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  • Question 1 - A 16-month-old girl presents with her mother to the General Practitioner, as her...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-month-old girl presents with her mother to the General Practitioner, as her mother is concerned about her lack of energy and poor appetite. The girl drinks six 200-ml bottles of doorstep cow’s milk each day but eats very little at mealtimes. She is thriving (weight 97th centile) and examination is normal.
      Investigations:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Haemoglobin (Hb) 87 g/l 110–140 g/l
      White blood count (WBC) 11 × 109/l 5–17× 109/l
      Neutrophils 4.1 × 109/l 1–8.5× 109/l
      Lymphocytes 5.9 × 109/l 1.5–9.5× 109/l
      Platelets 357 × 109/l 150–400× 109/l
      Mean corpuscular volume 65 fl 72–84 fl
      What is the likely underlying cause of this patient’s presentation?

      Your Answer: Folic acid deficiency

      Correct Answer: Overconsumption of cow’s milk

      Explanation:

      Possible causes of microcytic anaemia in a 9-month-old child

      Microcytic anaemia is a condition characterized by a low level of haemoglobin (Hb) in red blood cells, along with small cell size. In a 9-month-old child, this can be caused by various factors. One possible cause is overconsumption of cow’s milk, which is low in iron but high in calories. This can lead to a lack of appetite and subsequent deficiencies in vitamins and minerals, especially iron. Another possible cause is folic acid deficiency, which typically results in megaloblastic anaemia rather than microcytic anaemia. Calorie deficit is unlikely in a child with a high weight percentile. Inflammatory bowel disease is rare in infancy and not supported by the given information. Finally, it is worth noting that a normal physiological fall in Hb occurs after birth, but by 6 months of age, the Hb level should be within the range of 110-140 g/l. Treatment for microcytic anaemia may involve dietary education and oral iron supplementation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
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  • Question 2 - If you were looking at evidence about which age group is most susceptible...

    Incorrect

    • If you were looking at evidence about which age group is most susceptible to psychiatric disturbance in patients taking Tamiflu, in what type of study would you be most likely to find it?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Nested case-control study

      Explanation:

      Investigating Rare Case Reports of Psychiatric Disturbance and Drug Safety

      By definition, rare case reports cannot be adequately addressed in a standard clinical development program that typically involves studies in up to 5,000 patients. Therefore, conducting another randomized controlled trial (RCT) is unlikely to provide significant data. Managed healthcare databases may not offer sufficient detailed information to establish causality, and a cohort study may not have a large enough number of index events to draw conclusions about drug safety. In this scenario, a nested case-control study is the most appropriate approach to investigate any potential link between psychiatric disturbance and the drug. This type of study compares a collection of cases with control patients to identify any differences and draw conclusions about drug safety.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
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  • Question 3 - A 21-year-old woman visits her General Practitioner with complaints of frequent migraine attacks....

    Incorrect

    • A 21-year-old woman visits her General Practitioner with complaints of frequent migraine attacks. Despite using adequate triptans and non-steroidal anti-inflammatory agents, these attacks can incapacitate her for up to three days. What is the most suitable course of action for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Propranolol

      Explanation:

      Migraine Prophylactic Drugs: Guidelines and Recommendations

      Migraine is a common neurological disorder that affects millions of people worldwide. Prophylactic drugs are used to prevent or reduce the frequency and severity of migraine attacks. In this article, we will discuss the guidelines and recommendations for the use of prophylactic drugs in the management of migraines.

      Beta-blockers, topiramate, and valproate are considered first-line prophylactic drugs for migraines, according to the British Association for the Study of Headache guidelines. Amitriptyline is regarded as adequate, while other prophylactic drugs are considered poor. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence recommends propranolol as the first-line preventative therapy for migraines.

      Amitriptyline is the first-line treatment when migraine co-exists with other chronic pain conditions, disturbed sleep, and depression. It is often used in combination with beta-blockers as a second-line treatment for chronic migraines. However, there is no formal evidence of a synergistic effect.

      Pizotifen and clonidine have been widely used for many years, but there is little clinical trial evidence of their efficacy. Sodium valproate is a second-line prophylactic drug that is contraindicated during pregnancy. Topiramate is also a second-line prophylactic agent for migraines, but it has a significant side-effect profile and should be avoided during pregnancy.

      In conclusion, the choice of prophylactic drug for migraines should be based on the patient’s individual needs and medical history. The guidelines and recommendations discussed in this article can serve as a starting point for healthcare professionals in the management of migraines.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 4 - A father brings his twelve-year-old daughter to see you in your GP practice...

    Incorrect

    • A father brings his twelve-year-old daughter to see you in your GP practice as she has been struggling with sports at school. She has been complaining of steadily worsening pain, which is vaguely located above her right knee, for the past two weeks. Her father says that this has been particularly upsetting for her as she has been trying to lose weight. She is systemically well otherwise. Examination of the right knee joint is normal as is neurological examination of the lower limbs.

