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  • Question 1 - A 49-year-old man underwent a kidney transplant two years ago due to end...

    Correct

    • A 49-year-old man underwent a kidney transplant two years ago due to end stage renal failure caused by ANCA associated vasculitis. He recently visited the clinic with complaints of sweating palms, weight loss, insomnia, and tremors. Upon conducting thyroid function tests, an undetectable TSH and a free T4 of 25 mg/dL (NR 4.5-11.5) were observed. The patient was diagnosed with Graves' disease after testing positive for thyroid stimulating hormone receptor (TSH-R) antibodies. Which medication could have potentially contributed to this condition?

      Your Answer: Alemtuzumab

      Explanation:

      Alemtuzumab is a monoclonal antibody used to treat autoimmune diseases and can cause lymphocyte depletion. However, it is associated with autoimmunity after treatment, particularly autoimmune thyroid disease. Regular thyroid function screening is important for patients who have received alemtuzumab. Other monoclonal antibodies, such as adalimumab, basiliximab, rituximab, and ciclosporin, are not known to be associated with autoimmunity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
      158.1
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A patient admitted for treatment of PD peritonitis has had their cloudy PD...

    Correct

    • A patient admitted for treatment of PD peritonitis has had their cloudy PD fluid sent for culture and has been started on empirical antibiotics while awaiting results. What is the most probable pathogen responsible for the infection?

      Your Answer: Coagulase negative staph

      Explanation:

      Causes of PD Peritonitis

      PD peritonitis is a common complication of peritoneal dialysis, with 50% of episodes caused by Gram positive organisms. The most frequent culprit is coagulase negative staph, which is often due to contamination from skin flora. While Staph. aureus is becoming more prevalent, it is still less common than coagulase negative staph. Gram negative organisms, such as E. coli, are responsible for only 15% of PD peritonitis cases. Pseudomonas is rare and challenging to treat. Fungal organisms cause peritonitis in less than 2% of patients. Overall, the causes of PD peritonitis is crucial for effective management and prevention of this complication.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
      23.9
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  • Question 3 - A 67-year-old woman presents to her GP with a four month history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old woman presents to her GP with a four month history of general malaise, weight loss, night sweats and fevers.

      Examination shows a non-blanching rash across her lower legs, feet and hands. She has mild widespread wheeze and a systolic murmur consistent with her known COPD and aortic stenosis.

      Temperature is 38°C, BP 150/100 mmHg. Urine dipstick is positive for blood and protein. Bloods show a raised creatinine at 140 umol/l, CRP of 230 mg/l, ESR of 45 mm/hr, with mild anaemia and mild leucocytosis. Her autoimmune screen is pending.

      She is admitted for further investigation. What would be the next investigation of choice?

      Your Answer: Echocardiogram

      Correct Answer: Peripheral blood cultures

      Explanation:

      Diagnosis and Investigation of a Patient with Chronic Symptoms

      The most probable diagnosis for a patient presenting with constitutional symptoms, a known valve lesion, fever, vasculitic rash, and raised inflammatory markers is subacute bacterial endocarditis (SBE). Therefore, the most appropriate investigation would be blood cultures. Although her symptoms are consistent with a chronic infection, inflammatory process, or malignancy, the combination of her symptoms makes bacterial endocarditis the most likely diagnosis. A false positive ANCA test can be seen in chronic infections, and it is well described in SBE.

      A chest radiograph would be appropriate to look for malignancy or infection in a woman with a smoking history and known COPD. However, the examination findings are not consistent with a lung malignancy, and the history is too chronic for pneumonia. It is important to consider the patient’s symptoms and medical history when determining the appropriate investigation and diagnosis. Proper diagnosis and investigation can lead to effective treatment and management of the patient’s condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
      110.7
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  • Question 4 - You are part of the transplant team on call and have been asked...

    Correct

    • You are part of the transplant team on call and have been asked to assess a potential kidney donor. The patient is an 86-year-old man who has been in the ICU for ten days due to severe pneumonia. He has required ventilatory support, inotropes, and filtration during his stay. His creatinine levels have rapidly risen since admission, with a current level of 350 umol/l. However, a sample taken six months ago by his GP showed a creatinine level of 95 umol/l. The patient's medical history includes hypertension and a malignant melanoma that was treated to remission three years ago with a hemicolectomy, but no adjuvant therapy was required. His screening colonoscopies have been normal in the years since.

      What factor would lead you to decide against this patient as a potential donor?

      Your Answer: History of malignancy

      Explanation:

      Donor Evaluation for Organ Transplantation

      This patient’s stay in the ICU has been complicated, but the only absolute contraindication to organ donation is malignancy. Although the patient had a limited malignancy without evidence of spread, the risk of cancer in the recipient is too high due to potential micrometastases and immunosuppression. The only other absolute contraindications are HIV or CJD associated illness.

      Despite being elderly, a kidney from a relatively healthy 85-year-old donor could be a good match for an elderly recipient in their mid-70s. The patient’s creatinine levels suggest acute tubular necrosis and delayed graft function, but this is likely due to severe sepsis and the patient’s previous normal creatinine levels indicate good baseline renal function. The need for inotropes also suggests acute tubular necrosis, but this is consistent with the patient’s septic shock and acute illness, which could potentially improve after transplantation.

      In summary, organ donation evaluation involves considering absolute contraindications such as malignancy, HIV, or CJD associated illness. Age and medical history of the donor and recipient are also important factors to consider. The patient’s current condition and potential for recovery after transplantation should also be taken into account.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
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  • Question 5 - Dr. Patel is a nephrologist who has five patients attending his clinic. The...

