00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00 : 00 : 00
Session Time
00 : 00
Average Question Time ( Mins)
  • Question 1 - A 35-year old lady in her first pregnancy presents to you for evaluation....

    Correct

    • A 35-year old lady in her first pregnancy presents to you for evaluation. She is of Pakistani origin and has no notable medical history. She reports taking iron supplements regularly since her midwife diagnosed her with anemia, but her blood count has not improved. Her recent lab results reveal an Hb of 96 g/L, MCV of 67.4 fL, and normal serum iron and ferritin levels. What is the probable underlying diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Haemoglobinopathy

      Explanation:

      Thalassaemia Minor: A Mild Anaemia with Low MCV

      This lady is experiencing a mild, well-tolerated anaemia with a very low mean corpuscular volume (MCV). Despite having normal iron and ferritin levels, her Pakistani background suggests a possible haemoglobinopathy, specifically thalassaemia minor. This condition is characterized by an MCV less than 75 fL and may worsen during pregnancy.

      To confirm the diagnosis, a haemoglobin electrophoresis test can be performed, which will reveal an increased HbA2. Other potential causes of anaemia, such as anaemia of chronic disease, hypothyroidism, occult gastrointestinal blood loss, and osteomalacia, have been ruled out based on the patient’s history and test results.

      In summary, thalassaemia minor is a mild form of anaemia that can be easily diagnosed through haemoglobin electrophoresis. While it may not require treatment, it is important to monitor the condition, especially during pregnancy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      27.1
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 65-year-old man presents with an episode of memory loss.
    Two days earlier he...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old man presents with an episode of memory loss.
      Two days earlier he had become confused. His daughter led him into the house where he apparently sat down at her request and had a glass of water. He then wandered around the house confused, but remained conscious and able to have some conversation with his daughter, though continuing to ask similar questions repeatedly.
      After four hours, he abruptly returned to normal and had no recollection of the events.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Transient global amnesia

      Explanation:

      Transient Global Amnesia: A Brief Overview

      Transient global amnesia is a rare condition that typically affects individuals over the age of 50. It is characterized by a temporary vascular insufficiency of both hippocampi, which results in a sudden onset of memory loss. However, despite the memory loss, individuals retain their awareness of personal identity and normal cognitive function.

      The episode usually lasts less than 24 hours, and the memory loss is often limited to recent events. The cause of transient global amnesia is not fully understood, but it is believed to be related to a temporary disruption of blood flow to the brain. While the condition can be alarming, it is generally not considered to be a serious or life-threatening condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      149.3
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - How should strong opioids be used for cancer pain management in primary care?...

    Correct

    • How should strong opioids be used for cancer pain management in primary care?

      Your Answer: Oxycodone has a more predictable systemic bioavailability than morphine

      Explanation:

      Opioid Prescription Guidelines

      About 10-30% of patients cannot use morphine due to side effects or poor analgesic response. However, oxycodone is not shown to have fewer unwanted effects than morphine. On the other hand, hydromorphone is seven times more potent than morphine on a mg for mg basis. Fentanyl should only be used second line, and when a daily requirement is established.

      To ensure safe and appropriate opioid prescription, it is important to remember the STOPP criteria. Prescription is potentially inappropriate if a strong, oral or transdermal opioid (i.e. morphine, oxycodone, fentanyl, buprenorphine, diamorphine, methadone, tramadol, pethidine, pentazocine) is prescribed as first-line therapy for mild pain (WHO analgesic ladder not observed). Additionally, regular use without concomitant laxative can lead to severe constipation. Lastly, prescribing a long-acting (modified-release) opioid without a short-acting (immediate-release) opioid for breakthrough pain can result in the persistence of severe pain.

      It is important to follow these guidelines to ensure the safe and effective use of opioids in pain management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • End Of Life
      34.8
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - When two medical conditions are related through the presence of a confounding factor,...

    Correct

    • When two medical conditions are related through the presence of a confounding factor, the association is said to be:

      Your Answer: Indirect

      Explanation:

      Association and Causation: Understanding the Difference

      Association refers to the relationship between two variables where one is more commonly found in the presence of the other. However, not all associations are causal. There are three types of association: spurious, indirect, and direct. Spurious associations are those that arise by chance and are not real, while indirect associations are due to the presence of another factor, also known as a confounding variable. Direct associations, on the other hand, are true associations not linked by a third variable.

      To establish causation, the Bradford Hill Causal Criteria are used. These criteria include strength, temporality, specificity, coherence, and consistency. The strength of the association is an important factor in determining causation, as a stronger association is more likely to be truly causal. Temporality refers to whether the exposure precedes the outcome, while specificity asks whether the suspected cause is associated with a specific outcome or disease. Coherence considers whether the association fits with other biological knowledge, and consistency looks at whether the same association is found in many studies.

      Understanding the difference between association and causation is important in research and decision-making. While an association may suggest a relationship between two variables, it doesn’t necessarily mean that one causes the other. By using the Bradford Hill Causal Criteria, researchers can determine whether an association is truly causal and make informed decisions based on their findings.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
      9.7
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 48-year-old-man presents to his General Practitioner very anxious as he has noticed...

    Correct

    • A 48-year-old-man presents to his General Practitioner very anxious as he has noticed blood in his urine that morning. For the past three days, he has been experiencing some lower abdominal discomfort, increased urinary frequency and mild dysuria. He is usually fit and well and doesn't take any regular medications. He is afebrile and normotensive. Urine dipstick is positive for blood, leukocytes and nitrites.
      Which of the following is the most appropriate management plan?

