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  • Question 1 - A 38-year-old woman presents to the clinic with symmetrical polyarthritis affecting her fingers,...

    Incorrect

    • A 38-year-old woman presents to the clinic with symmetrical polyarthritis affecting her fingers, wrists and elbows. She also reports significant morning stiffness which lasts for up to 90 minutes and is finding it very difficult to get up for work in the morning. There is a history of deep vein thrombosis during her second pregnancy, but no other significant past medical history. Her only medication of note is the oral contraceptive pill.
      On examination, she has evidence of active synovitis affecting her wrists and the small joints of her fingers.
      Investigations:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Haemoglobin 121 g/l 115–155 g/l
      White cell count (WCC) 8.1 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
      Platelets 193 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
      Sodium (Na+) 139 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
      Potassium (K+) 4.5 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
      Creatinine 110 μmol/l 50–120 µmol/l
      Rheumatoid factor Positive
      Anti-nuclear factor Weakly positive
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: antiphospholipid antibody syndrome

      Correct Answer: Rheumatoid arthritis

      Explanation:

      Diagnosing Rheumatoid Arthritis: Differential Diagnosis

      Rheumatoid arthritis is a common autoimmune disorder that affects the joints, causing morning stiffness and small joint polyarthritis. A positive rheumatoid factor is present in 70% of patients, while anti-CCP antibodies are highly specific for rheumatoid arthritis and can be useful in rheumatoid factor-negative cases.

      Other conditions that may present with similar symptoms include systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE), antiphospholipid antibody syndrome, seronegative arthritis, and polymyalgia rheumatica. However, in this case, there are no other features to suggest SLE, one episode of deep vein thrombosis during pregnancy is insufficient to suggest antiphospholipid antibody syndrome, the patient is seropositive for rheumatoid factor ruling out seronegative arthritis, and there is no story of proximal muscle pain which could be suggestive of polymyalgia rheumatica. Therefore, the diagnosis of rheumatoid arthritis is most likely.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
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  • Question 2 - A 24-year-old Caucasian farmer presents to the outpatient department with a complaint of...

    Correct

    • A 24-year-old Caucasian farmer presents to the outpatient department with a complaint of lower back pain that has been bothering him for the past two months. He reports that the pain is at its worst in the morning. He also experiences intermittent pain and swelling in his right ankle, which he injured while running a year ago. Two weeks ago, he visited the Emergency department with a painful red eye, which was treated with eye drops. He is a heavy smoker, consuming 45 cigarettes a day, and drinks five pints of beer every weekend. He denies any skin rashes or mucosal ulceration. His mother had rheumatoid arthritis, and his father had severe gout. On direct questioning, he admits to being diagnosed with chlamydia four months ago. During the examination, his right ankle was swollen at the site of Achilles' tendon insertion, but all other joints were unremarkable. Flexion of the lumbar spine was reduced. What is the most likely diagnosis for this man?

      Your Answer: Ankylosing spondylitis

      Explanation:

      Spondyloarthritis: A Group of Related Disorders

      The patient’s history suggests the presence of spondyloarthritis, which is a group of related but distinct disorders. These include ankylosing spondylitis, reactive arthritis, psoriatic arthritis, and a subgroup of juvenile idiopathic arthritis. HLA-B27 is a predisposing factor for all these disorders and is present in a high percentage of patients with ankylosing spondylitis and reactive arthritis. Ankylosing spondylitis is a severe form of spondyloarthritis that mainly affects the entheses and leads to spinal immobility. TNF-antagonists are the primary treatment, but physiotherapy and non-steroidal anti-inflammatory agents also have a role.

      Reactive arthritis is the most common type of inflammatory polyarthritis in young men and is an important differential diagnosis in this case. It typically follows genitourinary infection with Chlamydia trachomatis or enteric infections with certain strains of Salmonella or Shigella. Treatment with doxycycline can sometimes shorten the course of the disease if associated with Chlamydia infection. In general, non-steroidal anti-inflammatories are used for treatment, with intra-articular corticosteroids if large joints are involved.

      In conclusion, spondyloarthritis is a group of related disorders that share a common predisposing factor and can cause significant morbidity. Ankylosing spondylitis and reactive arthritis are two of the most common types, and their diagnosis should be considered in patients with suggestive symptoms. Treatment options include TNF-antagonists, non-steroidal anti-inflammatory agents, and physiotherapy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
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  • Question 3 - A 20-year-old patient presents with purpura on his back, buttocks and extensor surface...

