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  • Question 1 - A 72-year-old patient with chronic lymphocytic leukaemia presents to the emergency department with...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old patient with chronic lymphocytic leukaemia presents to the emergency department with haematemesis. Urgent blood tests are taken and blood products ordered from the laboratory.

      A full blood count shows:

      Hb 76 g/L Male: (135-180) Female: (115 - 160)

      Platelets 26 * 109/L (150 - 400)

      WBC 21.8 * 109/L (4.0 - 11.0)

      Which blood product carries the highest risk for this immunocompromised patient?

      Your Answer: Packed red cells

      Correct Answer: Platelets

      Explanation:

      Platelet transfusions have the highest risk of bacterial contamination due to their short shelf life and refrigeration. This patient requires both red blood cells and platelets, but caution should be taken with platelet transfusions due to the risk of contamination. Cryoprecipitate and plasma have lower contamination risks and can be stored for longer periods. Packed red cells can also be used and have a longer shelf life.

      Platelet Transfusion Guidelines for Active Bleeding and Pre-Invasive Procedures

      Platelet transfusions are recommended for patients with thrombocytopenia and clinically significant bleeding, such as haematemesis, melaena, or prolonged epistaxis, with a platelet count of less than 30 x 10 9. For severe bleeding or bleeding at critical sites, such as the CNS, platelet thresholds for transfusion are higher, with a maximum of less than 100 x 10 9. However, it should be noted that platelet transfusions have a higher risk of bacterial contamination compared to other types of blood products.

      For pre-invasive procedures, platelet transfusions are recommended to maintain platelet levels of greater than 50 x 10 9/L for most patients, 50-75 x 10 9/L for those at high risk of bleeding, and greater than 100 x 10 9/L for surgeries at critical sites. However, if there is no active bleeding or planned invasive procedure, a threshold of 10 x 10 9/L is recommended, unless platelet transfusion is contraindicated or there are alternative treatments available for the patient’s condition.

      It is important to note that platelet transfusions should not be performed for chronic bone marrow failure, autoimmune thrombocytopenia, heparin-induced thrombocytopenia, or thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura. These guidelines aim to provide appropriate and safe platelet transfusion practices for patients with thrombocytopenia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology/Oncology
      4.3
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  • Question 2 - A 26-year-old female patient comes to the clinic after discovering a lump in...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old female patient comes to the clinic after discovering a lump in her right breast. She is uncertain about how long it has been there and reports no pain or other symptoms. She has no significant medical history. During the physical examination, a smooth, rubbery, mobile mass of approximately 2 cm in diameter is palpated. The patient is immediately referred for imaging, which reveals a small, lobulated lesion measuring about 2.5cm in width, highly suggestive of a fibroadenoma. What is the next step in managing this patient?

      Your Answer: Surgical excision

      Correct Answer: Reassurance and monitoring

      Explanation:

      A young patient has a small fibroadenoma <3 cm, which is highly suggestive on imaging. There is no increase in the risk of breast cancer, so a core-needle biopsy is not necessary. Watchful waiting is appropriate, and cryoablation may be used for larger fibroadenomas. Fine-needle aspiration is only necessary for larger lumps or in older patients. Understanding Breast Fibroadenoma Breast fibroadenoma is a type of breast mass that develops from a whole lobule. It is characterized by a mobile, firm, and smooth lump in the breast, which is often referred to as a breast mouse. Fibroadenoma accounts for about 12% of all breast masses and is more common in women under the age of 30. Fortunately, fibroadenomas are usually benign and do not increase the risk of developing breast cancer. In fact, over a two-year period, up to 30% of fibroadenomas may even get smaller on their own. However, if the lump is larger than 3 cm, surgical excision is typically recommended. In summary, breast fibroadenoma is a common type of breast mass that is usually benign and does not increase the risk of breast cancer. While it may cause concern for some women, it is important to remember that most fibroadenomas do not require treatment and may even resolve on their own.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology/Oncology
      11.6
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  • Question 3 - Which one of the following scenarios would not require immediate referral to the...

    Correct

    • Which one of the following scenarios would not require immediate referral to the nearby breast service as per the guidelines of NICE?

      Your Answer: 28-year-old female with a 8 week history of a new breast lump. Benign in nature on examination

      Explanation:

      According to NICE guidelines, women who are 30 years or older should be referred urgently to the local breast services if they have an unexplained breast lump with or without pain. As the woman in question is 28 years old, she should be referred to the local breast services, but it is not urgent.

      In 2015, NICE released guidelines for referring individuals suspected of having breast cancer. If a person is 30 years or older and has an unexplained breast lump with or without pain, or if they are 50 years or older and have discharge, retraction, or other concerning changes in one nipple only, they should be referred using a suspected cancer pathway referral for an appointment within two weeks. If a person has skin changes that suggest breast cancer or is 30 years or older with an unexplained lump in the axilla, a suspected cancer pathway referral should also be considered. For individuals under 30 years old with an unexplained breast lump with or without pain, non-urgent referral should be considered.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology/Oncology
      24
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  • Question 4 - A 68-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner with worsening back pain over...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner with worsening back pain over a period of several months. She also feels generally unwell. She is exhausted, has a dry mouth and is constipated.
      Investigations:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Haemoglobin (Hb) 93 g/l 115–155 g/l
      White cell count (WCC) 6.4 × 109/l 4.0–11.0 × 109/l
      Platelets (PLT) 380 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
      Mean corpuscular volume (MCV) 100 fl 80–100 fl
      Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) 94 mm/h < 15 mm/h
      Estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR) 32 ml/min per 1.73 m2 > 90 ml/min per 1.73 m2
      Corrected calcium (Ca2+) 2.8 mmol/l 2.2–2.6 mmol/l
      What is the most appropriate initial investigation to confirm the diagnosis in this patient?

      Your Answer: Serum lactate dehydrogenase (LDH)

      Correct Answer: Serum electrophoresis

      Explanation:

      Tumor Markers and Serum Electrophoresis: Their Role in Diagnosing Multiple Myeloma

      Multiple myeloma is a malignant disease of plasma cells that can cause renal failure, normocytic anemia, hypercalcemia, and raised ESR. To diagnose multiple myeloma, serum electrophoresis, serum-free light-chain assay, and assessment of urinary Bence Jones protein are recommended. Serum electrophoresis confirms the presence of a paraprotein, which may be due to myeloma or MGUS. Further tests, such as bone marrow biopsy, magnetic resonance imaging, and immunofixation of serum and urine, are usually carried out in secondary care to confirm the diagnosis.

      Carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA), CA 19-9, serum lactate dehydrogenase (LDH), and CA125 are tumor markers used to monitor disease progression in various cancers. However, there is no role for these markers in diagnosing multiple myeloma. CEA is mainly used to monitor the progress of treatment for colonic cancer, while CA 19-9 is used to monitor disease progression in pancreatic cancer. LDH is raised in lymphoma and certain types of testicular cancer, and CA125 is used in the diagnosis of ovarian cancer. Therefore, these markers are not useful in diagnosing multiple myeloma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology/Oncology
      170.9
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  • Question 5 - In the UK, which malignancy is most frequently diagnosed in women? ...

    Correct

    • In the UK, which malignancy is most frequently diagnosed in women?

      Your Answer: Breast cancer

      Explanation:

      Most Common Cancers in Women in the UK

      Breast cancer is the most frequently diagnosed cancer in women in the UK, with approximately 54,800 cases in 2014. Lung cancer follows as the second most common cancer in women, with around 21,600 cases diagnosed in the same year. Bowel cancer ranks third, with approximately 18,400 cases diagnosed in 2014. Uterine cancer is the fourth most common cancer in women, with around 9,300 cases diagnosed. Leukaemia is the eleventh most common cancer in women, with approximately 3,800 cases diagnosed in 2014. These statistics are according to Cancer Research UK.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology/Oncology
      34.4
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  • Question 6 - A 25-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of fatigue. Upon conducting blood...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of fatigue. Upon conducting blood tests, the following results are obtained:
      - Hemoglobin (Hb): 10.4 g/dl
      - Platelets (Plt): 278 * 109/l
      - White blood cell count (WCC): 6.3 * 109/l
      - Mean corpuscular volume (MCV): 65 fl
      - Hemoglobin A2 (HbA2): 4.5% (< 3%)

      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Beta-thalassaemia trait

      Explanation:

      When a female presents with microcytic anaemia, it is important to consider potential causes such as gastrointestinal bleeding or menorrhagia. However, if there is no history of these conditions and the microcytosis is not proportional to the haemoglobin level, beta-thalassaemia trait should be considered as a possible diagnosis, especially if HbA2 levels are elevated.

      Understanding Beta-Thalassaemia Trait

      Beta-thalassaemia trait is a genetic disorder that affects the production rate of beta chains. It is an autosomal recessive condition that results in a mild hypochromic, microcytic anaemia. This condition is usually asymptomatic, meaning that it does not show any noticeable symptoms. However, it is important to note that microcytosis is characteristically disproportionate to the anaemia. Additionally, individuals with beta-thalassaemia trait have raised levels of HbA2, which is typically greater than 3.5%. Understanding beta-thalassaemia trait is crucial for individuals who may be carriers of this genetic disorder.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology/Oncology
      69.8
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  • Question 7 - A 36-year-old woman comes to the clinic with a lump in her left...

    Correct

    • A 36-year-old woman comes to the clinic with a lump in her left breast. She has recently lost approximately 1.5 stone in weight by attending a weight loss program. During the examination, a firm lump is detected in her left breast that is not mobile but not attached to the underlying muscle. She recalls being hit by a squash ball in this area a few months ago. What is the probable reason for her lump?

      Your Answer: Fat necrosis

      Explanation:

      When a woman presents with a breast lump, fat necrosis should be considered as a possible diagnosis if there is a history of trauma to the area. This condition typically presents as a firm lump that may be accompanied by bruising. Fibroadenomas, on the other hand, are more commonly seen in younger women and present as a mobile but firm lump that can be easily moved during examination. Breast cysts are fluid-filled masses that may be detected if they are large enough and can fluctuate or transilluminate. Breast abscesses are typically seen in breastfeeding women and present as a hot, tender swelling. While breast cancer is unlikely based on the clinical history, all women with a breast lump should be referred to a specialist for confirmation of diagnosis through triple assessment. It is important to note that intentional weight loss, as in this case, should not be considered a factor in the diagnosis.

      Understanding Fat Necrosis of the Breast

      Fat necrosis of the breast is a condition that affects up to 40% of cases and is often caused by trauma. This condition can be mistaken for breast cancer due to its physical features, such as a mass that may initially increase in size. It is important to understand that fat necrosis is not cancerous and can be treated with proper care.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology/Oncology
      18.7
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  • Question 8 - A 32-year-old patient presents with a month-long fever and occasional afebrile episodes. Blood...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old patient presents with a month-long fever and occasional afebrile episodes. Blood cultures and infection screening have yielded negative results. During examination, the patient has a temperature of 38°C and nontender lymph nodes in the neck. What is the most crucial step in reaching a diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Lymph node biopsy

      Explanation:

      The Importance of Lymph Node Biopsy in Diagnosing Hodgkin’s Lymphoma

      When it comes to diagnosing Hodgkin’s lymphoma, a lymph node biopsy is the most reliable method. Fine-needle aspiration should not be used as the sole method for diagnosis. In addition to the biopsy, a thorough evaluation should include a medical history and examination, blood tests, liver function tests, serum protein tests, HIV testing, chest radiograph, CT scans, and bone marrow biopsy. Gallium scans can also be performed to document radioisotope uptake by the tumor. Lymphangiography may be necessary if the presentation of Hodgkin’s lymphoma is subdiaphragmatic. While a raised ESR can indicate Hodgkin’s lymphoma, it is not the most important step in obtaining a diagnosis. Similarly, repeating a CRP test or blood cultures would not be appropriate if the initial results were negative. In summary, a lymph node biopsy is crucial in diagnosing Hodgkin’s lymphoma and should be the first step in the evaluation process.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology/Oncology
      16.5
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  • Question 9 - A 38-year-old man presents to the infertility clinic with a low sperm count...

    Incorrect

    • A 38-year-old man presents to the infertility clinic with a low sperm count and suspected left varicocele, as noted by his GP. He also has a history of hypertension treated with ramipril and has been experiencing night sweats intermittently over the past few months. His FBC shows anaemia and his ESR is markedly raised. Additionally, haematuria is present on urinalysis. What is the most likely diagnosis for this clinical presentation?

      Your Answer: Testicular carcinoma

      Correct Answer: Renal cell carcinoma

      Explanation:

      Renal Cell Carcinoma: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Prognosis

      Renal cell carcinoma is a type of kidney cancer that often presents with haematuria, loin pain, and a flank mass. However, other symptoms such as weight loss, fatigue, and pyrexia may also occur. In some cases, paraneoplastic symptoms like a raised ESR may be present. Diagnosis involves FBC to check for anaemia or polycythaemia. Left-sided varicocele may also occur due to tumour invasion of the left renal vein. Prognosis depends on the tumour stage at diagnosis, with a 5-year survival rate of 60-70% for tumours confined to the renal parenchyma, 15-35% for lymph node involvement, and only 5% for distant metastases. It is important to differentiate renal cell carcinoma from other conditions such as lymphoma, multiple myeloma, testicular carcinoma, and chronic urinary tract infection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology/Oncology
      424.3
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 30-year-old female patient visits the GP clinic with a tiny lump in...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old female patient visits the GP clinic with a tiny lump in her right breast. Upon examination, a smooth fluctuant lump is found in the right upper quadrant of the breast. The patient is referred to the breast clinic for an ultrasound scan, which reveals a 2cm cyst in the right upper quadrant of the breast. What is the most suitable course of action for management?

