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Question 1
Correct
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A 72-year-old woman comes to the emergency department with a blocked stoma bag. She had surgery for bowel cancer recently, which involved removing a section of her bowel. The stoma bag is situated in the upper left quadrant of her abdomen. The bag is entirely empty, and you can see that the proximal part of the resected bowel is flush with the skin. Her abdomen is swollen, and you can hear tinkling bowel sounds. What kind of stoma does this patient have?
Your Answer: End colostomy
Explanation:The correct type of stoma in this case is an end colostomy. This is because the stoma is flush to the skin, indicating that the large bowel contents are not irritant. To differentiate between a colostomy and a small intestine stoma, one can look at the location and output. Ileostomies are typically located on the right iliac fossa and have spouted output, while colostomies are usually on the left iliac fossa and have flush output. An end ileostomy is used after complete colon excision or when an ileocolic anastomosis is not planned, and it would have spouted output. A loop ileostomy involves taking a loop of the ileum and bringing it up to the skin, and it is used to defunction the colon and can be reversed. It would also have spouted output. A loop jejunostomy is used as a high output stoma and would also have spouted output. A percutaneous jejunostomy involves a feeding tube directly inserted into the jejunum and would not have a stoma bag.
Abdominal stomas are created during various abdominal procedures to bring the lumen or contents of organs onto the skin. Typically, this involves the bowel, but other organs may also be diverted if necessary. The type and method of construction of the stoma will depend on the contents of the bowel. Small bowel stomas should be spouted to prevent irritant contents from coming into contact with the skin, while colonic stomas do not require spouting. Proper siting of the stoma is crucial to reduce the risk of leakage and subsequent maceration of the surrounding skin. The type and location of the stoma will vary depending on the purpose, such as defunctioning the colon or providing feeding access. Overall, abdominal stomas are a necessary medical intervention that requires careful consideration and planning.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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Question 2
Correct
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A 41-year-old woman is worried that she may be experiencing premature ovarian failure as she has not had a period for the last six months. What is the definition of premature ovarian failure?
Your Answer: The onset of menopausal symptoms and elevated gonadotrophin levels before the age of 40 years
Explanation:Premature Ovarian Insufficiency: Causes and Management
Premature ovarian insufficiency is a condition where menopausal symptoms and elevated gonadotrophin levels occur before the age of 40. It affects approximately 1 in 100 women and can be caused by various factors such as idiopathic reasons, family history, bilateral oophorectomy, radiotherapy, chemotherapy, infection, autoimmune disorders, and resistant ovary syndrome. The symptoms of premature ovarian insufficiency are similar to those of normal menopause, including hot flushes, night sweats, infertility, secondary amenorrhoea, raised FSH and LH levels, and low oestradiol.
Management of premature ovarian insufficiency involves hormone replacement therapy (HRT) or a combined oral contraceptive pill until the age of the average menopause, which is 51 years. It is important to note that HRT does not provide contraception in case spontaneous ovarian activity resumes. Early diagnosis and management of premature ovarian insufficiency can help alleviate symptoms and improve quality of life for affected women.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 6-year-old boy is brought to the paediatrician for evaluation of recurrent sinus infections, tonsillitis and urinary tract infections. Laboratory analysis of his blood revealed severe lymphopenia, and his lymphocytes did not respond to mitogens. His levels of serum antibodies were abnormally diminished, as were B-cell and T-cell functions.
What was the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Wiskott–Aldrich syndrome (WAS)
Correct Answer: Severe combined immunodeficiency disease (SCID)
Explanation:Severe combined immunodeficiency disease (SCID) is a condition that affects both B- and T-cell immunity, making patients more susceptible to viral, bacterial, mycobacterial, or fungal infections. It typically presents at a young age due to the severity of the immunodeficiency. SCID has two major forms: an X-linked recessive mutation in the γ-chain subunit of a cytokine receptor, which is more common in males, and an autosomal recessive mutation in the genes that encode the enzyme adenosine deaminase, which leads to toxic accumulation of nucleotides in differentiating lymphocytes, especially those in the T-cell lineage. Based on the patient’s female gender, young age at presentation, history of infections, and diminished B and T cells with low serum immunoglobulins, autosomal recessive SCID is the most likely diagnosis. Other conditions such as acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS), di George syndrome (dGS), systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE), and Wiskott–Aldrich syndrome (WAS) have different pathogenic mechanisms and are less likely to be the cause of the patient’s presentation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Immunology/Allergy
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Question 4
Correct
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A 50-year-old man who takes omeprazole 20 mg for gastroesophageal reflux disease has reported a recent worsening of his indigestion and an unintentional weight loss of 5kg over the past 2 months. He has been referred for a 2-week wait and scheduled for an endoscopy in 3 weeks. What guidance should he receive regarding his omeprazole usage?
Your Answer: Stop taking omeprazole 2 weeks before endoscopy
Explanation:To avoid the possibility of masking serious underlying pathology like gastric cancer, patients who are taking proton pump inhibitors or H2 receptor blockers should discontinue their use at least two weeks before undergoing an endoscopy.
Management of Dyspepsia and Referral for Possible Cancer
Dyspepsia is a common symptom that can be caused by various factors, including medication and lifestyle choices. However, it can also be a sign of underlying conditions such as stomach or oesophageal cancer. The 2015 NICE guidelines provide updated advice on when urgent referral for endoscopy is necessary. Patients with dysphagia or an upper abdominal mass consistent with stomach cancer should be referred urgently. Patients aged 55 years or older with weight loss and upper abdominal pain, reflux, or dyspepsia should also be referred urgently. Non-urgent referrals include patients with haematemesis or those with treatment-resistant dyspepsia, upper abdominal pain with low haemoglobin levels, or raised platelet count with other symptoms.
For patients with undiagnosed dyspepsia, a step-wise approach is recommended. First, medications should be reviewed for possible causes. Lifestyle advice should also be given. If symptoms persist, a trial of full-dose proton pump inhibitor for one month or a ‘test and treat’ approach for H. pylori can be tried. If symptoms persist after either approach, the alternative should be attempted. Testing for H. pylori infection can be done using a carbon-13 urea breath test, stool antigen test, or laboratory-based serology. If symptoms resolve following test and treat, there is no need to check for H. pylori eradication. However, if repeat testing is required, a carbon-13 urea breath test should be used.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old man is brought into the emergency department resus, after being involved in a road traffic collision, where he, a motorbike rider, collided with a car. As one of the doctors receiving the patient into resus, you are tasked with calculating the current Glasgow coma score (GCS) of the patient. The patient's eyes are open, but he seems disoriented and asks you if he's on a spaceship.
Your Answer: 10
Correct Answer: 13
Explanation:The patient’s GCS score is 13, with a breakdown of 4 out of 4 for eye opening, 4 out of 5 for verbal response (due to confusion), and 5 out of 6 for motor response (exhibiting localisation to pain). A helpful mnemonic to remember this breakdown is 654…MoVE.
Understanding the Glasgow Coma Scale for Adults
The Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) is a tool used to assess the level of consciousness in adults who have suffered a brain injury or other neurological condition. It is based on three components: motor response, verbal response, and eye opening. Each component is scored on a scale from 1 to 6, with a higher score indicating a better level of consciousness.
The motor response component assesses the patient’s ability to move in response to stimuli. A score of 6 indicates that the patient is able to obey commands, while a score of 1 indicates no movement at all.
The verbal response component assesses the patient’s ability to communicate. A score of 5 indicates that the patient is fully oriented, while a score of 1 indicates no verbal response at all.
The eye opening component assesses the patient’s ability to open their eyes. A score of 4 indicates that the patient is able to open their eyes spontaneously, while a score of 1 indicates no eye opening at all.
The GCS score is expressed as a combination of the scores from each component, with the motor response score listed first, followed by the verbal response score, and then the eye opening score. For example, a GCS score of 13, M5 V4 E4 at 21:30 would indicate that the patient had a motor response score of 5, a verbal response score of 4, and an eye opening score of 4 at 9:30 PM.
Overall, the Glasgow Coma Scale is a useful tool for healthcare professionals to assess the level of consciousness in adults with neurological conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old man complains of bilateral leg pain that occurs during walking. He has a history of peptic ulcer disease and osteoarthritis. The pain usually starts after walking for about 5 minutes and goes away when he sits down. He has noticed that leaning forward or crouching helps relieve the pain. There are no abnormalities found during musculoskeletal and vascular examination of his lower limbs. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Inflammatory arachnoiditis
Correct Answer: Spinal stenosis
Explanation:This presentation is typical of spinal stenosis. Although peripheral arterial disease is a possible alternative diagnosis, the pain relief factors and absence of abnormalities in the vascular examination suggest otherwise.
Lower back pain is a common issue that is often caused by muscular strain. However, it is important to be aware of potential underlying causes that may require specific treatment. Certain red flags should be considered, such as age under 20 or over 50, a history of cancer, night pain, trauma, or systemic illness. There are also specific causes of lower back pain that should be kept in mind. Facet joint pain may be acute or chronic, worse in the morning and on standing, and typically worsens with back extension. Spinal stenosis may cause leg pain, numbness, and weakness that is worse on walking and relieved by sitting or leaning forward. Ankylosing spondylitis is more common in young men and causes stiffness that is worse in the morning and improves with activity. Peripheral arterial disease may cause pain on walking and weak foot pulses. It is important to consider these potential causes and seek appropriate diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old woman with a history of high cholesterol, atrial fibrillation, and a current smoking habit of 10 cigarettes per day is looking for guidance on managing her recent diagnosis of vascular dementia. What is the recommended course of action?
Your Answer: Memantine
Correct Answer: Smoking cessation
Explanation:NICE recommends focusing on tight control of vascular risk factors instead of using antidementia medication for the treatment of vascular dementia. Therefore, it would be most beneficial for the patient to stop smoking, and starting a statin may also be helpful due to their history of high cholesterol. However, there is no evidence supporting the effectiveness of aspirin in treating vascular dementia.
Understanding Vascular Dementia: Causes, Symptoms, and Management
Vascular dementia is a type of cognitive impairment that is caused by different mechanisms resulting from cerebrovascular disease. It is the second most common form of dementia after Alzheimer’s disease. Vascular dementia is often recognized as the most severe form of the spectrum of deficits encompassed by the term vascular cognitive impairment. Early detection and an accurate diagnosis are crucial in preventing vascular dementia.
The prevalence of vascular dementia is estimated to be around 17% of dementia cases in the UK. The incidence of vascular dementia increases with age and is often associated with a history of stroke or transient ischemic attack, atrial fibrillation, hypertension, diabetes mellitus, hyperlipidemia, smoking, obesity, coronary heart disease, and a family history of stroke or cardiovascular disease. Rarely, vascular dementia can be inherited as in the case of cerebral autosomal dominant arteriopathy with subcortical infarcts and leukoencephalopathy.