    Correct

    • Dr. Patel is a nephrologist who has five patients attending his clinic. The patients' results are as follows:
      Adam Ahmed Bella Brownie Charlie Chen David Davis
      Urine protein mg/24 hrs: 150 4000 3000 200 300
      Haematuria: Present Absent Present Present Absent
      Oedema: Absent Present Present Absent Absent
      Serum albumin g/l: 24 18 26 17 32
      Serum creatinine µmol/l: 430 110 280 560 120

      Which patient is diagnosed with nephrotic syndrome?

      Your Answer: Bella Barnard

      Explanation:

      Nephrotic Syndrome

      Nephrotic syndrome is a condition characterized by low serum albumin levels, high urinary protein levels, and marked pitting edema. Only individuals who meet all three criteria are diagnosed with this syndrome. Other features of nephrotic syndrome include little or no hematuria, glomerular pathology as the cause, marked hyperlipidemia that increases cardiovascular risk, reduced immunoglobulins that increase the risk of infection, and loss of certain proteins that increase the risk of thrombosis, including renal vein thrombosis. Creatinine levels can be normal or elevated.

      The causes of nephrotic syndrome include glomerulonephritis, such as minimal change disease and membranous glomerulonephritis, focal segmental glomerulosclerosis, diabetic nephropathy, amyloid (AL form), and connective tissue disease such as systemic lupus erythematosus. the diagnostic criteria and features of nephrotic syndrome is crucial for early detection and management of this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
      72
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  • Question 6 - A patient who had her PD catheter inserted into her abdomen complains that...

    Incorrect

    • A patient who had her PD catheter inserted into her abdomen complains that the first bag of the morning is often difficult to instil, and she cannot remove any fluid after the four hour dwell. Later in the day, this is better, and she can usually remove the fluid from the morning and instil the next bag and remove it after the dwell. What is the most probable reason for this issue?

      Your Answer: Absorption of fluid

      Correct Answer: Catheter kinking

      Explanation:

      Common Issues with Peritoneal Dialysis Catheters

      Kinking of the catheter is a common issue that occurs shortly after insertion. This can cause problems with both fluid inflow and outflow, and symptoms may vary depending on the patient’s position. Catheter malposition is another early issue that can be painful and uncomfortable for the patient. If absorption of PD fluid is occurring, patients may experience signs of fluid overload, such as swollen ankles, indicating a need for a higher concentration of osmotic agent in the fluid. Constipation is a consistent cause of outflow obstruction, while leakage can be noticed as fluid coming from the exit site or swelling around the site as fluid leaks into subcutaneous tissues. It is important to monitor for these common issues and address them promptly to ensure the success of peritoneal dialysis treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
      35.7
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  • Question 7 - As a GP, you examine a 28-year-old pregnant woman who complains of mild...

    Incorrect

    • As a GP, you examine a 28-year-old pregnant woman who complains of mild ankle swelling. She denies any symptoms of a urinary tract infection. Upon conducting a urinalysis, the following results are obtained:

      Haemoglobin: Negative
      Urobilinogen: Negative
      Bilirubin: Negative
      Protein: ++
      Glucose: ++
      Nitrites: Negative
      Leucocytes: ++
      Ketones: Negative

      What could be the possible explanation for these findings?

      Your Answer: Urinary tract infection

      Correct Answer: Healthy pregnancy

      Explanation:

      Urinalysis in Pregnancy: Common Abnormalities and Importance of Monitoring

      Urinalysis is a crucial diagnostic tool for detecting renal diseases and other medical conditions. During pregnancy, even asymptomatic and healthy women may exhibit abnormalities on urinalysis. These abnormalities include small amounts of glucose, as pregnancy alters the renal threshold for glucose, and small amounts of protein, which can be a sign of pre-eclampsia. Ketones should not be present unless the patient is fasting, and prolonged fasting is not recommended. Pregnant women may also have sterile pyuria and non-specific changes in leukocytes.

      It is important to monitor pregnant women for urinary infections, as they have been linked to premature labor. However, minor and non-specific changes on urinalysis can falsely reassure clinicians. Pregnant women are at an increased risk of UTIs and may present with atypical symptoms or unusual urinalysis features. Therefore, urine should be sent for culture if there are any concerns.

      In summary, urinalysis is a vital investigation during pregnancy to detect abnormalities and monitor for urinary infections. Clinicians should be aware of the common abnormalities seen on urinalysis during pregnancy and the importance of careful monitoring to ensure the health of both the mother and the developing fetus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
      19.6
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  • Question 8 - As an Emergency department doctor, a 50-year-old man presents with intense left flank...

    Incorrect

    • As an Emergency department doctor, a 50-year-old man presents with intense left flank pain that extends to his groin. He reports that the pain began yesterday. Upon conducting a urinalysis, the following results were obtained:
      - Haemoglobin +++
      - Urobilinogen Negative
      - Bilirubin Negative
      - Protein Negative
      - Glucose Negative
      - Nitrites Negative
      - Leucocytes Negative
      - Ketones +

      What could be the possible cause of these findings?

      Your Answer: Nephritic syndrome

      Correct Answer: Renal calculus

      Explanation:

      Renal Calculi: Causes and Symptoms

      Renal calculi, commonly known as kidney stones, can be caused by various factors such as reduced urine output, changes in medication, and diet. These factors can lead to the formation of stones in the urinary tract, which can cause inflammation and damage to the lining of the urinary tract. Patients with renal calculi may experience symptoms such as blood in their urine due to the damage caused by the stones. Additionally, ketones may be present in the urine, indicating reduced oral intake due to severe pain.

      In summary, renal calculi can be caused by various factors and can lead to symptoms such as blood in the urine and reduced oral intake. It is important for patients to seek medical attention if they suspect they may have renal calculi to receive proper diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
      27.3
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  • Question 9 - Are there any immunosuppressant drugs that can cause severe myelosuppression along with unpleasant...

