00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00 : 00 : 00
Session Time
00 : 00
Average Question Time ( Secs)
  • Question 1 - A 40-year-old woman comes to the clinic with complaints of pain and swelling...

    Correct

    • A 40-year-old woman comes to the clinic with complaints of pain and swelling in her right calf. Upon further examination, it is confirmed that she has a deep vein thrombosis. Can any of the medications she is currently taking be a contributing factor to this condition?

      Your Answer: Combined oral contraceptive pill

      Explanation:

      Thromboembolic Risk and Oral Contraceptives

      The use of combined oral contraceptives (OCP) is known to increase the risk of thromboembolism. This is due to the estrogen component of the pill, which promotes a pro-thrombotic environment. However, the risk of thromboembolism on the OCP is only about five times higher than normal, which is significantly lower than the risk during pregnancy, which is six to ten times higher. On the other hand, there is no clear evidence of an increased risk of thromboembolism associated with the use of progesterone-only contraceptive pills (mini pill). It is important for women to discuss their individual risk factors with their healthcare provider before starting any form of hormonal contraception.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      15.3
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - Which statement about voltage gated ion channels (VGIC) is accurate? ...

    Correct

    • Which statement about voltage gated ion channels (VGIC) is accurate?

      Your Answer: Each subunit has six transmembrane spanning domains (S1-S6)

      Explanation:

      Voltage Gated Ion Channels

      Voltage gated ion channels (VGICs) are composed of four subunits, each containing six transmembrane domains (S1-S6). The S4 domain is believed to be the voltage sensor, as every other residue is charged. The channel of calcium and sodium VGICs is formed by a single peptide, while the potassium receptor channel is made up of four separate peptides, indicating that it is evolutionarily more primitive. The sodium VGIC is targeted by local anesthetics. In summary, VGICs are essential for the proper functioning of cells and play a crucial role in the transmission of electrical signals in the nervous system.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      14
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - You are administering lidocaine to numb the skin of a young patient before...

    Incorrect

    • You are administering lidocaine to numb the skin of a young patient before a minor procedure. What is a true statement about this medication?

      Your Answer: Has a longer half life than bupivacaine

      Correct Answer: Can be used to treat ventricular tachycardia

      Explanation:

      Lidocaine: Characteristics and Uses

      Lidocaine is a medication that is quickly broken down by the liver, making it unsuitable for oral administration. Its effects last for only 20 minutes, but this can be extended to approximately 90 minutes when combined with the vasoconstrictor adrenaline. However, this combination should not be used in areas where there is a risk of ischaemia.

      Lidocaine is a potent antiarrhythmic drug that falls under class I, as it prolongs the action potential. It can be used to treat ventricular tachycardia, although it is not included in the ALS algorithm and should only be administered by a specialist.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      17.8
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - Which statement about agonists and antagonists is accurate? ...

    Correct

    • Which statement about agonists and antagonists is accurate?

      Your Answer: A partial agonist has affinity but reduced efficacy

      Explanation:

      Affinity and Efficacy in Pharmacology

      In pharmacology, the terms affinity and efficacy are used to describe the relationship between a drug and its target receptor. Affinity refers to the strength of the binding between the drug and the receptor, while efficacy refers to the ability of the drug to activate the receptor and produce a response.

      An agonist is a drug that binds to a receptor and activates it, producing a response. An agonist has both high affinity and high efficacy, meaning it binds strongly to the receptor and produces a strong response.

      An antagonist, on the other hand, binds to the receptor but does not activate it, blocking the action of other agonists. An antagonist has high affinity but no efficacy, meaning it binds strongly to the receptor but does not produce a response.

      A partial agonist is a drug that binds to the receptor and produces a response, but the response is weaker than that produced by a full agonist. A partial agonist has high affinity but reduced efficacy, meaning it binds strongly to the receptor but produces a weaker response.

      the concepts of affinity and efficacy is important in drug development and in the effects of drugs on the body. By manipulating these properties, researchers can develop drugs that selectively target specific receptors and produce desired effects with minimal side effects.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      21.2
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - How can this question be restated? ...

    Incorrect

    • How can this question be restated?