      Your Answer: Prescribe antibiotics and advise him to return if no improvement in symptoms within 48 hours

      Explanation:

      If a patient presents with symptoms of a urinary tract infection (UTI), it is recommended to prescribe antibiotics and advise them to return if their symptoms do not improve within 48 hours. A routine nephrology referral is not necessary in this case, as the patient’s haematuria can be explained by the UTI. However, if a patient has unexplained visible haematuria, urgent urological investigations should be conducted. It is not advisable to book an urgent blood test for prostate-specific antigen until after the UTI has been treated, unless there is a strong suspicion of prostate cancer. According to NICE guidelines, empirical antibiotics should be started immediately for men with typical UTI symptoms, and urine culture should be sent away for analysis. If visible haematuria persists or recurs after successful treatment of the UTI, an urgent suspected cancer referral should be sent. In men over 45 years old, a 2-week-wait referral should be considered in the absence of UTI symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      21
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 75-year-old woman presents with complaints of dysuria and increased frequency of micturition....

    Correct

    • A 75-year-old woman presents with complaints of dysuria and increased frequency of micturition. She has been experiencing these symptoms on and off for several months. Upon urinalysis, microscopic haematuria and 2-3 white cells per high power field are detected, but the urine culture is sterile. What is the most suitable treatment for her?

      Your Answer: Topical oestrogen cream

      Explanation:

      Atrophic Urethritis/Vaginitis in Postmenopausal Women: Symptoms and Treatment

      Postmenopausal women often experience symptoms of atrophic urethritis/vaginitis due to dryness and atrophy of the urethral tissue. This condition can cause discomfort, pain during intercourse, and urinary incontinence. However, topical oestrogen cream can have a dramatic response in improving or curing these symptoms.

      It is important to note that atrophic urethritis/vaginitis is not caused by an infection, so antibiotic therapy or alkalinisation of the urine will not be effective. Corticosteroids are also not helpful in treating this condition.

      In addition to improving urinary incontinence, topical oestrogen may also reduce the risk of recurrent urinary tract infections in postmenopausal women. However, it is important to rule out other underlying pathology before using oestrogen for this indication.

      Overall, atrophic urethritis/vaginitis is a common condition in postmenopausal women, but it can be effectively treated with topical oestrogen cream.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      113.3
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 23-year-old woman comes to your clinic complaining of fatigue and a swelling...

    Correct

    • A 23-year-old woman comes to your clinic complaining of fatigue and a swelling on the left side of her neck. She mentions that she is struggling to keep up with her studies as a 4th year medical student and is considering dropping down a year. She has no significant medical history and is only taking the progesterone only pill.

      During the examination, her blood pressure is 95/60 mmHg, pulse is 85 and regular, and she appears pale. The only notable finding is a large left supraclavicular swelling that is several centimeters across and has a slightly rubbery consistency. Her BMI is 21 kg/m2.

      After conducting some investigations, the following results were obtained:
      - Hb 92 g/L (115-160)
      - WCC 8.4 ×109/L (4.5-10)
      - PLT 162 ×109/L (150-450)
      - Na 137 mmol/L (135-145)
      - K 4.2 mmol/L (3.5-5.5)
      - Cr 88 µmol/L (70-110)
      - ESR 75 mm/hr (<10)

      What is the most appropriate next step?

      Your Answer: Urgent haematology referral

      Explanation:

      Suspicious Symptoms for Hodgkin’s Lymphoma

      Lower cervical or supraclavicular lymphadenopathy, along with an insidious presentation of anaemia and raised ESR, is a cause for concern in this age group. Hodgkin’s lymphoma is a possible diagnosis, and determining lymph node architecture is crucial for evaluating prognosis. Therefore, an excision biopsy is the next step for disease staging, accompanied by chest x-ray and CT.

      EBV is associated with lymphadenopathy and acute pharyngitis, but there is no indication of acute infection in this case. Endoscopy would be necessary if the patient reported upper GI symptoms, but there is no mention of indigestion.

      Although a surgical team will perform the excision biopsy, it is the haematologists who will provide the initial assessment. Proper evaluation and diagnosis are essential for effective treatment and management of Hodgkin’s lymphoma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      76.1
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - For which patients is pertussis vaccination not recommended? ...

    Incorrect

    • For which patients is pertussis vaccination not recommended?

      Your Answer: HIV infected individual

      Correct Answer: Children with progressive neurological disorders such as uncontrolled epilepsy

      Explanation:

      The pertussis vaccination, typically administered as part of the DTaP or Tdap vaccines, is crucial in preventing whooping cough, which can be particularly severe in infants and children. However, there are specific situations where the pertussis vaccine may not be recommended.

      • Child with Spina Bifida:
        • Recommendation: Pertussis vaccination is recommended.
        • Explanation: Children with spina bifida do not have contraindications for the pertussis vaccine. In fact, they should receive all standard childhood immunizations, including the DTaP vaccine, unless there are other specific contraindications not related to spina bifida.
      • Breastfeeding Mother:
        • Recommendation: Pertussis vaccination is recommended.
        • Explanation: Breastfeeding mothers are encouraged to receive the Tdap vaccine, especially postpartum if they did not receive it during pregnancy. This helps to protect both the mother and the infant by reducing the risk of transmission.
      • Children with progressive neurological disorders such as uncontrolled epilepsy:
        • Recommendation: Pertussis vaccination is contraindicated.
        • Explanation: Children with progressive neurological disorders such as uncontrolled epilepsy or progressive encephalopathy should not receive the pertussis component of the vaccine until the condition is stabilised. This is due to the risk of vaccine-related exacerbations of the neurological condition.
      • HIV Infected Individual:
        • Recommendation: Pertussis vaccination is recommended.
        • Explanation: HIV-infected individuals, including children, should receive the pertussis vaccine according to the standard immunization schedule, unless they are severely immunocompromised. The DTaP vaccine is an inactivated vaccine, making it safe for use in immunocompromised individuals.
      • Pregnant Woman:
        • Recommendation: Pertussis vaccination is recommended.
        • Explanation: Pregnant women are specifically recommended to receive the Tdap vaccine during each pregnancy, ideally between 27 and 36 weeks of gestation. This practice helps provide passive immunity to the newborn and reduces the risk of pertussis transmission.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
      11.8
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A randomized controlled trial compared the effectiveness of generic counselling with normal GP...