      What is the most crucial diagnosis to rule out?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Slipped upper femoral epiphysis

      Explanation:

      Slipped capital femoral epiphysis can be difficult to diagnose as it can present insidiously and sometimes only with referred knee pain. Therefore, a high level of suspicion is necessary to avoid potential legal issues. It is crucial to rule out this condition with a hip x-ray. On the other hand, Osgood-Schlatter disease usually causes lower knee pain and tenderness over the tibial apophysis, while chondromalacia patellae typically results in anterior knee pain and can be treated conservatively with physiotherapy and non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs.

      Slipped Capital Femoral Epiphysis: A Rare Hip Condition in Children

      Slipped capital femoral epiphysis, also known as slipped upper femoral epiphysis, is a rare hip condition that is typically seen in children between the ages of 10 and 15 years. It is more common in obese children and boys. This condition is characterized by the displacement of the femoral head epiphysis postero-inferiorly, which may present acutely following trauma or more commonly with chronic, persistent symptoms.

      The features of slipped capital femoral epiphysis include hip, groin, medial thigh, or knee pain, as well as loss of internal rotation of the leg in flexion. In 20% of cases, a bilateral slip may occur. To diagnose this condition, AP and lateral (typically frog-leg) views are used.

      The management of slipped capital femoral epiphysis involves internal fixation, typically with a single cannulated screw placed in the center of the epiphysis. However, if left untreated, this condition can lead to complications such as osteoarthritis, avascular necrosis of the femoral head, chondrolysis, and leg length discrepancy.

      In summary, slipped capital femoral epiphysis is a rare hip condition that can cause significant pain and discomfort in children. Early diagnosis and management are crucial to prevent complications and ensure a good outcome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
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  • Question 5 - A 31-year-old woman is experiencing a skin issue and is curious if using...

    Incorrect

    • A 31-year-old woman is experiencing a skin issue and is curious if using a sunbed could alleviate it. Identify the sole condition that can be positively impacted by exposure to sunlight.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Psoriasis

      Explanation:

      The Dangers and Benefits of UV Light Therapy for Skin Conditions

      UV light therapy, including UVB and PUVA, can effectively treat psoriasis, atopic eczema, cutaneous T-cell lymphoma, and even polymorphic light eruption. However, sunlight can worsen conditions like lupus erythematosus and rosacea, and lead to skin ageing and cancer over time. Tanning, whether from the sun or a sunbed, should only be used under medical supervision for phototherapy. It’s important to weigh the potential benefits and risks of UV light therapy for skin conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 6 - A 40-year-old male comes to his GP complaining of experiencing dull pain in...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old male comes to his GP complaining of experiencing dull pain in the orbital area, redness in the eye, tearing, and sensitivity to light for the past 4 days. During the examination, the doctor notices an irregular, constricted pupil. What is the best course of action for management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Steroid + cycloplegic eye drops

      Explanation:

      Anterior uveitis, also known as iritis, is a type of inflammation that affects the iris and ciliary body in the front part of the uvea. This condition is often associated with HLA-B27 and may be linked to other conditions such as ankylosing spondylitis, reactive arthritis, ulcerative colitis, Crohn’s disease, Behcet’s disease, and sarcoidosis. Symptoms of anterior uveitis include sudden onset of eye discomfort and pain, small and irregular pupils, intense sensitivity to light, blurred vision, redness in the eye, tearing, and a ring of redness around the cornea. In severe cases, pus and inflammatory cells may accumulate in the front chamber of the eye, leading to a visible fluid level. Treatment for anterior uveitis involves urgent evaluation by an ophthalmologist, cycloplegic agents to relieve pain and photophobia, and steroid eye drops to reduce inflammation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Eyes And Vision
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  • Question 7 - At what point in the NHS vaccination schedule would you provide routine immunisation...

    Incorrect

    • At what point in the NHS vaccination schedule would you provide routine immunisation for Hepatitis B?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: At 15 months of age

      Explanation:

      The Importance of Understanding Immunisation Schedules

      Immunisation schedules are crucial to understand, especially with recent changes to UK guidance in January 2020. One significant change relates to the timing of pneumococcal immunisation. Additionally, hepatitis B vaccination is routinely available as part of the NHS vaccination schedule. It is offered to all babies at 8, 12, and 16 weeks of age, as well as those at increased risk of hepatitis B or its complications.

      It is essential to memorise the latest schedule, as it may feature in your exam. We have included a reference to a summary guide below for your convenience. Understanding immunisation schedules is crucial for healthcare professionals to ensure that patients receive the appropriate vaccinations at the correct time.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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  • Question 8 - A 32-year-old man presents with visual issues. He has recently developed a blind...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old man presents with visual issues. He has recently developed a blind spot in the visual field of his left eye. The problem appeared overnight and has worsened slightly since then. He has also experienced mild pain behind his left eye, which intensifies when he moves it. He has noticed that colors, particularly red, appear washed-out. When he covers his left eye, his right eye's vision seems normal. He has been feeling generally lethargic for the past few days but is otherwise healthy. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Optic neuritis

      Explanation:

      Optic neuritis, characterized by visual loss, eye pain, and red desaturation, is a typical indication of multiple sclerosis (MS) and is often the first symptom. Early MS may also cause lethargy, which is a nonspecific symptom.