Patients with vascular dementia typically present with a sudden or stepwise deterioration of cognitive function, focal neurological abnormalities, difficulty with attention and concentration, seizures, memory disturbance, gait disturbance, speech disturbance, and emotional disturbance. Diagnosis is made based on a comprehensive history and physical examination, formal screening for cognitive impairment, medical review to exclude medication cause of cognitive decline, and MRI scan.
Treatment for vascular dementia is mainly symptomatic with the aim to address individual problems and provide support to the patient and carers. It is important to detect and address cardiovascular risk factors to slow down the progression of the disease. Non-pharmacological management is tailored to the individual and may include cognitive stimulation programs, multisensory stimulation, music and art therapy, and animal-assisted therapy. Pharmacological management is limited, and there is no specific pharmacological treatment approved for cognitive symptoms. Only consider AChE inhibitors or memantine for people with vascular dementia if they have suspected comorbid Alzheimer’s disease, Parkinson’s disease dementia, or dementia with Lewy bodies. There is no evidence that aspirin is effective in treating patients with a diagnosis of vascular dementia, and no randomized trials have evaluated statins for vascular dementia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 59-year-old man comes to the hospital complaining of central chest pain that spreads to his left arm, accompanied by sweating and nausea. In the Emergency Department, an ECG reveals ST elevation in leads V1, V2, V3, and V4, and he is given 300mg of aspirin before undergoing primary percutaneous coronary intervention. After a successful procedure, he is admitted to the Coronary Care Unit and eventually discharged with secondary prevention medication and lifestyle modification advice, as well as a referral to a cardiac rehabilitation program.
During a check-up with his GP three weeks later, the patient reports feeling well but still experiences fatigue and shortness of breath during rehab activities. He has not had any further chest pain episodes. However, an ECG shows Q waves and convex ST elevation in leads V1, V2, V3, and V4.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Papillary muscle rupture
Correct Answer: Left ventricular aneurysm
Explanation:Complications of Myocardial Infarction
Myocardial infarction (MI) can lead to various complications, which can occur immediately, early, or late after the event. Cardiac arrest is the most common cause of death following MI, usually due to ventricular fibrillation. Patients are treated with defibrillation as per the ALS protocol. Cardiogenic shock may occur if a significant portion of the ventricular myocardium is damaged, leading to a decrease in ejection fraction. This condition is challenging to treat and may require inotropic support and/or an intra-aortic balloon pump. Chronic heart failure may develop if the patient survives the acute phase, and loop diuretics such as furosemide can help decrease fluid overload. Tachyarrhythmias, such as ventricular fibrillation and ventricular tachycardia, are common complications of MI. Bradyarrhythmias, such as atrioventricular block, are more common following inferior MI.
Pericarditis is a common complication of MI in the first 48 hours, characterized by typical pericarditis pain, a pericardial rub, and a pericardial effusion. Dressler’s syndrome, which occurs 2-6 weeks after MI, is an autoimmune reaction against antigenic proteins formed during myocardial recovery. It is treated with NSAIDs. Left ventricular aneurysm may form due to weakened myocardium, leading to persistent ST elevation and left ventricular failure. Patients are anticoagulated due to the increased risk of thrombus formation and stroke. Left ventricular free wall rupture and ventricular septal defect are rare but serious complications that require urgent surgical correction. Acute mitral regurgitation may occur due to ischaemia or rupture of the papillary muscle, leading to acute hypotension and pulmonary oedema. Vasodilator therapy and emergency surgical repair may be necessary.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old woman presents with a sudden onset of vision loss in her left eye. She reports experiencing pain with eye movement and a decrease in colour vision. She has no significant medical history and is not taking any medications.
During the examination, her left eye has a visual acuity of 6/6 while her right eye has a visual acuity of 6/24. A relative afferent pupillary defect is observed in her left eye, and visual field testing reveals a central scotoma in the left eye.
What is the most probable cause of her symptoms?Your Answer: Retinitis pigmentosa
Correct Answer: Optic neuritis
Explanation:A central scotoma is a common feature of optic neuritis, along with visual loss, periocular pain, and dyschromatopsia (change in colour perception). Other classic signs on examination include a relative afferent pupillary defect. Unlike open-angle glaucoma, which typically causes painless, gradual loss of peripheral vision, optic neuritis often affects the central vision. Anterior ischaemic optic neuropathy, on the other hand, causes sudden, painless loss of vision and is more common in people over 50. Optic nerve glioma, which is rare after age 20 and may be associated with neurofibromatosis, can cause visual defects and headaches but is not typically associated with eye movement pain or colour desaturation.
Optic neuritis is a condition that can be caused by multiple sclerosis, diabetes, or syphilis. It is characterized by a decrease in visual acuity in one eye over a period of hours or days, as well as poor color discrimination and pain that worsens with eye movement. Other symptoms include a relative afferent pupillary defect and a central scotoma. The condition can be diagnosed through an MRI of the brain and orbits with gadolinium contrast. Treatment typically involves high-dose steroids, and recovery usually takes 4-6 weeks. If an MRI shows more than three white-matter lesions, the risk of developing multiple sclerosis within five years is approximately 50%.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 10
Correct
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A 35-year-old woman comes to the clinic worried about a lump in her right breast that she discovered a few days ago. Upon examination, the lump is painless, smooth, soft, and easily movable. There is no history of breast cancer in her family. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Fibroadenoma
Explanation:Breast masses are a common concern among women, and it is important to understand the possible causes to determine the appropriate course of action. Here are some of the most common causes of breast masses and their characteristics:
Fibroadenoma: This is the most common cause of breast mass in women under 35 years old. It appears as a singular, firm, rubbery, smooth, mobile, painless mass ranging in size from 1 cm to 5 cm. Ultrasonography reveals a well-defined, hypoechoic, homogeneous mass 1–20 cm in diameter.
Fat Necrosis: This is a benign inflammatory process that occurs when there is saponification of local fat. It can result from direct trauma or nodular panniculitis. The breast mass is usually firm, round, and painless, and there may be a single mass or multiple masses. It may be tender or painful in some people.
Breast Abscess: This usually presents with localised breast oedema, erythema, warmth, and pain. There may be associated symptoms of fever, nausea, vomiting, spontaneous drainage from the mass or nipple, and a history of previous breast infection.
Breast Cancer: Early breast cancer may be asymptomatic, and pain and discomfort are typically not present. It is often first detected as an abnormality on a mammogram before it is felt by the patient or healthcare professional. If a lump is discovered, there may be a change in breast size or shape, skin dimpling or skin changes, recent nipple inversion or skin change, or nipple abnormalities.
Lipoma: Lipomas are common benign tumors composed of mature adipocytes that typically present clinically as well-circumscribed, soft, mobile, nontender masses. The classic mammographic appearance of lipoma is a circumscribed fat-containing mass.
It is important to note that the physical examination findings may not always be enough to determine the cause of the breast mass, and further testing may be necessary. Consultation with a healthcare professional is recommended for proper diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A young man with a 5-year history of alcoholism successfully completes an inpatient drug rehabilitation programme. What advice will you give him to maintain sobriety?
Your Answer: Take disulfiram before going to parties where alcohol is served
Correct Answer: Join a local Alcoholics Anonymous group
Explanation:Strategies for Preventing Alcohol Relapse
For individuals with alcohol-use disorders, preventing relapse is crucial for maintaining sobriety. Here are some strategies that can help:
1. Join a local Alcoholics Anonymous group or other self-help groups that require total abstinence. Active participation in these groups can offer the best chance of preventing relapses.
2. Limit consumption to socially appropriate amounts. Even small amounts of alcohol can trigger a relapse, so individuals who have completed a detoxification program are encouraged not to drink at all.
3. Take disulfiram as prescribed. This medication can cause unpleasant symptoms when alcohol is consumed, making it a deterrent for those who struggle with alcohol use. However, it should only be taken in the context of an appropriate alcohol detoxification program.
4. Take naltrexone as prescribed. This medication can help reduce cravings for alcohol, but it should not be taken as a deterrent before attending a party.
5. Plan a definite number of drinks before attending a party. However, individuals who have completed a detoxification program are still encouraged not to drink at all to prevent relapse.
By implementing these strategies, individuals with alcohol-use disorders can increase their chances of maintaining sobriety and preventing relapse.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old woman complains of abdominal bloating and is found to have shifting dullness on examination. What is a risk factor for ovarian cancer?
Your Answer: Early menopause
Correct Answer: BRCA2 gene
Explanation:The risk factors for ovarian cancer are associated with a higher frequency of ovulations.
Ovarian cancer is a common malignancy in women, ranking fifth in frequency. It is most commonly diagnosed in women over the age of 60 and has a poor prognosis due to late detection. The majority of ovarian cancers, around 90%, are of epithelial origin, with serous carcinomas accounting for 70-80% of cases. Interestingly, recent research suggests that many ovarian cancers may actually originate in the distal end of the fallopian tube. Risk factors for ovarian cancer include a family history of BRCA1 or BRCA2 gene mutations, early menarche, late menopause, and nulliparity.
Clinical features of ovarian cancer are often vague and can include abdominal distension and bloating, abdominal and pelvic pain, urinary symptoms such as urgency, early satiety, and diarrhea. The initial diagnostic test recommended by NICE is a CA125 blood test, although this can also be elevated in other conditions such as endometriosis and benign ovarian cysts. If the CA125 level is raised, an urgent ultrasound scan of the abdomen and pelvis should be ordered. However, a CA125 test should not be used for screening asymptomatic women. Diagnosis of ovarian cancer is difficult and usually requires a diagnostic laparotomy.
Management of ovarian cancer typically involves a combination of surgery and platinum-based chemotherapy. Unfortunately, 80% of women have advanced disease at the time of diagnosis, leading to a 5-year survival rate of only 46%. It was previously thought that infertility treatment increased the risk of ovarian cancer due to increased ovulation, but recent evidence suggests that this is not a significant factor. In fact, the combined oral contraceptive pill and multiple pregnancies have been shown to reduce the risk of ovarian cancer by reducing the number of ovulations.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 13
Incorrect
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As a foundation doctor in general practice, you assess a thirty-five-year-old woman who presents with complaints of dizziness. She reports that the symptoms worsen when she rolls over in bed and are accompanied by nausea. She denies any prior episodes, aural fullness, or nystagmus. What diagnostic measures could be taken to confirm the diagnosis?
Your Answer: Rinne and weber tests
Correct Answer: Dix–Hallpike manoeuvre
Explanation:The Dix-Hallpike test involves quickly moving the patient to a supine position with their neck extended to determine if they experience symptoms of benign paroxysmal positional vertigo. A positive result can confirm the diagnosis. Based on the symptoms, it is likely that this patient has this condition.
