply blood to the pelvis and lower extremities.

      Understanding the branches of the abdominal aorta is important for diagnosing and treating various medical conditions that affect the abdominal organs and lower extremities.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      34.2
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 72-year-old retired fisherman presents with a sudden episode of rectal bleeding. The...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old retired fisherman presents with a sudden episode of rectal bleeding. The bleeding was significant and included clots. He feels dizzy and has collapsed.

      He reports experiencing heartburn regularly and takes lisinopril and bendroflumethiazide for hypertension, as well as aspirin and ibuprofen for hangovers. He drinks six large whisky measures and smokes 10 cigarettes daily.

      During examination, he is apyrexial, his heart rate is 106 bpm, blood pressure is 108/74 mmHg, and his respiratory rate is 18. He appears pale and has epigastric tenderness.

      What is the immediate action that should be taken?

      Your Answer: Send patient for endoscopy

      Correct Answer: Give 1litre 0.9% NaCl over one hour

      Explanation:

      Urgent Resuscitation Needed for Patient in Hypovolaemic Shock

      A patient is experiencing hypovolaemic shock and requires immediate infusion of colloid or crystalloid. Waiting for eight hours is not an option, and dextrose is not recommended as it quickly moves out of the intravascular space. The patient will undergo endoscopy, but only after initial resuscitation. While regular omeprazole may help prevent recurrence, it is not urgent.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      113.8
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A patient with gastric ulcers has been diagnosed with significantly low levels of...

    Correct

    • A patient with gastric ulcers has been diagnosed with significantly low levels of somatostatin. The medical consultant suspects that a particular type of cell found in both the pancreas and stomach is affected, leading to the disruption of somatostatin release.

      Which type of cell is impacted in this case?

      Your Answer: D cells

      Explanation:

      Somatostatin is released by D cells found in both the pancreas and stomach. These cells release somatostatin to inhibit the hormone gastrin and reduce gastric secretions. The patient’s low levels of somatostatin may have led to an increase in gastrin secretion and stomach acid, potentially causing gastric ulcers. G cells secrete gastrin, while parietal cells secrete gastric acid. Pancreatic cells is too general of a term and does not specify the specific type of cell responsible for somatostatin production.

      Overview of Gastrointestinal Hormones

      Gastrointestinal hormones play a crucial role in the digestion and absorption of food. These hormones are secreted by various cells in the stomach and small intestine in response to different stimuli such as the presence of food, pH changes, and neural signals.

      One of the major hormones involved in food digestion is gastrin, which is secreted by G cells in the antrum of the stomach. Gastrin increases acid secretion by gastric parietal cells, stimulates the secretion of pepsinogen and intrinsic factor, and increases gastric motility. Another hormone, cholecystokinin (CCK), is secreted by I cells in the upper small intestine in response to partially digested proteins and triglycerides. CCK increases the secretion of enzyme-rich fluid from the pancreas, contraction of the gallbladder, and relaxation of the sphincter of Oddi. It also decreases gastric emptying and induces satiety.

      Secretin is another hormone secreted by S cells in the upper small intestine in response to acidic chyme and fatty acids. Secretin increases the secretion of bicarbonate-rich fluid from the pancreas and hepatic duct cells, decreases gastric acid secretion, and has a trophic effect on pancreatic acinar cells. Vasoactive intestinal peptide (VIP) is a neural hormone that stimulates secretion by the pancreas and intestines and inhibits acid secretion.

      Finally, somatostatin is secreted by D cells in the pancreas and stomach in response to fat, bile salts, and glucose in the intestinal lumen. Somatostatin decreases acid and pepsin secretion, decreases gastrin secretion, decreases pancreatic enzyme secretion, and decreases insulin and glucagon secretion. It also inhibits the trophic effects of gastrin and stimulates gastric mucous production.

      In summary, gastrointestinal hormones play a crucial role in regulating the digestive process and maintaining homeostasis in the gastrointestinal tract.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      40.8
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - An 73-year-old man with chronic obstructive airway disease (COPD) is admitted to your...

    Incorrect

    • An 73-year-old man with chronic obstructive airway disease (COPD) is admitted to your ward. He presents with dyspnea and inability to lie flat. What physical examination findings would indicate a possible diagnosis of cor pulmonale, or right-sided heart failure secondary to COPD?