      It is highly unlikely for a 34-year-old to have temporal arteritis.

      Understanding Optic Neuritis: Causes, Features, Investigation, Management, and Prognosis

      Optic neuritis is a condition that causes a decrease in visual acuity in one eye over a period of hours or days. It is often associated with multiple sclerosis, diabetes, or syphilis. Other features of optic neuritis include poor discrimination of colors, pain that worsens with eye movement, relative afferent pupillary defect, and central scotoma.

      To diagnose optic neuritis, an MRI of the brain and orbits with gadolinium contrast is usually performed. High-dose steroids are the primary treatment for optic neuritis, and recovery typically takes 4-6 weeks.

      The prognosis for optic neuritis is dependent on the number of white-matter lesions found on an MRI. If there are more than three lesions, the five-year risk of developing multiple sclerosis is approximately 50%. Understanding the causes, features, investigation, management, and prognosis of optic neuritis is crucial for early diagnosis and effective treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Eyes And Vision
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  • Question 9 - Sarah is a 35-year-old woman who presented to her GP with abdominal pain....

    Incorrect

    • Sarah is a 35-year-old woman who presented to her GP with abdominal pain. The pain was burning in nature and was localised to her epigastric area. A stool test for Helicobacter pylori was done, which came back as positive. Accordingly, she was treated with eradication therapy for one week. Despite the treatment, her symptoms have continued. She would like to be tested to check the bacteria has been eradicated. She is not keen on being referred for an endoscopy.

      Which of the following investigations should she be referred for?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Urea breath test

      Explanation:

      Tests for Helicobacter pylori

      There are several tests available to diagnose Helicobacter pylori infection. One of the most common tests is the urea breath test, where patients consume a drink containing carbon isotope 13 enriched urea. The urea is broken down by H. pylori urease, and after 30 minutes, the patient exhales into a glass tube. Mass spectrometry analysis calculates the amount of 13C CO2, which determines the presence of H. pylori. However, this test should not be performed within four weeks of treatment with an antibacterial or within two weeks of an antisecretory drug.

      Another test is the rapid urease test, also known as the CLO test. This test involves mixing a biopsy sample with urea and pH indicator, and a color change indicates H. pylori urease activity. Serum antibody tests remain positive even after eradication, and the sensitivity and specificity are 85% and 80%, respectively. Culture of gastric biopsy provides information on antibiotic sensitivity, with a sensitivity of 70% and specificity of 100%. Gastric biopsy with histological evaluation alone has a sensitivity and specificity of 95-99%. Lastly, the stool antigen test has a sensitivity of 90% and specificity of 95%.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 10 - A 30-year-old healthy woman visits her General Practitioner to obtain a health insurance...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old healthy woman visits her General Practitioner to obtain a health insurance policy. She has no significant medical history, is a non-smoker, and drinks 3 units of alcohol weekly. During examination, a faint systolic murmur is detected. Her ECG shows a heart rate of 68 bpm and is normal. An echocardiogram reveals a bicuspid aortic valve.
      What is the most appropriate management option for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Referral for heart surgery at a later date

      Explanation:

      Bicuspid Aortic Valve: Risks and Recommendations

      Bicuspid aortic valve is a common congenital heart disease in adults, occurring in 1-2% of the population with a familial incidence of around 10%. While some patients may be asymptomatic, about 30% develop complications such as aortic stenosis or insufficiency, which may require surgery. Additionally, the aorta of patients with bicuspid aortic valve has reduced tensile strength, putting them at higher risk for aortic dissection and aneurysm formation in the ascending aorta.

      To manage the cardiovascular risk associated with this condition, low-dose aspirin and cholesterol-lowering drugs may be prescribed as appropriate. While there is evidence supporting a familial predisposition, screening for family members is not yet universally recommended. Finally, while infective endocarditis is a potential complication, antibiotic prophylaxis during dental procedures is no longer recommended.

      In summary, bicuspid aortic valve requires careful monitoring and management to prevent complications and ensure optimal cardiovascular health.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 11 - A 5-year-old child presents with a sore throat and polymorphous rash. He has...

    Incorrect

    • A 5-year-old child presents with a sore throat and polymorphous rash. He has had a fever for five to six days. He is well, drinking fluids, not vomiting, and passing urine normally.

      On examination, he is alert, well hydrated with no photophobia or neck stiffness. His temperature is 38.7°C, HR 140, RR 30, and CRT<2 sec. His chest is clear.