Understanding Benign Paroxysmal Positional Vertigo
Benign paroxysmal positional vertigo (BPPV) is a common condition that causes sudden dizziness and vertigo triggered by changes in head position. It typically affects individuals over the age of 55 and is less common in younger patients. Symptoms include vertigo triggered by movements such as rolling over in bed or looking upwards, and may be accompanied by nausea. Each episode usually lasts between 10-20 seconds and can be diagnosed through a positive Dix-Hallpike manoeuvre, which involves the patient experiencing vertigo and rotatory nystagmus.
Fortunately, BPPV has a good prognosis and often resolves on its own within a few weeks to months. Treatment options include the Epley manoeuvre, which is successful in around 80% of cases, and vestibular rehabilitation exercises such as the Brandt-Daroff exercises. While medication such as Betahistine may be prescribed, it tends to have limited value. However, it is important to note that around half of people with BPPV will experience a recurrence of symptoms 3-5 years after their initial diagnosis.
Overall, understanding BPPV and its symptoms can help individuals seek appropriate treatment and manage their condition effectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- ENT
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 72-year-old man with metastatic breast cancer presents to surgery with his wife. He has known bone metastases in his pelvis and ribs, but his pain is not adequately managed with paracetamol, diclofenac, and MST 30 mg bd. His wife reports that he is using 10mg of oral morphine solution approximately 6-7 times a day for breakthrough pain. The hospice palliative care team attempted to use a bisphosphonate, but it resulted in persistent myalgia and arthralgia. What is the next appropriate step?
Your Answer: Increase MST + add dexamethasone
Correct Answer: Increase MST + refer for radiotherapy
Explanation:Palliative care prescribing for pain is guided by NICE and SIGN guidelines. NICE recommends starting treatment with regular oral modified-release or immediate-release morphine, with immediate-release morphine for breakthrough pain. Laxatives should be prescribed for all patients initiating strong opioids, and antiemetics should be offered if nausea persists. Drowsiness is usually transient, but if it persists, the dose should be adjusted. SIGN advises that the breakthrough dose of morphine is one-sixth the daily dose, and all patients receiving opioids should be prescribed a laxative. Opioids should be used with caution in patients with chronic kidney disease, and oxycodone is preferred to morphine in patients with mild-moderate renal impairment. Metastatic bone pain may respond to strong opioids, bisphosphonates, or radiotherapy, and all patients should be considered for referral to a clinical oncologist for further treatment. When increasing the dose of opioids, the next dose should be increased by 30-50%. Conversion factors between opioids are also provided. Opioid side-effects are usually transient, such as nausea and drowsiness, but constipation can persist. In addition to strong opioids, bisphosphonates, and radiotherapy, denosumab may be used to treat metastatic bone pain.
Overall, the guidelines recommend starting with regular oral morphine and adjusting the dose as needed. Laxatives should be prescribed to prevent constipation, and antiemetics may be needed for nausea. Opioids should be used with caution in patients with chronic kidney disease, and oxycodone is preferred in patients with mild-moderate renal impairment. Metastatic bone pain may respond to strong opioids, bisphosphonates, or radiotherapy, and referral to a clinical oncologist should be considered. Conversion factors between opioids are provided, and the next dose should be increased by 30-50% when adjusting the dose. Opioid side-effects are usually transient, but constipation can persist. Denosumab may also be used to treat metastatic bone pain.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 15
Correct
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A 25-year-old man presents to his doctor with a complaint of a lump in his testicle. During the examination, the lump disappears when he lies down. The scrotum shows dilated veins, while the abdominal examination is unremarkable. He expresses concern about his inability to conceive despite trying. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Varicocoele
Explanation:Common Causes of Testicular Lumps: Varicocele, Epididymitis, Hydrocele, Inguinal Hernia, and Testicular Teratoma
Testicular lumps can be a cause for concern and require medical attention. Here are some common causes of testicular lumps:
Varicocele: This is a painless swelling of the testes on the left side, which can be described as a bag of worms within the spermatic cord above the testis. It tends to occur in those aged 12+ years and is rare in pre-pubertal boys. Varicoceles are associated with male infertility, and a quarter of men with abnormal semen parameters will have a varicocele.
Epididymitis: This is inflammation of the testis and epididymis caused by infection such as chlamydia infection, gonorrhoea, mumps, bacterial coliforms or syphilis. It may present as acute testicular pain, swelling and tenderness, and associated symptoms include urethritis, increased urinary frequency and dysuria. Systemic symptoms may include fever and rigors.
Hydrocele: This is a non-tender, painless, cystic scrotal swelling below and anterior to the testes. It will normally transilluminate and does not tend to reduce on lying flat. Although hydroceles can fluctuate in size and are affected by movement, they are not usually a cause for concern.
Inguinal hernia: This is a condition where a part of the intestine or other tissue protrudes through a weak spot in the abdominal muscles, causing a lump in the groin or scrotum. If reducible, the lump may disappear on lying flat.
Testicular teratoma: This is a solid testicular lump within the testis, which is suggestive of a tumour. Testicular cancers can be subdivided into seminomas, teratomas and yolk-sac tumours. Over 95% of testicular cancers arise from the germ cells. Teratomas typically present at age 20–30 years, whereas seminomas typically present at age 35–45 years.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 75-year-old man with type II diabetes mellitus is admitted to hospital with pain and swelling in the left ear and face. On examination, he is febrile, the external auditory canal is red, tender and swollen with green purulent discharge. The left side of the face is swollen, with tenderness over the left temporal bone. He has left-sided facial nerve palsy involving the forehead.
What is the primary micro-organism most likely responsible for this infection?
Your Answer: Staphylococcus aureus
Correct Answer: Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Explanation:Bacterial Causes of Malignant Otitis Externa
Malignant otitis externa is a serious infection that primarily affects patients with uncontrolled diabetes. The infection can spread to the temporal bone, causing osteomyelitis, cranial nerve palsies, and potentially central nervous system infection. The most common causative agent for this condition is Pseudomonas aeruginosa.
Haemophilus influenzae is a Gram-negative coccobacillus that can cause various infections, including cellulitis, but it is not consistent with the symptoms of malignant otitis externa.
Staphylococcus aureus, a commensal bacterium, can cause skin and soft-tissue infections, including malignant otitis externa. The characteristic signs and symptoms presented by the patient are more typical of this condition than cellulitis.
Streptococcus pneumoniae is a common cause of pneumonia and meningitis, but it is not consistent with the symptoms of malignant otitis externa.
Listeria monocytogenes is a rare cause of infection that primarily affects newborns, the elderly, and immunocompromised patients. It is not consistent with the clinical scenario provided.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 17
Correct
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A middle-aged business executive presents with a red hot, swollen and very painful right big toe. Joint aspiration reveals no organisms, but there are numerous neutrophils containing long needle-shaped crystals.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Gouty arthritis
Explanation:Gout is a crystal arthropathy caused by hyperuricaemia, most commonly affecting middle-aged men. Diagnosis is confirmed by aspiration and examination of joint fluid. Treatment is with high-dose NSAIDs or coxibs initially, followed by allopurinol in the long term. RA presents as an acute monoarticular arthritis in only 10% of cases, and is more common in women between the ages of 35 and 55. Septic arthritis and gonococcal arthritis are bacterial infections that present with a hot, red, swollen joint and constitutional symptoms. Reactive arthritis is a sterile arthritis occurring following an infection, usually presenting as an acute, asymmetrical lower limb arthritis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 18
Correct
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Male infertility in cystic fibrosis is mostly due to which of the following?
Your Answer: Obliteration or failure of development of the vas deferens
Explanation:Understanding the Reproductive and Sexual Health Implications of Cystic Fibrosis
Cystic fibrosis (CF) is a genetic disorder that affects multiple organs, including the lungs, pancreas, and reproductive system. In over 95% of male patients with CF, infertility is caused by the congenital absence or obliteration of the vas deferens, leading to azoospermia. However, advancements in fertility treatments and surgical techniques have made it possible for some male patients to conceive. Impotence is not a symptom of CF. With significant improvements in diagnosis and treatment, the median survival age of CF patients has increased to around 40 years, with some individuals living into their 60s. Delayed puberty is a common occurrence in both male and female CF patients, but it is not a cause of infertility. Decreased spermatogenesis is not typically seen in CF. Understanding the reproductive and sexual health implications of CF is crucial for patients and healthcare providers to provide appropriate care and support.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics
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Question 19
Incorrect
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You are examining a 65-year-old individual with acanthosis nigricans. You suggest screening for diabetes. Due to the widespread skin alterations, including some oral changes, what other potential underlying condition should be taken into account?
Your Answer: Haemochromatosis
Correct Answer: Internal malignancy
Explanation:While acanthosis nigricans may occur on its own in individuals with dark skin, it is typically a sign of insulin resistance and associated conditions such as type 2 diabetes, polycystic ovarian syndrome, Cushing’s syndrome, and hypothyroidism. Certain medications, including corticosteroids, insulin, and hormone medications, can also cause this condition. If acanthosis nigricans appears suddenly and in unusual areas such as the mouth, it may indicate the presence of an internal malignancy, particularly gastric cancer.
Acanthosis nigricans is a condition characterized by the presence of symmetrical, brown, velvety plaques on the neck, axilla, and groin. This condition can be caused by various factors such as type 2 diabetes mellitus, gastrointestinal cancer, obesity, polycystic ovarian syndrome, acromegaly, Cushing’s disease, hypothyroidism, familial factors, Prader-Willi syndrome, and certain drugs like the combined oral contraceptive pill and nicotinic acid. The pathophysiology of acanthosis nigricans involves insulin resistance, which leads to hyperinsulinemia. This, in turn, stimulates the proliferation of keratinocytes and dermal fibroblasts through interaction with insulin-like growth factor receptor-1 (IGFR1).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 5-year-old girl is seen in the Paediatric Admissions Unit with a fever lasting for a week. During examination, she presents with red, painful lips and conjunctival injection. Additionally, her hands are swollen and red. Blood tests reveal the following results: Hb 13.1 g/dl, WBC 12.7 *109/l, Platelets 520 *109/l, and CRP 96 mg/L. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Dermatomyositis
Correct Answer: Kawasaki disease
Explanation:Understanding Kawasaki Disease
Kawasaki disease is a rare type of vasculitis that primarily affects children. It is important to identify this disease early on as it can lead to serious complications, such as coronary artery aneurysms. The disease is characterized by a high-grade fever that lasts for more than five days and is resistant to antipyretics. Other symptoms include conjunctival injection, bright red, cracked lips, strawberry tongue, cervical lymphadenopathy, and red palms and soles that later peel.
Diagnosis of Kawasaki disease is based on clinical presentation as there is no specific diagnostic test available. Management of the disease involves high-dose aspirin, which is one of the few indications for aspirin use in children. Intravenous immunoglobulin is also used as a treatment option. Echocardiogram is the initial screening test for coronary artery aneurysms, rather than angiography.
