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Question 1
Incorrect
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You are creating a medication schedule for a patient with chronic renal failure who is elderly. Which medication may require a dosage modification due to the reduced renal clearance?
Your Answer: Warfarin
Correct Answer: Morphine sulphate
Explanation:Opioid Use in Patients with Abnormal Renal Function
Patients with abnormal renal function should have their opioid doses reduced due to the prolonged duration of action. However, it is important to note that the initial loading dose may need to be greater in these patients to achieve the desired drug effect. This is because patients with chronic renal failure have an increased volume of distribution, which can affect drug concentration in the plasma. Despite the need for a higher initial dose, subsequent doses should be reduced to account for poor drug clearance. It is important to monitor patients closely and adjust doses as needed to avoid adverse effects. None of the other agents typically require caution in patients with abnormal renal function.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A disheveled woman is brought to the Emergency Department with constricted pupils, a respiratory rate of eight per minute and an oxygen saturation of 84% on room air. Her heart rate is 60 beats per minute and her blood pressure is 110/70. The medical team recognizes her as a frequent drug user in the area. She is placed in a supine position and given high-flow oxygen, but her respiratory rate remains at eight per minute and her oxygen saturation only improves to 86%.
What is the most appropriate medication to administer in this situation?Your Answer: Salbutamol
Correct Answer: Naloxone
Explanation:Treatment for Opiate-Induced Respiratory Depression
When a patient displays respiratory depression and mild bradycardia, it is likely due to opiate use. In such cases, the opiate antagonist naloxone is the most effective treatment. Naloxone has a rapid onset of action and can immediately reverse the effects of opiates. However, it is important to note that the half-life of naloxone is shorter than that of opiates, so patients must be monitored to prevent them from leaving prematurely.
Flumazenil is used to treat uncomplicated benzodiazepine overdose, while pralidoxime is used in organophosphate poisoning. However, in cases of opiate-induced respiratory depression, naloxone is the drug of choice. It is important to be aware that opiate abusers may become angry and aggressive when their high is suddenly reversed. Therefore, a slow infusion of naloxone may be necessary to ensure adequate oxygenation without completely reversing the effects of the opiates. Overall, naloxone is a highly effective treatment for opiate-induced respiratory depression.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old woman complains of muscle aches and pains. She has a medical history of ischaemic heart disease, which has been treated recently. What medication is the most probable cause of her symptoms?
Your Answer: Nitrates
Correct Answer: Statins
Explanation:The Benefits and Risks of Statin Therapy
Statins are medications used to lower lipid levels in the body, which can significantly reduce the risk of cardiovascular disease. However, one common side effect of this treatment is myalgia, or muscle pain. This side effect can be worsened by certain medications, such as macrolides and fibrates, as well as by hypothyroidism. While myalgia is generally not life-threatening, it can be uncomfortable and may lead some patients to discontinue statin therapy.
In rare cases, statin therapy can lead to a potentially lethal condition called rhabdomyolysis. This occurs when there is severe muscle infiltration and destruction, which can cause renal failure. While this side effect is rare, it is important for patients to be aware of the potential risks associated with statin therapy and to report any unusual symptoms to their healthcare provider. Overall, the benefits of statin therapy in reducing cardiovascular risk generally outweigh the risks, but it is important for patients to work closely with their healthcare provider to monitor for any potential side effects.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A patient in his 50s with heart failure is prescribed a diuretic by his GP and subsequently develops gynaecomastia. Which specific agent is most likely responsible for this adverse effect?
Your Answer: Furosemide
Correct Answer: Spironolactone
Explanation:Drugs that may cause side effects and the role of Spironolactone
There are several drugs that may cause side effects, including cimetidine, oestrogens, digoxin, and ketoconazole. These drugs can affect the body in different ways, leading to various symptoms. For instance, cimetidine may cause confusion, while oestrogens may cause breast tenderness. Digoxin may cause nausea and vomiting, and ketoconazole may cause liver problems.
