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Question 1
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A 59-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of cough and blood stained sputum, shortness of breath on exertion, and a dull ache in the right side of his chest for the past two weeks. He used to smoke 10 cigarettes per day for many years but quit five years ago. He works as a heating engineer and admits to having worked with asbestos in the past before safety measures were mandatory. On examination of the respiratory system, there are no abnormal findings, and he is apyrexial. What is the most appropriate management?
Your Answer: Refer urgently to a respiratory physician
Correct Answer: Arrange a routine chest x ray and review in two weeks
Explanation:Understanding Asbestos Exposure and Mesothelioma
Asbestos is a group of minerals that occur naturally in the environment as bundles of fibres. Exposure to asbestos can lead to various health problems, including asbestosis, lung cancer, mesothelioma, and other cancers. Smokers who are also exposed to asbestos have a higher risk of developing lung cancer. If you suspect that you have been exposed to asbestos, it is important to inform your physician and report any symptoms.
Mesothelioma is a type of cancer that is commonly associated with asbestos exposure. Symptoms of mesothelioma may include chest pain, breathlessness, weight loss, fatigue, and sweats. In some cases, there may be evidence of effusion or pleural thickening on a chest X-ray. An occupational history is important in identifying potential exposure to asbestos.
According to NICE guidelines, individuals aged 40 and over who have unexplained symptoms such as cough, fatigue, shortness of breath, chest pain, weight loss, or appetite loss should be offered an urgent chest X-ray within two weeks to assess for mesothelioma. This is especially important for those who have been exposed to asbestos or have a history of smoking. Early detection and treatment can improve outcomes for those with mesothelioma.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Health
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Question 2
Correct
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A 25 year-old man has been feeling sick for 10 days with fever, sore throat and lymphadenopathy. Choose from the options the one symptom that would indicate primary HIV infection over infectious mononucleosis.
Your Answer: Maculopapular rash
Explanation:Recognizing Primary HIV Infection: Symptoms and Diagnosis
Approximately 70% of individuals with HIV infection experience symptoms during seroconversion, but very few are diagnosed when seen in general practice. Early diagnosis is crucial for a better response to treatment. Primary HIV infection presents with symptoms resembling glandular fever, including fever, sweats, malaise, lethargy, anorexia, nausea, myalgia, arthralgia, headaches, sore throat, diarrhea, generalized lymphadenopathy, a macular erythematous truncal eruption, and thrombocytopenia. These symptoms start 2-6 weeks after exposure and usually resolve within two weeks, although it can take longer.
The most specific features of primary HIV infection are a maculopapular or morbilliform rash affecting predominantly the upper part of the body and mucosal ulcers affecting the mouth and genital areas. In infectious mononucleosis, any rash is macular and very transient. Rash occurs in about 50% and ulcers in nearly 40% of patients. Less commonly, gastrointestinal symptoms predominate, including abdominal pain, nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, hepatitis, and even gastrointestinal hemorrhage. Rare presentations include encephalopathy, pneumonitis, and rhabdomyolysis associated with acute renal failure. Sometimes, acute, severe immunosuppression may occur during the primary infection.
When considering infectious mononucleosis, GPs need to think about HIV as well. It is also a possibility in patients with unexplained fever who have been in countries with high HIV prevalence. The diagnosis should be considered in patients presenting with a blotchy rash on the trunk, or oral or perianal ulcers, and if infections that can occur when the CD4 count drops (e.g., candidiasis or herpes zoster) are present.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 5-year-old boy has been brought into see you. During the last three days of his holiday he was very tired and reluctant to play with his sister and had a temperature without any obvious cause.
Which of the following other features would prompt you to order a full blood count to investigate further?Your Answer: A tympanic temperature of 39°C
Correct Answer: Generalised lymphadenopathy
Explanation:Symptoms and Signs that Require Investigation in Children
Leukaemia can present with symptoms such as pallor, fatigue, unexplained irritability, fever, recurrent infections, lymphadenopathy, bone pain, and unexplained bruising. If any of these symptoms are present, a full blood count and blood film should be conducted to investigate the possibility of leukaemia. If the results indicate leukaemia, an urgent referral should be made.
Generalised lymphadenopathy with the above symptoms also requires further investigation. On the other hand, a healthy 3-year-old may experience two fevers a month due to exposure to new pathogens, especially if they have older siblings or attend nursery. A fever of 39°C makes a bacterial infection more likely, and a thorough history and examination should be carried out to identify the source of the fever.
If a child has a vesicular rash, it is often caused by Chickenpox, which is associated with a prodromal period of being non-specifically unwell. If the rash looks like Chickenpox, no further investigations are required. Erythema in the throat and ears is usually caused by a viral illness, and no further investigations are necessary unless there are other concerning symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old male patient of yours is confused. He has had nausea and vomiting for two days and is now complaining of yellow vision.