      Your Answer: Aldosterone receptors are tyrosine receptor kinases

      Correct Answer: NMDA receptors are ligand gated ion channels

      Explanation:

      Different Types of Receptors in the Body

      There are various types of receptors in the body that play important roles in different physiological processes. One type of receptor is the 5HT3 receptor, which is a ligand gated ion channel. This means that it opens and closes in response to the binding of a specific ligand, allowing ions to flow in and out of the cell. Another type of receptor is the aldosterone receptor, which is a steroid receptor. This receptor binds to the hormone aldosterone and regulates the body’s electrolyte balance.

      The β2 adrenoreceptor is another type of receptor, which is a g protein coupled receptor. This receptor is activated by the hormone adrenaline and plays a role in regulating heart rate and bronchodilation. Finally, the insulin receptor is a tyrosine receptor kinase. This receptor is activated by the hormone insulin and plays a crucial role in regulating glucose metabolism in the body. the different types of receptors in the body is important for how different physiological processes are regulated.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      16.2
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 50-year-old male is referred by his GP for an endoscopy due to...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old male is referred by his GP for an endoscopy due to recurrent indigestion. During the procedure, a small duodenal ulcer is discovered and Helicobacter pylori is found to be present. What is the recommended treatment for this patient?

      Your Answer: Carbenoxolone alone

      Correct Answer: Omeprazole, metronidazole and clarithromycin

      Explanation:

      Helicobacter pylori and Peptic Ulceration

      The bacterium Helicobacter pylori, which is classified as a gram-negative curved rod, has been linked to the development of peptic ulceration by inhibiting the healing process. In fact, up to 90% of patients with duodenal ulceration and 70% of cases of peptic ulceration may be infected with Helicobacter. To treat this infection, therapy should focus on acid suppression and eradication of the bacterium. Triple therapy, which involves a proton pump inhibitor like omeprazole along with two antibiotics (amoxicillin/clarithromycin plus metronidazole), has been found to be the most effective treatment. This therapy should be administered for one week, with proton pump therapy continuing thereafter.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      15.3
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - As a third year medical student in an outpatient department with a dermatology...

    Incorrect

    • As a third year medical student in an outpatient department with a dermatology consultant, you are evaluating a 27-year-old patient who is unresponsive to current hyperhidrosis treatment. The consultant suggests starting botox injections to prevent sweating. Can you explain the mechanism of action of botulinum toxin at the neuromuscular junction?

      Your Answer: Inhibits acetylcholinesterase

      Correct Answer: Inhibits vesicles containing acetylcholine binding to presynaptic membrane

      Explanation:

      Botulinum Toxin and its Mechanism of Action

      Botulinum toxin is becoming increasingly popular in the medical field for treating various conditions such as cervical dystonia and achalasia. The toxin works by binding to the presynaptic cleft on the neurotransmitter and forming a complex with the attached receptor. This complex then invaginates the plasma membrane of the presynaptic cleft around the attached toxin. Once inside the cell, the toxin cleaves an important cytoplasmic protein that is required for efficient binding of the vesicles containing acetylcholine to the presynaptic membrane. This prevents the release of acetylcholine across the neurotransmitter.

      It is important to note that the blockage of Ca2+ channels on the presynaptic membrane occurs in Lambert-Eaton syndrome, which is associated with small cell carcinoma of the lung and is a paraneoplastic syndrome. However, this is not related to the mechanism of action of botulinum toxin.

      The effects of botox typically last for two to six months. Once complete denervation has occurred, the synapse produces new axonal terminals which bind to the motor end plate in a process called neurofibrillary sprouting. This allows for interrupted release of acetylcholine. Overall, botulinum toxin is a powerful tool in the medical field for treating various conditions by preventing the release of acetylcholine across the neurotransmitter.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      15.9
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 45-year-old man with epilepsy has been prescribed carbamazepine. As time passes, the...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old man with epilepsy has been prescribed carbamazepine. As time passes, the dosage of carbamazepine required by him has been gradually increasing. He only takes paracetamol occasionally and no other medications. What type of drug reaction is this indicative of?