    Correct

    • A randomized controlled trial compared the effectiveness of generic counselling with normal GP care for patients with diverse psychological problems (excluding phobias and psychoses). A total of 172 patients aged 18 years and over were randomized. Counsellors were either British Association of Counselling (BAC) accredited or trained to diploma level. The Hospital Anxiety and Depression Scale and the COOP/WONCA functional health assessment charts were used to assess the results of both interventions. The study took place in 9 GP practices in South Wales.

      Your Answer: Measures were taken to reduce the risk of observer bias in the results

      Explanation:

      Reducing Observer Bias in a Study on Counselling in Primary Care

      The study on counselling in primary care is susceptible to various sources of bias, including the use of different counsellors with varying qualifications and methods, lack of definition for normal GP care, and recruitment of patients with diverse psychological disorders. However, the study employed two objective outcome measures to minimize observer bias. The sample size calculation and generalizability of the results are not specified, but the study found no significant difference in outcome between the two groups. Overall, this pragmatic study aimed to conduct a randomized controlled trial and economic evaluation of counselling in primary care.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Population Health
      32.8
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - You are evaluating a 28-year-old female patient who has been experiencing deteriorating migraines...

    Correct

    • You are evaluating a 28-year-old female patient who has been experiencing deteriorating migraines over the last half-year. She usually experiences aura before the onset of the headache. During the history-taking process, what is the maximum duration of aura that NICE and the British Association for the Study of Headache (BASH) consider to be normal?

      Your Answer: 1 hour

      Explanation:

      The typical duration of an aura is from 5 to 60 minutes.

      Migraine is a neurological condition that affects a significant portion of the population. The International Headache Society has established diagnostic criteria for migraine without aura, which includes at least five attacks lasting between 4-72 hours, with at least two of the following characteristics: unilateral location, pulsating quality, moderate or severe pain intensity, and aggravation by routine physical activity. During the headache, there must be at least one of the following: nausea and/or vomiting, photophobia, and phonophobia. The headache cannot be attributed to another disorder. In children, attacks may be shorter-lasting, headache is more commonly bilateral, and gastrointestinal disturbance is more prominent.

      Migraine with aura, which is seen in around 25% of migraine patients, tends to be easier to diagnose with a typical aura being progressive in nature and may occur hours prior to the headache. Typical aura include a transient hemianopic disturbance or a spreading scintillating scotoma (‘jagged crescent’). Sensory symptoms may also occur. NICE criteria suggest that migraines may be unilateral or bilateral and give more detail about typical auras, which may occur with or without headache and are fully reversible, develop over at least 5 minutes, and last 5-60 minutes. Atypical aura symptoms, such as motor weakness, double vision, visual symptoms affecting only one eye, poor balance, and decreased level of consciousness, may prompt further investigation or referral.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      15.1
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 10-year-old boy is brought in by his mother because of dryness and...

    Incorrect

    • A 10-year-old boy is brought in by his mother because of dryness and irritation around the corners of his mouth. He doesn't tend to drink much and licks his lips because they're so dry. On examination he has evidence of angular stomatitis.
      How would you treat his angular stomatitis?

      Your Answer: Reassure that this will improve spontaneously

      Correct Answer: Prescribe aciclovir cream for 1 week

      Explanation:

      Angular Stomatitis and Candida Infection

      Angular stomatitis is a common condition that is often caused by dryness, chapping, and licking of the lips. It can also be caused by salivation and drooling, which can lead to irritation. Candida infection is a common cause of angular stomatitis, although secondary infection with staphylococcal aureus should also be considered.

      When it comes to treatment, the clinical scenario in this case is more in keeping with candida infection. Miconazole cream is usually the first line of treatment for candida infection, while mild topical corticosteroids can be used to treat dermatitis. If the condition is unresponsive to miconazole alone, hydrocortisone can be added.

      It’s important to note that contact dermatitis is often a differential diagnosis for angular stomatitis. Aciclovir cream is used for herpes simplex lesions, while fusidic acid can be used to treat small areas of staphylococcal infection. Hydromol is a simple emollient and will not treat candida infections.

      In some cases, no treatment is needed, and angular cheilitis resolves by itself. However, most cases are accompanied by superimposed candida infection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
      37.3
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - One of your younger colleagues confides in you that she has just been...

    Correct

    • One of your younger colleagues confides in you that she has just been diagnosed with hepatitis B. She has not told anyone else as she is worried she may lose her job. She is currently working as a nurse in the local hospital. You try to persuade her to inform occupational health but she refuses. What is the most appropriate action?

      Your Answer: Inform your colleagues employing body

      Explanation:

      Patient safety is the top priority, as stated in the updated GMC guidelines.

      GMC Guidance on Confidentiality

      Confidentiality is a crucial aspect of medical practice that must be upheld at all times. The General Medical Council (GMC) provides extensive guidance on confidentiality, which can be accessed through a link provided. As such, we will not attempt to replicate the detailed information provided by the GMC here. It is important for healthcare professionals to familiarize themselves with the GMC’s guidance on confidentiality to ensure that they are meeting the necessary standards and protecting patient privacy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
      26.7
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - Which of the following is the least acknowledged cause of vertigo? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is the least acknowledged cause of vertigo?

      Your Answer: Acoustic neuroma

      Correct Answer: Motor neuron disease

      Explanation:

      Vertigo is a condition characterized by a false sensation of movement in the body or environment. There are various causes of vertigo, each with its own unique characteristics. Viral labyrinthitis, for example, is typically associated with a recent viral infection, sudden onset, nausea and vomiting, and possible hearing loss. Vestibular neuronitis, on the other hand, is characterized by recurrent vertigo attacks lasting hours or days, but with no hearing loss. Benign paroxysmal positional vertigo is triggered by changes in head position and lasts for only a few seconds. Meniere’s disease, meanwhile, is associated with hearing loss, tinnitus, and a feeling of fullness or pressure in the ears. Elderly patients with vertigo may be experiencing vertebrobasilar ischaemia, which is accompanied by dizziness upon neck extension. Acoustic neuroma, which is associated with hearing loss, vertigo, and tinnitus, is also a possible cause of vertigo. Other causes include posterior circulation stroke, trauma, multiple sclerosis, and ototoxicity from medications like gentamicin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
      7.3
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - You encounter a 16-year-old female patient who is interested in learning about the...