Which of the following is the most likely cause?Your Answer: Viral labyrinthinitis
Correct Answer: Digoxin
Explanation:Xanthopsia and Digoxin Toxicity
Confusion, nausea, vomiting, and yellow discoloration of vision are all symptoms that suggest digoxin toxicity. Xanthopsia, or yellow vision, is a rare but possible side effect of digoxin toxicity, particularly in the elderly. Amiodarone can cause corneal deposits and impaired vision, but it doesn’t result in xanthopsia.
While rotavirus and viral labyrinthitis may cause nausea and vomiting, they do not result in xanthopsia. It is important to note that the elderly are often more susceptible to side effects from medications due to various factors such as declining renal function and rates of gastric emptying.
If a patient presents with xanthopsia and other symptoms of digoxin toxicity, it is crucial to consider the possibility of digoxin toxicity and take appropriate action. The British National Formulary provides information on digoxin and its potential side effects.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Eyes And Vision
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Question 5
Incorrect
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You are evaluating a 5-year-old girl with constipation during a routine check-up. During the abdominal examination, you observe a small lump in her right lower abdomen. The child doesn't seem to be in any discomfort when you touch it.
The mother informs you that a previous doctor had also noticed this lump but had assured her that it was probably due to constipation and nothing to worry about.
The child is healthy otherwise, and the mother has no specific concerns.
What is the most suitable next step in managing this situation?Your Answer: Request an abdominal ultrasound scan
Correct Answer: Discuss him with the on-call paediatric registrar
Explanation:If a child has a palpable abdominal mass or an unexplained enlarged abdominal organ, it is important to refer them urgently (<48 hours) for specialist assessment to check for neuroblastoma and Wilms' tumour. The correct course of action would be to discuss the case with the on-call paediatric registrar. It is crucial to rule out malignancy as the cause of the mass, as neuroblastomas can metastasize quickly and are often diagnosed too late. While constipation may be a possible cause, it is important not to overlook the possibility of a neuroblastoma, which can even cause constipation. A 2-week review is not appropriate, and a routine referral would cause unnecessary delay. Paediatrics can arrange an abdominal ultrasound scan much quicker than primary care, and an abdominal x-ray is not recommended due to the high radiation exposure, especially for a young child. Understanding Neuroblastoma in Children Neuroblastoma is a type of cancer that affects children and is responsible for 7-8% of childhood malignancies. It develops from neural crest tissue found in the adrenal medulla and sympathetic nervous system. Typically, the disease is diagnosed in children around 20 months old and presents with a range of symptoms, including abdominal mass, weight loss, bone pain, and hepatomegaly. In some cases, paraplegia and proptosis may also occur. To diagnose neuroblastoma, doctors will typically look for raised levels of urinary vanillylmandelic acid (VMA) and homovanillic acid (HVA). Additionally, calcification may be visible on an abdominal x-ray, and a biopsy may be necessary to confirm the diagnosis. Overall, neuroblastoma is a serious condition that requires prompt diagnosis and treatment. By understanding the symptoms and diagnostic process, parents and caregivers can work with healthcare providers to ensure that children receive the best possible care.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 6
Correct
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A 50-year-old woman has a diastolic murmur best heard in the upper-left 2nd intercostal space.
What single condition would be part of the differential diagnosis?
Your Answer: Aortic regurgitation
Explanation:Differentiating Heart Murmurs: Characteristics and Causes
Heart murmurs are abnormal sounds heard during the cardiac cycle. They can be caused by a variety of conditions, including valve abnormalities, septal defects, and physiological factors. Here are some characteristics and causes of common heart murmurs:
Aortic Regurgitation: This produces a low-intensity early diastolic decrescendo murmur, best heard in the aortic area. The backflow of blood across the aortic valve causes the murmur.
Aortic Stenosis: This produces a mid-systolic ejection murmur in the aortic area. It radiates into the neck over the two carotid arteries. The most common cause is calcified aortic valves due to ageing, followed by congenital bicuspid aortic valves.
Mitral Regurgitation: This murmur is best heard at the apex. In the presence of incompetent mitral valve, the pressure in the left ventricle becomes greater than that in the left atrium at the start of isovolumic contraction, which corresponds to the closing of the mitral valve (S1).
Physiological Murmur: This is a low-intensity murmur that mainly occurs in children. It can occur in adults particularly if there is anaemia or a fever. It is caused by increased blood flow through the aortic valves.
Ventricular Septal Defect: This produces a pansystolic murmur that starts at S1 and extends up to S2. In a VSD the murmur is usually best heard over the left lower sternal border (tricuspid area) with radiation to the right lower sternal border. This is the area overlying the VSD.
Understanding the characteristics and causes of different heart murmurs can aid in their diagnosis and management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old woman presents with a tremor. This mainly affects her hands but she has also noticed that her head has a tendency to nod, especially when she is under stress or embarrassed. The hand tremor is worse when she is carrying things such as a cup and saucer. She has noticed that the symptoms are improved when she drinks alcohol. Her mother had a similar tremor. Examination reveals a 4-6-Hz tremor, most marked when her arms are outstretched, and nodding movements of the head. She has difficulty in neatly copying a spiral diagram. Other neurological examination is normal. Thyroid function is normal.