      He has generalised blanching macular rash and bilateral conjunctival injection. His lips are dry and chapped, tonsils are erythematous with no exudate. His eardrums look normal and he has moderate cervical lymphadenopathy. Urine dipstick is positive for protein and leucocytes.

      What is the most appropriate management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Give penicillin V, take throat swab and send home with worsening advice

      Explanation:

      Understanding Kawasaki Disease

      Kawasaki disease is a leading cause of acquired heart disease in children in the UK. Although its prevalence is low, the risk of complications is high due to late diagnosis. As such, it is important to have a good understanding of the disease, which may be tested in the AKT exam.

      The exact cause of Kawasaki disease is unknown, but it is believed to be due to a microbiological toxin. If left untreated, it can lead to coronary aneurysms. To diagnose Kawasaki disease, consider it in children with fever lasting over five days and who have four of the following five features: bilateral conjunctival injection, change in mucous membranes in the upper respiratory tract, change in the extremities, polymorphous rash, or cervical lymphadenopathy. In rare cases, incomplete or atypical Kawasaki disease may be diagnosed with fewer features.

      To help remember the features of Kawasaki disease, think All Red + Cervical Lymphadenopathy. This stands for red eyes, red mouth, red rash, red hands, and cervical lymphadenopathy. By being aware of these symptoms, healthcare professionals can diagnose and treat Kawasaki disease promptly, reducing the risk of complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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  • Question 12 - A 29-year-old woman comes to your clinic accompanied by her husband, who reports...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old woman comes to your clinic accompanied by her husband, who reports that she has been exhibiting strange behavior for the past two weeks. She has planned a trip to Europe, bought a new car with a personal loan, and told her husband that she wants a divorce. She has been unable to sleep and is always out of the house. During your conversation with her, she insists that everything is fine and attempts to leave the room. When you prevent her from leaving, she tries to jump out of the window of your fourth-floor clinic room. You lock the door and call for security, and together you manage to calm her down and keep her in the room. You diagnose her with an acute manic episode. What is the most appropriate next step in management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Place her under Section 4 of the Mental Health Act and arrange emergency hospital admission

      Explanation:

      In this emergency situation, Section 4 of the Mental Health Act can be utilized by GPs to issue a 72-hour assessment order for the patient’s detention. The patient’s nearest relative, her husband, can assist in completing the order or an AMHP can be involved.

      Due to the patient’s behavior, waiting for the emergency psychiatry team or a section 2 to be implemented may result in an unacceptable delay. The patient’s attempt to jump out of the window poses a risk to herself. It is unlikely that arranging emergency hospital admission without detaining her under the mental health act would be appropriate as she lacks insight and is unlikely to engage in treatment. Emergency sedation should not be administered as she has calmed down and is not yet under a section.

      Understanding Sectioning under the Mental Health Act

      Sectioning under the Mental Health Act is a legal process used for individuals who refuse to be admitted voluntarily for mental health treatment. This process involves different sections, each with its own set of rules and regulations.

      Section 2 allows for admission for assessment for up to 28 days, which is not renewable. An Approved Mental Health Professional (AMHP) or the nearest relative (NR) can make the application on the recommendation of two doctors, one of whom should be an approved consultant psychiatrist. Treatment can be given against the patient’s wishes.

      Section 3 allows for admission for treatment for up to 6 months, which can be renewed. An AMHP, along with two doctors who have seen the patient within the past 24 hours, can make the application. Treatment can also be given against the patient’s wishes.

      Section 4 is a 72-hour assessment order used in emergencies when a section 2 would involve an unacceptable delay. A GP and an AMHP or NR can make the application, which is often changed to a section 2 upon arrival at the hospital.

      Section 5(2) allows a doctor to legally detain a voluntary patient in the hospital for 72 hours, while Section 5(4) allows a nurse to detain a voluntary patient for 6 hours.

      Section 17a, also known as Supervised Community Treatment (Community Treatment Order), can be used to recall a patient to the hospital for treatment if they do not comply with the conditions of the order in the community, such as taking medication.

      Section 135 allows a court order to be obtained to allow the police to break into a property to remove a person to a Place of Safety, while Section 136 allows the police to take someone found in a public place who appears to have a mental disorder to a Place of Safety for up to 24 hours while a Mental Health Act assessment is arranged.

      Understanding the different sections of the Mental Health Act can help individuals and their loved ones navigate the legal process of sectioning and ensure that they receive the necessary treatment and support for their mental health.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
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  • Question 13 - A 38-year-old man who was diagnosed with epilepsy around 25 years ago is...