      Your Answer: Upper limb oedema

      Correct Answer: Smooth hepatomegaly

      Explanation:

      Understanding Hepatomegaly and Its Common Causes

      Hepatomegaly refers to an enlarged liver, which can be caused by various factors. One of the most common causes is cirrhosis, which can lead to a decrease in liver size in later stages. In this case, the liver is non-tender and firm. Malignancy, such as metastatic spread or primary hepatoma, can also cause hepatomegaly. In this case, the liver edge is hard and irregular. Right heart failure can also lead to an enlarged liver, which is firm, smooth, and tender. It may even be pulsatile.

      Aside from these common causes, hepatomegaly can also be caused by viral hepatitis, glandular fever, malaria, abscess (pyogenic or amoebic), hydatid disease, haematological malignancies, haemochromatosis, primary biliary cirrhosis, sarcoidosis, and amyloidosis.

      Understanding the causes of hepatomegaly is important in diagnosing and treating the underlying condition. Proper diagnosis and treatment can help prevent further complications and improve overall health.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      95.9
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 28-year-old man comes to you with a lump in his testicle. As...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old man comes to you with a lump in his testicle. As you take his history, you wonder which of the following factors poses the greatest risk for testicular cancer?

      Your Answer: Cryptorchidism

      Explanation:

      Testicular cancer is more likely to occur in men who have had undescended testis, with a 40-fold increase in risk. Other risk factors include being of white ethnicity, being between the ages of 15-35, and not having had testicular trauma.

      Cryptorchidism: Undescended Testis in Boys

      Cryptorchidism is a congenital condition where one or both testes fail to descend into the scrotum by the age of 3 months. Although the cause of this condition is mostly unknown, it may be associated with other congenital defects such as abnormal epididymis, cerebral palsy, mental retardation, Wilms tumour, and abdominal wall defects. Retractile testes and intersex conditions should be considered in the differential diagnosis.

      Correcting cryptorchidism is important to reduce the risk of infertility, examine the testes for testicular cancer, avoid testicular torsion, and improve cosmetic appearance. Males with undescended testis are at a higher risk of developing testicular cancer, especially if the testis is intra-abdominal.

      The treatment for cryptorchidism is orchidopexy, which is usually performed between 6 to 18 months of age. The procedure involves exploring the inguinal area, mobilizing the testis, and implanting it into a dartos pouch. In cases where the testis is intra-abdominal, laparoscopic evaluation and mobilization may be necessary. If left untreated, the Sertoli cells will degrade after the age of 2 years, and orchidectomy may be a better option for those presenting late in their teenage years.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      23.4
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 40-year-old male visits a private vascular clinic for his long-standing varicose veins....

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old male visits a private vascular clinic for his long-standing varicose veins. He had been referred by his family physician and is concerned about the appearance of his legs. He experiences heaviness and aching in his legs. As a professional athlete, he often wears shorts during games and is worried that his condition might affect his performance.

      After being informed of the risks associated with varicose vein surgery, he decides to proceed with the operation. However, during his follow-up appointment, he reports a loss of sensation over the lateral foot and posterolateral leg.

      Which nerve is most likely to have been damaged during the surgery?

      Your Answer: Tibial nerve

      Correct Answer: Sural nerve

      Explanation:

      During varicose vein surgery, there is a potential for damage to the sural nerve, which innervates the posterolateral leg and lateral foot. Additionally, the saphenous nerve, responsible for sensation in the medial aspect of the leg and foot, and the lateral femoral cutaneous nerve, which innervates the lateral thigh, may also be at risk.

      During surgical procedures, there is a risk of nerve injury caused by the surgery itself. This is not only important for the patient’s well-being but also from a legal perspective. There are various operations that carry the risk of nerve damage, such as posterior triangle lymph node biopsy, Lloyd Davies stirrups, thyroidectomy, anterior resection of rectum, axillary node clearance, inguinal hernia surgery, varicose vein surgery, posterior approach to the hip, and carotid endarterectomy. Surgeons must have a good understanding of the anatomy of the area they are operating on to minimize the incidence of nerve lesions. Blind placement of haemostats is not recommended as it can also cause nerve damage.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      29.6
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 56-year-old male patient comes to the clinic with a history of dyspepsia...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old male patient comes to the clinic with a history of dyspepsia that he has ignored for a long time. He reports no symptoms of dysphagia or haematemesis. During an oesophagoduodenoscopy (OGD), mucosal changes are observed in the lower part of the oesophagus near the sphincter, and a biopsy is taken from this area. What is the probable result of the biopsy?