    Incorrect

    • You encounter a 16-year-old female patient who is interested in learning about the most appropriate forms of contraception for her. During your discussion, you highlight the advantages of long-acting reversible contraception, and she expresses interest in learning more about the contraceptive implant and its mechanism of action. What is the primary mode of action of the contraceptive implant?

      Your Answer: Preventing implantation and altering cervical mucous

      Correct Answer: Inhibition of ovulation

      Explanation:

      The main way in which the contraceptive implant works is by stopping ovulation. It may also have secondary effects such as changing cervical mucous to prevent sperm from entering and thinning the endometrium to potentially prevent implantation, but these are not its primary mode of action.

      Understanding the Mode of Action of Contraceptives

      Contraceptives are designed to prevent pregnancy by various mechanisms. The mode of action of standard contraceptives and emergency contraception is summarized in the table below, based on documents produced by the Faculty for Sexual and Reproductive Health (FSRH).

      Standard contraceptives include the combined oral contraceptive pill, progestogen-only pill, injectable contraceptive, implantable contraceptive, and intrauterine contraceptive device/system. The combined oral contraceptive pill and some progestogen-only pills work by inhibiting ovulation, while others thicken cervical mucous to prevent sperm from reaching the egg. Injectable and implantable contraceptives primarily inhibit ovulation, but also thicken cervical mucous. Intrauterine devices decrease sperm motility and survival, while the intrauterine system prevents endometrial proliferation and thickens cervical mucous.

      Emergency contraception, which is used after unprotected sex or contraceptive failure, includes levonorgestrel, ulipristal, and the intrauterine contraceptive device. Levonorgestrel and ulipristal work by inhibiting ovulation, while the intrauterine contraceptive device is toxic to sperm and ovum and can also inhibit implantation.

      Understanding the mode of action of contraceptives is important for choosing the most appropriate method for an individual’s needs and preferences. It is also essential for using contraceptives effectively and maximizing their effectiveness in preventing unintended pregnancy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      94.3
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 7-week-old boy is presented to your clinic by his mother in the...

    Correct

    • A 7-week-old boy is presented to your clinic by his mother in the afternoon. The mother reports that her baby has been experiencing effortless and painless regurgitation of his feeds for the past four weeks. The baby is being formula-fed and is currently taking bottles on demand every two hours. Apart from this, the baby is healthy and growing normally. There is no significant medical history, and the baby was born at full term without any complications. What is the appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer: Observation

      Explanation:

      Gastro-oesophageal reflux is a common cause of vomiting in infants, with around 40% of babies experiencing some degree of regurgitation. However, certain risk factors such as preterm delivery and neurological disorders can increase the likelihood of developing this condition. Symptoms typically appear before 8 weeks of age and include vomiting or regurgitation, milky vomits after feeds, and excessive crying during feeding. Diagnosis is usually made based on clinical observation.

      Management of gastro-oesophageal reflux in infants involves advising parents on proper feeding positions, ensuring the infant is not overfed, and considering a trial of thickened formula or alginate therapy. However, proton pump inhibitors (PPIs) are not recommended as a first-line treatment for isolated symptoms of regurgitation. PPIs may be considered if the infant experiences unexplained feeding difficulties, distressed behavior, or faltering growth. Metoclopramide, a prokinetic agent, should only be used with specialist advice.

      Complications of gastro-oesophageal reflux can include distress, failure to thrive, aspiration, frequent otitis media, and dental erosion in older children. If medical treatment is ineffective and severe complications arise, fundoplication may be considered. It is important for healthcare professionals to be aware of the risk factors, symptoms, and management options for gastro-oesophageal reflux in infants.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
      31.1
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A toddler boy is now 2 years old, having been born at 34...

    Incorrect

    • A toddler boy is now 2 years old, having been born at 34 weeks’ gestation. You see his mother during a follow-up appointment and she expresses concerns about potential complications of prematurity during early childhood.
      Which of these problems is MOST LIKELY to be a complication of preterm (premature) birth during early childhood?

      Your Answer: Developmental dysplasia of the hip

      Correct Answer: Blindness

      Explanation:

      Health Risks Associated with Premature Birth

      Premature birth, defined as birth before 37 weeks of gestation, can lead to a range of health problems for the newborn. These include cerebral palsy, blindness, deafness, learning disabilities, motor function problems, and speech and language problems. Premature infants are also at an increased risk of having special educational needs. The risk of these health problems is higher for infants born at earlier gestational ages and with lower birthweights.

      One specific visual problem that premature infants may experience is retinopathy of prematurity, a vascular disorder of the immature retina. Additionally, premature infants are at an increased risk of developing chronic kidney disease during adulthood, although the reason for this is not clear.

      However, not all health problems are associated with premature birth. Cystic fibrosis, for example, is caused by an autosomal-recessive gene and is not more prevalent in premature infants. Similarly, congenital adrenal hyperplasia is caused by several autosomal-recessive genes and is not more prevalent in premature infants. Developmental dysplasia of the hip, while more common in infants with neuromuscular disorders, is not commonly associated with prematurity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
      24.4
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - You are prescribing oral terbinafine to an elderly patient with a fungal nail...

    Incorrect

    • You are prescribing oral terbinafine to an elderly patient with a fungal nail infection.

      What are the monitoring requirements?