    Correct

    • Are there any immunosuppressant drugs that can cause severe myelosuppression along with unpleasant gastrointestinal side effects? It is important to note that while all immunosuppressants have potential side effects such as increased risk of infection and malignancy, certain drugs may have specific side effects due to their unique mechanisms of action.

      Your Answer: Mycophenolate mofetil

      Explanation:

      Myelosuppression and Gastrointestinal Side Effects of Immunosuppressive Drugs

      Immunosuppressive drugs are commonly used in the treatment of autoimmune diseases and organ transplantation. However, they can cause myelosuppression, a condition where the bone marrow is suppressed and the production of blood cells is reduced. Mycophenolate mofetil (MMF) is known to cause myelosuppression even at low doses, so it is important to monitor patients’ full blood count (FBC) after starting treatment with MMF or azathioprine. Azathioprine is also associated with myelosuppression, but it is more commonly linked to abnormal liver function tests (LFTs) than gastrointestinal (GI) upset.

      Patients taking MMF often experience diarrhea, which can be managed by starting with a low dose and gradually increasing it over several weeks. It is crucial to monitor patients for myelosuppression and other side effects of immunosuppressive drugs to ensure their safety and well-being. By doing so, healthcare providers can adjust the dosage or switch to a different medication if necessary. Proper monitoring and management of side effects can help patients achieve better outcomes and improve their quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
      12.8
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  • Question 10 - In the treatment of autoimmunity and to prevent rejection following solid organ transplantation,...

    Correct

    • In the treatment of autoimmunity and to prevent rejection following solid organ transplantation, there are various immunosuppressant drugs available. Despite their effectiveness, these drugs come with unwanted side effects, such as an increased risk of infection and malignancy. However, specific side effects may vary depending on the drug's mechanism of action. Which immunosuppressant drug is linked to an elevated risk of bladder cancer in the long run and can cause haemorrhagic cystitis? Additionally, is this drug safe for use in elderly patients?

      Your Answer: Cyclophosphamide

      Explanation:

      Cyclophosphamide and its Effects on the Body

      Cyclophosphamide is a chemotherapy drug that is commonly used to treat autoimmune diseases such as ANCA associated vasculitis and systemic lupus erythematosus. Once it is metabolized in the liver, it is converted into its active form, phosphoramide mustard, which causes DNA crosslinking and apoptosis of rapidly dividing cells, including lymphocytes.

      However, the drug can also produce a toxic compound called acrolein, which is harmful to the urothelium. Since the drug is excreted by the kidney, the bladder can accumulate high concentrations of acrolein, leading to potential damage. To prevent this, patients are often pre-hydrated to ensure that urine remains dilute and high concentrations are avoided.

      In some cases, mesna is used to prevent urothelial damage. Mesna is believed to act as an antioxidant and can be particularly useful for patients receiving high doses of therapy. By taking these precautions, the harmful effects of cyclophosphamide can be minimized, allowing patients to receive the benefits of the drug without experiencing unnecessary harm.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
      58.8
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  • Question 11 - A 7-year-old girl presents with oedema and proteinuria of 4.2 g/24 hours. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 7-year-old girl presents with oedema and proteinuria of 4.2 g/24 hours. She is diagnosed with minimal change disease and started on steroid therapy. What could be the possible reason for her proteinuria?

      Your Answer: Pre-renal proteinuria

      Correct Answer: Glomerular proteinuria

      Explanation:

      Glomerular Proteinuria and Minimal Change Disease

      Glomerular proteinuria is a condition characterized by the presence of protein in the urine due to damage to the glomeruli, the tiny filters in the kidneys responsible for removing waste from the blood. This condition can be caused by primary glomerular disease, glomerulonephritis, anti-GBM disease, immune complex deposition, and inherited conditions such as Alport’s syndrome. Additionally, secondary glomerular disease can result from systemic diseases like diabetes.

      One type of glomerulonephritis that is particularly common in children is minimal change disease. This condition has a good prognosis and can often be treated effectively with steroids. It is important to promptly diagnose and treat glomerular proteinuria to prevent further damage to the kidneys and maintain overall kidney function.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
      346.5
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  • Question 12 - A 25-year-old woman with a history of glomerulonephritis is scheduled to undergo a...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old woman with a history of glomerulonephritis is scheduled to undergo a 24-hour urinary protein collection. What is the recommended starting time for the collection?

      Your Answer: Start after the first morning void

      Explanation:

      Guidelines for Accurate 24 Hour Urine Collection

      Twenty four hour urine collections are essential for measuring urinary protein levels and diagnosing various conditions. However, the accuracy and reproducibility of the test can be limited due to the difficulty in performing it correctly. To ensure accurate results, laboratories provide guidelines to patients for the procedure of taking a 24 hour urine collection.

      The guidelines advise patients to use the correct bottle for the test and to read the leaflet about dietary requirements during the test. Some analytes can be affected by diet before and during the test, so it is important to follow the instructions carefully. Patients should also be aware that some bottles contain acid, which prevents degradation of certain analytes and prevents false negative results. If there is a small amount of liquid already in the bottle, patients should not throw it out as it is usually there as a preservative.

      To start the collection, patients should begin after the first void of the day and collect all urine for 24 hours, including the first void the following day. Although the start time does not technically matter, starting after the first void tends to be at a similar time on consecutive days, minimizing error.

      The main errors made in urine collections are overcollection and undercollection. Overcollection occurs when patients collect for more than 24 hours, leading to a falsely high urine protein result. Patients should consider overcollection if urine volumes are greater than 3-4L/day. Undercollection occurs when patients collect for less than 24 hours, leading to a falsely low result. Patients should suspect undercollection if urine volumes are less than 1 L/day. By following these guidelines, patients can ensure accurate and reliable results from their 24 hour urine collection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
      3.9
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  • Question 13 - What is the primary role of the kidneys in eliminating waste in a...