Complications of Kawasaki disease can be serious, with coronary artery aneurysm being the most common. It is important to recognize the symptoms of Kawasaki disease early on and seek medical attention promptly to prevent potential complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 21
Correct
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A 50-year-old woman with a long history of steroid-treated sarcoidosis presents with extreme thirst and nocturia up to five times a night. Her serum calcium concentration is 2.3 mmol/l (reference range 2.2–2.7 mmol/l), random plasma glucose 4.6 mmol/l (reference range <11.1 mmol/l) and potassium 3.5 mmol/l (reference range 3.6–5.2 mmol/l). After an overnight fast, her serum sodium is 149 mmol/l (reference range 135–145 mmol/l).
What is the cause of her symptoms?Your Answer: Cranial diabetes insipidus
Explanation:Polyuria and polydipsia can be caused by various conditions, including cranial diabetes insipidus, chronic cystitis, hypokalaemia-induced polyuria, iatrogenic adrenal insufficiency, and primary polydipsia. Cranial diabetes insipidus is characterized by decreased secretion of antidiuretic hormone, resulting in the passage of large volumes of dilute urine. Chronic cystitis is an ongoing inflammation of the lower urinary tract, while hypokalaemia-induced polyuria occurs when there is a low concentration of potassium in the filtrate. Iatrogenic adrenal insufficiency is a possible cause of polydipsia/polyuria, but less consistent with this scenario. Primary polydipsia is suspected when large volumes of very dilute urine occur with low-normal plasma osmolality. Differentiating between these conditions can be challenging, but a combination of plasma ADH assay and water deprivation testing can lead to greater accuracy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 22
Correct
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A 23 year old woman has been admitted to the obstetrics ward for 2 days due to preterm premature rupture of membranes (PPROM). She is now experiencing abdominal pain, uterine contractions, and symptoms similar to the flu. Prior to this admission, she had no complications and is currently 24 weeks pregnant. During examination, she appears ill with a fever of 39 degrees. A gynecological exam reveals a malodorous discharge originating from the cervix, which is collected and sent for analysis. What is the most probable diagnosis at this stage?
Your Answer: Chorioamnionitis
Explanation:Understanding Chorioamnionitis
Chorioamnionitis is a serious medical condition that can affect both the mother and the foetus during pregnancy. It is caused by a bacterial infection that affects the amniotic fluid, membranes, and placenta. This condition is considered a medical emergency and can be life-threatening if not treated promptly. It is more likely to occur when the membranes rupture prematurely, but it can also happen when the membranes are still intact.
Prompt delivery of the foetus is crucial in treating chorioamnionitis, and a cesarean section may be necessary. Intravenous antibiotics are also administered to help fight the infection. This condition affects up to 5% of all pregnancies, and it is important for pregnant women to be aware of the symptoms and seek medical attention immediately if they suspect they may have chorioamnionitis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 23
Correct
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A 35-year-old man visits his primary care physician complaining of dysuria and frequent urination since yesterday. He has also observed that his urine is cloudy and has a foul odor. He has no flank pain and is in good health overall. He has never had these symptoms before. Upon urinalysis, nitrites and leukocytes are detected. What is the most suitable initial treatment?
Your Answer: Nitrofurantoin for 7 days
Explanation:If a man presents with symptoms of a lower UTI such as dysuria and urinary frequency, and urinalysis confirms the diagnosis with the presence of nitrates and leucocytes, treatment with either trimethoprim or nitrofurantoin is recommended. However, if there is suspicion of prostatitis or an upper UTI, referral to a specialist may be necessary. It is important to note that men require a 7-day course of antibiotics for lower UTIs, and recurrence may require further evaluation by a Urologist. Women, on the other hand, may be treated with a 3-day course of antibiotics for lower UTIs.
Urinary tract infections (UTIs) are common in adults and can affect different parts of the urinary tract. The management of UTIs depends on various factors such as the patient’s age, gender, and pregnancy status. For non-pregnant women, local antibiotic guidelines should be followed if available. Trimethoprim or nitrofurantoin for three days are recommended by NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries. However, if the patient is aged over 65 years or has visible or non-visible haematuria, a urine culture should be sent. Pregnant women with UTIs should be treated with nitrofurantoin, amoxicillin, or cefalexin for seven days. Trimethoprim should be avoided during pregnancy as it is teratogenic in the first trimester. Asymptomatic bacteriuria in pregnant women should also be treated to prevent progression to acute pyelonephritis. Men with UTIs should be offered a seven-day course of trimethoprim or nitrofurantoin unless prostatitis is suspected. A urine culture should be sent before antibiotics are started. Catheterised patients should not be treated for asymptomatic bacteria, but if symptomatic, a seven-day course of antibiotics should be given. Acute pyelonephritis requires hospital admission and treatment with a broad-spectrum cephalosporin or quinolone for 10-14 days. Referral to urology is not routinely required for men who have had one uncomplicated lower UTI.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine/Urology
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old female presents to the emergency department with a sudden onset of severe headache at the back of her head, vomiting, and sensitivity to light. A CT scan reveals a subarachnoid hemorrhage, and a subsequent CT angiogram shows an aneurysmal bleed on the posterior cerebral artery. Assuming that the patient's vital signs and Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score remain stable, what is the definitive treatment plan for this patient's condition?
Your Answer: Craniotomy and open clipping of the aneurysm
Correct Answer: Coiling of the aneurysm
Explanation:After a subarachnoid haemorrhage, the preferred treatment for most intracranial aneurysms is coiling by an interventional neuroradiologist. This is the most probable course of action given the patient’s stable condition. If the patient showed signs of raised intracranial pressure, such as haemodynamic instability or a change in GCS, craniotomy and clipping of the aneurysm might be considered. However, regardless of whether the aneurysm is coiled or clipped, the primary objective is to prevent further bleeding by mechanically occluding the aneurysm, preferably within the first 24 hours. Therefore, the other options are unlikely to be the correct and definitive management for the patient’s condition.
A subarachnoid haemorrhage (SAH) is a type of bleeding that occurs within the subarachnoid space of the meninges in the brain. It can be caused by head injury or occur spontaneously. Spontaneous SAH is often caused by an intracranial aneurysm, which accounts for around 85% of cases. Other causes include arteriovenous malformation, pituitary apoplexy, and mycotic aneurysms. The classic symptoms of SAH include a sudden and severe headache, nausea and vomiting, meningism, coma, seizures, and ECG changes.
The first-line investigation for SAH is a non-contrast CT head, which can detect acute blood in the basal cisterns, sulci, and ventricular system. If the CT is normal within 6 hours of symptom onset, a lumbar puncture is not recommended. However, if the CT is normal after 6 hours, a lumbar puncture should be performed at least 12 hours after symptom onset to check for xanthochromia and other CSF findings consistent with SAH. If SAH is confirmed, referral to neurosurgery is necessary to identify the underlying cause and provide urgent treatment.
Management of aneurysmal SAH involves supportive care, such as bed rest, analgesia, and venous thromboembolism prophylaxis. Vasospasm is prevented with oral nimodipine, and intracranial aneurysms require prompt intervention to prevent rebleeding. Most aneurysms are treated with a coil by interventional neuroradiologists, but some require a craniotomy and clipping by a neurosurgeon. Complications of aneurysmal SAH include re-bleeding, hydrocephalus, vasospasm, and hyponatraemia. Predictive factors for SAH include conscious level on admission, age, and amount of blood visible on CT head.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 25
Correct
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A 30-year-old female patient visits the GP clinic complaining of excessive pain during her menstrual cycle for the past 6 months. She experiences pain 1-2 days before the onset of menstruation, which lasts throughout the cycle. Additionally, she reports pain during sexual intercourse, particularly during deep penetration. Her last menstrual period occurred 2 days ago. She has been in a monogamous relationship with her partner for 8 years, and she has never been pregnant. She does not use any form of contraception except for condoms. What is the most appropriate course of action?
Your Answer: Refer to gynaecology
Explanation:Patients with secondary dysmenorrhoea require referral to gynaecology for investigation, including this patient who exhibits such symptoms. While tranexamic acid is effective for menorrhagia, it is not useful for dysmenorrhoea. While a transvaginal ultrasound scan may be part of the investigation, a specialist review is more crucial, particularly for this patient who displays symptoms indicative of endometriosis, which may not be visible on an ultrasound scan. Before using the intrauterine system or combined oral contraceptive pill to treat endometriosis, a diagnosis is necessary.
Dysmenorrhoea is a condition where women experience excessive pain during their menstrual period. There are two types of dysmenorrhoea: primary and secondary. Primary dysmenorrhoea affects up to 50% of menstruating women and is not caused by any underlying pelvic pathology. It usually appears within 1-2 years of the menarche and is thought to be partially caused by excessive endometrial prostaglandin production. Symptoms include suprapubic cramping pains that may radiate to the back or down the thigh, and pain typically starts just before or within a few hours of the period starting. NSAIDs such as mefenamic acid and ibuprofen are effective in up to 80% of women, and combined oral contraceptive pills are used second line for management.
Secondary dysmenorrhoea, on the other hand, typically develops many years after the menarche and is caused by an underlying pathology. The pain usually starts 3-4 days before the onset of the period. Causes of secondary dysmenorrhoea include endometriosis, adenomyosis, pelvic inflammatory disease, intrauterine devices, and fibroids. Clinical Knowledge Summaries recommend referring all patients with secondary dysmenorrhoea to gynaecology for investigation. It is important to note that the intrauterine system (Mirena) may help dysmenorrhoea, but this only applies to normal copper coils.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 26
Correct
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A 30-year-old woman who is 10 weeks postpartum and currently breastfeeding presents with a complaint of a foul odor in her vaginal area. Upon examination, clue cells are detected. What treatment option would you suggest for this probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Metronidazole 400mg bd for 5 days
Explanation:The recommended treatment for bacterial vaginosis in this patient is metronidazole, but high doses of this medication are not safe for breastfeeding. Fluconazole is used to treat thrush, while azithromycin is used for Chlamydia. Clarithromycin is prescribed for pneumonia, strep throat, and H. pylori infections.
Bacterial vaginosis (BV) is a condition where there is an overgrowth of anaerobic organisms, particularly Gardnerella vaginalis, in the vagina. This leads to a decrease in the amount of lactobacilli, which produce lactic acid, resulting in an increase in vaginal pH. BV is not a sexually transmitted infection, but it is commonly seen in sexually active women. Symptoms include a fishy-smelling vaginal discharge, although some women may not experience any symptoms at all. Diagnosis is made using Amsel’s criteria, which includes the presence of thin, white discharge, clue cells on microscopy, a vaginal pH greater than 4.5, and a positive whiff test. Treatment involves oral metronidazole for 5-7 days, with a cure rate of 70-80%. However, relapse rates are high, with over 50% of women experiencing a recurrence within 3 months. Topical metronidazole or clindamycin may be used as alternatives.