    Incorrect

    • A 38-year-old man who was diagnosed with epilepsy around 25 years ago is seeking information about driving regulations for individuals with epilepsy. He is currently on sodium valproate monotherapy and had his last seizure 2 years ago. What is the minimum duration of seizure freedom required before he can drive a car?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 12 months

      Explanation:

      It is common for people to have questions about the DVLA rules regarding epilepsy, given the high number of individuals affected by this condition and the potential risks associated with having a seizure while driving. In this case, the patient has a history of epilepsy and has not experienced a seizure in the past four years. According to the DVLA guidelines, individuals with epilepsy may be eligible for a driving license if they have been seizure-free for at least one year, including minor seizures and other signs of epilepsy such as limb jerking, auras, and absences. This also includes episodes that do not involve a loss of consciousness.

      The DVLA has guidelines for individuals with neurological disorders who wish to drive cars or motorcycles. However, the rules for drivers of heavy goods vehicles are much stricter. For individuals with epilepsy or seizures, they must not drive and must inform the DVLA. If an individual has had a first unprovoked or isolated seizure, they must take six months off driving if there are no relevant structural abnormalities on brain imaging and no definite epileptiform activity on EEG. If these conditions are not met, the time off driving is increased to 12 months. Individuals with established epilepsy or those with multiple unprovoked seizures may qualify for a driving license if they have been free from any seizure for 12 months. If there have been no seizures for five years (with medication if necessary), a ’til 70 license is usually restored. Individuals should not drive while anti-epilepsy medication is being withdrawn and for six months after the last dose.

      For individuals with syncope, a simple faint has no restriction on driving. A single episode that is explained and treated requires four weeks off driving. A single unexplained episode requires six months off driving, while two or more episodes require 12 months off. For individuals with other conditions such as stroke or TIA, they must take one month off driving. They may not need to inform the DVLA if there is no residual neurological deficit. If an individual has had multiple TIAs over a short period of time, they must take three months off driving and inform the DVLA. For individuals who have had a craniotomy, such as for meningioma, they must take one year off driving. If an individual has had a pituitary tumor, a craniotomy requires six months off driving, while trans-sphenoidal surgery allows driving when there is no debarring residual impairment likely to affect safe driving. Individuals with narcolepsy/cataplexy must cease driving on diagnosis but can restart once there is satisfactory control of symptoms. For individuals with chronic neurological disorders such as multiple sclerosis or motor neuron disease, they should inform the DVLA and complete the PK1 form (application for driving license holders’ state of health). If the tumor is a benign meningioma and there is no seizure history, the license can be reconsidered six months after surgery if the individual remains seizure-free.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 14 - A 22-year-old student has presented to you after being hospitalized with a seizure...

    Incorrect

    • A 22-year-old student has presented to you after being hospitalized with a seizure a few days after completing her final exams. The discharge summary and follow-up letter from the neurologist both indicate that this was an alcohol-related seizure. Despite having normal CT and EEG results, the student admits to consuming a large amount of alcohol before the seizure. She denies any previous alcohol misuse and has normal liver function tests. She has not consumed alcohol since the episode and has been advised to inform the DVLA. As a motorcyclist, she is concerned about any potential restrictions. How long should she refrain from using her motorcycle after experiencing a single alcohol-induced seizure?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: One year

      Explanation:

      DVLA Guidance on Fitness to Drive

      The DVLA provides guidance on fitness to drive, which takes into account different types of seizures, including those caused by alcohol. In this case scenario, the seizure is solitary and alcohol-induced, and the driver holds a Group one entitlement for cars and motorcycles.

      The DVLA distinguishes between different types of seizures, and provides specific conditions for the return or issue of a driving licence when there is a background of substance misuse or dependence. Independent medical assessment and consultant reports are usually necessary in these cases.

      It is important to note that the driving restrictions for Group one entitlement drivers, such as the student in this scenario, are the same as those for car drivers. However, if the student held a Group two entitlement for heavy goods vehicles and passenger vehicles, their licence would have been revoked for a minimum of five years.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Consulting In General Practice
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  • Question 15 - A 78-year-old man has cerebrovascular disease and his memory has been getting slowly...

    Incorrect

    • A 78-year-old man has cerebrovascular disease and his memory has been getting slowly worse for the past three years. He is diagnosed with an abdominal aortic aneurysm and ideally should have an operation.

      Which one of the following is correct?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: You should ask his family to consent on his behalf

      Explanation:

      Presumption of Capacity in Medical Decision Making

      In medical decision making, it is important to work on the presumption that every adult patient has the capacity to make decisions about their care. This means that you should not assume that a patient lacks capacity based on their age, disability, appearance, behavior, medical condition, beliefs, or apparent inability to communicate. Instead, you should provide all appropriate help and support to help the patient understand, retain, use, and weigh up the information needed to make a decision.

      In order to maximize the patient’s ability to make a decision, you should share information in a way that the patient can understand, at a time and place when they are best able to retain it. You should also involve other members of the healthcare team if appropriate, and give the patient time to reflect before and after making a decision. It is important to provide information in a balanced way without pressuring the patient to accept your advice or recommendation.