      Your Answer: Idiosyncratic

      Correct Answer: Induction of metabolism

      Explanation:

      Medications and their effects on metabolism

      Some medications can affect the metabolism of other drugs. For instance, carbamazepine is a medication that induces liver enzymes, which can increase the metabolism of certain drugs that rely on those pathways. It is worth noting that carbamazepine is an auto-inducer, meaning that the amount of carbamazepine required can increase over time. This can lead to changes in the dosage required to achieve the desired therapeutic effect. Therefore, it is important to monitor patients who are taking carbamazepine or any other medication that can affect the metabolism of other drugs. By doing so, healthcare providers can ensure that patients receive the appropriate dosage of medication to achieve the desired therapeutic effect.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      21.9
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 67-year-old woman complains of muscle aches and pains. She has a medical...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old woman complains of muscle aches and pains. She has a medical history of ischaemic heart disease, which has been treated recently. What medication is the most probable cause of her symptoms?

      Your Answer: Beta-blockers

      Correct Answer: Statins

      Explanation:

      The Benefits and Risks of Statin Therapy

      Statins are medications used to lower lipid levels in the body, which can significantly reduce the risk of cardiovascular disease. However, one common side effect of this treatment is myalgia, or muscle pain. This side effect can be worsened by certain medications, such as macrolides and fibrates, as well as by hypothyroidism. While myalgia is generally not life-threatening, it can be uncomfortable and may lead some patients to discontinue statin therapy.

      In rare cases, statin therapy can lead to a potentially lethal condition called rhabdomyolysis. This occurs when there is severe muscle infiltration and destruction, which can cause renal failure. While this side effect is rare, it is important for patients to be aware of the potential risks associated with statin therapy and to report any unusual symptoms to their healthcare provider. Overall, the benefits of statin therapy in reducing cardiovascular risk generally outweigh the risks, but it is important for patients to work closely with their healthcare provider to monitor for any potential side effects.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      19.6
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 20-year-old woman arrives at the Emergency Department experiencing an asthma attack. Normally,...

    Correct

    • A 20-year-old woman arrives at the Emergency Department experiencing an asthma attack. Normally, her asthma is well managed with a salbutamol inhaler taken twice daily. Due to recent work-related stress, a friend offered her a propranolol pill to alleviate her symptoms. What type of drug interaction is this indicative of?

      Your Answer: Antagonism

      Explanation:

      Beta Blockers and Beta Agonists: Opposing Effects

      Beta blockers like propranolol are commonly used to treat anxiety by slowing down the heart rate through beta-adrenoceptor blockade. However, this drug is not recommended for asthmatics as it can cause bronchoconstriction. On the other hand, salbutamol is a beta-adrenoceptor agonist that works by relaxing the airway muscles and is commonly used to treat asthma.

      The effects of these two drugs are opposing, making them an example of an antagonistic reaction. While beta blockers slow down the heart rate and constrict the airways, beta agonists like salbutamol do the opposite by increasing heart rate and relaxing the airway muscles. It is important to note that these drugs should not be used together as they can cancel out each other’s effects and lead to potentially harmful outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      13.2
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 50-year-old patient who had a kidney transplant two years ago is currently...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old patient who had a kidney transplant two years ago is currently taking ciclosporin. However, due to a manufacturing issue, the patient cannot obtain their prescribed medication, Sandimmune, for the next five days. What should be done in this situation?

      Your Answer: Switch him to another formulation and monitor his renal function, ciclosporin level and blood pressure whilst the changeover is being made

      Explanation:

      Ciclosporin is an immunosuppressant used to prevent graft rejection and treat various conditions. Different formulations have varying pharmacokinetic properties, so it is important to prescribe by brand and monitor patients closely when switching formulations. Consultation with a renal unit is recommended before switching therapy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      9.5
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - An 80-year-old man is brought to the Emergency Department by his physician due...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old man is brought to the Emergency Department by his physician due to sudden confusion. The patient had been treated for a chest infection with clarithromycin recently. He has a history of atrial fibrillation and is taking warfarin as an anticoagulant. Due to his confusion, it is challenging to obtain a detailed medical history from him. However, his blood tests reveal a significantly low haemoglobin level of 56 g/L (115-160). What type of drug reaction is this indicative of?

      Your Answer: Induction of metabolism

      Correct Answer: Inhibition of metabolism

      Explanation:

      Drug Interaction Causing Bleeding and Confusion

      This patient’s symptoms are a classic example of a drug interaction between clarithromycin and warfarin. While there are many medications that can interact with warfarin, antibiotics are particularly known for affecting its effectiveness. In this case, clarithromycin has inhibited the metabolism of warfarin, causing it to become more potent. As a result, the patient has experienced bleeding, most likely in the gastrointestinal tract, which has led to confusion.