    Correct

    • A 20-year-old patient presents with purpura on his back, buttocks and extensor surface of his lower limbs. He has dipstick haematuria.
      Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Henoch–Schönlein purpura

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for a Young Man with Purpura and Haematuria

      The patient in question presents with a purpuric rash on the back, buttocks, and extensor surfaces of the lower limbs, as well as haematuria. The following is a differential diagnosis of possible conditions that could be causing these symptoms.

      Henoch–Schönlein purpura (HSP)
      The clinical presentation is entirely typical of HSP, a vasculitic process that results in a purpuric rash and haematuria. It should be noted that platelet numbers are usually normal or raised in HSP, so thrombocytopaenia is not expected.

      Haemophilia A
      This condition is not likely as it results in joint and muscle bleeding, which is not present in this case. Additionally, haemophilia would not cause haematuria.

      Idiopathic thrombocytopaenic purpura (ITP)
      While purpura is a symptom of ITP, a reduced platelet count is typically present. Without a discussion of platelet levels, it is difficult to justify a diagnosis of ITP. Additionally, ITP would not result in haematuria.

      Leukaemia
      If acute leukaemia were causing the symptoms, thrombocytopaenia might be expected. However, the clinical presentation is more compatible with HSP, and thrombocytopaenia alone would not result in haematuria.

      Thalassaemia trait
      There is no indication in the history to suggest this condition, and it would not result in purpura. Thalassaemia trait is typically asymptomatic.

      In conclusion, the patient’s symptoms are most consistent with HSP, a vasculitic process that results in a purpuric rash and haematuria.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
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  • Question 4 - A 40-year-old homemaker with long-standing psoriasis visits her GP with worsening joint pains...

    Correct

    • A 40-year-old homemaker with long-standing psoriasis visits her GP with worsening joint pains over the past six months. Upon examination, the GP suspects potential psoriatic arthropathy and refers the patient to a rheumatologist. What is a severe manifestation of psoriatic arthropathy?

      Your Answer: Arthritis mutilans

      Explanation:

      Psoriatic Arthritis: Common Presentations and Misconceptions

      Psoriatic arthritis is a type of arthritis that affects some individuals with psoriasis. While it can present in various ways, there are some common misconceptions about its symptoms. Here are some clarifications:

      1. Arthritis mutilans is a severe form of psoriatic arthritis, not a separate condition.

      2. Psoriatic arthritis can have a rheumatoid-like presentation, but not an osteoarthritis-like one.

      3. The most common presentation of psoriatic arthritis is distal interphalangeal joint involvement, not proximal.

      4. Psoriatic spondylitis is a type of psoriatic arthritis that affects the spine, not ankylosing spondylitis.

      5. Asymmetrical oligoarthritis is a common presentation of psoriatic arthritis, not symmetrical oligoarthritis.

      Understanding these presentations can help with early diagnosis and appropriate treatment of psoriatic arthritis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
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  • Question 5 - A 45-year-old patient is referred for investigation of hypertension. On examination, she has...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old patient is referred for investigation of hypertension. On examination, she has a beaked nose and telangiectasia on the face. There is evidence of tight, waxy skin of the fingers, with calcification on one finger. She has had Raynaud’s disease for many years.
      Which of the following autoantibodies is most likely to be positive?

      Your Answer: Anti-centromere antibody

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Autoantibodies in Connective Tissue Diseases

      Connective tissue diseases are a group of autoimmune disorders that affect various parts of the body. Differentiating between these diseases can be challenging, but autoantibodies can provide valuable clues. Here are some common autoantibodies and the connective tissue diseases they are associated with:

      1. Anti-centromere antibody: This antibody is most likely to be present in limited systemic sclerosis (CREST).

      2. Anti-Scl-70: This antibody is found in diffuse systemic sclerosis.

      3. Anti-RNP antibody: This antibody is found in mixed connective tissue disease.

      4. Anti-Ro antibody: This antibody is classically positive in Sjögren’s syndrome or systemic lupus erythematosus.

      5. Anti-Jo-1 antibody: This antibody is commonly raised in polymyositis.

      By identifying the specific autoantibodies present in a patient, healthcare providers can better diagnose and manage connective tissue diseases.

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      • Rheumatology
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  • Question 6 - A 50-year-old woman with a history of rheumatoid arthritis is experiencing shortness of...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old woman with a history of rheumatoid arthritis is experiencing shortness of breath during light activity and has developed a dry cough. Upon testing, her oxygen saturation was found to be 87% while breathing normally. A chest x-ray revealed a diffuse bilateral interstitial infiltrate. Despite an extensive infection screening, no infections were found, leading doctors to believe that her symptoms are a result of a drug she is taking. Which medication is the most likely culprit for this adverse reaction?