      Your Answer: Liver function pre-treatment and then every 4-6 weeks of treatment

      Correct Answer: Renal function pre-treatment and then every 3-4 weeks during treatment

      Explanation:

      Monitoring Requirements for Oral Terbinafine Use

      Oral terbinafine can lead to liver toxicity, which is why it is important to monitor hepatic function before and during treatment. If symptoms of liver toxicity, such as jaundice, develop, terbinafine should be discontinued immediately. The British National Formulary (BNF) specifies that hepatic function should be monitored before treatment and periodically after 4-6 weeks of treatment. If liver function abnormalities are detected, terbinafine should be discontinued.

      There is no need for additional monitoring, but if the estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR) is less than 50 mL/minute/1.73 m2, half the normal dose should be used if there is no suitable alternative. It is important to follow these monitoring requirements to ensure the safe and effective use of oral terbinafine.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      6.3
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 55-year-old smoker requests more antibiotics for a left-sided earache. He had seen...

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old smoker requests more antibiotics for a left-sided earache. He had seen a locum for tonsillitis three weeks ago, which was mainly on the left side, and was prescribed penicillin V. On examination, his ears appear normal.
      What is the most appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer: Examine the pharynx

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Different Ear Conditions

      Examination of the Pharynx for Unilateral Ear Pain

      If a patient presents with unilateral ear pain and a normal appearance of the ear, it is important to examine the pharynx and tonsils. Tonsillar carcinoma may cause referred pain and present with unilateral tonsillar enlargement. Prognosis is poor, but surgery and radiotherapy may be helpful.

      No Antibiotics Needed for Unresolved Symptoms

      If a patient’s symptoms have not improved despite initial treatment, a delayed prescription for antibiotics will not help and may delay diagnosis. Further investigation should be considered.

      Exercises for Eustachian Tube Dysfunction

      Eustachian tube dysfunction may cause muffled sounds or a popping/clicking sensation. Treatment may include exercises such as swallowing, yawning, or chewing gum to help open the Eustachian tube.

      Topical Antibiotics for Otitis Externa

      Otitis externa may cause a swollen and erythematous ear canal with discharge or debris. Topical antibiotics such as neomycin or ciprofloxacin may be prescribed to treat this condition. However, the appearance of a normal ear canal and tympanic membrane doesn’t indicate a need for topical antibiotics.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
      20.5
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A disease is discovered to have a standard mortality ratio of 140 in...

    Incorrect

    • A disease is discovered to have a standard mortality ratio of 140 in a surveyed population. Is it accurate to say that the disease is more fatal in this age group?

      Your Answer: Mortality from the disease in the sampled population is as would be expected

      Correct Answer: There were 40% more fatalities from the disease in this population compared to the reference population

      Explanation:

      There were a higher number of deaths in the sample population than what was anticipated.

      Understanding the Standardised Mortality Ratio

      The standardised mortality ratio (SMR) is a useful tool for comparing mortality rates across different populations. It takes into account confounding factors such as age and sex, which can affect mortality rates. The SMR is calculated by dividing the observed deaths by the expected deaths, sometimes multiplied by 100.

      An SMR of 100 or 1 indicates that the mortality rate in the population being studied is the same as the standard population. If the SMR is greater than 100, it suggests a higher than expected mortality rate. The SMR is a valuable tool for researchers and policymakers to identify populations with higher mortality rates and to develop interventions to address the underlying causes. By understanding the SMR, we can better understand mortality rates and work towards improving health outcomes for all populations.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
      30.9
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - You are requested to conduct a home visit for Edna, a 72-year-old woman,...

    Incorrect

    • You are requested to conduct a home visit for Edna, a 72-year-old woman, who reports sudden onset of dizziness that started four days ago. The dizziness has been constant since then and causes her to feel unsteady while walking. She has a medical history of migraines and rheumatoid arthritis but has never experienced similar episodes before. She consumes 21 units of alcohol per week and has never smoked.

      During the examination, she can stand and walk but requires support from furniture. You attempt to perform a Romberg test, but she starts to sway as soon as she closes her eyes. Both tympanic membranes appear normal. Cranial nerve examination is unremarkable except for marked nystagmus on vertical gaze. The rest of her neurological examination is normal.

      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Labyrinthitis

      Correct Answer: Cerebrovascular accident

      Explanation:

      When experiencing sudden dizziness, it can be challenging to determine if it is caused by a cerebrovascular accident (CVA). To differentiate between central (related to the central nervous system) and peripheral (related to the inner ear) causes of vertigo, doctors look for the presence of vertical nystagmus. If present, it indicates a central cause. Other signs of a central cause include the presence of other neurological symptoms and risk factors for CVAs. Labyrinthitis and benign paroxysmal positional vertigo are peripheral causes of vertigo that would cause lateral nystagmus. A space occupying lesion may cause central vertigo, but symptoms would likely have a more gradual onset. Vestibular migraines are a central cause that can cause vertical nystagmus, but the vertigo typically lasts for 4-72 hours, so the persistence of symptoms would not fit this diagnosis.

      Vertigo is a condition characterized by a false sensation of movement in the body or environment. There are various causes of vertigo, each with its own unique characteristics. Viral labyrinthitis, for example, is typically associated with a recent viral infection, sudden onset, nausea and vomiting, and possible hearing loss. Vestibular neuronitis, on the other hand, is characterized by recurrent vertigo attacks lasting hours or days, but with no hearing loss. Benign paroxysmal positional vertigo is triggered by changes in head position and lasts for only a few seconds. Meniere’s disease, meanwhile, is associated with hearing loss, tinnitus, and a feeling of fullness or pressure in the ears. Elderly patients with vertigo may be experiencing vertebrobasilar ischaemia, which is accompanied by dizziness upon neck extension. Acoustic neuroma, which is associated with hearing loss, vertigo, and tinnitus, is also a possible cause of vertigo. Other causes include posterior circulation stroke, trauma, multiple sclerosis, and ototoxicity from medications like gentamicin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
      47.1
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - What is the recommended course of action in the management of an adult...

