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  • Question 1 - A 14 year old girl suffers from haemophilia A and chronic knee pain...

    Incorrect

    • A 14 year old girl suffers from haemophilia A and chronic knee pain with progressive swelling and deformity over the last 4 years. Test results reveal a significantly reduced factor VIII activity. Which of the following is seen in the knee joint space after an acute painful episode?

      Your Answer: Anthracotic pigment

      Correct Answer: Cholesterol crystals

      Explanation:

      Due to breakdown of the red blood cell membrane in haemophilic patients, cholesterol crystals are formed by the lipids. On the other hand lipofuscin deposition does not occur in haemolysis or haemorrhage. Neutrophil accumulation suggests acute inflammation. Anthracotic pigment is an exogenous carbon pigment that deposits in the lung from dust. Russell bodies are intracellular accumulations of immunoglobins in plasma cells. Curschmann’s spirals and Charcot Leyden crystals are pathognomonic of asthma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology And Oncology
      32.3
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - Which of the given statements is correct regarding carbon monoxide? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the given statements is correct regarding carbon monoxide?

      Your Answer: CO combines with haemoglobin to form carboxyhaemoglobin

      Explanation:

      Carbon monoxide is a colourless gas, which is toxic to animals. It has a high affinity for haemoglobin (around 250 times greater than oxygen). It combines with haemoglobin forming carboxyhaemoglobin, which decreases the oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood, leading to a left-shift in the oxygen-dissociation curve. CO is produced endogenously in limited amounts (0.4ml per hour), but the toxic levels are higher.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology And Oncology
      17.4
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 16-year-old boy presents to the physician with a history of easy bruising...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old boy presents to the physician with a history of easy bruising and epistaxis since childhood. He recently had a dental extraction after which the bleeding lasted for 30 hours. His labs are sent and the reports are as follows: APTT: 36 secondsPT: 15 secondsFibrinogen: 2.5 g/lFactor VIIIC: 0.4 iu/ml (normal range 0.5-1.5)vWF antigen: 0.35 iu/ml (normal range 0.45-1.4)vWF ristocetin co-factor: 0.05 iu/ml (normal 0.45-1.35)PLT: 230 x 109/lBleeding time: 12 mins (normally up to 8 mins). Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Haemophilia A

      Correct Answer: von Willebrand disease type II

      Explanation:

      Von Willebrand disease (VWD), a congenital bleeding disorder caused by deficient or defective plasma von Willebrand factor (VWF), may only become apparent on haemostatic challenge, and bleeding history may become more apparent with increasing age. Type 1 VWD (,30% of VWD) typically manifests as mild mucocutaneous bleeding. Type 2 VWD accounts for approximately 60% of VWD. Type 2 subtypes include: Type 2A, which usually manifests as mild-to-moderate mucocutaneous bleeding; Type 2B, which typically manifests as mild-to-moderate mucocutaneous bleeding that can include thrombocytopenia that worsens in certain circumstances; Type 2M, which typically manifests as mild-moderate mucocutaneous bleeding; Type 2N, which can manifest as excessive bleeding with surgery and mimics mild haemophilia A. Type 3 VWD (<10% of VWD) manifests with severe mucocutaneous and musculoskeletal bleeding.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology And Oncology
      27.3
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  • Question 4 - A 5-year-old girl was admitted for fever, anaemia, thrombocytopenia and signs of pulmonary...

    Correct

    • A 5-year-old girl was admitted for fever, anaemia, thrombocytopenia and signs of pulmonary infection. She now presents a few days later with signs of meningism. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia (ALL)

      Explanation:

      Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia (ALL) is a cancer of the lymphoid line of blood cells characterized by the development of large numbers of immature lymphocytes. Symptoms may include feeling tired, frequent infections with fever as well as anaemia with thrombocytopenia. As an acute leukaemia, ALL progresses rapidly and is typically fatal within weeks or months if left untreated. The patient’s age also favours the diagnosis of ALL as it occurs most commonly in children, particularly those between the ages of two and five.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology And Oncology
      1093.6
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 15-year-old boy is brought to the clinic with fever, cough, sore throat...