      Your Answer: Wide local excision

      Correct Answer: Aspiration of the cyst

      Explanation:

      Aspirating breast cysts is necessary due to the potential risk of breast cancer, particularly in younger women. Merely monitoring the cysts with ultrasound or mammogram without aspiration is not a suitable approach. There is no need for wide local excision at this point. Providing false reassurance to the patient is not advisable.

      Benign breast lesions have different features and treatments. Fibroadenomas are firm, mobile lumps that develop from a whole lobule and usually do not increase the risk of malignancy. Breast cysts are smooth, discrete lumps that may be aspirated, but blood-stained or persistently refilling cysts should be biopsied or excised. Sclerosing adenosis, radial scars, and complex sclerosing lesions cause mammographic changes that may mimic carcinoma, but do not increase the risk of malignancy. Epithelial hyperplasia may present as general lumpiness or a discrete lump, and atypical features and family history of breast cancer increase the risk of malignancy. Fat necrosis may mimic carcinoma and requires imaging and core biopsy. Duct papillomas usually present with nipple discharge and may require microdochectomy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology/Oncology
      24.5
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  • Question 11 - A 67-year-old woman presents to the breast clinic with an abnormal mammogram and...

    Correct

    • A 67-year-old woman presents to the breast clinic with an abnormal mammogram and a small fixed lump in her right breast. What type of breast cancer is most frequently encountered?

      Your Answer: Invasive ductal carcinoma (no special type)

      Explanation:

      The most prevalent form of breast cancer is invasive ductal carcinoma, without any distinctive features.

      Breast Cancer: Understanding Types and Classification

      Breast cancer can be classified based on the type of tissue it originates from, namely duct or lobular tissue. Ductal carcinoma and lobular carcinoma are the two main types of breast cancer, which can further be classified as either carcinoma-in-situ or invasive. Invasive ductal carcinoma, also known as No Special Type, is the most common type of breast cancer. Lobular carcinoma and other rare types of breast cancer are classified as Special Type.

      Apart from the common types, there are several rarer types of breast cancer, including medullary breast cancer, mucinous breast cancer, tubular breast cancer, adenoid cystic carcinoma of the breast, metaplastic breast cancer, lymphoma of the breast, basal type breast cancer, phyllodes or cystosarcoma phyllodes, and papillary breast cancer. Paget’s disease of the nipple is another type of breast cancer that is associated with an underlying mass lesion. Inflammatory breast cancer is a rare type of breast cancer that results in an inflamed appearance of the breast due to cancerous cells blocking the lymph drainage.

      Understanding the different types and classifications of breast cancer is crucial for accurate diagnosis and treatment. It is important to note that some types of breast cancer may be associated with underlying lesions seen in the common types, rather than being completely separate subtypes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology/Oncology
      14.8
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  • Question 12 - A 14-year-old girl is referred to haematology due to heavy and prolonged periods...

    Correct

    • A 14-year-old girl is referred to haematology due to heavy and prolonged periods that have not responded well to tranexamic acid and the combined oral contraceptive pill. Her blood tests reveal Hb of 10.3 g/dl, Plt of 239 * 109/l, WBC of 6.5 * 109/l, PT of 12.9 secs, and APTT of 37 secs. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Von Willebrand's disease

      Explanation:

      Understanding Von Willebrand’s Disease

      Von Willebrand’s disease is a common inherited bleeding disorder that is usually passed down in an autosomal dominant manner. It behaves like a platelet disorder, with symptoms such as nosebleeds and heavy menstrual bleeding being common, while joint and muscle bleeding are rare. The disease is caused by a deficiency or abnormality in von Willebrand factor, a large glycoprotein that promotes platelet adhesion to damaged endothelium and acts as a carrier molecule for factor VIII.

      There are three types of Von Willebrand’s disease. Type 1 is the most common and is characterized by a partial reduction in von Willebrand factor. Type 2 is further divided into four subtypes, each with a different abnormality in the von Willebrand factor. Type 3 is the most severe form and is caused by a total lack of von Willebrand factor, inherited in an autosomal recessive manner.

      Diagnosis of Von Willebrand’s disease involves tests such as a prolonged bleeding time, APTT, factor VIII levels, and platelet aggregation with ristocetin. Management options include tranexamic acid for mild bleeding, desmopressin to raise levels of von Willebrand factor, and factor VIII concentrate. While there is no clear correlation between symptomatic presentation and type of Von Willebrand’s disease, common themes among patients include excessive mucocutaneous bleeding, bruising in the absence of trauma, and menorrhagia in females.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology/Oncology
      137.1
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  • Question 13 - A 62-year-old businessman presents with bilateral leg weakness that has suddenly become worse...

    Correct

    • A 62-year-old businessman presents with bilateral leg weakness that has suddenly become worse over the last 12 hours. Some 10 months ago he had a lobar resection for a stage II squamous cell carcinoma, followed by radiotherapy and adjuvant chemotherapy. On examination there is reduced power and altered sensation in both legs.
      Which of the following is the most likely cause of the current problem?

      Your Answer: Spinal cord compression as a result of vertebral metastases

      Explanation:

      Differential diagnosis of spinal cord-related symptoms in cancer patients

      Spinal cord-related symptoms can be a medical emergency in cancer patients, requiring prompt diagnosis and treatment. Several conditions can cause similar symptoms, including spinal cord compression, spinal tuberculosis, peripheral neuropathy secondary to carcinomatosis, paraneoplastic myelopathy, and secondary spinal tumor deposit.

      Spinal cord compression is a common complication of metastatic cancer, especially from breast, bronchus, prostate, multiple myeloma, and high-grade non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma. The classic triad of symptoms includes bilateral leg weakness, sensory loss, and bladder/bowel dysfunction, but back pain may be absent or delayed. Imaging studies, such as plain radiographs and MRI, are essential for diagnosis, and treatment options include steroids, neurosurgery, and radiotherapy.

      Spinal tuberculosis is a rare but serious infection that can affect the spine and cause bone or joint pain, back pain, or swelling. It usually requires a combination of antibiotics and surgery to cure.