      Your Answer: Squamous cell carcinoma

      Correct Answer: Columnar epithelial cells

      Explanation:

      The patient has Barrett’s oesophagus, which is a metaplastic condition where the normal oesophageal epithelium is replaced by columnar cells. This increases the risk of adenocarcinoma.

      Barrett’s oesophagus is a condition where the lower oesophageal mucosa is replaced by columnar epithelium, which increases the risk of oesophageal adenocarcinoma by 50-100 fold. It is usually identified during an endoscopy for upper gastrointestinal symptoms such as dyspepsia, as there are no screening programs for it. The length of the affected segment determines the chances of identifying metaplasia, with short (<3 cm) and long (>3 cm) subtypes. The prevalence of Barrett’s oesophagus is estimated to be around 1 in 20, and it is identified in up to 12% of those undergoing endoscopy for reflux.

      The columnar epithelium in Barrett’s oesophagus may resemble that of the cardiac region of the stomach or that of the small intestine, with goblet cells and brush border. The single strongest risk factor for Barrett’s oesophagus is gastro-oesophageal reflux disease (GORD), followed by male gender, smoking, and central obesity. Alcohol is not an independent risk factor for Barrett’s, but it is associated with both GORD and oesophageal cancer. Patients with Barrett’s oesophagus often have coexistent GORD symptoms.

      The management of Barrett’s oesophagus involves high-dose proton pump inhibitor, although the evidence base for its effectiveness in reducing the progression to dysplasia or inducing regression of the lesion is limited. Endoscopic surveillance with biopsies is recommended every 3-5 years for patients with metaplasia but not dysplasia. If dysplasia of any grade is identified, endoscopic intervention is offered, such as radiofrequency ablation, which is the preferred first-line treatment, particularly for low-grade dysplasia, or endoscopic mucosal resection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      69.9
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 56-year-old man presents to the emergency department with profuse haematemesis. Upon admission,...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old man presents to the emergency department with profuse haematemesis. Upon admission, his vital signs include a temperature of 36.9ºC, oxygen saturation of 94% on air, heart rate of 124 beats per minute, respiratory rate of 26 breaths per minute, and blood pressure of 82/58 mmHg. An urgent endoscopy was performed to achieve haemostasis, revealing an ulcer on the posterior wall of the duodenum. Which artery is the most likely source of the gastrointestinal bleed?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Gastroduodenal artery

      Explanation:

      Duodenal ulcers on the posterior wall pose a risk to the gastroduodenal artery, which supplies blood to this area. The posterior wall is a common site for duodenal ulcers, and erosion of the ulcer through the duodenal wall can result in severe upper gastrointestinal bleeding. The inferior mesenteric artery, on the other hand, supplies blood to the hindgut (transverse colon, descending colon, and sigmoid colon) and does not include the duodenum. The inferior pancreaticoduodenal artery, which arises from the superior mesenteric artery, supplies the lower part of the duodenum but does not provide the majority of the blood supply to the posterior duodenal wall, which is mainly supplied by the gastroduodenal artery.

      Acute upper gastrointestinal bleeding is a common and significant medical issue that can be caused by various conditions, with oesophageal varices and peptic ulcer disease being the most common. The main symptoms include haematemesis (vomiting of blood), melena (passage of altered blood per rectum), and a raised urea level due to the protein meal of the blood. The diagnosis can be determined by identifying the specific features associated with a particular condition, such as stigmata of chronic liver disease for oesophageal varices or abdominal pain for peptic ulcer disease.

      The differential diagnosis for acute upper gastrointestinal bleeding includes oesophageal, gastric, and duodenal causes. Oesophageal varices may present with a large volume of fresh blood, while gastric ulcers may cause low volume bleeds that present as iron deficiency anaemia. Duodenal ulcers are usually posteriorly sited and may erode the gastroduodenal artery. Aorto-enteric fistula is a rare but important cause of major haemorrhage associated with high mortality in patients with previous abdominal aortic aneurysm surgery.