    Correct

    • What is the primary role of the kidneys in eliminating waste in a person who is in good health?

      Your Answer: Excretion of nitrogenous waste

      Explanation:

      The Kidney’s Role in Excretion of Nitrogenous Waste and Urate

      In healthy individuals, the kidney’s primary function is to eliminate toxic nitrogen-containing waste resulting from the breakdown of excess protein. Urea, the primary nitrogenous waste product, is formed through the deamination of excess amino acids. Additionally, the kidney plays a role in the excretion of urate, which comes from the breakdown of nucleic acids from both endogenous and exogenous sources.

      However, in diabetic patients with hyperglycemia, glucose is often found in the urine. In normoglycemic individuals, the kidney does not play a role in regulating blood sugar levels. Similarly, the kidney has little involvement in the excretion of fat-soluble substances and lipids.

      The liver, on the other hand, plays a significant role in rendering compounds water-soluble to facilitate renal excretion. Substances that remain relatively insoluble are excreted in the bile.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
      7.3
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  • Question 14 - A 28-year-old female presents with acute kidney injury and pulmonary haemorrhage, and is...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old female presents with acute kidney injury and pulmonary haemorrhage, and is diagnosed with anti-GBM disease (Goodpasture's disease) with very high antibody titres. She is started on plasma exchange with daily treatments for five days in addition to methylprednisolone. What is a complication of plasma exchange that is unlikely to occur?

      Your Answer: Fever

      Correct Answer: Hypercalcaemia

      Explanation:

      Plasma Exchange and its Side Effects

      Plasma exchange is a medical procedure that involves taking blood from a patient, separating the cells and large proteins from the plasma and smaller proteins, and replacing the plasma with either donated fresh-frozen plasma or human albumin solution. This process removes low molecular weight proteins such as antibodies, but it also has a number of side effects. These side effects are partly due to the removal of other components such as clotting factors, but they are also due to the blood products and anticoagulants used.

      To address these complications, more specific methods of antibody removal have been developed, such as immunoabsorption. This method uses a column of beads coated in specific antigen, which separates the plasma and passes it over the column. Antigen-specific antibodies bind to the column, and antibody-free plasma can then be returned to the patient. This method is better for the patient because they do not lose clotting factors and avoid exposure to blood products.

      Common side effects of plasma exchange include hypocalcaemia, which is a decrease in plasma ionised calcium due to the citrate anticoagulants used for replacement fluids such as human albumin solution and fresh frozen plasma. Bleeding can also occur due to the loss of clotting factors in the exchange, and transfusion with any blood products can lead to allergic reactions. Infection is also a risk due to the loss of protective immunoglobulins along with the autoantibodies, so it is important to monitor immunoglobulin levels during treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
      20.7
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  • Question 15 - A patient who has been on peritoneal dialysis for two years complains that...

    Incorrect

    • A patient who has been on peritoneal dialysis for two years complains that her bags, previously clear, have become cloudy.

      She is in good health, with slight abdominal discomfort, and has successfully instilled fluid, although she only removed 1.5 liters from a 2-liter bag instilled earlier. Her abdomen is soft and only slightly tender.

      What is the probable complication?

      Your Answer: Fibrin blockages of the catheter

      Correct Answer: Peritonitis

      Explanation:

      Symptoms and Treatment of PD Peritonitis

      Peritonitis in patients undergoing peritoneal dialysis (PD) may not present with typical symptoms seen in non-dialysis patients. Patients may only experience mild abdominal discomfort or tenderness, or may not have any symptoms at all. The most common sign of PD peritonitis is a cloudy bag, which indicates bacterial growth. In severe cases, the fluid may resemble pea soup. It is important to note that any patient with a cloudy bag should be treated for PD peritonitis immediately with antibiotics, such as vancomycin, administered intraperitoneally, and oral antibiotics, such as ciprofloxacin. PD exchanges should continue during treatment to flush out the peritoneal cavity.

      While surgical problems, such as appendicitis, can occur in PD patients, they typically present with local peritonism and symptoms like vomiting. Constipation may cause abdominal discomfort and outflow problems, but it does not cause cloudy bags. Fibrin can block the catheter and cause abnormal fluid appearance, but it tends to appear as strands rather than a cloudy bag and does not cause abdominal discomfort or tenderness. It is important for PD patients to be aware of the symptoms of PD peritonitis and seek immediate treatment if they notice a cloudy bag or any other concerning symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
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  • Question 16 - A 25-year-old man is brought to the Emergency department by his friends after...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old man is brought to the Emergency department by his friends after being found on the floor following a night out. There are suspicions that he may have taken drugs, although the exact substance is unknown. Upon examination, he is found to be semi-conscious with a rapid respiratory rate. A catheterisation procedure yields 25 mls of dark brown coloured urine which tests positive for haemoglobin using urinalysis.

      What potential blood and electrolyte imbalances should be anticipated in this patient?

      Your Answer: Hyponatraemia with alkalosis

      Correct Answer: Hyperuricaemia with acidosis

      Explanation:

      Rhabdomyolysis: Symptoms and Treatment

      Rhabdomyolysis is a medical condition that occurs when there is a rapid breakdown of skeletal muscle. This condition is associated with several biochemical abnormalities, including elevated levels of creatine kinase (CK), potassium, urate, and myoglobinuria. Additionally, calcium levels may be elevated intracellularly in myocytes, but normal or low in the blood during the early stages of the disease. However, as the disease progresses, calcium levels in the blood may increase. Acidosis is also a common symptom of rhabdomyolysis.

      Early and aggressive treatment is crucial in managing rhabdomyolysis. Rehydration and managing hyperkalemia can help reduce the likelihood of developing complications such as arrhythmias due to electrolyte disturbance, renal failure, disseminated intravascular coagulation, and compartment syndrome. By the symptoms and seeking prompt medical attention, individuals with rhabdomyolysis can receive the necessary treatment to manage the condition and prevent further complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
      2.7
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  • Question 17 - A 40-year-old male visits his doctor two days after finishing a marathon. He...