    Correct

    • What is the recommended course of action in the management of an adult with asthma who is on low dose inhaled corticosteroid (ICS) but doesn't show improvement after the introduction of a long acting beta agonist (LABA)?

      Your Answer: Stop long-acting beta-2 agonist (LABA) and increase dose ICS

      Explanation:

      BTS Guidance on Low Dose ICS and LABA Treatment

      According to the 2016 BTS guidance, if a patient taking a low dose ICS doesn’t respond to the addition of a LABA, the LABA should be discontinued. Instead, healthcare providers should consider increasing the dose of ICS. It is important to note that options suggesting only an increase in ICS dose without stopping the LABA are incorrect.

      This guidance emphasizes the importance of individualized treatment plans for patients with respiratory conditions. By carefully monitoring patient response to medication and adjusting treatment as needed, healthcare providers can help improve patient outcomes and quality of life. Proper medication management can also help reduce the risk of adverse effects and complications associated with respiratory conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Health
      58.1
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - You diagnose a left-sided sudden sensorineural hearing loss (SSNHL) in a normally fit...

    Incorrect

    • You diagnose a left-sided sudden sensorineural hearing loss (SSNHL) in a normally fit and well 36-year-old woman who has come to see you in your GP clinic. She developed her symptoms over a few hours yesterday and now can not hear at all through her left ear. Her examination shows no obvious external or middle ear causes.

      What is your next step?

      Your Answer: Refer her to be seen within 2 weeks by a ENT specialist

      Correct Answer: Refer her for assessment within 24 hours by an ENT specialist

      Explanation:

      Immediate referral to an ENT specialist or emergency department is necessary for individuals experiencing acute sensorineural hearing loss. This is considered an emergency and requires urgent audiology assessment and a brain MRI. According to NICE CKS guidelines, individuals with sudden onset hearing loss (unilateral or bilateral) within the past 30 days, without any external or middle ear causes, should be referred within 24 hours. Additionally, those with unilateral hearing loss accompanied by focal neurology, head or neck injury, or severe infections such as necrotising otitis externa or Ramsay Hunt syndrome should also be referred urgently. Referral to a specialist other than ENT or non-urgent referral options are incorrect.

      When a patient experiences a sudden loss of hearing, it is crucial to conduct a thorough examination to determine whether it is conductive or sensorineural hearing loss. If it is the latter, known as sudden-onset sensorineural hearing loss (SSNHL), it is imperative to refer the patient to an ear, nose, and throat (ENT) specialist immediately. The majority of SSNHL cases have no identifiable cause, making them idiopathic. To rule out the possibility of a vestibular schwannoma, an MRI scan is typically performed. ENT specialists administer high-dose oral corticosteroids to all patients with SSNHL.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
      12.2
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A 25-year-old man wants to talk about Huntington's disease, which affected his father...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old man wants to talk about Huntington's disease, which affected his father and grandfather. He knows about 'genetic anticipation.' What other conditions show this phenomenon?

      Your Answer: Myotonic dystrophy

      Explanation:

      Hereditary diseases can have an earlier age of onset in successive generations due to genetic anticipation, particularly in trinucleotide repeat disorders such as Huntington’s disease and Myotonic dystrophy (which have a CTG repeat sequence). However, genetic anticipation is not observed in Duchenne muscular dystrophy (an X-linked recessive condition), Marfan syndrome (an autosomal dominant condition), or Homocystinuria (inherited in an autosomal recessive manner).

      Trinucleotide repeat disorders are genetic conditions that occur due to an abnormal number of repeats of a repetitive sequence of three nucleotides. These expansions are unstable and may enlarge, leading to an earlier age of onset in successive generations, a phenomenon known as anticipation. In most cases, an increase in the severity of symptoms is also observed. It is important to note that these disorders are predominantly neurological in nature. Examples of such disorders include Fragile X, Huntington’s, myotonic dystrophy, Friedreich’s ataxia, spinocerebellar ataxia, spinobulbar muscular atrophy, and dentatorubral pallidoluysian atrophy. It is interesting to note that Friedreich’s ataxia is an exception to the rule and doesn’t demonstrate anticipation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
      20.1
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A man attends the surgery for an 'MOT' having just had his 55th...

    Incorrect

    • A man attends the surgery for an 'MOT' having just had his 55th birthday. He is keen to reduce his risk of cardiovascular disease and asks about being started on a 'statin'.

      He has no significant past medical history and takes no medication. His father had a 'heart attack' aged seventy, but his father was obese and a heavy smoker. There is no other family history of note. There is no suggestion of a familial lipid condition.

      What is the most appropriate management approach at this point?

      Your Answer: Use QRISK2 risk assessment tool to assess his cardiovascular risk

      Correct Answer: Optimise adherence to diet and lifestyle measures

      Explanation:

      Primary Prevention of Cardiovascular Disease

      This patient has no history of cardiovascular disease (CVD), and therefore, the primary prevention approach is necessary. The first step is to use a CVD risk assessment tool such as QRISK2 to evaluate the patient’s cardiovascular risk. If the patient has a 10% or greater 10-year risk of developing CVD, measuring their lipid profile and offering atorvastatin 20 mg daily would be appropriate. Additionally, providing advice to optimize diet and lifestyle measures is necessary. However, if the patient’s risk is less than 10%, then diet and lifestyle advice/optimization in isolation would be appropriate. At this point, there is no specific indication for lipid clinic input. The use of QRISK2 in this scenario is the best approach as it guides the management, including whether pharmacological treatment with a statin is necessary.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      7.9
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - Which one of the following statements regarding Senior Independence Payment (SIP) is incorrect?...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following statements regarding Senior Independence Payment (SIP) is incorrect?

      Your Answer: Is for patients under the age of 65 years

      Correct Answer: Has three components - care, mobility and housing

      Explanation:

      There are two components to Personal Independence Payment, which are daily living and mobility.