      In the scenario where a patient has poor memory, you should advise him of the risks and benefits and alternative options, and see if he is able to understand and weigh this up in his mind. You should not assume he lacks capacity just because of his memory, and nor should you involve his family in the decision. Instead, assume he has capacity to make a decision unless you are convinced otherwise. By following these principles, you can ensure that medical decision making is based on the presumption of capacity and respects the patient’s autonomy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Older Adults
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  • Question 16 - A father brings his 3-year-old home-schooled daughter to a pediatrician concerned about her...

    Incorrect

    • A father brings his 3-year-old home-schooled daughter to a pediatrician concerned about her developmental progress, particularly her physical abilities. He mentions that his friends' children her age are able to climb stairs, throw a ball, dress themselves partially, and ride a tricycle. However, his daughter is unable to do any of these things. During the examination, she is only able to stack four blocks and can draw a straight line. She speaks in 2-word phrases, with no being a common response, and imitates frequently. Based on her abilities, what is her developmental age?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 2-years-old

      Explanation:

      The milestones of development are categorized into gross motor skills, fine motor skills, vision, speech and hearing, and social behavior and play. For children who are -years old, they should be able to run, climb stairs, construct a tower using 6 cubes, replicate a vertical line, use 2-word phrases, eat with a spoon, dress themselves with a hat and shoes, and engage in play activities with other children.

      Fine Motor and Vision Developmental Milestones

      Fine motor and vision developmental milestones are important indicators of a child’s growth and development. At three months, a baby can reach for objects and hold a rattle briefly if given to their hand. They are visually alert, particularly to human faces, and can fix and follow to 180 degrees. By six months, they can hold objects in a palmar grasp and pass them from one hand to another. They become visually insatiable, looking around in every direction. At nine months, they can point with their finger and develop an early pincer grip. By 12 months, they have a good pincer grip and can bang toys together.

      In terms of bricks, a 15-month-old can build a tower of two, while an 18-month-old can build a tower of three. A two-year-old can build a tower of six, and a three-year-old can build a tower of nine. When it comes to drawing, an 18-month-old can make circular scribbles, while a two-year-old can copy a vertical line. A three-year-old can copy a circle, a four-year-old can copy a cross, and a five-year-old can copy a square and triangle.

      It’s important to note that hand preference before 12 months is abnormal and may indicate cerebral palsy. These milestones serve as a guide for parents and caregivers to monitor a child’s development and ensure they are meeting their milestones appropriately.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
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  • Question 17 - A 35-year-old patient who is on methotrexate for psoriasis presents because her 6-year-old...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old patient who is on methotrexate for psoriasis presents because her 6-year-old son has been suffering from Chickenpox and she is concerned about developing it. She has not previously had Chickenpox herself and is currently well, with no symptoms or rash.

      What advice should be given to this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Test for varicella antibodies and give varicella-zoster immunoglobulin

      Explanation:

      Patients who are on long-term steroids or methotrexate and have weakened immune systems should be given VZIG if they come into contact with Chickenpox and have no antibodies to varicella. Although Chickenpox is usually a mild illness, it can be dangerous for those who are immunosuppressed or pregnant.

      If a patient has been exposed to varicella, they should be offered active post-exposure prophylaxis with varicella-zoster immunoglobulin. It is important to test people who have had significant exposure to Chickenpox and are immunocompromised for varicella-zoster antibody, regardless of their history of Chickenpox.

      It is inappropriate to wait for up to 21 days to see if symptoms appear or take no action because this patient is immunosuppressed and is at risk of severe varicella infection. Similarly, stopping her methotrexate would not be appropriate as the immunosuppressive effects would take time to wear off.

      Managing Chickenpox Exposure in At-Risk Groups

      Whilst Chickenpox is usually a mild condition in children with normal immune systems, it can cause serious systemic disease in at-risk groups. Pregnant women and their developing fetuses are particularly vulnerable. Therefore, it is crucial to know how to manage varicella exposure in these special groups.

      To determine who would benefit from active post-exposure prophylaxis, the following criteria should be met: significant exposure to Chickenpox or herpes zoster, a clinical condition that increases the risk of severe varicella (such as immunosuppression), and no antibodies to the varicella virus. Ideally, all at-risk exposed patients should have a blood test for varicella antibodies. However, post-exposure prophylaxis should not be delayed past 7 days after initial contact.

      Patients who meet the above criteria should be given varicella-zoster immunoglobulin (VZIG). The management of Chickenpox exposure in pregnancy is an important topic that is covered in more detail in a separate entry to the textbook.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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  • Question 18 - You see a 35-year-old patient who had a baby 10 weeks ago. She...

    Incorrect

    • You see a 35-year-old patient who had a baby 10 weeks ago. She is feeling tearful and anxious most days and has been struggling with low mood for 6 weeks. She is extremely tired and is finding it difficult to leave the house to do anything, doesn't find pleasure in anything at the moment. The baby is growing well but she says she is struggling to bond with the baby. She is able to take care of the baby and doesn't feel she would ever harm him. She has never experienced low mood before and is otherwise healthy.