      Peripheral neuropathy secondary to carcinomatosis is a gradual and often mild onset of nerve damage caused by cancer cells or cancer treatments. It can present with various sensory, motor, or autonomic symptoms, depending on the location and extent of nerve involvement.

      Paraneoplastic myelopathy is a rare but potentially severe neurological disorder that can occur in some cancer patients, especially those with small-cell or squamous cell lung cancer. It is caused by an abnormal immune response to cancer cells, leading to inflammation and damage to the spinal cord.

      Secondary spinal tumor deposit is a less common cause of spinal cord-related symptoms than spinal cord compression, but it can also occur in cancer patients with metastatic disease. It may present with similar symptoms and require similar diagnostic and therapeutic approaches.

      In summary, cancer patients with spinal cord-related symptoms should undergo a thorough evaluation to determine the underlying cause and appropriate management. Early recognition and treatment can improve outcomes and quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology/Oncology
      21.7
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  • Question 14 - A 16-year-old girl comes to the clinic with a palpable purpuric rash on...

    Correct

    • A 16-year-old girl comes to the clinic with a palpable purpuric rash on her lower limbs and polyarthralgia after experiencing a recent sore throat. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Henoch-Schonlein purpura

      Explanation:

      Understanding Henoch-Schonlein Purpura

      Henoch-Schonlein purpura (HSP) is a type of small vessel vasculitis that is mediated by IgA. It is often associated with IgA nephropathy, also known as Berger’s disease. HSP is commonly observed in children following an infection.

      The condition is characterized by a palpable purpuric rash, which is accompanied by localized oedema over the buttocks and extensor surfaces of the arms and legs. Other symptoms include abdominal pain, polyarthritis, and features of IgA nephropathy such as haematuria and renal failure.

      Treatment for HSP involves analgesia for arthralgia, while management of nephropathy is generally supportive. There is inconsistent evidence for the use of steroids and immunosuppressants.

      The prognosis for HSP is usually excellent, especially in children without renal involvement. The condition is self-limiting, but around one-third of patients may experience a relapse. It is important to monitor blood pressure and urinalysis to detect any progressive renal involvement.

      Overall, understanding Henoch-Schonlein purpura is crucial for prompt diagnosis and management of the condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology/Oncology
      8.8
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  • Question 15 - A 50-year-old woman comes to her GP with bloody discharge from her left...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman comes to her GP with bloody discharge from her left nipple. She is extremely worried as she has discovered a small lump on the same breast while examining it after noticing the discharge. She has no medical history and does not take any regular medication. She mentions that her sister had breast cancer a few years ago. She denies any injury to the area. She has never given birth and still has regular periods. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Fat necrosis

      Correct Answer: Duct papilloma

      Explanation:

      The presence of blood-stained discharge and a small lumpy mass in this patient suggests that they may have duct papilloma. This condition typically affects middle-aged women and develops in the lactiferous ducts beneath the nipple, causing a lumpy mass and bloody discharge. While fat necrosis can also occur in women with large breasts, it is less likely in this case as the patient has not reported any trauma. Fibroadenoma, on the other hand, is not associated with bloody nipple discharge and is typically found in younger women as a firm, non-tender mass. Fibroadenosis, which causes painful and lumpy breasts, is most commonly seen in middle-aged women and may worsen before menstruation.

      Breast Disorders: Common Features and Characteristics

      Breast disorders are a common occurrence among women of all ages. The most common breast disorders include fibroadenoma, fibroadenosis, breast cancer, Paget’s disease of the breast, mammary duct ectasia, duct papilloma, fat necrosis, and breast abscess. Fibroadenoma is a non-tender, highly mobile lump that is common in women under the age of 30. Fibroadenosis, on the other hand, is characterized by lumpy breasts that may be painful, especially before menstruation. Breast cancer is a hard, irregular lump that may be accompanied by nipple inversion or skin tethering. Paget’s disease of the breast is associated with a reddening and thickening of the nipple/areola, while mammary duct ectasia is characterized by dilatation of the large breast ducts, which may cause a tender lump around the areola and a green nipple discharge. Duct papilloma is characterized by local areas of epithelial proliferation in large mammary ducts, while fat necrosis is more common in obese women with large breasts and may mimic breast cancer. Breast abscess, on the other hand, is more common in lactating women and is characterized by a red, hot, and tender swelling. Lipomas and sebaceous cysts may also develop around the breast tissue.

      Common Features and Characteristics of Breast Disorders

      Breast disorders are a common occurrence among women of all ages. The most common breast disorders include fibroadenoma, fibroadenosis, breast cancer, Paget’s disease of the breast, mammary duct ectasia, duct papilloma, fat necrosis, and breast abscess. Each of these disorders has its own unique features and characteristics that can help identify them. Understanding these features and characteristics can help women identify potential breast disorders and seek appropriate medical attention. It is important to note that while some breast disorders may be benign, others may be malignant or premalignant, and further investigation is always warranted. Regular breast exams and mammograms can also help detect breast disorders early, increasing the chances of successful treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology/Oncology
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  • Question 16 - A 32-year-old patient who is a vegan and very active has been experiencing...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old patient who is a vegan and very active has been experiencing fatigue and difficulty breathing for the past two months. During examination, she appears to be anaemic.
      What is the most probable vitamin deficiency causing her anaemia?

      Your Answer: Vitamin B12

      Explanation:

      Vegan Nutrition: Understanding the Availability of Vitamins

      As a vegan, it is important to understand the availability of vitamins in your diet. One vitamin that vegans are at risk of deficiency in is vitamin B12, which is primarily found in animal products such as meat, fish, eggs, and milk. However, there are vegan-friendly sources of vitamin B12 such as fortified cereals and plant-based milks.

      Contrary to popular belief, vitamin B6, vitamin A, vitamin B1, and vitamin C are all readily available in vegan-friendly foods. Vitamin B6 can be found in bread, whole grains, vegetables, peanuts, and potatoes. Vitamin A can be found in yellow, red, and green vegetables as well as yellow fruits. Vitamin B1 can be found in peas, fruit, whole grain bread, and fortified cereals. Vitamin C is predominantly found in fruits and vegetables such as oranges, peppers, strawberries, broccoli, potatoes, and Brussels sprouts.

      By understanding the availability of vitamins in vegan-friendly foods, vegans can ensure they are meeting their nutritional needs and maintaining a healthy diet.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology/Oncology
      25
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  • Question 17 - A 72-year-old man with metastatic breast cancer presents to surgery with his wife....