Select the single most appropriate first-line therapy.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Propranolol
Explanation:Treatment Options for Essential Tremor: A Comprehensive Guide
Essential tremor is a common neurological disorder that causes involuntary shaking of the hands, head, and voice. While there is no cure for essential tremor, there are several treatment options available to manage the symptoms.
Before starting any treatment, it is important to rule out any underlying peripheral or central nervous system disease and exclude possible causes of physiological tremor such as hyperthyroidism, drug-related tremor, or alcohol withdrawal.
The most appropriate first-line therapy for essential tremor is β blockade. If this is not tolerated, primidone is an alternative. Other medications that have shown effectiveness include alprazolam, atenolol, topiramate, and clonazepam. However, gabapentin has only been found to be effective when used as monotherapy and not as adjunct therapy.
For head tremors, botulinum toxin A can be used. In rare cases, surgery may be considered, such as deep brain stimulation or thalamotomy.
It is important to note that mild tremors may not require any treatment or only intermittent treatment for difficult social situations.
In conclusion, essential tremor can be managed with various treatment options. It is important to consult with a healthcare professional to determine the best course of action for each individual case.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 4-month-old boy presents with an eight-hour history of vomiting and inconsolable crying. He has a tender, irreducible lump in the right groin that extends into the scrotum.
What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Incarcerated hernia
Explanation:Distinguishing between Inguinal Hernia and Other Groin Conditions in Children
Inguinal hernias are a common condition affecting 1-3% of young children, with incarcerated or strangulated hernias accounting for 10-20% of cases. These hernias present as a swelling in the external or internal inguinal ring or scrotum, which may or may not be painful. In contrast, testicular torsion typically affects teenage boys and presents with testicular pain, tenderness, and swelling. Orchitis, caused by mumps, also presents with testicular pain and swelling but doesn’t involve swelling in the groin. Hydroceles, which contain fluid and transilluminate, are not typically tender and do not involve bowel in the scrotum. Undescended or retractile testicles may cause apparent groin swelling but do not involve tenderness. When evaluating a child with apparent groin swelling, it is important to palpate both testicles and consider the presence of tenderness, transillumination, and upper border of the swelling to distinguish between these conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner with symptoms of post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) that she has been experiencing for several years and can no longer manage. She reveals several life events that she believes may have contributed, including work and relationship stress. She also mentions the recent passing of a dear friend and the fact that her brother died in military service five years ago.
What is the most probable cause for the onset of PTSD?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Learning the circumstances of the death of her brother in military service
Explanation:Understanding Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder (PTSD) and Its Triggers
Post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) is a type of anxiety disorder that can occur after experiencing or witnessing a traumatic event. Traumatic events can include accidents, natural disasters, terrorist attacks, and violent assaults. PTSD can also occur when someone learns that a close family member or friend has experienced a traumatic event. However, it is important to note that not all stressful life events can lead to PTSD. For example, losing a friend to a long-term illness, being made redundant, experiencing significant work stress, or undergoing an acrimonious divorce are not triggers for PTSD unless they involve traumatic experiences such as domestic violence or sexual abuse. Understanding the triggers of PTSD can help individuals seek appropriate treatment and support.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 12-year-old girl is seen for review with her mother. She has been seen on several occasions over the last 2-3 months, feeling increasingly tired and weak.
The last occasion was about two weeks ago when she was diagnosed with gastroenteritis. Her mother says this seems to have settle but she still complains of feeling generally weak and tired. She thinks she has lost weight.
A colleague of yours had requested some blood tests and you can see there is a normal full blood count, liver function, thyroid function, and anti-TTG results on the computer system. Her renal function is normal with a low sodium being the only result outside of normal range.
On examination: the child looks thin and a little pale. There is no fever, or rashes. She is not breathless or in pain. Her blood glucose is 4.1 mmol/L. Her heart sounds are normal and her chest is clear. There is no lymphadenopathy or organomegaly.
Which of the following clinical features is most likely be present on further examination of this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hyperpigmentation of mucous membranes
Explanation:Understanding Addison’s Disease
Addison’s disease is a rare condition that occurs due to adrenal insufficiency, with the most common cause being autoimmune destruction of the adrenal glands. It affects a small percentage of the population, making it difficult to diagnose due to its vague symptoms. Symptoms can range from sudden acute crises triggered by concurrent illness or stress to chronic nonspecific symptoms such as fatigue, weight loss, and muscle weakness. Differential diagnoses should be considered, including type 1 diabetes, eating disorders, and chronic fatigue syndrome.
In this case, a child with chronic vague symptoms was examined, and blood results revealed hyponatremia and low glucose levels, which are common in Addison’s disease. Other symptoms such as postural hypotension, jaundice, peripheral edema, and inflammatory arthropathy were ruled out. Hyperpigmentation is a common feature of Addison’s disease, which develops due to increased ACTH production and usually affects sun-exposed areas, recent scar sites, pressure points, palmar creases, and mucous membranes. It is important to have a high degree of suspicion when considering a diagnosis of Addison’s disease due to its rarity and vague symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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