    Correct

    • A 40-year-old male visits his doctor two days after finishing a marathon. He expresses worry about the reddish-brown hue of his urine and his overall feeling of illness. What is the pigment responsible for the urine discoloration?

      Your Answer: Myoglobin

      Explanation:

      Rhabdomyolysis and Myoglobinuria

      Rhabdomyolysis is a common condition that occurs after extreme physical exertion, such as running a marathon. It is characterized by the breakdown of muscle tissue, which releases myoglobin into the bloodstream. Myoglobin is a small molecule that is normally found in muscle cells, but when released into the circulation, it can cause urine to turn a dark color.

      There are several causes of rhabdomyolysis and myoglobinuria, including trauma, compartment syndrome, crush injuries, ischemia, severe electrolyte imbalances, bacterial and viral infections, and inherited metabolic disorders like McArdle’s disease. In rare cases, certain drugs like barbiturates and statins can also cause rhabdomyolysis.

      It is important to recognize the signs and symptoms of rhabdomyolysis, such as muscle pain, weakness, and dark urine, as it can lead to serious complications like kidney failure if left untreated. Treatment typically involves addressing the underlying cause, such as rehydration and electrolyte replacement, and may require hospitalization in severe cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
      2.3
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  • Question 18 - A 60-year-old man visits the clinic with his 35-year-old son, who has been...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old man visits the clinic with his 35-year-old son, who has been diagnosed with IgA nephropathy and is in CKD stage 5. The man wishes to be evaluated as a potential live kidney donor for his son. He has a history of mild hypertension that is managed with 2.5 mg of ramipril daily. He has never had any surgeries, does not smoke, and only drinks alcohol in moderation.

      As part of the consent process for kidney donation, what advice should be provided to the patient?

      Your Answer: There is a 5× increase in the rate of end stage renal failure in donors compared to the general population

      Correct Answer: There is no significant increase in hypertension in donors compared to the general population

      Explanation:

      The Health Benefits and Risks of Being a Kidney Donor

      Surprisingly, being a kidney donor can have health benefits. Studies have shown that live donors have lower long-term morbidity and mortality rates than the general population. This is likely due to the rigorous screening process that selects only those with excellent overall health.

      While reducing renal mass could potentially lead to a decrease in glomerular filtration rate and an increased risk of end-stage renal failure or hypertension, large-scale studies with up to 35 years of follow-up have shown no increased risk compared to the general population. However, potential donors should be warned about the possibility of end-stage renal failure, particularly those with borderline GFR for donation.

      As with any surgery, there are risks involved in kidney donation. The risk of death is quoted at 1 in 3000, and there is a 1-2% risk of major complications such as pneumothorax, injury to other organs, renovascular injury, DVT, or PE. There is also a 20% risk of minor complications such as post-operative atelectasis, pneumonia, wound infection, hematoma, incisional hernia, or urinary tract infection.

      To ensure the safety of potential donors, they undergo thorough screening, including a comprehensive medical history, family history, and physical examination. They also undergo extensive investigations of cardiovascular, respiratory, and psychological fitness, as well as multiple tests of renal function and anatomy to determine if it is safe to proceed and select the kidney to be removed.

      In conclusion, kidney donation can have health benefits for the donor, but it is not without risks. Only the healthiest individuals are selected as donors, and they undergo rigorous screening to ensure their safety.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
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  • Question 19 - A 67-year-old man with diabetes comes in for his annual check-up. He reports...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old man with diabetes comes in for his annual check-up. He reports occasional cramping in his calf after walking about a mile on flat ground, but is otherwise feeling well. He admits to smoking five cigarettes a day. During the exam, his blood pressure is measured at 166/98 mmHg, with a pulse of 86 bpm and a BMI of 30.2. Neurological exam is normal and his fundi appear normal. However, examination of his peripheral circulation reveals absent feet pulses and weak popliteal pulses. He is started on antihypertensive therapy and his U+Es are measured over a two-week period, with the following results:

      Baseline:
      Sodium - 138 mmol/L
      Potassium - 4.6 mmol/L
      Urea - 11.1 mmol/L
      Creatinine - 138 µmol/L

      2 weeks later:
      Sodium - 140 mmol/L
      Potassium - 5.0 mmol/L
      Urea - 19.5 mmol/L
      Creatinine - 310 µmol/L

      Which class of antihypertensives is most likely responsible for this change?

      Your Answer: Diuretic

      Correct Answer: Angiotensin converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor therapy

      Explanation:

      Renal Artery Stenosis and ACE Inhibitors

      This individual with diabetes is experiencing hypertension and arteriopathy, as indicated by mild claudication symptoms and absent pulses in the feet. These factors, combined with macrovascular disease and mild renal impairment, suggest a potential diagnosis of renal artery stenosis (RAS). The introduction of an antihypertensive medication, specifically an ACE inhibitor, resulted in a decline in renal function, further supporting the possibility of RAS. In RAS, hypertension occurs due to the activation of the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system in an attempt to maintain renal perfusion. However, ACE inhibition can lead to relative renal ischemia, exacerbating the condition. This highlights the importance of considering RAS as a potential cause of hypertension and carefully monitoring the use of ACE inhibitors in individuals with this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
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  • Question 20 - What is the name of the newer induction drug that selectively targets B...

    Correct

    • What is the name of the newer induction drug that selectively targets B cells to quickly control ANCA associated vasculitides while sparing other lymphocytes?