Bacterial vaginosis during pregnancy can increase the risk of preterm labor, low birth weight, chorioamnionitis, and late miscarriage. It was previously recommended to avoid oral metronidazole in the first trimester and use topical clindamycin instead. However, recent guidelines suggest that oral metronidazole can be used throughout pregnancy. The British National Formulary (BNF) still advises against using high-dose metronidazole regimes. Clue cells, which are vaginal epithelial cells covered with bacteria, can be seen on microscopy in women with BV.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 27
Incorrect
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Which one of the following statements regarding endometrial cancer is false?
Your Answer: Treatment of early disease is with total abdominal hysterectomy with bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy
Correct Answer: Has a poor prognosis
Explanation:The prognosis for endometrial cancer is generally favorable.
Endometrial cancer is a type of cancer that is commonly found in women who have gone through menopause, but it can also occur in around 25% of cases before menopause. The prognosis for this type of cancer is usually good due to early detection. There are several risk factors associated with endometrial cancer, including obesity, nulliparity, early menarche, late menopause, unopposed estrogen, diabetes mellitus, tamoxifen, polycystic ovarian syndrome, and hereditary non-polyposis colorectal carcinoma. Postmenopausal bleeding is the most common symptom of endometrial cancer, which is usually slight and intermittent initially before becoming more heavy. Pain is not common and typically signifies extensive disease, while vaginal discharge is unusual.
When investigating endometrial cancer, women who are 55 years or older and present with postmenopausal bleeding should be referred using the suspected cancer pathway. The first-line investigation is trans-vaginal ultrasound, which has a high negative predictive value for a normal endometrial thickness (< 4 mm). Hysteroscopy with endometrial biopsy is also commonly used for investigation. The management of localized disease involves total abdominal hysterectomy with bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy, while patients with high-risk disease may have postoperative radiotherapy. Progestogen therapy is sometimes used in frail elderly women who are not considered suitable for surgery. It is important to note that the combined oral contraceptive pill and smoking are protective against endometrial cancer.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old man with a history of asthma and bipolar disorder visits his local GP clinic complaining of 'tonsillitis' and requesting an antibiotic. Upon examination, he has inflamed tonsils on both sides, a temperature of 37.8ºC, and a pulse rate of 90/min. He is currently taking salbutamol inhaler as needed, Clenil inhaler 2 puffs twice daily, co-codamol 30/500 2 tablets four times a day, and quetiapine 100mg twice daily. The decision is made to prescribe penicillin. What is the most appropriate next step?
Your Answer: Check his PEFR
Correct Answer: Arrange a full blood count
Explanation:Monitoring FBC is crucial in patients taking clozapine as agranulocytosis/neutropenia, a potentially fatal side effect, can occur. It is imperative to rule out neutropenia in case of infections.
Atypical antipsychotics are now recommended as the first-line treatment for patients with schizophrenia, as per the 2005 NICE guidelines. These medications have the advantage of significantly reducing extrapyramidal side-effects. However, they can also cause adverse effects such as weight gain, hyperprolactinaemia, and in the case of clozapine, agranulocytosis. The Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency has issued warnings about the increased risk of stroke and venous thromboembolism when antipsychotics are used in elderly patients. Examples of atypical antipsychotics include clozapine, olanzapine, risperidone, quetiapine, amisulpride, and aripiprazole.
Clozapine, one of the first atypical antipsychotics, carries a significant risk of agranulocytosis and requires full blood count monitoring during treatment. Therefore, it should only be used in patients who are resistant to other antipsychotic medication. The BNF recommends introducing clozapine if schizophrenia is not controlled despite the sequential use of two or more antipsychotic drugs, one of which should be a second-generation antipsychotic drug, each for at least 6-8 weeks. Adverse effects of clozapine include agranulocytosis, neutropaenia, reduced seizure threshold, constipation, myocarditis, and hypersalivation. Dose adjustment of clozapine may be necessary if smoking is started or stopped during treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 21-year-old man visits his General Practitioner (GP) with a lump on his eyelid that he has noticed for two days. The GP diagnoses it as a chalazion. What is the most suitable course of action?
Your Answer: Refer to ophthalmology urgently
Correct Answer: Apply heat and massage daily
Explanation:Managing Chalazion: Options and Recommendations
Chalazion, also known as meibomian cyst, is a painless inflammatory lesion of the eyelid that contains meibomian secretions. While it is a self-limiting condition, it may become infected and require medical attention. Here are some management options and recommendations for chalazion:
Apply Heat and Massage Daily: The best way to manage chalazion is to apply heat and massage daily to release the oil. This treatment option is effective and usually improves the condition without the need for antibiotics.
Refer to Ophthalmology Urgently: While GPs can manage chalazion, referrals to ophthalmology should be made if the lesion does not improve with treatment or if the GP feels the lesion might be suspicious.
Surgical Incision: If medical management has been unsuccessful, chalazions can be removed surgically by incision and curettage.
Topical Antibiotics: There is no indication for the use of antibiotics in the treatment of chalazion.
Watch and Wait: While chalazions can sometimes resolve with time without treatment, they usually require medical attention. As such, watch and wait is not an appropriate management option.
In summary, applying heat and massage daily is the best way to manage chalazion. Referrals to ophthalmology should be made if necessary, and surgical incision may be required if medical management is unsuccessful. Topical antibiotics are not recommended, and watch and wait is not an appropriate management option.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 45 year-old-woman of African origin is diagnosed with type II diabetes by her General Practitioner. Her haemoglobin A1c was found to be 58 mmol/mol (normal range < 48 mmol/mol) on routine bloods for her annual hypertension review. Her body mass index (BMI) is 30 kg/m2.
Along with Metformin (an oral hypoglycaemic agent), which of the following is the most appropriate dietary recommendation for this patient?Your Answer: Ready-prepared meals marketed for people with type II diabetes
Correct Answer: Low-fat dairy and oily fish
Explanation:Dietary Recommendations for Type II Diabetes Management
Managing type II diabetes requires a comprehensive approach that includes lifestyle modifications and medication. One crucial aspect of diabetes management is a healthy, balanced diet. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) provides guidelines on dietary recommendations for people with type II diabetes.
Low-fat dairy and oily fish are recommended to control the intake of saturated and trans fatty acids. Oily fish contains Omega-3 fatty acids, which are cardio-protective. High-fibre foods with carbohydrates with a low glycaemic index, such as fruits, vegetables, whole grains, and pulses, are also recommended.
Sucrose-containing foods should be limited, and care should be taken to avoid excess energy intake. NICE discourages the use of foods marketed specifically for people with type II diabetes, as they are often higher in calories.
Weight loss is an essential aspect of diabetes management, particularly for overweight individuals. NICE recommends a weight loss target of 5-10% for overweight adults with type II diabetes. Those who achieve a weight loss of 10% or more in the first five years after diagnosis have the greatest chance of seeing their disease go into remission.
In summary, a healthy, balanced diet that includes low-fat dairy, oily fish, high-fibre foods with low glycaemic index carbohydrates, and limited sucrose-containing foods is crucial for managing type II diabetes. Weight loss is also an essential aspect of diabetes management, particularly for overweight individuals.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 31
Incorrect
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A nurse updates you on a 32-year-old woman who is 38 weeks pregnant. The patient's blood pressure reading is 155/90 mmHg, up from 152/85 mmHg two days ago. A 24-hour urine collection shows a urinary protein excretion of 0.7g / 24 hours. The patient was previously healthy before pregnancy. Following oral labetalol administration, what is the next step in managing this situation?
Your Answer: IV hydralazine
Correct Answer: Plan delivery of the foetus within 48 hours
Explanation:Pregnant women who have mild or moderate gestational hypertension, are beyond 37 weeks of pregnancy, and exhibit pre-eclampsia symptoms, should be advised to deliver their baby within 24 to 48 hours as per the existing recommendations.
Hypertension during pregnancy is a common occurrence that requires careful management. In normal pregnancies, blood pressure tends to decrease in the first trimester and then gradually increase to pre-pregnancy levels by term. However, in cases of hypertension during pregnancy, the systolic blood pressure is usually above 140 mmHg or the diastolic blood pressure is above 90 mmHg. Additionally, an increase of more than 30 mmHg systolic or 15 mmHg diastolic from the initial readings may also indicate hypertension.
There are three categories of hypertension during pregnancy: pre-existing hypertension, pregnancy-induced hypertension (PIH), and pre-eclampsia. Pre-existing hypertension refers to a history of hypertension before pregnancy or elevated blood pressure before 20 weeks gestation. PIH occurs in the second half of pregnancy and resolves after birth. Pre-eclampsia is characterized by hypertension and proteinuria, and may also involve edema.
The management of hypertension during pregnancy involves the use of antihypertensive medications such as labetalol, nifedipine, and hydralazine. In cases of pre-existing hypertension, ACE inhibitors and angiotensin II receptor blockers should be stopped immediately and alternative medications should be prescribed. Women who are at high risk of developing pre-eclampsia should take aspirin from 12 weeks until the birth of the baby. It is important to carefully monitor blood pressure and proteinuria levels during pregnancy to ensure the health of both the mother and the baby.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 32
Incorrect
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Sarah is a 30-year-old woman who has been admitted under Section 2 of the Mental Health Act. She has a history of depression and was recently referred for a Mental Health Act assessment because her family were concerned about her. She has been talking about her insides rotting and believes that she is going to die in her sleep. She cannot be convinced otherwise. She is not eating, barely drinking and lacks energy, concentration and motivation. Just prior to the Assessment she used a biro pen to cut into her forearm to 'prove that there is nothing inside that will bleed', and this required reconstructive surgery.
She is admitted to a psychiatric hospital and is commenced on an SSRI and an antipsychotic. One week into her admission the nurses call you because she is scoring highly on the Early Warning Score.
On examination you find Sarah to be confused. She has a temperature of 39ºC and is sweating. Her heart rate is 130 beats/min and her blood pressure is 80/50 mmHg. She complains of muscle stiffness but is not sure when this began. Cogwheel rigidity is present.
Urgent blood tests reveal the following:
Hb 155 g/L Male: (135-180) Female: (115 - 160)
Platelets 200 * 109/L (150 - 400)
WBC 18 * 109/L (4.0 - 11.0)
Creatine Kinase 2032 9/L (32-294)
Na+ 135 mmol/L (135 - 145)
K+ 4.9 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0)
Urea 3.0 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0)
Creatinine 118 µmol/L (55 - 120)
What is the likely cause of her symptoms?Your Answer: Sepsis secondary to forearm wound
Correct Answer: Neuroleptic malignant syndrome
Explanation:Neuroleptic malignant syndrome is a severe reaction that can occur in response to antipsychotic medication and can be life-threatening. The patient is exhibiting symptoms consistent with NMS, including muscle rigidity and elevated creatine kinase levels. Amphetamine intoxication is an unlikely cause as there is no history of drug use and the patient is under Section 2 of the MHA. Encephalitis and sepsis are important differential diagnoses to consider, but cogwheel rigidity would not be expected in encephalitis and sepsis would not typically cause muscle rigidity or elevated creatine kinase levels.