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old man with metastatic breast cancer presents to surgery with his wife. He has known bone metastases in his pelvis and ribs, but his pain is not adequately managed with paracetamol, diclofenac, and MST 30 mg bd. His wife reports that he is using 10mg of oral morphine solution approximately 6-7 times a day for breakthrough pain. The hospice palliative care team attempted to use a bisphosphonate, but it resulted in persistent myalgia and arthralgia. What is the next appropriate step?

      Your Answer: Increase MST + suggest course of complimentary therapies

      Correct Answer: Increase MST + refer for radiotherapy

      Explanation:

      Palliative care prescribing for pain is guided by NICE and SIGN guidelines. NICE recommends starting treatment with regular oral modified-release or immediate-release morphine, with immediate-release morphine for breakthrough pain. Laxatives should be prescribed for all patients initiating strong opioids, and antiemetics should be offered if nausea persists. Drowsiness is usually transient, but if it persists, the dose should be adjusted. SIGN advises that the breakthrough dose of morphine is one-sixth the daily dose, and all patients receiving opioids should be prescribed a laxative. Opioids should be used with caution in patients with chronic kidney disease, and oxycodone is preferred to morphine in patients with mild-moderate renal impairment. Metastatic bone pain may respond to strong opioids, bisphosphonates, or radiotherapy, and all patients should be considered for referral to a clinical oncologist for further treatment. When increasing the dose of opioids, the next dose should be increased by 30-50%. Conversion factors between opioids are also provided. Opioid side-effects are usually transient, such as nausea and drowsiness, but constipation can persist. In addition to strong opioids, bisphosphonates, and radiotherapy, denosumab may be used to treat metastatic bone pain.

      Overall, the guidelines recommend starting with regular oral morphine and adjusting the dose as needed. Laxatives should be prescribed to prevent constipation, and antiemetics may be needed for nausea. Opioids should be used with caution in patients with chronic kidney disease, and oxycodone is preferred in patients with mild-moderate renal impairment. Metastatic bone pain may respond to strong opioids, bisphosphonates, or radiotherapy, and referral to a clinical oncologist should be considered. Conversion factors between opioids are provided, and the next dose should be increased by 30-50% when adjusting the dose. Opioid side-effects are usually transient, but constipation can persist. Denosumab may also be used to treat metastatic bone pain.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology/Oncology
      28
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  • Question 18 - A 43-year-old man is being evaluated for anemia by his primary care physician....

    Incorrect

    • A 43-year-old man is being evaluated for anemia by his primary care physician. He has been experiencing mild shortness of breath for the past 3 months. His medical history is significant for a previous diagnosis of polymyalgia rheumatica.

      The results of his recent blood tests are as follows:
      - Hemoglobin (Hb): 98 g/L (Male: 135-180, Female: 115-160)
      - Mean Corpuscular Volume (MCV): 77 fl (76-95 fl)
      - Ferritin: 195 ng/mL (20-230)
      - Total Iron Binding Capacity: 610 µg/dL (250-450)

      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Anaemia of chronic disease

      Correct Answer: Iron deficient anaemia

      Explanation:

      The patient’s anaemia is complex and could have multiple causes. The anaemia is microcytic/normocytic and is accompanied by normal ferritin levels and elevated TIBC. However, the patient also has polymyalgia rheumatica, an inflammatory disorder that can affect ferritin levels. Ferritin is an acute-phase reactant and can be elevated in inflammation, making it an unreliable measurement.

      Iron-deficient anaemia typically presents as microcytic with high TIBC levels. The high TIBC is due to the body’s ability to transport iron despite low iron levels. Iron-deficient anaemia also has low ferritin levels, but this may not be the case in this patient due to their chronic inflammatory condition. Therefore, iron-deficient anaemia is the most likely diagnosis due to the high TIBC levels.

      Anaemia of chronic disease is also normocytic but typically has low or normal TIBC levels. This is because iron is trapped in inflammatory tissue and not available for use, reducing the body’s ability to transport free iron.

      B12 deficiency results in macrocytic anaemia, which is not the case in this patient. Haemolytic anaemia is a rare form of anaemia that results in normocytic anaemia and does not explain the abnormalities in iron studies seen in this patient.

      Iron Studies: Understanding the Different Tests

      Iron studies are a group of laboratory tests that help evaluate a person’s iron status. These tests include serum iron, total iron binding capacity (TIBC), transferrin, transferrin saturation, and ferritin. Serum iron measures the amount of iron in the blood, while TIBC measures the amount of iron that can bind to transferrin, a protein that transports iron in the blood. Transferrin saturation is calculated by dividing serum iron by TIBC, and it reflects the percentage of transferrin that is saturated with iron. Ferritin, on the other hand, is a protein that stores iron in the body, and its level in the blood can indicate the amount of iron stored in the body.

      In iron deficiency anaemia (IDA), the levels of serum iron and transferrin saturation are low, while TIBC and transferrin are high. Ferritin levels are also low in IDA. However, in pregnancy and in the presence of oestrogen, transferrin levels may be elevated. Inflammatory disorders, on the other hand, can cause an increase in ferritin levels.

      Other rarer tests that may be used to evaluate iron status include transferrin receptors, which are increased in IDA, and tests for anaemia of chronic disease, which is a normochromic/hypochromic, normocytic anaemia characterized by reduced serum and TIBC levels and normal or raised ferritin levels. Understanding these different tests can help healthcare providers diagnose and manage iron-related disorders.

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      • Haematology/Oncology
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  • Question 19 - A 38-year-old woman of Afro-Caribbean origin presents to the Oncology Clinic under the...

    Correct

    • A 38-year-old woman of Afro-Caribbean origin presents to the Oncology Clinic under the 2-week-wait pathway. She has been noticing some lumps on her neck that are classified as painless, nontender, asymmetrical lymphadenopathy. She complains of increasing night sweats and has noticed some pain when drinking alcohol.
      Given the likely diagnosis, which one of the following features is associated with a poor prognosis?

      Your Answer: Night sweats

      Explanation:

      Understanding Hodgkin’s Lymphoma: Symptoms and Prognosis Factors

      Hodgkin’s lymphoma is a type of cancer that affects the lymphatic system. One of the most common symptoms of this malignancy is painless, non-tender, asymmetrical lymphadenopathy. However, the presence of night sweats, fever, and weight loss can also indicate a diagnosis of Hodgkin’s lymphoma. Patients of Afro-Caribbean origin may have a worse prognosis in acute lymphoblastic leukaemia, but not in Hodgkin’s lymphoma. Alcohol-induced pain is a characteristic feature of some cases of Hodgkin’s lymphoma, but it has not been associated with a poor prognosis. Asymmetrical lymphadenopathy is a typical feature of Hodgkin’s lymphoma and has not been linked to a worse prognosis. Finally, while female sex has not been associated with poor prognosis, some studies suggest that male sex could be connected with a poorer outcome.