      The management of acute upper gastrointestinal bleeding involves risk assessment using the Glasgow-Blatchford score, which helps clinicians decide whether patients can be managed as outpatients or not. Resuscitation involves ABC, wide-bore intravenous access, and platelet transfusion if actively bleeding platelet count is less than 50 x 10*9/litre. Endoscopy should be offered immediately after resuscitation in patients with a severe bleed, and all patients should have endoscopy within 24 hours. Treatment options include repeat endoscopy, interventional radiology, and surgery for non-variceal bleeding, while terlipressin and prophylactic antibiotics should be given to patients with variceal bleeding. Band ligation should be used for oesophageal varices, and injections of N-butyl-2-cyanoacrylate for patients with gastric varices. Transjugular intrahepatic portosystemic shunts (TIPS) should be offered if bleeding from varices is not controlled with the above measures.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 50-year-old construction worker presents with a haematemesis.

    His wife provides a history...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old construction worker presents with a haematemesis.

      His wife provides a history that he has consumed approximately six cans of beer per day together with liberal quantities of whiskey for many years. He has attempted to quit drinking in the past but was unsuccessful.

      Upon examination, he appears distressed and disoriented. His pulse is 110 beats per minute and blood pressure is 112/80 mmHg. He has several spider naevi over his chest. Abdominal examination reveals a distended abdomen with ascites.

      What would be your next course of action for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Endoscopy

      Explanation:

      Possible Causes of Haematemesis in a Patient with Alcohol Abuse

      When a patient with a history of alcohol abuse presents with symptoms of chronic liver disease and sudden haematemesis, the possibility of bleeding oesophageal varices should be considered as the primary diagnosis. However, other potential causes such as peptic ulceration or haemorrhagic gastritis should also be taken into account. To determine the exact cause of the bleeding, an urgent endoscopy should be requested. This procedure will allow for a thorough examination of the gastrointestinal tract and enable the medical team to identify the source of the bleeding. Prompt diagnosis and treatment are crucial in managing this potentially life-threatening condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 25-year-old male presents to the emergency department with upper abdominal pain that...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old male presents to the emergency department with upper abdominal pain that radiates to the back. This started a few hours previously and has been accompanied by some nausea and vomiting. The patient denies any alcohol intake recently.

      On examination, he has tenderness in the epigastric and right upper quadrant regions. He has a fever of 38.9°C. An ultrasound scan reveals no evidence of gallstones. The patient is given a preliminary diagnosis of acute pancreatitis and some blood tests are requested.

      What could be the cause of this patient's condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Mumps

      Explanation:

      Mumps is a known cause of acute pancreatitis, but it has become rare since the introduction of the MMR vaccine. In 2018, there were only 1088 cases of mumps in the UK, which statistically translates to around 54 cases of acute pancreatitis secondary to mumps. Inflammatory bowel disease may also lead to pancreatitis, but it is usually caused by gallstones or medication used to treat IBD. While influenzae and gastroenteritis are not commonly associated with pancreatitis, there have been a few reported cases linking influenzae A to acute pancreatitis, although these occurrences are extremely rare.

      Acute pancreatitis is a condition that is primarily caused by gallstones and alcohol consumption in the UK. However, there are other factors that can contribute to the development of this condition. A popular mnemonic used to remember these factors is GET SMASHED, which stands for gallstones, ethanol, trauma, steroids, mumps, autoimmune diseases, scorpion venom, hypertriglyceridaemia, hyperchylomicronaemia, hypercalcaemia, hypothermia, ERCP, and certain drugs. It is important to note that pancreatitis is seven times more common in patients taking mesalazine than sulfasalazine. CT scans can show diffuse parenchymal enlargement with oedema and indistinct margins in patients with acute pancreatitis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - An 80-year-old woman visits her doctor with complaints of moderate upper abdominal pain...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old woman visits her doctor with complaints of moderate upper abdominal pain that is slightly relieved by eating. Despite taking ibuprofen, she has not experienced any relief. The doctor suspects a duodenal peptic ulcer and schedules an oesophagogastroduodenoscopy (OGD). Based on the location of the ulcer, which organ is derived from the same embryological region of the gut?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Oesophagus

      Explanation:

      The major papilla located in the 2nd part of the duodenum marks the division between the foregut and the midgut, with the foregut encompassing structures from the mouth to the 2nd part of the duodenum where peptic ulcers are commonly found. It should be noted that the kidneys are not derived from gut embryology, but rather from the ureteric bud.