Understanding Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome
Neuroleptic malignant syndrome is a rare but serious condition that can occur in patients taking antipsychotic medication. It can also happen with dopaminergic drugs used for Parkinson’s disease. The exact cause of this condition is unknown, but it is believed that dopamine blockade induced by antipsychotics triggers massive glutamate release, leading to neurotoxicity and muscle damage. Symptoms of neuroleptic malignant syndrome typically appear within hours to days of starting an antipsychotic and include fever, muscle rigidity, autonomic lability, and agitated delirium with confusion.
A raised creatine kinase is present in most cases, and acute kidney injury may develop in severe cases. Management of neuroleptic malignant syndrome involves stopping the antipsychotic medication and transferring the patient to a medical ward or intensive care unit. Intravenous fluids may be given to prevent renal failure, and dantrolene or bromocriptine may be used in selected cases. It is important to differentiate neuroleptic malignant syndrome from serotonin syndrome, which has similar symptoms but is caused by excessive serotonin activity.
In summary, neuroleptic malignant syndrome is a rare but potentially life-threatening condition that can occur in patients taking antipsychotic medication or dopaminergic drugs. Early recognition and management are crucial to prevent complications and improve outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 33
Correct
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A mother brings her 5-year-old son to the clinic as she is worried about his bedwetting habit. Unlike his older sibling who stopped bedwetting at the age of 4, this child still wets the bed at night. The mother is seeking advice on possible treatment options. What is the best course of action to manage this issue?
Your Answer: Reassurance and advice on fluid intake, diet and toileting behaviour
Explanation:Reassurance and advice are sufficient for managing nocturnal enuresis in children under 5 years of age. It is important to reassure mothers that bedwetting is still common at the age of 4.
Nocturnal enuresis, or bedwetting, is when a child involuntarily urinates during the night. Most children achieve continence by the age of 3 or 4, so enuresis is defined as the involuntary discharge of urine in a child aged 5 or older without any underlying medical conditions. Enuresis can be primary, meaning the child has never achieved continence, or secondary, meaning the child has been dry for at least 6 months before.
When managing bedwetting, it’s important to look for any underlying causes or triggers, such as constipation, diabetes mellitus, or recent onset UTIs. General advice includes monitoring fluid intake and encouraging regular toileting patterns, such as emptying the bladder before sleep. Reward systems, like star charts, can also be helpful, but should be given for agreed behavior rather than dry nights.
The first-line treatment for bedwetting is an enuresis alarm, which has a high success rate. These alarms have sensor pads that detect wetness and wake the child up to use the toilet. If short-term control is needed, such as for sleepovers, or if the alarm is ineffective or not acceptable to the family, desmopressin may be prescribed. Overall, managing bedwetting involves identifying any underlying causes and implementing strategies to promote continence.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 34
Incorrect
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What is the most accurate statement regarding the use of radioactive iodine (131I) for treating thyrotoxicosis?
Your Answer: There is hypoparathyroidism secondary to beta-emissions and ablation of the parathyroid gland occurs in 30% of cases.
Correct Answer: It is not associated with an increased incidence of late leukaemia.
Explanation:Radioactive Iodine (131I) Treatment for Hyperthyroidism: Uses and Potential Complications
Radioactive iodine (131I) is a commonly used treatment for hyperthyroidism, particularly in cases of toxic nodular hyperthyroidism and Graves’ disease. It works by inducing DNA damage in the thyroid gland, leading to the death of thyroid cells. This treatment is typically administered orally as a capsule or solution, and a standard dosage of 10 mCi is often used. However, the dosage may be increased if necessary, especially in cases of multinodular goitre.
While 131I treatment is generally safe and effective, there are potential complications to be aware of. For example, it should not be administered to pregnant women, as it can cross the placenta and affect the thyroid gland of the fetus. Women should avoid becoming pregnant for at least six months after treatment, and men should not father children for at least four months after treatment. Additionally, there is a risk of hypoparathyroidism, which occurs in about 30% of cases and typically has a latency period of more than a decade.
It is important to note that 131I treatment is not recommended for patients with active Graves’ ophthalmopathy, as it may cause progression of the condition. However, early treatment with levothyroxine may help reduce this risk. On the other hand, rapid regression of exophthalmos is expected in almost all cases within the first three months of treatment.
Overall, 131I treatment is a safe and effective option for many patients with hyperthyroidism. However, it is important to discuss potential risks and benefits with a healthcare provider before undergoing this treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology/Therapeutics
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Question 35
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old woman, who is a non-smoker, presents with back pain. A bone scan shows multiple lesions highly suggestive of metastases. Clinical examination is normal apart from unilateral axillary lymphadenopathy. Excision biopsy of an affected lymph node shows adenocarcinoma. Which of the following investigations should be prioritised to find the site of the primary?
Your Answer: CA-125
Correct Answer: Mammography
Explanation:When a patient presents with metastatic bone disease from an unknown primary, it is important to identify the primary source in order to guide treatment and determine prognosis. Tumours that commonly metastasize to bone include those of the lungs, prostate, breast, kidney, and thyroid.
In cases where the patient has unilateral axillary lymphadenopathy, metastatic breast carcinoma is highly likely. Other potential causes of unilateral axillary lymphadenopathy include lymphoma, primary malignancy, melanoma, or metastases from non-breast primary malignancy.
While there are various investigations that can be performed, mammography should be the first examination of choice. If the mammogram is negative, other investigations may be pursued to identify alternative occult sites.
It is important to note that identifying the primary source is useful even in cases of metastatic disease, as it can guide treatment and provide insight into prognosis. Therefore, mammography plays a crucial role in the diagnosis of metastatic breast cancer.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 36
Incorrect
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As a foundation doctor on the neonatal ward, you are updating a prescription chart for a premature baby born at twenty-seven weeks who is in poor condition. While reviewing the chart, you come across caffeine as one of the medications prescribed. Can you explain the purpose of caffeine in neonatal care?
Your Answer: Reducing gastro-oesophageal reflux
Correct Answer: Aiding weaning off a ventilator
Explanation:Newborn babies can benefit from caffeine as it acts as a respiratory stimulant. It is also used to help neonates transition off a ventilator. Sildenafil, known as Viagra, is typically used to treat erectile dysfunction in adults, but it can also be used to treat pulmonary hypertension in neonates. The approach to addressing distress in newborns depends on the underlying cause, which is often related to respiratory or pain issues. Gaviscon and ranitidine are sometimes used to treat gastro-oesophageal reflux, although this is not an approved use. Necrotising enterocolitis is more prevalent in premature babies and can be treated through medical interventions, such as resting the gut, or surgical interventions, such as resection.
Surfactant Deficient Lung Disease in Premature Infants
Surfactant deficient lung disease (SDLD), previously known as hyaline membrane disease, is a condition that affects premature infants. It occurs due to the underproduction of surfactant and the immaturity of the lungs’ structure. The risk of SDLD decreases with gestation, with 50% of infants born at 26-28 weeks and 25% of infants born at 30-31 weeks being affected. Other risk factors include male sex, diabetic mothers, Caesarean section, and being the second born of premature twins.
The clinical features of SDLD are similar to those of respiratory distress in newborns, including tachypnea, intercostal recession, expiratory grunting, and cyanosis. Chest x-rays typically show a ground-glass appearance with an indistinct heart border.
Prevention during pregnancy involves administering maternal corticosteroids to induce fetal lung maturation. Management of SDLD includes oxygen therapy, assisted ventilation, and exogenous surfactant given via an endotracheal tube. With proper management, the prognosis for infants with SDLD is generally good.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 37
Correct
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You are setting up a leg ulcer clinic to be run by your practice nurse.
Which of the following is the best treatment for venous leg ulcers?
Your Answer: Compression bandaging
Explanation:Effective Management of Venous Leg Ulcers in Primary Care
Venous leg ulcers can be effectively managed in primary care through a combination of measures. Graduated compression is a key component of treatment, as it reduces venous reflux and ankle oedema while increasing venous blood flow. However, compression therapy may not be suitable for infected ulcers or those that are too tender. Pharmacotherapy and zinc paste are also not recommended for venous leg ulcers.
Intermittent pneumatic calf compression can be effective in overcoming venous hypertension, but bandaging regimens must be adjusted according to ankle circumference to achieve the optimal pressure of around 40 mm Hg. Hyperbaric oxygen is not the first-choice treatment.
In primary care, management of venous leg ulcers involves cleaning and dressing the ulcer, applying compression therapy appropriately, treating associated conditions such as pain, infection, oedema, and eczema, and providing lifestyle advice. Pentoxifylline may also be prescribed to aid ulcer healing. Follow-up and referral to specialist clinics may be necessary in some cases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 38
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old male presents to his GP with a 6-month history of progressive shortness of breath. He is now needing to stop a few times on the way to the grocery store to catch his breath, which is not normal for him. He smokes 20 cigarettes a day and has done so for the past 45 years, and drinks no alcohol. His only medication is atorvastatin.
On examination, there is a bilateral wheeze and coarse crackles at the lung bases. A chest x-ray is ordered by the GP which shows flattening of the diaphragm bilaterally, but is otherwise normal. Spirometry is carried out, with the following results:
Result Reference Range
FEV1 (of predicted) 72% >80%
FEV1:FVC 0.62 >0.7
What is the most appropriate management for this likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Beclomethasone
Correct Answer: Ipratropium
Explanation:The patient’s history, examination, and obstructive spirometry results suggest that he has COPD, likely due to his smoking history. Malignancy has been ruled out by the chest x-ray. As per NICE guidelines, the first-line pharmacological treatment for COPD is either a SABA or SAMA to alleviate breathlessness and improve exercise tolerance. Ipratropium, a SAMA, is the most suitable option for this patient. Beclomethasone, an inhaled corticosteroid, is used as a second-line treatment with a LABA for those with asthmatic features or steroid responsiveness. Montelukast, a LTRA, is used as a third-line treatment in asthmatic patients, while Salmeterol, a LABA, is used as a second-line treatment in COPD patients.