      Discuss postnatal depression with the patient and develop a treatment plan.

      Which statement below regarding postnatal depression is accurate?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Around 10% of women experience postnatal depression

      Explanation:

      Postnatal depression affects approximately 1 in 7 women and its symptoms and effects are just as severe as depression at other times. While hormonal changes may contribute to postnatal depression, it is not the sole cause. Women who are breastfeeding can safely take most tricyclic antidepressants, except for doxepin, as long as their infant is healthy and being monitored. However, the use of St John’s wort is not recommended for breastfeeding mothers with depression.

      Understanding Postpartum Mental Health Problems

      Postpartum mental health problems can range from mild ‘baby-blues’ to severe puerperal psychosis. To screen for depression, healthcare professionals may use the Edinburgh Postnatal Depression Scale, which is a 10-item questionnaire that indicates how the mother has felt over the previous week. A score of over 13 indicates a ‘depressive illness of varying severity’, and the questionnaire includes a question about self-harm. The sensitivity and specificity of this screening tool are over 90%.

      ‘Baby-blues’ are seen in around 60-70% of women and typically occur 3-7 days following birth. This condition is more common in primips, and mothers are characteristically anxious, tearful, and irritable. Postnatal depression affects around 10% of women, with most cases starting within a month and typically peaking at 3 months. The features of postnatal depression are similar to depression seen in other circumstances.

      Puerperal psychosis affects approximately 0.2% of women and usually occurs within the first 2-3 weeks following birth. The features of this condition include severe swings in mood (similar to bipolar disorder) and disordered perception (e.g. auditory hallucinations). Reassurance and support are important for all these conditions, but admission to hospital is usually required for puerperal psychosis, ideally in a Mother & Baby Unit. Cognitive behavioural therapy may be beneficial, and certain SSRIs such as sertraline and paroxetine may be used if symptoms are severe. While these medications are secreted in breast milk, they are not thought to be harmful to the infant. However, fluoxetine is best avoided due to its long half-life. There is around a 25-50% risk of recurrence following future pregnancies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
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  • Question 19 - You receive a call from the Coroner's officer regarding the sudden death of...

    Incorrect

    • You receive a call from the Coroner's officer regarding the sudden death of a patient you were treating. Upon reviewing your written report on the patient's care, you are summoned to appear in person at the Coroner's court to provide evidence, along with other healthcare professionals who also treated the patient. What is the purpose of this procedure?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Inquest

      Explanation:

      Understanding Inquests

      An inquest is a public investigation into the circumstances surrounding a person’s death. It is held at a Coroner’s Court and aims to determine the who, where, when, and how of the death. As a healthcare professional, you may be required to attend an inquest to provide evidence about your involvement in the care of a patient who has died. It is important to note that an inquest is a legal proceeding, but it is not a criminal one. This means that it cannot assign blame or responsibility to a person or organization. Instead, its purpose is to gather information and establish facts. During an inquest, you may be questioned by a lawyer representing the patient, and there may be a jury and members of the press present. It is essential to be prepared and understand the process to ensure that you can provide accurate and helpful information.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • End Of Life
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  • Question 20 - A 22-year-old male with a past history of depression is brought by his...

    Incorrect

    • A 22-year-old male with a past history of depression is brought by his roommate to the emergency room with an overdose of an unknown substance.

      His roommate found him unconscious in their apartment this morning and immediately called for an ambulance. There was an empty bottle of unlabelled pills on the kitchen counter which the patient admitted to taking.

      The patient is currently unresponsive and has shallow breathing. He is hooked up to a ventilator and his vital signs are being closely monitored. There is evidence of recent vomiting and he has a high fever.

      The patient has a history of suicidal ideation and his roommate is not sure where he obtained the pills from. Which of the following has he taken in overdose?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Aspirin

      Explanation:

      Aspirin Overdose: Symptoms and Management

      Aspirin overdose can be potentially fatal, as its effects are dose-related. Unlike with paracetamol, there are many early clinical features of aspirin overdose. These include nausea and vomiting, sweating, hyperventilation, vertigo, and tinnitus. More severe manifestations of overdose include lethargy, coma, seizures, hypotension, heart block, and pulmonary edema.

      Immediate referral to the hospital and close monitoring with supportive measures are necessary for managing aspirin overdose. In severe cases, dialysis may be indicated.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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  • Question 21 - A 47-year-old woman has been experiencing irregular periods for the past year and...

    Incorrect

    • A 47-year-old woman has been experiencing irregular periods for the past year and has been struggling with bothersome hot flashes, night sweats, and vaginal dryness for over 6 months. These symptoms are impacting her daily life and work. She has a history of migraines, asthma, and recently had a suspicious lesion removed from her right arm. She is currently taking inhaled corticosteroids, topiramate, and uses salbutamol and paracetamol as needed. Additionally, she has a mirena coil inserted.