One drug that can help maintain plasma potassium levels is Spironolactone. It acts as an aldosterone antagonist, which means it blocks the effects of aldosterone, a hormone that regulates sodium and potassium levels in the body. By blocking aldosterone, Spironolactone helps to maintain a balance of potassium in the blood. This is important because too much or too little potassium can cause serious health problems, such as irregular heartbeats or muscle weakness. Therefore, Spironolactone is often prescribed to people with conditions such as heart failure, liver disease, or high blood pressure.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old expectant mother complains of feeling tired. During the examination, her nail beds and conjunctiva appear pale, and her haemoglobin level is below 98 g/L, indicating significant anaemia. What is the recommended amount of dietary iron that pregnant women should consume?
Your Answer: 5 mg
Correct Answer: 15 mg
Explanation:Anaemia in Pregnancy
During pregnancy, anaemia is a common occurrence due to various factors such as reduced absorption, fetal demand, and expansion of plasma volume. As the pregnancy progresses, maternal iron stores tend to become depleted. Although cessation of menstruation prevents iron loss, it is not enough to compensate for the additional fetal requirements. To address this, it is recommended that pregnant women consume 15 mg of dietary iron per day.
It is important to routinely assess haemoglobin levels throughout each pregnancy. If haemoglobin levels are found to be less than 110 g/L, investigations and management should begin promptly. By monitoring haemoglobin levels and ensuring adequate iron intake, the risk of anaemia during pregnancy can be reduced, promoting better health outcomes for both the mother and the developing fetus.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 6
Incorrect
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Which diabetes medication is the least likely to cause weight gain?
Your Answer: Repaglinide
Correct Answer: Exenatide
Explanation:Exenatide and its Benefits for Overweight Patients
Exenatide is a medication that mimics the effects of GLP-1, a hormone released by the gut in response to food intake. This hormone triggers insulin secretion in the pancreatic beta-cells, which makes GLP-1 mimetics like exenatide effective in stimulating insulin release. Additionally, exenatide is associated with weight loss, making it a good choice for patients who are significantly overweight.
According to NICE guidelines, exenatide should be used in patients with a BMI exceeding 35 kg/m2 or in those with significant weight-related comorbidity, even if their BMI is less than 35 kg/m2. After six months of therapy, exenatide should only be continued if the patient’s HbA1c has fallen by 11 mmol/mol and their weight has decreased by 3%.
However, exenatide does have some side effects, including nausea and vomiting. It should also be avoided in patients with renal failure, impaired liver function, and gastroparesis. On the other hand, other diabetes medications like gliptins, glitazones, and sulphonylureas are associated with significant weight gain, while repaglinide may result in minimal or no weight gain.
Overall, exenatide is a promising option for overweight patients with diabetes, as it not only stimulates insulin release but also promotes weight loss.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 7
Incorrect
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Which patient with acute ischaemic stroke is a candidate for neurosurgical intervention?
Your Answer: Neurosurgery is not indicated in ischaemic stroke
Correct Answer: A 50-year-old with infarction of 60% of the middle cerebral artery (MCA) territory
Explanation:Guidelines for Decompressive Hemicraniectomy in Large Cerebral Infarctions
Current clinical guidelines recommend that patients under 60 years of age with large cerebral infarctions in the middle cerebral artery (MCA) territory should be considered for decompressive hemicraniectomy. This procedure involves removing part of the skull to reduce intracranial pressure and should be done within 48 hours of the stroke. Eligibility for the surgery is based on clinical and radiological evidence of a stroke affecting the MCA territory, radiological evidence that more than 50% or 145 cm3 of the MCA territory is involved, and being classified as having a moderate to severe stroke according to the National Institute of Health stroke scale.