      The Three Embryological Layers and their Corresponding Gastrointestinal Structures and Blood Supply

      The gastrointestinal system is a complex network of organs responsible for the digestion and absorption of nutrients. During embryonic development, the gastrointestinal system is formed from three distinct layers: the foregut, midgut, and hindgut. Each layer gives rise to specific structures and is supplied by a corresponding blood vessel.

      The foregut extends from the mouth to the proximal half of the duodenum and is supplied by the coeliac trunk. The midgut encompasses the distal half of the duodenum to the splenic flexure of the colon and is supplied by the superior mesenteric artery. Lastly, the hindgut includes the descending colon to the rectum and is supplied by the inferior mesenteric artery.

      Understanding the embryological origin and blood supply of the gastrointestinal system is crucial in diagnosing and treating gastrointestinal disorders. By identifying the specific structures and blood vessels involved, healthcare professionals can better target their interventions and improve patient outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - What is the nerve root value of the external urethral sphincter? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the nerve root value of the external urethral sphincter?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: S2, S3, S4

      Explanation:

      The pudendal nerve branches provide innervation to the external urethral sphincter, indicating that the root values are S2, S3, S4.

      Urethral Anatomy: Differences Between Male and Female

      The anatomy of the urethra differs between males and females. In females, the urethra is shorter and more angled than in males. It is located outside of the peritoneum and is surrounded by the endopelvic fascia. The neck of the bladder is subject to intra-abdominal pressure, and any weakness in this area can lead to stress urinary incontinence. The female urethra is surrounded by the external urethral sphincter, which is innervated by the pudendal nerve. It is located in front of the vaginal opening.

      In males, the urethra is much longer and is divided into four parts. The pre-prostatic urethra is very short and lies between the bladder and prostate gland. The prostatic urethra is wider than the membranous urethra and contains several openings for the transmission of semen. The membranous urethra is the narrowest part of the urethra and is surrounded by the external sphincter. The penile urethra travels through the corpus spongiosum on the underside of the penis and is the longest segment of the urethra. The bulbo-urethral glands open into the spongiose section of the urethra.

      The urothelium, which lines the inside of the urethra, is transitional near the bladder and becomes squamous further down the urethra. Understanding the differences in urethral anatomy between males and females is important for diagnosing and treating urological conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - Which enzyme is primarily responsible for breaking down starch into sugars? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which enzyme is primarily responsible for breaking down starch into sugars?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Amylase

      Explanation:

      Amylase is an enzyme that converts starch into sugars.

      Enzymes play a crucial role in the breakdown of carbohydrates in the gastrointestinal system. Amylase, which is present in both saliva and pancreatic secretions, is responsible for breaking down starch into sugar. On the other hand, brush border enzymes such as maltase, sucrase, and lactase are involved in the breakdown of specific disaccharides. Maltase cleaves maltose into glucose and glucose, sucrase cleaves sucrose into fructose and glucose, while lactase cleaves lactose into glucose and galactose. These enzymes work together to ensure that carbohydrates are broken down into their simplest form for absorption into the bloodstream.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - Which of the following characteristics is atypical for Crohn's disease? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following characteristics is atypical for Crohn's disease?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pseudopolyps on colonoscopy

      Explanation:

      Pseudopolyps manifest in ulcerative colitis as a result of extensive mucosal ulceration. The remaining patches of mucosa can resemble individual polyps.

      Understanding Crohn’s Disease

      Crohn’s disease is a type of inflammatory bowel disease that can affect any part of the digestive tract, from the mouth to the anus. The exact cause of Crohn’s disease is unknown, but there is a strong genetic component. Inflammation occurs in all layers of the affected area, which can lead to complications such as strictures, fistulas, and adhesions.

      Symptoms of Crohn’s disease typically appear in late adolescence or early adulthood and can include non-specific symptoms such as weight loss and lethargy, as well as more specific symptoms like diarrhea, abdominal pain, and perianal disease. Extra-intestinal features, such as arthritis, erythema nodosum, and osteoporosis, are also common in patients with Crohn’s disease.

      To diagnose Crohn’s disease, doctors may look for raised inflammatory markers, increased faecal calprotectin, anemia, and low levels of vitamin B12 and vitamin D. It’s important to note that Crohn’s disease shares some features with ulcerative colitis, another type of inflammatory bowel disease, but there are also important differences between the two conditions. Understanding the symptoms and diagnostic criteria for Crohn’s disease can help patients and healthcare providers manage this chronic condition more effectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      0
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Gastrointestinal System (3/13) 23%
Passmed