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      • Haematology/Oncology
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  • Question 20 - A 57-year-old woman with a long history of sun exposure presents to the...

    Incorrect

    • A 57-year-old woman with a long history of sun exposure presents to the accident and emergency department after a fracture of her right femur associated with a minor fall. On reviewing the films with the on-call radiographer you are concerned about a lytic lesion possibly being related to the fracture.
      Which of the following primary tumours most commonly metastasises to bone?

      Your Answer: Gastric carcinoma

      Correct Answer: Bronchial carcinoma

      Explanation:

      Metastasis Patterns of Common Carcinomas

      Carcinomas are malignant tumors that can spread to other parts of the body through a process called metastasis. The patterns of metastasis vary depending on the type of carcinoma. Here are some common carcinomas and their typical metastasis patterns:

      Bronchial Carcinoma: This type of carcinoma often spreads to the bone or brain. Symptoms may include difficulty breathing, coughing, chest pain, weight loss, and fatigue.

      Brain Carcinoma: Primary malignant brain tumors rarely spread to other parts of the body, but they can spread to surrounding areas of the brain and spinal cord.

      Renal Carcinoma: Renal cancers commonly metastasize to the lungs, producing lesions that appear like cannonballs on a chest X-ray. They can also spread to the bone, causing osteolytic lesions.

      Gastric Carcinoma: Gastric cancers tend to spread to the liver, lung, and peritoneum. Tumors that have a preference for bone metastasis include those of the lung, prostate, breast, kidney, and thyroid.

      Colorectal Carcinoma: Colorectal cancers commonly metastasize to the liver, lung, and peritoneum. Tumors that have a preference for bone metastasis include those of the lung, prostate, breast, kidney, and thyroid.

      Understanding the patterns of metastasis for different types of carcinomas can help with early detection and treatment. If you experience any symptoms or have concerns, it’s important to speak with your healthcare provider.

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      • Haematology/Oncology
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  • Question 21 - A 25-year-old man with sickle cell anaemia complains of fatigue, paleness and a...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old man with sickle cell anaemia complains of fatigue, paleness and a headache. Laboratory findings reveal Hb of 66 g/L and reticulocytes of 0.8%. The patient is suspected to have contracted parvovirus. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Aplastic crisis

      Explanation:

      An aplastic crisis, often caused by parvovirus infection, is characterized by a sudden decrease in haemoglobin levels without a corresponding increase in reticulocytes.

      Sickle cell anaemia is a condition that involves periods of good health with intermittent crises. There are several types of crises that can occur, including thrombotic or painful crises, sequestration, acute chest syndrome, aplastic, and haemolytic. Thrombotic crises, also known as painful crises or vaso-occlusive crises, are triggered by factors such as infection, dehydration, and deoxygenation. These crises are diagnosed clinically and can result in infarcts in various organs, including the bones, lungs, spleen, and brain.

      Sequestration crises occur when sickling occurs within organs such as the spleen or lungs, leading to pooling of blood and worsening of anaemia. This type of crisis is associated with an increased reticulocyte count. Acute chest syndrome is caused by vaso-occlusion within the pulmonary microvasculature, resulting in infarction in the lung parenchyma. Symptoms include dyspnoea, chest pain, pulmonary infiltrates on chest x-ray, and low pO2. Management involves pain relief, respiratory support, antibiotics, and transfusion.

      Aplastic crises are caused by infection with parvovirus and result in a sudden fall in haemoglobin. Bone marrow suppression leads to a reduced reticulocyte count. Haemolytic crises are rare and involve a fall in haemoglobin due to an increased rate of haemolysis. It is important to recognise and manage these crises promptly, as they can lead to serious complications and even death.

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      • Haematology/Oncology
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  • Question 22 - A 48-year-old woman is referred to the oncology clinic by the local general...

    Correct

    • A 48-year-old woman is referred to the oncology clinic by the local general surgeon. She has undergone a mastectomy for carcinoma of the right breast.
      Which of the following factors is associated with a poor prognosis in patients with breast cancer?

      Your Answer: Young age

      Explanation:

      Prognostic Factors in Breast Cancer and Their Impact on Survival

      Breast cancer prognosis is influenced by several factors, including axillary nodal status, tumour type and grade, lymphatic/vascular invasion/proliferation markers, ethnicity, patient age at diagnosis, oestrogen receptor and progesterone receptor status, and HER2/neu overexpression. Younger patients tend to have more aggressive tumours, which increases their risk of recurrence and mortality over their lifetimes.

      Oestrogen receptor-positive tumours have a better prognosis and can be treated with tamoxifen, which increases survival rates. Progesterone receptor-positive tumours also have a good prognosis and can be targeted using HER2 receptor modulators like tamoxifen. On the other hand, oestrogen receptor-negative and progesterone receptor-negative tumours are associated with a poor prognosis.

      Tumour grade is another important prognostic factor, with high-grade tumours being linked to a poorer prognosis. Additionally, a positive lymph node status is a poor prognostic factor, as the risk of recurrence increases with the number of affected nodes.

      In summary, understanding these prognostic factors can help healthcare professionals tailor treatment plans and provide patients with more accurate information about their prognosis and survival.

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      • Haematology/Oncology
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  • Question 23 - A 76-year-old male with a history of COPD and metastatic lung cancer is...

    Incorrect

    • A 76-year-old male with a history of COPD and metastatic lung cancer is admitted with worsening shortness of breath. After consulting with family, it is determined that active treatment, including fluids and antibiotics, will be withdrawn as this admission is likely a terminal event. However, two days later, the patient becomes restless and agitated. What is the best course of action in managing this situation?

      Your Answer: Intramuscular haloperidol

      Correct Answer: Subcutaneous midazolam

      Explanation:

      Palliative Care Prescribing for Agitation and Confusion

      When dealing with agitation and confusion in palliative care patients, it is important to identify and treat any underlying causes such as hypercalcaemia, infection, urinary retention, or medication. If these specific treatments fail, medication can be used to manage symptoms. Haloperidol is the first choice for treating agitation and confusion, with chlorpromazine and levomepromazine as alternative options. In the terminal phase of the illness, midazolam is the preferred medication for managing agitation or restlessness. Proper management of these symptoms can greatly improve the quality of life for palliative care patients.

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      • Haematology/Oncology
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  • Question 24 - A 78-year-old woman presents to her general practitioner with a painless lump in...