      Patients who suffer from chronic illnesses or cancer and require assistance with caring for themselves may be eligible for benefits. Those under the age of 65 can claim Personal Independence Payment (PIP), while those aged 65 and over can claim Attendance Allowance (AA). PIP is tax-free and divided into two components: daily living and mobility. Patients must have a long-term health condition or disability and have difficulties with activities related to daily living and/or mobility for at least 3 months, with an expectation that these difficulties will last for at least 9 months. AA is also tax-free and is for those who need help with personal care. Patients should have needed help for at least 6 months to claim AA.

      Patients who have a terminal illness and are not expected to live for more than 6 months can be fast-tracked through the system for claiming incapacity benefit (IB), employment support allowance (ESA), DLA or AA. A DS1500 form is completed by a hospital or hospice consultant, which contains questions about the diagnosis, clinical features, treatment, and whether the patient is aware of the condition/prognosis. The form is given directly to the patient and a fee is payable by the Department for Works and Pensions (DWP) for its completion. This ensures that the application is dealt with promptly and that the patient automatically receives the higher rate.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Equality, Diversity And Inclusion
      79.2
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A 55-year-old caucasian man presents to his GP with the results of 7...

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old caucasian man presents to his GP with the results of 7 days of home blood pressure monitoring (HBPM) he was advised to complete following a random clinic blood pressure of 144/92 mmHg. His HBPM is 138/88 mmHg. Baseline investigations show no evidence of end-organ damage. He is a current smoker. His QRISK3 score is calculated to be 11.2%. He has no known medication allergies. Lifestyle and smoking cessation advice is provided. What is the most appropriate treatment option?

      Your Answer: Atorvastatin and ramipril

      Explanation:

      The current prescription of Atorvastatin alone is not sufficient for this patient. In addition to lipid-lowering therapy, he should also be offered an antihypertensive agent. However, it is important to note that due to his age and ethnicity, he should first be offered an ACE and/or angiotensin-II receptor antagonist. If he doesn’t have type 2 diabetes and is aged 55 years or over, or if he is of black African or African-Caribbean family origin and doesn’t have type 2 diabetes (of any age), calcium-channel blockers may be considered as the first-line antihypertensive agent. It is not appropriate to suggest that no treatment is required.

      Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is a common condition that can lead to serious health problems if left untreated. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published updated guidelines for the management of hypertension in 2019. Some of the key changes include lowering the threshold for treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old, allowing the use of angiotensin receptor blockers instead of ACE inhibitors, and recommending the use of calcium channel blockers or thiazide-like diuretics in addition to ACE inhibitors or angiotensin receptor blockers.

      Lifestyle changes are also important in managing hypertension. Patients should aim for a low salt diet, reduce caffeine intake, stop smoking, drink less alcohol, eat a balanced diet rich in fruits and vegetables, exercise more, and lose weight.

      Treatment for hypertension depends on the patient’s blood pressure classification. For stage 1 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 135/85 mmHg or higher, treatment is recommended for patients under 80 years old with target organ damage, established cardiovascular disease, renal disease, diabetes, or a 10-year cardiovascular risk equivalent to 10% or greater. For stage 2 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 150/95 mmHg or higher, drug treatment is recommended regardless of age.

      The first-line treatment for patients under 55 years old or with a background of type 2 diabetes mellitus is an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker. Calcium channel blockers are recommended for patients over 55 years old or of black African or African-Caribbean origin. If a patient is already taking an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker, a calcium channel blocker or thiazide-like diuretic can be added.

      If blood pressure remains uncontrolled with the optimal or maximum tolerated doses of four drugs, NICE recommends seeking expert advice or adding a fourth drug. Blood pressure targets vary depending on age, with a target of 140/90 mmHg for patients under 80 years old and 150/90 mmHg for patients over 80 years old. Direct renin inhibitors, such as Aliskiren, may be used in patients who are intolerant of other antihypertensive drugs, but their role is currently limited.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      35.7
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - In your practice area there is sheltered accommodation for a small number of...

    Correct

    • In your practice area there is sheltered accommodation for a small number of young adults with general learning disability.
      Which of the following is the correct statement concerning general learning disability?

      Your Answer: Expressive language skills may be better than receptive skills

      Explanation:

      Understanding General Learning Disability: Causes, Symptoms, and Management

      General learning disability is a condition characterized by incomplete or arrested development of the mind, which is evident from childhood. This term is now recommended in the United Kingdom to replace outdated terms such as mental handicap and mental retardation. The majority of patients have mild learning disability, with an Intelligence Quotient (IQ) of 50-70. The causes of this condition are varied, including genetic, metabolic, and events during pregnancy, childbirth, and the postnatal period. Patients with general learning disability often have associated physical, psychological, and behavioral problems.

      Psychotropic drugs are commonly used to manage behavioral problems, but they are rarely beneficial. Before resorting to medication, doctors should first check for any sources of discomfort, such as earache or toothache. When communicating with patients, it is important to address them directly and obtain as much history as possible from them. However, doctors should also be aware that there may be incongruence between receptive and expressive verbal skills, and patients may not fully understand the questions being asked.

      Most adults with general learning disability have limited economic opportunities. It is important to understand this condition and provide appropriate support and management to improve the quality of life for patients and their families.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurodevelopmental Disorders, Intellectual And Social Disability
      11.2
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - You assess a 70-year-old man who has been diagnosed with hypertension during his...

    Incorrect

    • You assess a 70-year-old man who has been diagnosed with hypertension during his annual review for chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). In the clinic, his blood pressure measures 170/100 mmHg, and you initiate treatment with amlodipine 5mg once daily. What guidance should you provide regarding driving?

      Your Answer: Notify DVLA but can continue to drive as normal

      Correct Answer: No need to notify DVLA unless side-effects from medication

      Explanation:

      If you have hypertension and belong to Group 1, there is no requirement to inform the DVLA. However, if you belong to Group 2, your blood pressure must consistently remain below 180/100 mmHg.