      Further investigation is necessary to ensure that there is not an underlying issue, such as colon cancer, that has been unmasked by this drug interaction. It is important for healthcare providers to be aware of potential drug interactions and to monitor patients closely for any adverse effects. By doing so, they can help prevent complications and ensure that patients receive the best possible care.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      19.2
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - You are creating a medication schedule for a patient with chronic renal failure...

    Incorrect

    • You are creating a medication schedule for a patient with chronic renal failure who is elderly. Which medication may require a dosage modification due to the reduced renal clearance?

      Your Answer: Phenytoin

      Correct Answer: Morphine sulphate

      Explanation:

      Opioid Use in Patients with Abnormal Renal Function

      Patients with abnormal renal function should have their opioid doses reduced due to the prolonged duration of action. However, it is important to note that the initial loading dose may need to be greater in these patients to achieve the desired drug effect. This is because patients with chronic renal failure have an increased volume of distribution, which can affect drug concentration in the plasma. Despite the need for a higher initial dose, subsequent doses should be reduced to account for poor drug clearance. It is important to monitor patients closely and adjust doses as needed to avoid adverse effects. None of the other agents typically require caution in patients with abnormal renal function.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      9
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A teenage girl is given a prescription for an antibiotic by her doctor,...

    Incorrect

    • A teenage girl is given a prescription for an antibiotic by her doctor, but she comes back after two days, reporting that she is developing a rash on her face and arms that gets worse when exposed to sunlight. What drug reaction is likely causing this photosensitive rash?

      Your Answer: Cephalexin

      Correct Answer: Doxycycline

      Explanation:

      Common Side Effects of Tetracyclines

      Tetracyclines are a class of antibiotics that are commonly used to treat bacterial infections. However, they are also known to cause several side effects. Nausea and vomiting are among the most common side effects of tetracyclines. Additionally, patients may develop a photosensitive rash, which can be triggered by exposure to sunlight. Dental hypoplasia is another potential side effect of tetracyclines, which is why they are not recommended for use in children, pregnant or breastfeeding women. Finally, tetracyclines have been associated with idiopathic intracranial hypertension, a condition that causes increased pressure inside the skull.

      It is important to note that photosensitivity can also be caused by other antibiotics, such as quinolones and sulphonamides. Patients who experience any of these side effects should contact their healthcare provider immediately. In some cases, the dosage or type of antibiotic may need to be adjusted to minimize these side effects. Overall, while tetracyclines can be effective in treating bacterial infections, patients should be aware of the potential side effects and discuss any concerns with their healthcare provider.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      8.9
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - Which patient with acute ischaemic stroke is a candidate for neurosurgical intervention? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which patient with acute ischaemic stroke is a candidate for neurosurgical intervention?

      Your Answer: A 55-year-old with a cerebellar infarction but no hydrocephalus

      Correct Answer: A 50-year-old with infarction of 60% of the middle cerebral artery (MCA) territory

      Explanation:

      Guidelines for Decompressive Hemicraniectomy in Large Cerebral Infarctions

      Current clinical guidelines recommend that patients under 60 years of age with large cerebral infarctions in the middle cerebral artery (MCA) territory should be considered for decompressive hemicraniectomy. This procedure involves removing part of the skull to reduce intracranial pressure and should be done within 48 hours of the stroke. Eligibility for the surgery is based on clinical and radiological evidence of a stroke affecting the MCA territory, radiological evidence that more than 50% or 145 cm3 of the MCA territory is involved, and being classified as having a moderate to severe stroke according to the National Institute of Health stroke scale.

      In addition to large cerebral infarctions in the MCA territory, other indications for neurosurgical intervention in acute ischemic stroke include a massive cerebellar infarction or evidence of hydrocephalus or brainstem compression. It is important for healthcare professionals to be aware of these guidelines and indications for neurosurgical intervention in order to provide the best possible care for stroke patients. Proper and timely intervention can greatly improve outcomes and quality of life for stroke survivors.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      13.7
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - These thyroid function tests were obtained on a 55-year-old female who has recently...

    Incorrect

    • These thyroid function tests were obtained on a 55-year-old female who has recently been treated for hypertension:
      Free T4 28.5 pmol/L (9.8-23.1)
      TSH <0.02 mU/L (0.35-5.5)
      Free T3 10.8 pmol/L (3.5-6.5)
      She now presents with typical symptoms of hyperthyroidism.
      Which medication is likely to have caused this?