    Correct

    • A 78-year-old woman presents to her general practitioner with a painless lump in her groin that she noticed 2 weeks ago. The lump has grown slightly since she first noticed it. On examination, a hard lump is palpable on her left labia majora and she has left inguinal lymphadenopathy. She has no significant past medical history and no known allergies.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Vulval carcinoma

      Explanation:

      A possible diagnosis for an older woman with a labial lump and inguinal lymphadenopathy is vulval carcinoma, especially if the lump is firm and has grown rapidly over a short period of time. Risk factors for this condition include advanced age, smoking, and HPV infection. Bartholin’s cyst, condylomata lata, lipoma, and sebaceous cyst are less likely diagnoses, as they do not typically present with the same symptoms or risk factors as vulval carcinoma.

      Understanding Vulval Carcinoma

      Vulval carcinoma is a type of cancer that affects the vulva, which is the external female genitalia. It is a relatively rare condition, with only around 1,200 cases diagnosed in the UK each year. The majority of cases occur in women over the age of 65 years, and around 80% of cases are squamous cell carcinomas.

      There are several risk factors associated with vulval carcinoma, including human papilloma virus (HPV) infection, vulval intraepithelial neoplasia (VIN), immunosuppression, and lichen sclerosus. Symptoms of vulval carcinoma may include a lump or ulcer on the labia majora, inguinal lymphadenopathy, and itching or irritation.

      It is important for women to be aware of the risk factors and symptoms of vulval carcinoma, and to seek medical attention if they experience any concerning symptoms. Early detection and treatment can improve outcomes and increase the chances of a full recovery.

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      • Haematology/Oncology
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  • Question 25 - A 42-year-old woman is found to have breast cancer. She has no significant...

    Correct

    • A 42-year-old woman is found to have breast cancer. She has no significant medical history, is premenopausal, and has no family history of breast or ovarian cancer. The cancer is in its early stages and she undergoes a wide-local excision followed by whole-breast radiotherapy. The pathology report reveals that the tumour is positive for oestrogen receptors but negative for HER2. What is the most probable adjuvant treatment that she will be recommended?

      Your Answer: Tamoxifen

      Explanation:

      The use of Tamoxifen is limited to pre-menopausal women, and there is a continuing discussion regarding the duration of therapy, whether it should be for 5 years or more.

      Breast cancer management varies depending on the stage of the cancer, type of tumor, and patient’s medical history. Treatment options may include surgery, radiotherapy, hormone therapy, biological therapy, and chemotherapy. Surgery is typically the first option for most patients, except for elderly patients with metastatic disease who may benefit more from hormonal therapy. Prior to surgery, an axillary ultrasound is recommended for patients without palpable axillary lymphadenopathy, while those with clinically palpable lymphadenopathy require axillary node clearance. The type of surgery offered depends on various factors, such as tumor size, location, and type. Breast reconstruction is also an option for patients who have undergone a mastectomy.

      Radiotherapy is recommended after a wide-local excision to reduce the risk of recurrence, while mastectomy patients may receive radiotherapy for T3-T4 tumors or those with four or more positive axillary nodes. Hormonal therapy is offered if tumors are positive for hormone receptors, with tamoxifen being used in pre- and peri-menopausal women and aromatase inhibitors like anastrozole in post-menopausal women. Tamoxifen may increase the risk of endometrial cancer, venous thromboembolism, and menopausal symptoms. Biological therapy, such as trastuzumab, is used for HER2-positive tumors but cannot be used in patients with a history of heart disorders. Chemotherapy may be used before or after surgery, depending on the stage of the tumor and the presence of axillary node disease. FEC-D is commonly used in the latter case.

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      • Haematology/Oncology
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  • Question 26 - A 42-year-old female presents to her primary care physician with a 2-month history...

    Correct

    • A 42-year-old female presents to her primary care physician with a 2-month history of progressive fatigue. She has a medical history of type-1 diabetes mellitus. Her doctor orders a full blood count, which reveals a low Hb and high mean cell volume. The platelet and WBC counts are within normal limits. Which antibody test should be performed to assist in the diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Intrinsic-factor antibodies

      Explanation:

      When investigating vitamin B12 deficiency, intrinsic factor antibodies are more useful than gastric parietal cell antibodies due to the low specificity of the latter. Megaloblastic anaemia, characterized by low haemoglobin and raised mean cell volume, can be caused by B12 or folate deficiency and may indicate pernicious anaemia, an autoimmune condition that impairs B12 uptake. Intrinsic factor antibodies are more specific for pernicious anaemia and are commonly used to confirm the diagnosis along with a blood test. Anti-histone antibodies are involved in drug-induced lupus caused by certain drugs. Anti-TTG antibodies are used to screen for coeliac disease, which can cause microcytic anaemia due to iron deficiency from malabsorption. While gastric parietal cell antibodies are linked to pernicious anaemia, their low specificity makes them less reliable for diagnosis compared to intrinsic factor antibodies.

      Understanding Pernicious Anaemia

      Pernicious anaemia is a condition that results in vitamin B12 deficiency due to an autoimmune disorder affecting the gastric mucosa. The term pernicious means causing harm in a gradual or subtle way, and this is reflected in the often subtle symptoms and delayed diagnosis of the condition. While pernicious anaemia is the most common cause of vitamin B12 deficiency, other causes include atrophic gastritis, gastrectomy, and malnutrition.

      The pathophysiology of pernicious anaemia involves antibodies to intrinsic factor and/or gastric parietal cells. These antibodies can bind to intrinsic factor, blocking the vitamin B12 binding site, or reduce acid production and cause atrophic gastritis. This leads to reduced intrinsic factor production and reduced vitamin B12 absorption, which can result in megaloblastic anaemia and neuropathy.

      Risk factors for pernicious anaemia include being female, middle to old age, and having other autoimmune disorders such as thyroid disease, type 1 diabetes mellitus, Addison’s, rheumatoid arthritis, and vitiligo. It is also more common in individuals with blood group A.

      Symptoms of pernicious anaemia include anaemia features such as lethargy, pallor, and dyspnoea, as well as neurological features such as peripheral neuropathy and subacute combined degeneration of the spinal cord. Neuropsychiatric features such as memory loss, poor concentration, confusion, depression, and irritability may also be present, along with mild jaundice and glossitis.

      Diagnosis of pernicious anaemia involves a full blood count, vitamin B12 and folate levels, and testing for antibodies such as anti intrinsic factor antibodies and anti gastric parietal cell antibodies. Treatment involves vitamin B12 replacement, usually given intramuscularly, and folic acid supplementation may also be required. Complications of pernicious anaemia include an increased risk of gastric cancer.

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      • Haematology/Oncology
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  • Question 27 - A 63-year-old patient presents for follow-up. He underwent aortic valve replacement with a...