In addition to large cerebral infarctions in the MCA territory, other indications for neurosurgical intervention in acute ischemic stroke include a massive cerebellar infarction or evidence of hydrocephalus or brainstem compression. It is important for healthcare professionals to be aware of these guidelines and indications for neurosurgical intervention in order to provide the best possible care for stroke patients. Proper and timely intervention can greatly improve outcomes and quality of life for stroke survivors.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old male with a three year history of type 2 diabetes complains of feeling dizzy, sweaty and confused. Upon checking his glucose levels, it is found that he is experiencing hypoglycaemia which is resolved with a glucose drink. Which medication is the most probable cause of this hypoglycaemic episode?
Your Answer: Pioglitazone
Correct Answer: Glibenclamide
Explanation:Mechanisms of Hypoglycaemia in Sulphonylurea Therapies
Sulphonylurea therapies, including gliclazide, glimepiride, and glibenclamide, are known to cause hypoglycaemia. This is due to their ability to increase pancreatic insulin secretion, which can lead to a drop in blood glucose levels. On the other hand, metformin and pioglitazone work differently to control blood glucose levels. Metformin reduces the amount of glucose produced by the liver, while pioglitazone improves the body’s sensitivity to insulin. Neither of these medications typically causes hypoglycaemia.
Overall, it is important for healthcare providers to be aware of the potential for hypoglycaemia when prescribing sulphonylurea therapies and to monitor patients closely for any signs or symptoms of low blood glucose levels. Additionally, patients should be educated on the importance of monitoring their blood glucose levels regularly and seeking medical attention if they experience any symptoms of hypoglycaemia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A previously healthy 95-year-old individual with a history of hypertension arrives at the Emergency department with dysphasia and right-sided hemiplegia. A CT scan is performed urgently 2 hours after the symptoms began, revealing a left hemisphere cerebral infarction. What is the time frame for administering alteplase in the treatment of this patient?
Your Answer: 3 hours
Correct Answer: 4.5 hours
Explanation:Guidelines for Thrombolysis in Stroke Patients
According to the guidelines set by The Royal College of Physicians, thrombolysis with alteplase can be administered within three hours from the onset of stroke symptoms, regardless of the patient’s age, as long as a haemorrhagic stroke is ruled out and there are no contraindications to thrombolysis. However, in patients under the age of 80 years, alteplase can be given up to 4.5 hours from the onset of stroke, and in some cases, up to 6 hours. It is important to note that the benefits of thrombolysis decrease over time.
The guidelines emphasize the importance of timely administration of thrombolysis to maximize its benefits. However, the decision to administer thrombolysis should be made after careful consideration of the patient’s medical history, contraindications, and the potential risks and benefits of the treatment. It is also important to rule out haemorrhagic stroke before administering thrombolysis, as it can worsen the condition and lead to complications. Overall, the guidelines provide a framework for the safe and effective use of thrombolysis in stroke patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 10
Correct
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An 80-year-old man is brought to the Emergency Department by his physician due to sudden confusion. The patient had been treated for a chest infection with clarithromycin recently. He has a history of atrial fibrillation and is taking warfarin as an anticoagulant. Due to his confusion, it is challenging to obtain a detailed medical history from him. However, his blood tests reveal a significantly low haemoglobin level of 56 g/L (115-160). What type of drug reaction is this indicative of?
Your Answer: Inhibition of metabolism
Explanation:Drug Interaction Causing Bleeding and Confusion
This patient’s symptoms are a classic example of a drug interaction between clarithromycin and warfarin. While there are many medications that can interact with warfarin, antibiotics are particularly known for affecting its effectiveness. In this case, clarithromycin has inhibited the metabolism of warfarin, causing it to become more potent. As a result, the patient has experienced bleeding, most likely in the gastrointestinal tract, which has led to confusion.
Further investigation is necessary to ensure that there is not an underlying issue, such as colon cancer, that has been unmasked by this drug interaction. It is important for healthcare providers to be aware of potential drug interactions and to monitor patients closely for any adverse effects. By doing so, they can help prevent complications and ensure that patients receive the best possible care.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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