      Your Answer: Methotrexate

      Explanation:

      Potential Side Effects of Common Rheumatoid Arthritis Medications

      Methotrexate, a commonly prescribed medication for rheumatoid arthritis, has been known to cause acute pneumonitis and interstitial lung disease. Although this is a rare complication, it can be fatal and should be closely monitored. Azathioprine, another medication used to treat rheumatoid arthritis, can lead to bone marrow suppression and increase the risk of infection. Cyclosporin, often used in combination with other medications, can cause neurological and visual disturbances. Hydroxychloroquine, while generally well-tolerated, can lead to abdominal pain and visual disturbances in cases of toxicity. Sulfasalazine, another medication used to treat rheumatoid arthritis, can affect liver function tests and cause bone marrow suppression, requiring careful monitoring.

      It is important for patients to be aware of the potential side effects of their medications and to communicate any concerns with their healthcare provider. Regular monitoring and follow-up appointments can help to identify and manage any adverse effects. With proper management, the benefits of these medications can outweigh the risks for many patients with rheumatoid arthritis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
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  • Question 7 - A 65-year-old woman presents with a four-month history of finding it more difficult...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old woman presents with a four-month history of finding it more difficult to get out of her chair. She also complains of a right-sided temporal headache, which is often triggered when she brushes her hair. A diagnosis of polymyalgia rheumatica with temporal arthritis is suspected.
      Which of the following blood tests is most useful in supporting the diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Bence Jones proteins

      Correct Answer: Plasma viscosity

      Explanation:

      Diagnostic Markers for Polymyalgia Rheumatica and Temporal arthritis

      Polymyalgia rheumatica and temporal arthritis are inflammatory conditions that can cause significant morbidity if left untreated. Here are some diagnostic markers that can help support or rule out these conditions:

      Plasma viscosity: A raised plasma viscosity can support a diagnosis of polymyalgia rheumatica with temporal arthritis, but it is a nonspecific inflammatory marker.

      Creatine kinase: A raised creatine kinase is not supportive of a diagnosis of polymyalgia rheumatica or temporal arthritis.

      Monospot test: A positive monospot test is supportive of a diagnosis of Epstein–Barr virus (EBV), but not polymyalgia rheumatica or temporal arthritis.

      Whole cell count (WCC): A raised WCC is not supportive of a diagnosis of polymyalgia rheumatica or temporal arthritis.

      Bence Jones proteins: Presence of Bence Jones protein is supportive of a diagnosis of multiple myeloma, but not polymyalgia rheumatica or temporal arthritis.

      If temporal arthritis is suspected, immediate treatment with prednisolone is crucial to prevent permanent loss of vision. A temporal artery biopsy can confirm the diagnosis.

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      • Rheumatology
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  • Question 8 - A 35-year-old man presents to the outpatient department with complaints of lower back...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man presents to the outpatient department with complaints of lower back pain. He used to be an active soccer player but has had to give up due to the pain.

      During the examination, there is no skin rash or history of gastrointestinal or genitourinary symptoms. The patient reports difficulty standing straight and walking in a stooped position for hours each morning before being able to stand up straight. Additionally, there is redness and pain around the right heel, and Schober's test is positive.

      What abnormalities may be found on the patient's ECG?

      Your Answer: A-V dissociation

      Correct Answer: A-V dissociation, deep S in V1 and tall R in V5

      Explanation:

      Ankylosing Spondylitis and Cardiac Manifestations

      Ankylosing spondylitis (AS) is a systemic disorder that affects multiple systems in the body. One of the extra-articular manifestations of AS is cardiac involvement, which can lead to heart block and aortic regurgitation. Chronic aortic regurgitation can cause left ventricular hypertrophy, resulting in deep S in V1 and tall R in V5. A-V dissociation is the ECG manifestation of heart block. Mortality rates are higher in patients with AS, with circulatory disease being the most common cause of death.

      P-pulmonale is not a typical manifestation of AS, but it can occur in cases of pulmonary hypertension when the right atrium is enlarged. Pulmonary fibrosis, which can occur in AS, can theoretically lead to pulmonary hypertension and p-pulmonale. Right bundle branch block is a non-specific ECG finding that can occur without any heart disease or in conditions such as atrial septal defect, ischemic heart disease, or pulmonary embolism.

      In conclusion, AS is a systemic disorder that can affect multiple systems in the body, including the heart. Cardiac involvement can lead to heart block and aortic regurgitation, which can cause left ventricular hypertrophy. Mortality rates are higher in patients with AS, with circulatory disease being the most common cause of death. While p-pulmonale is not a typical manifestation of AS, it can occur in cases of pulmonary hypertension. Right bundle branch block is a non-specific ECG finding that can occur in various conditions.