      Your Answer: Digoxin

      Correct Answer: Amiodarone

      Explanation:

      Amiodarone and its Effects on Thyroid Function

      Amiodarone is a medication that can have an impact on thyroid function, resulting in both hypo- and hyperthyroidism. This is due to the high iodine content in the drug, which contributes to its antiarrhythmic effects. Atenolol, on the other hand, is a beta blocker that is commonly used to treat thyrotoxicosis. Warfarin is another medication that is used to treat atrial fibrillation.

      There are two types of thyrotoxicosis that can be caused by amiodarone. Type 1 results in excess thyroxine synthesis, while type 2 leads to the release of excess thyroxine but normal levels of synthesis. It is important for healthcare professionals to monitor thyroid function in patients taking amiodarone and adjust treatment as necessary to prevent complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      9.5
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - β-adrenergic receptor antagonists, like propranolol, are commonly prescribed in medical practice. In which...

    Incorrect

    • β-adrenergic receptor antagonists, like propranolol, are commonly prescribed in medical practice. In which of the following conditions are β-adrenergic receptor antagonists not recommended for use in elderly patients?

      Your Answer: Heart failure

      Correct Answer: Asthma

      Explanation:

      Beta Blockers and Asthma

      Beta blockers are commonly used to treat various cardiovascular diseases due to their negative chronotropic and inotropic effects. However, they can be detrimental to individuals with asthma. This is because beta blockers antagonize beta-2 receptors, which can lead to bronchoconstriction and trigger asthma attacks. As a result, beta blockers are not recommended as a treatment for asthma. It is important for healthcare providers to be aware of this potential adverse effect and to consider alternative medications for patients with asthma who require cardiovascular treatment. Proper management of both conditions is crucial to ensure optimal health outcomes for patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      11.5
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 45-year-old male is undergoing treatment for ischaemic heart disease. He has recently...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old male is undergoing treatment for ischaemic heart disease. He has recently reported experiencing cold peripheries. What medication could be causing this symptom?

      Your Answer: ACE inhibitor

      Correct Answer: Beta-blocker

      Explanation:

      Causes of Cold Peripheries

      Beta-blockers are known to cause cold peripheries due to their ability to constrict the superficial vessels. This constriction leads to a decrease in blood flow to the extremities, resulting in a feeling of coldness. In addition to beta-blockers, other factors can also contribute to cold peripheries. Bronchospasm, which is a narrowing of the airways in the lungs, can also cause coldness in the extremities. This is because the body redirects blood flow away from the extremities and towards the lungs to help with breathing. Finally, fatigue can also cause cold peripheries as the body’s energy levels decrease, leading to a decrease in blood flow to the extremities. Overall, there are several factors that can contribute to cold peripheries, and it is important to identify the underlying cause in order to provide appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      21.9
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A patient in his 50s with type 2 diabetes mellitus visits the clinic...

    Incorrect

    • A patient in his 50s with type 2 diabetes mellitus visits the clinic with an HbA1c of 68 mmol/mol. All recent blood tests are normal except for an eGFR of 54 mls/min/1.73 m2. The patient, who has a BMI of 29 kg/m2 and works as a heavy goods vehicle driver, is already taking the maximum tolerated doses of metformin and gliclazide and is trying to modify his diet and exercise habits. He has no other health conditions. What medication could be added to improve his glycemic control?

      Your Answer: Pioglitazone

      Correct Answer: Sitagliptin

      Explanation:

      Choosing the Right Medication for a Diabetic Patient

      When selecting a medication for a diabetic patient, it is important to consider their occupation and any driving restrictions. Insulin may not be the best option in this case. Liraglutide is only recommended for overweight patients or those who would benefit from weight loss, and it is not suitable for patients with an eGFR less than 60 mls/min/1.73 m2. Nateglinide has not been approved by NICE, and pioglitazone has been associated with various health risks.

      Therefore, sitagliptin is the most appropriate choice. While it may cause headaches and weight gain, it promotes insulin release and may require a reduction in the dose of gliclazide to avoid hypoglycemia. However, it should be used with caution in patients with renal failure. By considering the patient’s individual circumstances and medical history, healthcare professionals can make informed decisions about the most suitable medication for their diabetic patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      14
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A young adult female arrives at the Emergency Department after ingesting 18 paracetamol...