      Your Answer: Rituximab

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for ANCA Vasculitis

      ANCA vasculitis is a condition that causes inflammation of blood vessels, leading to organ damage. There are several treatment options available for this condition, depending on the severity of the disease. Cyclophosphamide and rituximab are induction agents used in severe or very active disease. Cyclophosphamide is a chemotherapy drug that causes DNA crosslinking and apoptosis of rapidly dividing cells, including lymphocytes. Rituximab is a monoclonal antibody that causes profound B cell depletion.

      Azathioprine and mycophenolate mofetil are maintenance agents used for their steroid sparing effect. They can also be used to induce remission in mild disease, but their maximal effect takes three to four weeks. Therefore, they are not appropriate for severe or very active disease. Ciclosporin is a calcineurin inhibitor that blocks IL-2 production and proliferation signals to T cells. However, it is not widely used in the treatment of ANCA vasculitis. Overall, the choice of treatment depends on the severity of the disease and the individual patient’s needs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
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  • Question 21 - A 60-year-old patient presents to her GP with a general feeling of unwellness....

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old patient presents to her GP with a general feeling of unwellness. The following blood test results are obtained:

      - Adjusted calcium: 2.9 mmol/L (normal range: 2.2-2.4)
      - Phosphate: 0.5 mmol/L (normal range: 0.7-1.0)
      - PTH: 7.2 pmol/L (normal range: 1.05-6.83)
      - Urea: 5 mmol/L (normal range: 2.5-7.8)
      - Creatinine: 140 µmol/L (normal range: 60-120)
      - 25 OH Vit D: 50 nmol/L (optimal level >75)

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Acute renal failure

      Correct Answer: Primary hyperparathyroidism

      Explanation:

      Primary Hyperparathyroidism

      Primary hyperparathyroidism is a condition where the parathyroid glands produce too much parathyroid hormone (PTH), leading to elevated calcium levels and low serum phosphate levels. This condition can go undiagnosed for years, with the first indication being an incidental finding of high calcium levels. However, complications can arise from longstanding primary hyperparathyroidism, including osteoporosis, renal calculi, and renal calcification. The high levels of PTH can cause enhanced bone resorption, leading to osteoporosis. Additionally, the high levels of phosphate excretion and calcium availability can predispose patients to the development of calcium phosphate renal stones. Calcium deposition in the renal parenchyma can also cause renal impairment, which can develop gradually. Patients with chronic kidney disease may also have elevated PTH levels, but hypocalcaemia is more common due to impaired hydroxylation of vitamin D. primary hyperparathyroidism and its potential complications is crucial for early diagnosis and management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
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  • Question 22 - A 28-year-old woman with type 1 diabetes comes in for her yearly check-up....

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman with type 1 diabetes comes in for her yearly check-up. During the examination, her urine test shows positive results for protein. Upon reviewing her medical records, it is discovered that this is the first time she has had proteinuria. What further tests should be conducted to investigate this finding?

      Your Answer: 24 hour urine protein collection and serum urea

      Correct Answer: ACR (albumin:creatinine ratio) and microbiology

      Explanation:

      Investigating Proteinuria in Diabetic Patients

      Proteinuria or microalbuminuria is a significant finding in diabetic patients. It indicates an increased risk of developing diabetic nephropathy in type 1 diabetes and an additional risk factor for cardiovascular disease in type 2 diabetes. When a diabetic patient presents with proteinuria, it is crucial to rule out infection, which is a common cause of increased urinary protein excretion. A urine microbiology test can identify the presence of infection, while an albumin-to-creatinine ratio (ACR) can quantify the degree of proteinuria and allow for future monitoring. Although HbA1c, serum urea/creatinine, and plasma glucose are standard tests for monitoring diabetic patients, they do not help quantify urinary protein loss or exclude infection. A high HbA1c in this situation could indicate longstanding poor glycemic control or poor glycemic control for several weeks due to infection. Therefore, ACR and urine microbiology are the most useful investigations to investigate proteinuria in diabetic patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
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  • Question 23 - A 59-year-old man is undergoing his routine dialysis treatment when he suddenly experiences...

    Incorrect

    • A 59-year-old man is undergoing his routine dialysis treatment when he suddenly experiences intense chest pain and difficulty breathing. He has been on dialysis for the past nine years and uses a fistula for the procedure. So far, there have been no issues with the dialysis machine or circuit. After the session, his blood pressure is 150/85 mmHg, and an ECG is performed. What could be the probable reason for his chest pain?

      Your Answer: Air embolism

      Correct Answer: Acute coronary syndrome

      Explanation:

      Acute coronary syndrome is the most common cause of chest pain and shortness of breath in dialysis patients due to their increased risk of coronary disease. Air embolism, hypotension, massive haemolysis, and pulmonary embolism are also possible causes but are less likely. Air embolism is rare but can occur in patients with central lines, while hypotension is more common in the elderly and new starters on dialysis. Massive haemolysis is rare but serious, and pulmonary embolism can occur if there is a known thrombus in the fistula.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
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  • Question 24 - A 40-year-old woman presents to the hypertension clinic with a blood pressure reading...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old woman presents to the hypertension clinic with a blood pressure reading of 185/95 mmHg and grade 1 hypertensive retinopathy. She has no known medical history. What clinical or biochemical finding could indicate a potential diagnosis of primary hyperaldosteronism?

      Your Answer: Metabolic acidosis

      Correct Answer: Hypokalaemia

      Explanation:

      Primary Hyperaldosteronism: A Common Cause of Hypertension

      Primary hyperaldosteronism is a prevalent cause of hypertension that typically affects individuals between the ages of 20 and 40. However, it is often asymptomatic in its early stages and may not be diagnosed until several decades later. This condition may account for approximately 10% of hypertension cases and is characterized by hypokalemia, metabolic alkalosis, onset of hypertension at a young age, and hypertension that is difficult to control with more than three medications.