    Correct

    • A 63-year-old patient presents for follow-up. He underwent aortic valve replacement with a prosthetic valve five years ago and is currently on warfarin therapy. He has been experiencing fatigue for the past three months and a recent full blood count revealed the following results: Hb 10.3 g/dl, MCV 68 fl, Plt 356 * 109/l, and WBC 5.2 * 109/l. The blood film showed hypochromia and his INR was 3.0. An upper GI endoscopy was performed and was reported as normal. What would be the most appropriate next step in investigating this patient's condition?

      Your Answer: Colonoscopy

      Explanation:

      Lower gastrointestinal tract investigation should be conducted on any patient in this age group who has an unexplained microcytic anaemia to rule out the possibility of colorectal cancer.

      Referral Guidelines for Colorectal Cancer

      Colorectal cancer is a serious condition that requires prompt diagnosis and treatment. In 2015, the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) updated their referral guidelines for patients suspected of having colorectal cancer. According to these guidelines, patients who are 40 years or older with unexplained weight loss and abdominal pain, 50 years or older with unexplained rectal bleeding, or 60 years or older with iron deficiency anemia or change in bowel habit should be referred urgently to colorectal services for investigation. Additionally, patients who test positive for occult blood in their feces should also be referred urgently.

      An urgent referral should also be considered for patients who have a rectal or abdominal mass, unexplained anal mass or anal ulceration, or are under 50 years old with rectal bleeding and any of the following unexplained symptoms/findings: abdominal pain, change in bowel habit, weight loss, or iron deficiency anemia.

      The NHS offers a national screening program for colorectal cancer, which involves sending eligible patients aged 60 to 74 years in England and 50 to 74 years in Scotland FIT tests through the post. FIT is a type of fecal occult blood test that uses antibodies to detect and quantify the amount of human blood in a single stool sample. Patients with abnormal results are offered a colonoscopy.

      The FIT test is also recommended for patients with new symptoms who do not meet the 2-week criteria listed above. For example, patients who are 50 years or older with unexplained abdominal pain or weight loss, under 60 years old with changes in their bowel habit or iron deficiency anemia, or 60 years or older who have anemia even in the absence of iron deficiency. Early detection and treatment of colorectal cancer can significantly improve patient outcomes, making it important to follow these referral guidelines.

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      • Haematology/Oncology
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  • Question 28 - A 25-year-old female student attends the blood transfusion service wishing to donate blood....

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old female student attends the blood transfusion service wishing to donate blood. She is currently well, has never had a serious illness and weighs 60 kg. About three months ago she spent the summer doing voluntary work in Nigeria. She also had her ears pierced three years ago and had a tattoo put on her left arm one year ago. She is not acceptable as a donor.
      Which of the following is the reason for her rejection to donate blood in the UK?

      Your Answer: Recent travel to an endemic area

      Explanation:

      Blood Donation Eligibility Criteria: Factors to Consider

      When it comes to donating blood, there are several factors to consider to ensure the safety of both the donor and the recipient. Here are some examples:

      Recent travel to an endemic area: If a person has recently traveled to a country with a high risk of infectious diseases, they may have to wait a certain period before donating blood. For instance, if someone has returned from Nigeria, they must wait at least six months before donating blood in the UK.

      Underweight: A person must weigh at least 50 kg to donate blood. If they weigh less than that, they may not have enough blood volume to spare.

      Body piercing: If someone has had a body piercing within the last 12 months, they should inform the staff before donating blood. They may have to wait for at least four months before donating.

      Tattoo: Similarly, if someone has had a tattoo within the last 12 months, they should inform the staff before donating blood. They may have to wait for at least four months before donating.

      Age: To donate blood, a person must be between 17 and 66 years old (or 70 if they have donated blood before). If they are over 70, they can still donate if they have donated blood in the last two years.

      By considering these factors, blood donation centers can ensure that the blood they collect is safe and suitable for transfusion.

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      • Haematology/Oncology
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  • Question 29 - A 45-year-old woman with a 30-pack-year history of smoking visits her General Practitioner...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old woman with a 30-pack-year history of smoking visits her General Practitioner with complaints of dark urine, nausea and overall weakness. She reports experiencing a seizure and was admitted to the hospital where she was diagnosed with a 'hormone tumor'. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Bronchial carcinoid tumour

      Correct Answer: Small-cell carcinoma of the lung (SCLC)

      Explanation:

      Small-cell carcinoma of the lung (SCLC) is a type of lung cancer that is often associated with a condition called syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone syndrome (SIADH). SIADH is caused by the abnormal release of anti-diuretic hormone (ADH), which leads to impaired water excretion and hyponatremia. This can result in symptoms such as nausea, weakness, confusion, and seizures. While SCLC is the most common cause of SIADH, it can also be caused by other types of cancer, certain drugs, intracranial lesions, and infections. Squamous-cell carcinoma (SCC) of the lung, on the other hand, does not typically result in SIADH as it does not originate from neuroendocrine cells. Pancreatic cancer can also cause SIADH, but it is less common than in SCLC. Prostate cancer, which is the second most common cancer globally, does not usually present with hormonal effects but rather with lower urinary tract symptoms. Bronchial carcinoid tumors, which are neuroendocrine tumors of the lung, can cause hormonal effects such as weight gain, high blood pressure, and hirsutism, but these symptoms are not indicated in the scenario given.

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      • Haematology/Oncology
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  • Question 30 - A 27-year-old woman with a BMI of 34 kg/m² presents to your GP...

    Correct

    • A 27-year-old woman with a BMI of 34 kg/m² presents to your GP clinic with a small lump in her right breast. She is worried about the possibility of breast cancer, although she has noticed that the lump has decreased in size over the past two weeks. She denies any direct injury but mentions playing rugby recently. There is no family history of breast or gynaecological cancer. On examination, a small, firm, poorly mobile lump is found in the lower quadrant of the right breast.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Traumatic breast fat necrosis

      Explanation:

      Traumatic breast fat necrosis may develop following a minor or unnoticed injury in women with a high body mass index, although it is crucial to investigate any lump to exclude breast cancer. Nipple discharge is a common symptom of mammary duct ectasia, while a tender lymph node in the axilla is likely to be palpable. Paget’s disease is characterized by an eczema-like appearance of the nipple, not a lump. Fibroadenoma, also known as a breast mouse, is not attached.

      Understanding Fat Necrosis of the Breast

      Fat necrosis of the breast is a condition that affects up to 40% of cases and is often caused by trauma. This condition can be mistaken for breast cancer due to its physical features, such as a mass that may initially increase in size. It is important to understand that fat necrosis is not cancerous and can be treated with proper care.

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      • Haematology/Oncology
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Haematology/Oncology (19/30) 63%
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