NICE guidelines recommend smoking cessation advice, annual influenza and one-off pneumococcal vaccinations, and pulmonary rehabilitation for COPD patients. Bronchodilator therapy is first-line treatment, with the addition of LABA and LAMA for patients without asthmatic features and LABA, ICS, and LAMA for those with asthmatic features. Theophylline is recommended after trials of bronchodilators or for patients who cannot use inhaled therapy. Azithromycin prophylaxis is recommended in select patients. Mucolytics should be considered for patients with a chronic productive cough. Loop diuretics and long-term oxygen therapy may be used for cor pulmonale. Smoking cessation and long-term oxygen therapy may improve survival in stable COPD patients. Lung volume reduction surgery may be considered in selected patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Medicine
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Question 39
Correct
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A 28-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of joint pain. She has previously sought medical attention for this issue, but her high BMI of 30 kg/m² was deemed to be the cause and weight loss was recommended. Upon examination, the doctor notes a significant effusion in her left knee and limited range of motion. The metacarpophalangeal joints in her right hand appear swollen and her fingers have a sausage-like appearance. Her left hand does not show any obvious deformities. The patient has tested positive for HLA-B27 and has a blood pressure of 138/87 mmHg and a temperature of 36.7ºC. Based on this information, what is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Psoriatic arthritis
Explanation:Psoriatic arthritis is a type of arthritis that can occur without prior psoriatic skin lesions and is often associated with dactylitis, also known as ‘sausage fingers’. HLA-B27 is commonly found in patients with psoriatic arthritis. Gout is unlikely in a woman under 60 and typically affects the big toe joint. Rheumatoid arthritis is also unlikely as it causes symmetrical polyarthritis and is associated with HLA-DRB1 rather than HLA-B27. Therefore, given the patient’s age, sex, dactylitis, and nail changes, psoriatic arthritis is a more likely diagnosis.
Psoriatic arthropathy is a type of inflammatory arthritis that is associated with psoriasis. It is classified as one of the seronegative spondyloarthropathies and is known to have a poor correlation with cutaneous psoriasis. In fact, it often precedes the development of skin lesions. This condition affects both males and females equally, with around 10-20% of patients with skin lesions developing an arthropathy.
The presentation of psoriatic arthropathy can vary, with different patterns of joint involvement. The most common type is symmetric polyarthritis, which is very similar to rheumatoid arthritis and affects around 30-40% of cases. Asymmetrical oligoarthritis is another type, which typically affects the hands and feet and accounts for 20-30% of cases. Sacroiliitis, DIP joint disease, and arthritis mutilans (severe deformity of fingers/hand) are other patterns of joint involvement. Other signs of psoriatic arthropathy include psoriatic skin lesions, periarticular disease, enthesitis, tenosynovitis, dactylitis, and nail changes.
To diagnose psoriatic arthropathy, X-rays are often used. These can reveal erosive changes and new bone formation, as well as periostitis and a pencil-in-cup appearance. Management of this condition should be done by a rheumatologist, and treatment is similar to that of rheumatoid arthritis. However, there are some differences, such as the use of monoclonal antibodies like ustekinumab and secukinumab. Mild peripheral arthritis or mild axial disease may be treated with NSAIDs alone, rather than all patients being on disease-modifying therapy as with RA. Overall, psoriatic arthropathy has a better prognosis than RA.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 40
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old woman presents to urogynaecology with symptoms of urge incontinence. Despite attempting bladder retraining, her symptoms persist. The decision is made to prescribe a muscarinic antagonist. Can you identify an example of a medication that falls under this category?
Your Answer: Finasteride
Correct Answer: Tolterodine
Explanation:Oxybutynin and solifenacin are other examples of muscarinic antagonists used for urinary incontinence. Muscarinic antagonists used for different conditions include ipratropium for chronic obstructive pulmonary disease and procyclidine for Parkinson’s disease.
Understanding Urinary Incontinence: Causes, Classification, and Management
Urinary incontinence (UI) is a common condition that affects around 4-5% of the population, with elderly females being more susceptible. Several risk factors contribute to UI, including advancing age, previous pregnancy and childbirth, high body mass index, hysterectomy, and family history. UI can be classified into different types, such as overactive bladder (OAB)/urge incontinence, stress incontinence, mixed incontinence, overflow incontinence, and functional incontinence.
Initial investigation of UI involves completing bladder diaries for at least three days, vaginal examination, urine dipstick and culture, and urodynamic studies. Management of UI depends on the predominant type of incontinence. For urge incontinence, bladder retraining and bladder stabilizing drugs such as antimuscarinics are recommended. For stress incontinence, pelvic floor muscle training and surgical procedures such as retropubic mid-urethral tape procedures may be offered. Duloxetine, a combined noradrenaline and serotonin reuptake inhibitor, may also be used as an alternative to surgery.
In summary, understanding the causes, classification, and management of UI is crucial in providing appropriate care for patients. Early diagnosis and intervention can significantly improve the quality of life for those affected by this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine/Urology
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Question 41
Correct
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A 65-year-old man is scheduled for an elective knee replacement and presents to the orthopaedic surgery ward. He has osteoarthritis and hypertension and is currently being treated for an episode of giant cell arteritis that occurred four months ago with 20 mg prednisolone daily. This will be his first surgery and he is feeling anxious about the anaesthetic. What is the most crucial medication to prescribe before the operation?
Your Answer: Hydrocortisone
Explanation:Patients who are on chronic glucocorticoid therapy, such as prednisolone for the treatment of conditions like giant cell arteritis, may require hydrocortisone supplementation before undergoing surgery. This is because long-term use of glucocorticoids can suppress the hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenal axis, which can lead to inadequate adrenal gland response during times of stress, such as surgery. The amount of hydrocortisone required depends on the type of surgery being performed, with minor procedures under local anesthesia not requiring supplementation. For moderate to major surgeries, 50mg to 100mg of hydrocortisone should be given before induction, followed by additional doses every 8 hours for 24 hours. Diazepam should not be routinely given to control anxiety, and there is no indication that this patient requires additional medications for her hypertension preoperatively. Instead, the patient may benefit from speaking with someone who can provide reassurance about the procedure.
Preparation for surgery varies depending on whether the patient is undergoing an elective or emergency procedure. For elective cases, it is important to address any medical issues beforehand through a pre-admission clinic. Blood tests, urine analysis, and other diagnostic tests may be necessary depending on the proposed procedure and patient fitness. Risk factors for deep vein thrombosis should also be assessed, and a plan for thromboprophylaxis formulated. Patients are advised to fast from non-clear liquids and food for at least 6 hours before surgery, and those with diabetes require special management to avoid potential complications. Emergency cases require stabilization and resuscitation as needed, and antibiotics may be necessary. Special preparation may also be required for certain procedures, such as vocal cord checks for thyroid surgery or bowel preparation for colorectal cases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology/Therapeutics
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Question 42
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old woman with chronic osteoarthritis to multiple joints has been managed on morphine modified-release for several months. She currently takes 30 mg morphine modified-release twice daily. She has also been using Oramorph 10 mg four times daily for the past week because the twice-daily, 30-mg morphine modified-release has not been helping. You decide to increase the total dose of modified-release morphine.
Which of the following is the most appropriate dose of morphine modified-release?
Select the SINGLE most appropriate dose from the list below. Select ONE option only.Your Answer: Morphine modified-release 100 mg twice daily
Correct Answer: Morphine modified-release 50 mg twice daily
Explanation:Understanding Opioid Conversion and Dosage Adjustments
When managing pain in patients with advanced and progressive disease, strong opioids such as morphine are often used. However, as the patient’s condition changes, adjustments to the dosage and type of opioid may be necessary.
For example, if a patient is using a total of 100 mg of morphine in 24 hours and requires increased use of Oramorph PRN, it may be appropriate to increase the total daily dose of morphine modified-release. To calculate the new dose, simply add the total amount of morphine used in 24 hours and divide by 2, which gives a twice-daily dose for morphine modified-release.
It is important to note that transdermal patch formulations should not be routinely offered to patients for whom oral opioids are suitable. If a patient requires additional pain relief, other options such as adding a fentanyl patch may be considered.
When converting between different opioids, it is important to consult the BNF or local guidance for equi-analgesic potencies. For example, 10 mg of oral morphine is equivalent to 100 mg of codeine phosphate or dihydrocodeine, 1.3 mg of hydromorphone, 5 mg of oxycodone, 25 mg of tapentadol, or 67 mg of tramadol.
Dosage adjustments should always be undertaken with specialist advice, especially when converting to or from methadone. Transdermal opioids also require careful consideration, with buprenorphine and fentanyl patches available in various strengths and corresponding oral morphine equivalents.
In summary, understanding opioid conversion and dosage adjustments is crucial for effective pain management in patients with advanced and progressive disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology/Therapeutics
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Question 43
Incorrect
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A 48-year-old woman is contemplating hormone replacement therapy but is concerned about the potential risk of developing breast cancer. She began menstruating at the age of 11 and experienced premature menopause at 45. She has three children, all of whom she breastfed, and has never used oral contraceptives. Apart from hormone replacement therapy, which of the following factors is most strongly linked to an elevated risk of breast cancer?
Your Answer: Multiple pregnancy
Correct Answer: Early menarche
Explanation:Breast cancer risk is increased by HRT, early menarche, late menopause, and COCP, while it is reduced by multiple pregnancy and breastfeeding.
Breast Cancer Risk Factors: Understanding the Predisposing Factors
Breast cancer is a complex disease that can be influenced by various factors. Some of these factors are considered predisposing factors, which means they increase the likelihood of developing breast cancer. One of the most well-known predisposing factors is the presence of BRCA1 and BRCA2 genes, which can increase a person’s lifetime risk of breast and ovarian cancer by 40%. Other predisposing factors include having a first-degree relative with premenopausal breast cancer, nulliparity, having a first pregnancy after the age of 30, early menarche, late menopause, combined hormone replacement therapy, combined oral contraceptive use, past breast cancer, not breastfeeding, ionizing radiation, p53 gene mutations, obesity, and previous surgery for benign disease.
To reduce the risk of developing breast cancer, it is important to understand these predisposing factors and take steps to minimize their impact. For example, women with a family history of breast cancer may choose to undergo genetic testing to determine if they carry the BRCA1 or BRCA2 genes. Women who have not yet had children may consider having their first child before the age of 30, while those who have already had children may choose to breastfeed. Additionally, women who are considering hormone replacement therapy or oral contraceptives should discuss the potential risks and benefits with their healthcare provider. By understanding these predisposing factors and taking proactive steps to reduce their impact, women can help protect themselves against breast cancer.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 44
Incorrect
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As the on-call duty doctor, you are in your room when a receptionist rushes in, alarmed that an elderly woman has been hit by a car in the surgery car park. The receptionist calls an ambulance while you quickly assess the patient. The patient's airway is clear, with spontaneous breathing at a rate of 18 breaths per minute and oxygen saturation of 98% on room air. The patient is hemodynamically stable with a heart rate of 70 beats per minute and blood pressure of 138/86 mmHg. The patient is lethargic, but responds to voice and exhibits abnormal flexion in response to pain. The patient mumbles incomprehensible sounds when asked questions. What is the patient's Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score based on your assessment?
Your Answer: 10
Correct Answer: 8
Explanation:What is the patient’s GCS based on the assessment that he is drowsy, but his eyes open to voice and exhibits abnormal flexion to pain, and mutters incomprehensible sounds in response to questions?
GCS score is 7.Understanding the Glasgow Coma Scale for Adults
The Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) is a tool used to assess the level of consciousness in adults who have suffered a brain injury or other neurological condition. It is based on three components: motor response, verbal response, and eye opening. Each component is scored on a scale from 1 to 6, with a higher score indicating a better level of consciousness.