    Incorrect

    • A young adult female arrives at the Emergency Department after ingesting 18 paracetamol tablets in a moment of impulsivity during a disagreement with her partner. It has been six hours since she took the tablets and her paracetamol levels are measured, indicating the need for treatment. The patient is initiated on N-acetylcysteine. What is the mechanism of action of this medication?

      Your Answer: Increases metabolism of paracetamol

      Correct Answer: Replaces compounds used in paracetamol metabolism

      Explanation:

      Paracetamol Metabolism and Toxicity

      Paracetamol is metabolised in two ways. The first mechanism involves conjugation with glucuronic acid, resulting in a safe metabolite that can be excreted. However, there is a limit to how much paracetamol can be metabolised this way. The second mechanism is used when a large amount of paracetamol is taken. In this case, paracetamol is oxidised to a toxic metabolite called N-acetyl-p-benzoquinone. This metabolite can cause liver and kidney necrosis if glutathione supplies are exhausted.

      Glutathione is responsible for making the toxic metabolite safe. However, when glutathione supplies are depleted, the toxic metabolite can cause damage to the liver and kidneys. N-acetylcysteine is a protective agent that increases the rate of glutathione synthesis. Therefore, it can help prevent liver and kidney damage caused by the toxic metabolite of paracetamol.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      11.4
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 25-year-old office worker arrives at the Emergency Department complaining of headaches due...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old office worker arrives at the Emergency Department complaining of headaches due to work-related stress. She took two paracetamol earlier today, but when it didn't help, she took two aspirin. However, she developed an itchy rash on her face and is experiencing breathing difficulties. What type of drug reaction is this indicative of?

      Your Answer: Synergistic

      Correct Answer: Idiosyncratic

      Explanation:

      Idiosyncratic Reaction to Medication

      A person’s idiosyncratic reaction to medication is a peculiar response that is not expected from the drug’s mode of action. In this case, a woman is experiencing an allergic reaction to either aspirin or paracetamol. The fact that she is having difficulty breathing is a serious symptom that requires urgent treatment. It is important to note that not all allergic reactions are the same, and some can be life-threatening. Therefore, it is crucial to seek medical attention immediately if any unusual symptoms occur after taking medication.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      12
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A 15-year-old girl arrives at the Emergency Department after ingesting a handful of...

    Correct

    • A 15-year-old girl arrives at the Emergency Department after ingesting a handful of her father's anxiety medication. He takes lorazepam 1 mg TID for generalized anxiety disorder which has not responded well to other treatments.

      She has consumed 8 mg lorazepam and is now unresponsive, with a respiratory rate of eight per minute and oxygen saturation of 90% on room air.

      The patient does not react to verbal stimuli, but responds to a painful sternal rub and attempts to push the examiner's hand away.

      Given that the half-life of lorazepam is approximately 10-20 hours, how long will it take for the medication to be eliminated from her system?

      Your Answer: 200 hours

      Explanation:

      Clonazepam and Flumazenil in Benzodiazepine Overdose

      Conventionally, a drug is considered to be eliminated from the system after four or five half-lives, leaving only a small fraction of the original amount. However, this does not necessarily mean that the drug’s clinical effects have disappeared. For instance, a person who has taken clonazepam, a potent benzodiazepine used to treat certain seizure disorders, may still feel relatively alert even after only one half-life has passed.

      Clonazepam is a long-acting benzodiazepine that is approximately 20 times more potent than diazepam. In cases of benzodiazepine overdose, flumazenil may be a useful antidote. Flumazenil is particularly effective in uncomplicated cases of benzodiazepine overdose, and it works by reversing the effects of benzodiazepines on the central nervous system. Therefore, it may be considered as a treatment option for individuals who have taken an excessive amount of clonazepam or other benzodiazepines.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      46.2
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A 68-year-old male with a three year history of type 2 diabetes complains...

    Correct

    • A 68-year-old male with a three year history of type 2 diabetes complains of feeling dizzy, sweaty and confused. Upon checking his glucose levels, it is found that he is experiencing hypoglycaemia which is resolved with a glucose drink. Which medication is the most probable cause of this hypoglycaemic episode?