      DVLA Guidelines for Cardiovascular Disorders and Driving

      The DVLA has specific guidelines for individuals with cardiovascular disorders who wish to drive a car or motorcycle. For those with hypertension, driving is permitted unless the treatment causes unacceptable side effects, and there is no need to notify the DVLA. However, if the individual has Group 2 Entitlement, they will be disqualified from driving if their resting blood pressure consistently measures 180 mmHg systolic or more and/or 100 mm Hg diastolic or more.

      Individuals who have undergone elective angioplasty must refrain from driving for one week, while those who have undergone CABG or acute coronary syndrome must wait four weeks before driving. If an individual experiences angina symptoms at rest or while driving, they must cease driving altogether. Pacemaker insertion requires a one-week break from driving, while implantable cardioverter-defibrillator (ICD) implantation results in a six-month driving ban if implanted for sustained ventricular arrhythmia. If implanted prophylactically, the individual must cease driving for one month, and Group 2 drivers are permanently barred from driving with an ICD.

      Successful catheter ablation for an arrhythmia requires a two-day break from driving, while an aortic aneurysm of 6 cm or more must be reported to the DVLA. Licensing will be permitted subject to annual review, but an aortic diameter of 6.5 cm or more disqualifies patients from driving. Finally, individuals who have undergone a heart transplant must refrain from driving for six weeks, but there is no need to notify the DVLA.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      3442.1
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - Which one of the following statements regarding cholesteatomas is accurate? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following statements regarding cholesteatomas is accurate?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The peak incidence is 10-20 years

      Explanation:

      Understanding Cholesteatoma

      Cholesteatoma is a benign growth of squamous epithelium that can cause damage to the skull base. It is most commonly found in individuals between the ages of 10 and 20 years old. Those born with a cleft palate are at a higher risk of developing cholesteatoma, with a 100-fold increase in risk.

      The main symptoms of cholesteatoma include a persistent discharge with a foul odor and hearing loss. Other symptoms may occur depending on the extent of the growth, such as vertigo, facial nerve palsy, and cerebellopontine angle syndrome.

      During otoscopy, a characteristic attic crust may be seen in the uppermost part of the eardrum.

      Management of cholesteatoma involves referral to an ear, nose, and throat specialist for surgical removal. Early detection and treatment are important to prevent further damage to the skull base and surrounding structures.

      In summary, cholesteatoma is a non-cancerous growth that can cause significant damage if left untreated. It is important to be aware of the symptoms and seek medical attention promptly if they occur.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - A 67-year-old woman presents with a general feeling of unwellness. She reports low...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old woman presents with a general feeling of unwellness. She reports low mood and energy, along with body aches. She is experiencing increased nausea, constipation, and reflux, which has led to a decrease in her appetite. However, she is staying well hydrated. Her medical history includes well-controlled type 2 diabetes, GORD, and recently diagnosed hypertension. Recent blood tests revealed Hb of 135 g/L (115 - 160), urea of 5 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0), and creatinine of 60 µmol/L (55 - 120). What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Primary hyperparathyroidism

      Explanation:

      The patient’s symptoms of depression, nausea, constipation, and bone pain suggest a diagnosis of primary hyperparathyroidism. This condition is characterized by hypercalcaemia, which can cause the ‘moans, groans, and bones’ of hyperparathyroidism. Other common symptoms include polydipsia, polyuria, hypertension, renal stones, and pancreatitis.

      It is important to distinguish primary hyperparathyroidism from secondary hyperparathyroidism, which is usually caused by renal disease. In this case, the patient’s recent blood tests showed normal renal function, making secondary hyperparathyroidism less likely. Primary hypoparathyroidism, a congenital condition, is also unlikely as it would cause low calcium and high phosphate levels, resulting in different symptoms than those presented by the patient.

      Secondary hypoparathyroidism, which can result in depression due to chronic hypocalcaemia, is also unlikely as it is usually caused by damage to the parathyroid glands from neck surgery or radiation therapy, which the patient has not undergone.

      Therefore, primary hyperparathyroidism remains the most likely diagnosis for this patient’s symptoms.

      Primary Hyperparathyroidism: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment

      Primary hyperparathyroidism is a condition that is commonly seen in elderly females and is characterized by an unquenchable thirst and an inappropriately normal or raised parathyroid hormone level. It is usually caused by a solitary adenoma, hyperplasia, multiple adenoma, or carcinoma. While around 80% of patients are asymptomatic, the symptomatic features of primary hyperparathyroidism may include polydipsia, polyuria, depression, anorexia, nausea, constipation, peptic ulceration, pancreatitis, bone pain/fracture, renal stones, and hypertension.

      Primary hyperparathyroidism is associated with hypertension and multiple endocrine neoplasia, such as MEN I and II. To diagnose this condition, doctors may perform a technetium-MIBI subtraction scan or look for a characteristic X-ray finding of hyperparathyroidism called the pepperpot skull.

      The definitive management for primary hyperparathyroidism is total parathyroidectomy. However, conservative management may be offered if the calcium level is less than 0.25 mmol/L above the upper limit of normal, the patient is over 50 years old, and there is no evidence of end-organ damage. Patients who are not suitable for surgery may be treated with cinacalcet, a calcimimetic that mimics the action of calcium on tissues by allosteric activation of the calcium-sensing receptor.

      In summary, primary hyperparathyroidism is a condition that can cause various symptoms and is commonly seen in elderly females. It can be diagnosed through various tests and managed through surgery or medication.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      0
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Haematology (2/2) 100%
Neurology (2/2) 100%
End Of Life (1/1) 100%
Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge (1/1) 100%
Kidney And Urology (3/3) 100%
Children And Young People (2/4) 50%
Population Health (1/1) 100%
Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing (2/6) 33%
Infectious Disease And Travel Health (1/1) 100%
Maternity And Reproductive Health (0/1) 0%
Dermatology (0/1) 0%
Respiratory Health (0/1) 0%
Cardiovascular Health (0/3) 0%
Equality, Diversity And Inclusion (0/1) 0%
Passmed