      The primary cause of primary hyperaldosteronism is either adrenal adenoma or adrenal hyperplasia, which preferentially affects the zona glomerulosa. Adrenal adenomas are usually unilateral, but bilateral adenomas can occur in a minority of cases. On the other hand, adrenal hyperplasia typically causes bilateral disease. Despite the decreased occurrence of hypokalemia and metabolic alkalosis in primary hyperaldosteronism, it remains a significant contributor to hypertension and should be considered in patients with uncontrolled hypertension.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
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  • Question 25 - A 32-year-old smoker presents with acute shortness of breath and oxygen saturation of...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old smoker presents with acute shortness of breath and oxygen saturation of 84% on air. He has been feeling unwell and fatigued for a week, with worsening shortness of breath over the past 24 hours and two episodes of haemoptysis. On examination, he has sinus tachycardia, a blood pressure of 140/85 mmHg, normal JVP, and widespread coarse crackles on chest auscultation. Blood tests reveal a haemoglobin level of 92 g/L (130-180), urea level of 40 mmol/L (2.5-7.5), and creatinine level of 435 μmol/L (60-110). The urine dipstick shows +++ blood and ++ protein. A chest radiograph shows widespread patchy opacification. What is the most likely cause of his presentation?

      Your Answer: Goodpasture's syndrome

      Explanation:

      Pulmonary Renal Syndrome and Anti-GBM Disease

      This medical condition is also known as anti-GBM disease and is characterized by a pulmonary renal syndrome. It is commonly seen in patients with anti-GBM disease. Smokers are more likely to experience pulmonary hemorrhage, and the presence of blood and protein on urine dipstick suggests renal inflammation, which is consistent with this diagnosis. Although pulmonary renal syndrome can also occur with systemic lupus erythematosus, this is less likely in this patient due to his sex and lack of systemic symptoms.

      Pulmonary edema is a significant differential diagnosis for pulmonary hemorrhage, especially in the context of acute kidney injury. However, the patient’s normal JVP makes fluid overload less likely. Atypical or opportunistic infections can also present with renal impairment, but the low hemoglobin level suggests hemorrhage rather than infection. Overall, this patient’s presentation is consistent with pulmonary renal syndrome and anti-GBM disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
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  • Question 26 - A 65-year-old man is presenting to the low clearance clinic with chronic kidney...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man is presenting to the low clearance clinic with chronic kidney disease of unknown origin. He is experiencing general malaise, fatigue, and shortness of breath. His GFR has remained stable at 15 with a baseline creatinine of 385 μmol/L (and urea of 21 mmol/L) for over a year. However, recent blood work shows abnormal levels of Na, K, urea, creatinine, bicarbonate, Ca, Phos, Hb, and MCV.

      Which medication would be the most beneficial to alleviate his symptoms?

      Your Answer: Calcichew D3

      Correct Answer: Erythropoietin

      Explanation:

      Recommended Treatment for a Patient with CKD Stage 5

      Of the drugs listed, erythropoietin is the most appropriate for a patient with chronic kidney disease (CKD) stage 5 who is experiencing fatigue and shortness of breath due to low hemoglobin levels. However, it is important to check the patient’s haematinics to ensure that iron, B12, or folate supplementation would not be more beneficial. Alfacalcidol is typically used to treat hyperparathyroidism, but it is not necessary for CKD stage 5 patients until their parathyroid hormone levels rise above 28 pmol/L, according to the Renal Association Guidelines. Since the patient’s bicarbonate levels are normal, oral supplementation is not required. Calcichew D3 and sevelamer are phosphate binders that prevent hyperphosphataemia, but they are not necessary for this patient. For further information, refer to the Renal Association Clinical Practice Guidelines.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
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  • Question 27 - A 50-year-old woman undergoing haemodialysis for end stage renal failure caused by vesico-ureteric...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman undergoing haemodialysis for end stage renal failure caused by vesico-ureteric reflux is experiencing a dry, flaky skin and an itchy rash. What is the probable complication of end stage renal failure responsible for these symptoms?

      Your Answer: Polycythaemia

      Correct Answer: Hyperphosphataemia

      Explanation:

      Hyperphosphataemia and Itching in End Stage Renal Failure Patients

      Patients with end stage renal failure often experience hyperphosphataemia, which is caused by the loss of renal control over calcium/phosphate balance. This occurs because the kidneys are no longer able to excrete phosphate and produce activated vitamin D. As a result, calcium levels decrease, leading to secondary hyperparathyroidism, which maintains calcium levels but at the expense of raised phosphate levels. Hyperphosphataemia can cause itching and dermatitis, making it important to restrict dietary phosphate intake and use phosphate binders taken with meals to prevent phosphate absorption.

      While anaemia is common in dialysis patients, it does not typically cause itching. Polycythaemia, which can occur in patients with polycystic kidney disease due to excessive erythropoietin production, can cause itching, but this is unlikely to be the cause of itching in this patient with end stage renal failure. Hypovolaemia may cause dry skin, but it is unlikely to cause an itchy rash. Hypophosphataemia is also extremely unlikely in renal patients and does not tend to cause itching.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
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  • Question 28 - What are the expected urinalysis results for a 23-year-old patient with abdominal pain,...

    Incorrect

    • What are the expected urinalysis results for a 23-year-old patient with abdominal pain, dehydration, anorexia, and marked hyperglycemia who may have a new diagnosis of type 1 diabetes?