      Your Answer: Glibenclamide

      Explanation:

      Mechanisms of Hypoglycaemia in Sulphonylurea Therapies

      Sulphonylurea therapies, including gliclazide, glimepiride, and glibenclamide, are known to cause hypoglycaemia. This is due to their ability to increase pancreatic insulin secretion, which can lead to a drop in blood glucose levels. On the other hand, metformin and pioglitazone work differently to control blood glucose levels. Metformin reduces the amount of glucose produced by the liver, while pioglitazone improves the body’s sensitivity to insulin. Neither of these medications typically causes hypoglycaemia.

      Overall, it is important for healthcare providers to be aware of the potential for hypoglycaemia when prescribing sulphonylurea therapies and to monitor patients closely for any signs or symptoms of low blood glucose levels. Additionally, patients should be educated on the importance of monitoring their blood glucose levels regularly and seeking medical attention if they experience any symptoms of hypoglycaemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      11.7
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A 30-year-old expectant mother complains of feeling tired. During the examination, her nail...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old expectant mother complains of feeling tired. During the examination, her nail beds and conjunctiva appear pale, and her haemoglobin level is below 98 g/L, indicating significant anaemia. What is the recommended amount of dietary iron that pregnant women should consume?

      Your Answer: 15 mg

      Explanation:

      Anaemia in Pregnancy

      During pregnancy, anaemia is a common occurrence due to various factors such as reduced absorption, fetal demand, and expansion of plasma volume. As the pregnancy progresses, maternal iron stores tend to become depleted. Although cessation of menstruation prevents iron loss, it is not enough to compensate for the additional fetal requirements. To address this, it is recommended that pregnant women consume 15 mg of dietary iron per day.

      It is important to routinely assess haemoglobin levels throughout each pregnancy. If haemoglobin levels are found to be less than 110 g/L, investigations and management should begin promptly. By monitoring haemoglobin levels and ensuring adequate iron intake, the risk of anaemia during pregnancy can be reduced, promoting better health outcomes for both the mother and the developing fetus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      6.1
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 55-year-old man with uncontrolled type 2 diabetes is hospitalized and presents with...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man with uncontrolled type 2 diabetes is hospitalized and presents with elevated inflammatory markers, metabolic acidosis, leukocytosis, and an amylase level of 3480 U/L. Which medication is the probable cause?

      Your Answer: Metformin

      Correct Answer: Exenatide

      Explanation:

      Exenatide and Pancreatitis: A Review of the Evidence

      Exenatide is a medication that mimics the effects of the hormone GLP-1, which triggers insulin secretion in response to food intake. However, there is a rare but concerning association between exenatide and acute pancreatitis. A recent case-control study found that patients taking GLP-1 mimetics like exenatide had a higher risk of developing pancreatitis compared to those taking other diabetes drugs. As a result, patients starting on exenatide should be informed about the symptoms of pancreatitis and monitored closely for abdominal pain.

      While there is some controversy surrounding the association between gliptins and pancreatitis, the British National Formulary recommends discontinuing sitagliptin if acute pancreatitis is suspected. It is important to note that lactic acidosis, a potential side effect of metformin, should not be confused with pancreatitis, which is characterized by elevated levels of amylase. Overall, healthcare providers should be aware of the potential risk of pancreatitis in patients taking exenatide and other GLP-1 mimetics, and take appropriate precautions to monitor and manage this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      8
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - Which statement about receptor tyrosine kinases is accurate? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which statement about receptor tyrosine kinases is accurate?

      Your Answer: Tyrosine kinase receptors phosphorylate cytoplasmic proteins as part of the signal transduction

      Correct Answer: Dimerisation of receptors is usually involved in activation

      Explanation:

      Receptor Binding and Activation

      Substances such as insulin, epidermal growth factor (EGF), and platelet-derived growth factor (PDGF) can bind to receptors in the body. These receptors have four domains: ligand binding, transmembrane, catalytic, and autophosphorylation domains. When an agonist binds to the receptor, it causes a change in shape, which leads to phosphorylation. This process activates the receptor and triggers a response in the body.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      9.6
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A 70-year-old female complains of abdominal pain and melaena. She has a medical...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old female complains of abdominal pain and melaena. She has a medical history of hypertension, type 2 diabetes, and right knee osteoarthritis. Which medication could be causing her symptoms?