The motor response component assesses the patient’s ability to move in response to stimuli. A score of 6 indicates that the patient is able to obey commands, while a score of 1 indicates no movement at all.
The verbal response component assesses the patient’s ability to communicate. A score of 5 indicates that the patient is fully oriented, while a score of 1 indicates no verbal response at all.
The eye opening component assesses the patient’s ability to open their eyes. A score of 4 indicates that the patient is able to open their eyes spontaneously, while a score of 1 indicates no eye opening at all.
The GCS score is expressed as a combination of the scores from each component, with the motor response score listed first, followed by the verbal response score, and then the eye opening score. For example, a GCS score of 13, M5 V4 E4 at 21:30 would indicate that the patient had a motor response score of 5, a verbal response score of 4, and an eye opening score of 4 at 9:30 PM.
Overall, the Glasgow Coma Scale is a useful tool for healthcare professionals to assess the level of consciousness in adults with neurological conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 45
Incorrect
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Which ethnic group has a higher occurrence of prostate cancer?
Your Answer: Indian subcontinent
Correct Answer: Afro-Caribbean
Explanation:The Afro-Caribbean population is more prone to developing prostate cancer.
Prostate cancer is currently the most prevalent cancer among adult males in the UK, and the second most common cause of cancer-related deaths in men, following lung cancer. The risk factors for prostate cancer include increasing age, obesity, Afro-Caribbean ethnicity, and a family history of the disease, which accounts for 5-10% of cases. Localized prostate cancer is often asymptomatic, as the cancer tends to develop in the outer part of the prostate gland, causing no obstructive symptoms in the early stages. However, some possible features of prostate cancer include bladder outlet obstruction, haematuria or haematospermia, and pain in the back, perineal or testicular area. A digital rectal examination may reveal asymmetrical, hard, nodular enlargement with loss of median sulcus. In addition, an isotope bone scan can be used to detect metastatic prostate cancer, which appears as multiple, irregular, randomly distributed foci of high-grade activity involving the spine, ribs, sternum, pelvic and femoral bones.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine/Urology
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Question 46
Incorrect
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You are discussing with a pediatrician some of the potential teratogenic risks of certain drugs in infants.
Which of the drugs listed below is correctly paired with a potentially harmful outcome?Your Answer: Carbamazepine-macrocephaly
Correct Answer: Diethylstilbestrol-vaginal carcinoma
Explanation:Teratogenic Effects of Common Drugs in Pregnancy
During pregnancy, certain drugs can have harmful effects on the developing fetus, leading to congenital malformations, developmental disorders, and other complications. It is important for healthcare providers to be aware of these teratogenic effects and avoid prescribing these drugs whenever possible. Here are some common drugs and their potential teratogenic effects:
Diethylstilbestrol: This synthetic estrogen can cause a rare vaginal tumor (vaginal clear cell adenocarcinoma) in girls and young women who have been exposed to the drug in utero. They also have an increased risk of moderate-to-severe cervical squamous cell dysplasia and an increased risk of breast cancer.
Lithium: This drug, primarily used in psychiatry for the treatment of bipolar affective disorder, increases the risk of developing a congenital heart defect known as Ebstein’s anomaly when used in pregnancy. Fetal echocardiography is routinely performed in pregnant women taking lithium to exclude the possibility of cardiac abnormalities.
Thalidomide: This immunomodulatory drug, historically used to alleviate morning sickness in pregnant women in the 1950s, can cause phocomelia (malformations of the limbs) in infants, only 40% of whom survived.
Warfarin: This anticoagulant is contraindicated in pregnancy because it may cause bleeding in the fetus and is commonly associated with spontaneous pregnancy loss, stillbirth, neonatal death, and preterm birth. Teratogenic effects depend on when exposure occurs, with the first trimester being associated with fetal warfarin syndrome (characterized by skeletal abnormalities) and the second trimester and later being associated with CNS disorders and eye defects.
Carbamazepine: This drug, used primarily in the treatment of epilepsy and neuropathic pain, is most often associated with congenital malformations, particularly spina bifida, developmental disorders, and macrocephaly.
Other drugs with teratogenic effects include angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors, alcohol, certain antibiotics, antiepileptics, and vitamin A (retinoid acid). Healthcare providers should carefully weigh the risks and benefits of prescribing these drugs during pregnancy and consider alternative treatments whenever possible.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology/Therapeutics
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Question 47
Incorrect
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A 51-year-old woman presents with non-specific abdominal discomfort that has been bothering her for the past 2 months. She also reports experiencing loose stools up to three times a day for the past month, despite previously having solid stools once daily. She denies any weight loss or blood in her stool. Upon examination, her abdomen is soft and nontender, and she has normal urine dip results. Blood tests, including a CA-125 and coeliac screen, and a faecal calprotectin test all come back within the normal range. Although you suspect irritable bowel syndrome, the patient is worried about the possibility of colorectal cancer. What is the best course of action?
Your Answer: Refer to colorectal team via 2-week wait pathway
Correct Answer: Faecal immunochemical test (FIT)
Explanation:If a patient shows new symptoms of possible colorectal cancer but does not meet the 2-week criteria, it is recommended to undergo the FIT test. In the case of a patient experiencing unexplained abdominal pain and a change in bowel habit, a FIT test is the most appropriate next step, according to NICE guidance, especially considering the patient’s age and the absence of rectal bleeding. It is not advisable to simply suggest diet changes or reassure the patient without conducting the necessary tests, as her symptoms require complete investigation. Repeating a faecal calprotectin level is unlikely to be helpful and may only delay the patient from receiving the appropriate support.
Referral Guidelines for Colorectal Cancer
Colorectal cancer is a serious condition that requires prompt diagnosis and treatment. In 2015, the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) updated their referral guidelines for patients suspected of having colorectal cancer. According to these guidelines, patients who are 40 years or older with unexplained weight loss and abdominal pain, 50 years or older with unexplained rectal bleeding, or 60 years or older with iron deficiency anemia or change in bowel habit should be referred urgently to colorectal services for investigation. Additionally, patients who test positive for occult blood in their feces should also be referred urgently.
An urgent referral should also be considered for patients who have a rectal or abdominal mass, unexplained anal mass or anal ulceration, or are under 50 years old with rectal bleeding and any of the following unexplained symptoms/findings: abdominal pain, change in bowel habit, weight loss, or iron deficiency anemia.
The NHS offers a national screening program for colorectal cancer, which involves sending eligible patients aged 60 to 74 years in England and 50 to 74 years in Scotland FIT tests through the post. FIT is a type of fecal occult blood test that uses antibodies to detect and quantify the amount of human blood in a single stool sample. Patients with abnormal results are offered a colonoscopy.
The FIT test is also recommended for patients with new symptoms who do not meet the 2-week criteria listed above. For example, patients who are 50 years or older with unexplained abdominal pain or weight loss, under 60 years old with changes in their bowel habit or iron deficiency anemia, or 60 years or older who have anemia even in the absence of iron deficiency. Early detection and treatment of colorectal cancer can significantly improve patient outcomes, making it important to follow these referral guidelines.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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Question 48
Correct
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Each one of the following is typical of optic neuritis, except for:
Your Answer: Sudden onset of visual loss
Explanation:It is rare for optic neuritis to cause sudden visual loss, as the typical progression of visual loss occurs over a period of days rather than hours.
Optic neuritis is a condition that can be caused by multiple sclerosis, diabetes, or syphilis. It is characterized by a decrease in visual acuity in one eye over a period of hours or days, as well as poor color discrimination and pain that worsens with eye movement. Other symptoms include a relative afferent pupillary defect and a central scotoma. The condition can be diagnosed through an MRI of the brain and orbits with gadolinium contrast. Treatment typically involves high-dose steroids, and recovery usually takes 4-6 weeks. If an MRI shows more than three white-matter lesions, the risk of developing multiple sclerosis within five years is approximately 50%.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 49
Incorrect
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A 21-year-old woman presents with a rash on her trunk that developed a few weeks after a sore throat. On examination, small, drop-shaped, salmon-pink plaques are observed. What is the most probable cause of this rash?
Your Answer: Pustular psoriasis
Correct Answer: Guttate psoriasis
Explanation:Understanding Different Skin Conditions: Guttate Psoriasis, Dermatitis, Hand, Foot and Mouth Disease, Pityriasis Rosea, and Pustular Psoriasis
Skin conditions can be uncomfortable and sometimes even painful. Here are some common skin conditions and their characteristics:
Guttate psoriasis is a type of psoriasis that causes small, drop-shaped plaques on the chest, arms, legs, and scalp. It is usually caused by a streptococcal infection and can last for up to three months. Topical agents, such as steroids or calcipotriol, can be used to treat it.
Dermatitis, also known as eczema, results in rough patches of skin that are dry and itchy, particularly with exposure to irritants. In children and adults with long-standing disease, eczema is often localised to the flexure of the limbs.
Hand, foot and mouth disease (HFMD) is an acute viral illness characterised by vesicular eruptions in the mouth and papulovesicular lesions of the distal limbs. It should not be confused with foot and mouth disease of animals, which is caused by a different virus.
Pityriasis rosea is a skin rash that is characterised by distinctive, scaly, erythematous lesions. It is thought to be a reaction to exposure to infection.
Pustular psoriasis is a rarer type of psoriasis that causes pus-filled blisters (pustules) to appear on your skin. Different types of pustular psoriasis affect different parts of the body.
It is important to consult a healthcare professional for proper diagnosis and treatment of any skin condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 50
Incorrect
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A 33-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with acute chest pain described as tearing in nature. Upon clinical examination, a diastolic murmur consistent with aortic regurgitation is detected. Further investigation with chest computerised tomography (CT) confirms the presence of an ascending aortic dissection. The patient has a medical history of spontaneous pneumothorax and upward lens dislocation, but no significant family history. What is the probable underlying diagnosis?
Your Answer: Loffler syndrome
Correct Answer: Marfan syndrome
Explanation:Common Genetic and Neurological Syndromes: Symptoms and Characteristics
Marfan Syndrome, Ehlers-Danlos Syndrome, Homocystinuria, Korsakoff Syndrome, and Loffler Syndrome are all genetic and neurological syndromes that affect individuals in different ways.
Marfan Syndrome is caused by a mutation in the fibrillin gene, resulting in weakened elastic fibers and aortic dissection. Ehlers-Danlos Syndrome is characterized by fragile blood vessels, hyperelastic skin, and aneurysm formation. Homocystinuria is an autosomal recessive condition that causes downward lens dislocation, thrombotic episodes, osteoporosis, and intellectual disability. Korsakoff Syndrome occurs after Wernicke’s encephalopathy and results in the inability to acquire new memories. Finally, Loffler Syndrome is a transient respiratory condition caused by the allergic infiltration of the lungs by eosinophils.
Understanding the symptoms and characteristics of these syndromes is crucial for proper diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics
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