      A) Haemoglobin: Negative
      Urobilinogen: Negative
      Bilirubin: Negative
      Protein: Positive
      Glucose: Positive (+++)
      Nitrites: Negative
      Leucocytes: Positive

      B) Haemoglobin: Negative
      Urobilinogen: Negative
      Bilirubin: Negative
      Protein: Negative
      Glucose: Positive
      Nitrites: ++
      Leucocytes: ++

      C) Haemoglobin: Negative
      Urobilinogen: Negative
      Bilirubin: Negative
      Protein: Negative
      Glucose: +
      Nitrites: +++
      Leucocytes: +++

      D) Haemoglobin: Negative
      Urobilinogen: Negative
      Bilirubin: Negative
      Protein: Negative
      Glucose: Negative
      Nitrites: Negative
      Leucocytes: Negative

      E) Haemoglobin: +++
      Urobilinogen: +
      Bilirubin: +
      Protein: Negative
      Glucose: Negative
      Nitrites: Negative
      Leucocytes: Negative

      Your Answer: D

      Correct Answer: B

      Explanation:

      Diabetic Ketoacidosis and Urinary Tract Infection

      This patient is exhibiting symptoms that are commonly associated with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA), a serious complication of diabetes. The presence of high levels of glucose and ketones in the urine, as indicated by the urinalysis, further supports this diagnosis. DKA can occur in both new and established type 1 diabetic patients and is often triggered by an infection. In this case, it is likely that a urinary tract infection (UTI) was the precipitating factor.

      It is important to recognize the signs and symptoms of DKA, as prompt treatment is necessary to prevent serious complications. Patients with DKA may experience symptoms such as excessive thirst, frequent urination, nausea, vomiting, abdominal pain, and confusion. If left untreated, DKA can lead to coma or even death. In addition to treating the underlying infection, treatment for DKA typically involves insulin therapy, fluid replacement, and electrolyte management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
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  • Question 29 - Which patient has a creatinine level indicating CKD3?

    Patient A:
    Adjusted calcium -...

    Incorrect

    • Which patient has a creatinine level indicating CKD3?

      Patient A:
      Adjusted calcium - 2.3 mmol/L
      Phosphate - 0.9 mmol/L
      PTH - 8.09 pmol/L
      Urea - 7.8 mmol/L
      Creatinine - 145 μmol/L
      Albumin - 36 g/L

      Patient B:
      Adjusted calcium - 2.9 mmol/L
      Phosphate - 2.0 mmol/L
      PTH - 4.2 pmol/L
      Urea - 50 mmol/L
      Creatinine - 280 μmol/L
      Albumin - 38 g/L

      Patient C:
      Adjusted calcium - 2.0 mmol/L
      Phosphate - 2.8 mmol/L
      PTH - 12.53 pmol/L
      Urea - 32.8 mmol/L
      Creatinine - 540 μmol/L
      Albumin - 28 g/L

      Patient D:
      Adjusted calcium - 2.5 mmol/L
      Phosphate - 1.6 mmol/L
      PTH - 2.05 pmol/L
      Urea - 32.8 mmol/L
      Creatinine - 367 μmol/L
      Albumin - 40 g/L

      Patient E:
      Adjusted calcium - 2.2 mmol/L
      Phosphate - 0.7 mmol/L
      PTH - 5.88 pmol/L
      Urea - 4.6 mmol/L
      Creatinine - 81 μmol/L
      Albumin - 18 g/L

      Your Answer: Patient E

      Correct Answer: Patient A

      Explanation:

      Renal Impairment and Calcium Homeostasis

      Although interpreting creatinine levels can be challenging without information about body habitus and muscle mass, Patient A likely has CKD3 based on their creatinine level of 145. It is important to have a general of the severity of renal impairment based on creatinine levels. Patients with an eGFR of 30-59 ml/min/1.73m2 are classified as having CKD3. This classification applies to men and women between the ages of 20 and 80 years old.

      Patients B, C, and D have more advanced renal disease, and depending on the clinical context, patients B and D may have acute renal failure. Patient E, on the other hand, does not have any renal impairment.

      Patients with kidney disease often experience multiple abnormalities in calcium homeostasis. At the CKD3 stage, most patients have normal plasma concentrations of calcium and phosphate. However, as CKD3 progresses towards CKD 4, more subtle abnormalities may arise, such as a slight increase in PTH due to reduced hydroxylation of vitamin D by the kidney enzyme 1-alpha hydroxylase.

      Although Patient A has suboptimal levels of vitamin D, this is not uncommon. Risk factors for vitamin D insufficiency include old age, immobility, institutionalization, and darker skin color.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
      1.3
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  • Question 30 - A 35-year-old man visits the renal clinic eight weeks after a successful renal...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man visits the renal clinic eight weeks after a successful renal transplant. He has some inquiries about his immunosuppression. The consultant explains that the typical regimen for renal transplant patients involves the use of an induction agent initially, followed by a combination of a calcineurin inhibitor, antimetabolite, and steroids. This combination is intended to prevent rejection of the transplanted kidney. Can you identify the agent that acts as a purine analogue to disrupt DNA synthesis and induce apoptosis in rapidly dividing cells?

      Your Answer: Tacrolimus

      Correct Answer: Azathioprine

      Explanation:

      Mechanisms of Action of Immunosuppressive Drugs

      Azathioprine and mycophenolate mofetil are two immunosuppressive drugs that interrupt DNA synthesis and act as antimetabolites. However, they achieve this through different mechanisms. Mycophenolate indirectly inhibits purine synthesis by blocking inosine monophosphate dehydrogenase, while azathioprine is a pro-drug that is metabolized to 6-mercaptopurine, which is inserted into the DNA sequence instead of a purine. This triggers apoptosis by recognizing it as a mismatch.

      Basiliximab is an anti-CD25 monoclonal antibody that blocks T cell proliferation by inhibiting CD25, the alpha chain of the IL-2 receptor. On the other hand, sirolimus inhibits mTOR, the mammalian target of rapamycin, which is a protein kinase that promotes T cell proliferation and survival downstream of IL-2 signaling. Finally, tacrolimus is a calcineurin inhibitor that reduces the activation of NFAT, a transcription factor that promotes IL-2 production. Since IL-2 is the main cytokine that drives T cell proliferation, tacrolimus effectively suppresses the immune response.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
      1.2
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