    Incorrect

    • A 15-year-old boy is brought to the clinic with fever, cough, sore throat and bleeding gums. He has also noticed a rash on his legs. The coryzal symptoms started 3 weeks ago before which he was fit and well. He is currently not taking any medication and denies smoking, alcohol and using other illicit drugs. Examination reveals a pale child with bilateral subconjunctival haemorrhages, erythematous throat and some petechiae on his legs. there are no sign of lymphadenopathy or hepatosplenomegaly. investigations are as follows: Hb8.9 g/dlMCV: 110 flWBC: 2 x 109/lNeutrophils: 0.3 x 109/lLymphocytes:1.5 x 109/lPLT: 13 x 109/lReticulocytes: 30 x 109/l (normal range 20-100 x 109/l)Coagulation screen: normal. Bone marrow: hypoplastic. A urine dipstick reveals trace of blood in the urine. What is the patient most likely suffering from?

      Your Answer: Meningococcal septicaemia

      Correct Answer: Aplastic anaemia

      Explanation:

      Aplastic anaemia causes a deficiency of all blood cell types: red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets. It is more frequent in people in their teens and twenties, but is also common among the elderly. It can be caused by heredity, immune disease, or exposure to chemicals, drugs, or radiation. However, in about one-half of cases, the cause is unknown.The definitive diagnosis is by bone marrow biopsy; normal bone marrow has 30-70% blood stem cells, but in aplastic anaemia, these cells are mostly gone and replaced by fat.First-line treatment for aplastic anaemia consists of immunosuppressive drugs, typically either anti-lymphocyte globulin or anti-thymocyte globulin, combined with corticosteroids, chemotherapy and ciclosporin. Hematopoietic stem cell transplantation is also used, especially for patients under 30 years of age with a related matched marrow donor.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology And Oncology
      212.4
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - Which of the following conditions is rarely associated with hyposplenism? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following conditions is rarely associated with hyposplenism?

      Your Answer: Sickle cell disease

      Correct Answer: Myxoedema

      Explanation:

      Hyposplenism usually occurs after the surgical removal of the spleen or in pathological processes where the splenic tissue is replaced with abnormal tissue. It is often associated with diseases such as sickle cell disease, Coeliac disease, SLE and Dermatitis Herpetiformis. Myxoedema however bears no known association with hyposplenism. Patients with hyposplenism are at risk of fulminant bacterial infection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology And Oncology
      22.7
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 6 year old Somalian boy is admitted to the emergency department with...

    Correct

    • A 6 year old Somalian boy is admitted to the emergency department with dyspnoea. He looks distressed and has a heart rate of 180 bpm and a blood pressure of 130/90 mmHg. His respiratory rate is 37/min and his O2 saturation is 83% in room air. His temperature is 38C. His mother cannot speak English and neither does the child. The doctors observe that the boy has marked recession and a tracheal tug. He is crying and holding his chest. You immediately put the child on high flow oxygen, perform a chest X-ray and blood tests. The x-ray reveals bilateral pulmonary infiltrates. The blood results show:Hb:6g/dl, MCV:85fl, MCHC:36.0g/dl, WBC:19.6x109/l, neutrophils:15.3x109/l, PLT:350x109/l, CRP:50. His mother shows you that the child has been taking folic acid, hydroxyurea and Penicillin V daily, by pulling some tablets from her bag. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Sickle cell chest crisis

      Explanation:

      The child is suffering from acute sickle cell crisis, a complication of sickle cell disease. It is characterised by a new segmental pulmonary infiltrate consistent with consolidation together with one or more new respiratory symptoms.The mainstay of treatment is oxygen support, (ventilation if required), hydration, antibiotics and analgesia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology And Oncology
      1300.6
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  • Question 8 - A 11-year-old boy is referred to you following his seventh course of antibiotics...

    Incorrect

    • A 11-year-old boy is referred to you following his seventh course of antibiotics in the last six years for lower respiratory tract infections. He also has a history of eczema for which he is currently on a topical steroid cream. His full blood count (FBC) report shows:Hb: 13.9 g/dLPlts: 65 x 10^9/LWCC: 12.3 x 10^9/L.Which of the following genes should you expect an abnormality in?