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      • Rheumatology
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  • Question 9 - A 30-year-old Afro-Caribbean woman presents with bilateral ankle and wrist pain that has...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old Afro-Caribbean woman presents with bilateral ankle and wrist pain that has been gradually worsening over the past 5 days. She complains of fatigue and feelings of lack of energy. She mentions a dry cough and shortness of breath on exertion, lasting for more than a year. On examination, her vital signs are within normal limits, except for the presence of a mild fever. There are several reddish, painful, and tender lumps on the anterior of the lower legs. A chest X-ray shows bilateral hilar masses of ,1 cm in diameter.
      Which of the following test results is most likely to be found in this patient?

      Your Answer: Elevated serum angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE)

      Explanation:

      Differentiating between Elevated Serum Markers in a Patient with Arthropathy and Hilar Lymphadenopathy

      The presence of arthropathy and hilar lymphadenopathy in a patient can be indicative of various underlying conditions. In this case, the patient’s elevated serum markers can help differentiate between potential diagnoses.

      Elevated serum angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) is a common finding in sarcoidosis, which is likely the cause of the patient’s symptoms. Bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy with or without pulmonary fibrosis is the most typical radiological sign of sarcoidosis. Additionally, acute arthropathy in sarcoidosis patients, known as Löfgren syndrome, is associated with erythema nodosum and fever.

      On the other hand, elevated cytoplasmic anti-neutrophil cytoplasmic antibody (c-ANCA) is present in granulomatosis with polyangiitis (GPA), which presents with necrotising granulomatous lesions in the upper and lower respiratory tract and renal glomeruli. It is not typically associated with hilar lymphadenopathy.

      Hyperuricaemia and elevated double-stranded (ds) DNA antibody are not relevant to this case, as they are not associated with the patient’s symptoms. Hyperglycaemia is also not a factor in this case.

      In conclusion, the combination of arthropathy and hilar lymphadenopathy can be indicative of various underlying conditions. Elevated serum markers can help differentiate between potential diagnoses, such as sarcoidosis and GPA.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
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  • Question 10 - A 68-year-old woman who has suffered many years from aggressive rheumatoid arthritis presents...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old woman who has suffered many years from aggressive rheumatoid arthritis presents for review. Most recently, she has suffered from two severe respiratory tract infections (which have been treated with oral clarithromycin) and has had worsening left upper quadrant pain. She currently takes low-dose prednisolone for her rheumatoid. On examination, there are obvious signs of active rheumatoid disease. Additionally, you can feel the tip of her spleen when you ask her to roll onto her right-hand side.
      Investigations:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Haemoglobin 91 g/l 115–155 g/l
      White cell count (WCC) 1.9 × 109/l (neutrophil 0.9) 4–11 × 109/l
      Platelets 90 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
      Rheumatoid factor +++
      Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) 52 mm/h 0–10mm in the 1st hour
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis in this case?

      Your Answer: Myeloma

      Correct Answer: Felty’s syndrome

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for a Patient with Splenomegaly, Neutropenia, and Active Rheumatoid Disease

      Felty’s Syndrome:
      The patient’s symptoms of splenomegaly, neutropenia, and active rheumatoid disease suggest Felty’s syndrome. This condition is thought to occur due to the sequestration and destruction of granulocytes, potentially caused by reduced granulocyte growth factors and autoantibodies/immune complexes formed against them. Felty’s syndrome affects 1-3% of patients with rheumatoid arthritis and has a higher prevalence in females. Treatment typically involves the use of methotrexate as a disease-modifying anti-rheumatic drug, with splenectomy reserved as a last resort.

      Lymphoma:
      While lymphoma can present with lymphadenopathy, the absence of B-symptoms such as fever, night sweats, weight loss, or pruritus makes this diagnosis less likely in this case.

      Myeloma:
      Myeloma often presents with anaemia and bone pain, as well as hypercalcaemia. Serum and urine electrophoresis are important investigations for this condition.

      Sarcoidosis:
      Sarcoidosis commonly presents with respiratory symptoms such as wheeze, cough, and shortness of breath, as well as erythema nodosum and lymphadenopathy on examination. While the patient has a history of lower respiratory tract infections, her response to clarithromycin suggests an infective cause rather than sarcoidosis.

      Tuberculosis:
      The patient does not have any clinical features or risk factors for tuberculosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Rheumatology (6/10) 60%
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