      Your Answer: Metformin

      Correct Answer: Diclofenac

      Explanation:

      Causes of Peptic Ulceration and the Role of Medications

      Peptic ulceration is a condition that can cause acute gastrointestinal (GI) blood loss. One of the common causes of peptic ulceration is the reduction in the production of protective mucous in the stomach, which exposes the stomach epithelium to acid. This can be a consequence of using non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) such as diclofenac, which is commonly used in the treatment of osteoarthritis. Steroids are also known to contribute to peptic ulceration.

      On the other hand, tramadol, an opiate, does not increase the risk of GI ulceration. It is important to be aware of the potential side effects of medications and to discuss any concerns with a healthcare provider. By doing so, patients can receive appropriate treatment while minimizing the risk of adverse effects.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      9.5
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A patient in his 50s with heart failure is prescribed a diuretic by...

    Correct

    • A patient in his 50s with heart failure is prescribed a diuretic by his GP and subsequently develops gynaecomastia. Which specific agent is most likely responsible for this adverse effect?

      Your Answer: Spironolactone

      Explanation:

      Drugs that may cause side effects and the role of Spironolactone

      There are several drugs that may cause side effects, including cimetidine, oestrogens, digoxin, and ketoconazole. These drugs can affect the body in different ways, leading to various symptoms. For instance, cimetidine may cause confusion, while oestrogens may cause breast tenderness. Digoxin may cause nausea and vomiting, and ketoconazole may cause liver problems.

      One drug that can help maintain plasma potassium levels is Spironolactone. It acts as an aldosterone antagonist, which means it blocks the effects of aldosterone, a hormone that regulates sodium and potassium levels in the body. By blocking aldosterone, Spironolactone helps to maintain a balance of potassium in the blood. This is important because too much or too little potassium can cause serious health problems, such as irregular heartbeats or muscle weakness. Therefore, Spironolactone is often prescribed to people with conditions such as heart failure, liver disease, or high blood pressure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      7.4
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A 70-year-old male presents with two episodes of haemetemesis. He has a medical...

    Correct

    • A 70-year-old male presents with two episodes of haemetemesis. He has a medical history of ischaemic heart disease (IHD) and is currently on medication. What is the probable reason for his condition?

      Your Answer: Peptic ulceration

      Explanation:

      The effects of different medications on renal tubular acidosis (RTA) are significant. RTA is a condition that affects the kidneys’ ability to regulate acid-base balance in the body. Various medications can cause RTA through different mechanisms.

      Spironolactone, for instance, is a direct antagonist of aldosterone, a hormone that regulates sodium and potassium levels in the body. By blocking aldosterone, spironolactone can lead to hyperkalemia (high potassium levels) and a reduction in serum bicarbonate, which is a type of RTA known as type 4.

      Type 4 RTA can also occur in people with diabetes mellitus due to scarring associated with diabetic nephropathy. Metformin, a medication commonly used to treat diabetes, can cause lactic acidosis, a condition where there is an excess of lactic acid in the blood. Pioglitazone, another diabetes medication, can cause salt and water retention and may also be associated with bladder tumors.

      Ramipril, a medication used to treat high blood pressure and heart failure, can also cause hyperkalemia, but this is not related to direct aldosterone antagonism. Healthcare providers must be aware of the effects of different medications on RTA to ensure proper management and treatment of this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      9.1
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - A patient is being treated for a pneumonia. She is given 200 mg...

    Incorrect

    • A patient is being treated for a pneumonia. She is given 200 mg of an antibiotic. The concentration of the drug in her bloodstream is measured at 5 mg/L.

      What is the volume of distribution of this drug?

      Your Answer: 10,000 L

      Correct Answer: 40 L

      Explanation:

      Volume of Distribution

      The volume of distribution is a measure of the volume required to achieve a specific concentration of a drug in the plasma. For instance, if 200 mg of a drug is administered and the concentration in the plasma is 5 mg/L, this is equivalent to dissolving the drug in 40 L of fluid. However, the volume of distribution varies depending on the drug’s properties, such as its affinity for proteins or fats. In general, a volume of distribution that is ten times greater than the average total plasma volume suggests that the drug is primarily bound to tissues or fat rather than being freely available in the plasma. This information is crucial when determining the appropriate loading doses for certain medications, particularly those used to treat epilepsy. To summarize, the volume of distribution is essential for optimizing drug dosing and ensuring effective treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      10.3
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Pharmacology (10/30) 33%
Passmed