      Your Answer: CFTR

      Correct Answer: WASP

      Explanation:

      The combination of frequent infections, eczema, and thrombocytopaenia are characteristic of Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome, which is due to an abnormality in the WASP gene. It is an X-linked recessive disorder that causes primary immunodeficiency owing to a combined B- and T-cell dysfunction.The other listed options are:1. PKD1: polycystic kidney disease2. CFTR: cystic fibrosis3. HFE1: haemochromatosis4. RET: multiple endocrine neoplasia, Hirschsprung’s disease

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology And Oncology
      22.2
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  • Question 9 - A 12-year-old boy presented with jaundice and fatigue for the last two weeks....

    Incorrect

    • A 12-year-old boy presented with jaundice and fatigue for the last two weeks. He complains of intermittent pain in his epigastrium. He is otherwise healthy with no history of vomiting, diarrhoea, loss of appetite or weight. History revealed that he has had fatigue all his life leading to him missing out on sports at regular intervals at school. His mother reports that he had two episodes of hepatitis at ages 5 and 7 years. There is no family history of jaundice. He has no significant travel history.On physical examination, yellow sclera were observed. Additionally, on abdominal examination, the splenic tip was palpable at 3 cm with some tenderness of the right upper quadrant. He was found to have mild tachycardia with normal blood pressure and no fever.Blood results:- Hb: 12.6 g/dl- MCV: 104 fL- MCHC: 38 g/dL- WBC Count: 10 x 109/L- Reticulocyte count: 148 x 109/L (Normal Range 20-100 x 109/L)- Bilirubin: 34 ÎĽmol/L- LDH: 600 lÎĽ/L (Normal Range 230-450 lÎĽ/l)- Direct Coomb's test: NegativeAbdominal ultrasonography revealed an enlarged spleen measuring 15 cmWhat is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Acquired autoimmune haemolitic anaemia (AIHA)

      Correct Answer: Hereditary spherocytosis

      Explanation:

      The most probable diagnosis based on the scenario provided above is hereditary spherocytosis.While jaundice and abdominal pain might make you think of hepatitis or cholecystitis in the first instance, the lack of fever suggests otherwise. The apyrexial presentation is against acute cholecystitis, and the past medical history reveals a chronic type of fatigue and two previous episodes of hepatitis. Furthermore, it is unlikely that the child has contracted infective hepatitis twice and now a third time! The most common cause of hepatitis in childhood is hepatitis A, however the lack of travel history to endemic areas makes this less likely. Hepatitis A is usually a mild, self-limiting disease that never presents with chronic symptoms. The chronicity of his fatigue and the blood results lead towards a haematological diagnosis. This is further substantiated by his low haemoglobin levels, high MCV and high reticulocyte count. Chronic haemolytic anaemia is the most likely cause, and the negative Coombs excludes autoimmune haemolytic anaemia (AIHA). Thus, leaving us with the answer as hereditary spherocytosis.Hereditary spherocytosis is a disorder that makes the cytoskeleton of red cells more fragile and therefore leads to red cell death and splenomegaly. Gallstones are a result of this red cell destruction and increased haem metabolism.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology And Oncology
      55.1
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 12-year-old boy presents with severe abdominal pain, bloody faeces, haematuria and painful,...

    Incorrect

    • A 12-year-old boy presents with severe abdominal pain, bloody faeces, haematuria and painful, swollen joints. Physical examination revealed petechiae on his legs. Blood investigations were found to be normal.What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Henoch-Schonlein purpura

      Explanation:

      The presentation of the child is highly suggestive of Henoch-Schonlein purpura (HSP). It is an IgA-mediated, autoimmune hypersensitivity vasculitis that targets the small vessels of the skin, GI tract, kidneys, and joints.It is most commonly seen in children aged 3 – 6 years old and is twice as common in boys than girls. Preceding viral URTI with low-grade pyrexia is common. The most common organism associated with HSP is, however, Group A streptococcal infection.A purpuric rash is seen on the back of the legs and buttocks and can less frequently affect the arms. Arthralgia is common (usually knees/ankles) in these patients.Abdominal pain and bloody diarrhoea may occur. And half of the children with HSP have renal involvement. Rarely, it can lead to end-stage renal failure.Treatment includes adequate hydration, occasionally steroids, and other immunosuppressants. The disease can recur in 1 in 3 children.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology And Oncology
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Haematology And Oncology (3/9) 33%
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