      Is hormone replacement therapy (HRT) a suitable option for this patient? What advice should be given regarding HRT?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hormone replacement therapy may make her migraines worse

      Explanation:

      Although HRT is generally considered safe for patients with migraines (with or without aura), it is important to note that in some cases, it may actually worsen migraines. While HRT can improve vasomotor symptoms, it also increases the risk of stroke and breast cancer. However, this doesn’t necessarily mean that HRT should be avoided altogether. Patients should be fully informed of the risks and benefits so that they can make an informed decision. In some cases, a Mirena coil may be used as the progestogen component of HRT, but an estrogen component is still necessary for controlling vasomotor symptoms. Ultimately, while HRT can be prescribed for patients with a history of migraines, it is important to advise them of the potential for worsening migraines.

      Managing Migraine in Relation to Hormonal Factors

      Migraine is a common neurological condition that affects many people, particularly women. Hormonal factors such as pregnancy, contraception, and menstruation can have an impact on the management of migraine. In 2008, the Scottish Intercollegiate Guidelines Network (SIGN) produced guidelines on the management of migraine, which provide useful information on how to manage migraine in relation to these hormonal factors.

      When it comes to migraine during pregnancy, paracetamol is the first-line treatment, while NSAIDs can be used as a second-line treatment in the first and second trimester. However, aspirin and opioids such as codeine should be avoided during pregnancy. If a patient has migraine with aura, the combined oral contraceptive (COC) pill is absolutely contraindicated due to an increased risk of stroke. Women who experience migraines around the time of menstruation can be treated with mefenamic acid or a combination of aspirin, paracetamol, and caffeine. Triptans are also recommended in the acute situation. Hormone replacement therapy (HRT) is safe to prescribe for patients with a history of migraine, but it may make migraines worse.

      In summary, managing migraine in relation to hormonal factors requires careful consideration and appropriate treatment. The SIGN guidelines provide valuable information on how to manage migraine in these situations, and healthcare professionals should be aware of these guidelines to ensure that patients receive the best possible care.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
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  • Question 22 - A 29-year-old woman who is known to be HIV positive presents following a...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old woman who is known to be HIV positive presents following a positive pregnancy test. Her last menstrual period was 6 weeks ago. The last CD4 count was 420 * 106/l and she doesn't take any antiretroviral therapy. What is the most appropriate management with regards to antiretroviral therapy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Start antiretroviral therapy immediately

      Explanation:

      The 2015 BHIVA guidelines suggest that patients should commence HAART immediately upon HIV diagnosis, irrespective of pregnancy status, rather than delaying until a specific CD4 count, as was previously advised.

      HIV and Pregnancy: Guidelines for Minimizing Vertical Transmission

      With the increasing prevalence of HIV infection among heterosexual individuals, there has been a rise in the number of HIV-positive women giving birth in the UK. In London, the incidence may be as high as 0.4% of pregnant women. The goal of treating HIV-positive women during pregnancy is to minimize harm to both the mother and fetus and to reduce the chance of vertical transmission.

      To achieve this goal, various factors must be considered. Guidelines on this subject are regularly updated, and the most recent guidelines can be found using the links provided. Factors that can reduce vertical transmission from 25-30% to 2% include maternal antiretroviral therapy, mode of delivery (caesarean section), neonatal antiretroviral therapy, and infant feeding (bottle feeding).

      To ensure that HIV-positive women receive appropriate care during pregnancy, NICE guidelines recommend offering HIV screening to all pregnant women. Additionally, all pregnant women should be offered antiretroviral therapy, regardless of whether they were taking it previously.

      The mode of delivery is also an important consideration. Vaginal delivery is recommended if the viral load is less than 50 copies/ml at 36 weeks. Otherwise, a caesarean section is recommended, and a zidovudine infusion should be started four hours before beginning the procedure.

      Neonatal antiretroviral therapy is also crucial in minimizing vertical transmission. Zidovudine is usually administered orally to the neonate if the maternal viral load is less than 50 copies/ml. Otherwise, triple ART should be used, and therapy should be continued for 4-6 weeks.

      Finally, infant feeding is another important factor to consider. In the UK, all women should be advised not to breastfeed to minimize the risk of vertical transmission. By following these guidelines, healthcare providers can help minimize the risk of vertical transmission and ensure that HIV-positive women receive appropriate care during pregnancy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
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  • Question 23 - Is it true that Isoniazid inhibits the P450 system?

    Important for me

    Less...

    Incorrect

    • Is it true that Isoniazid inhibits the P450 system?

      Important for me

      Less important

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Isoniazid

      Explanation:

      The P450 system is inhibited by isoniazid.

      P450 Enzyme System and its Inducers and Inhibitors

      The P450 enzyme system is responsible for metabolizing many drugs in the body. Induction of this system occurs when a drug or substance causes an increase in the activity of the P450 enzymes. This process usually requires prolonged exposure to the inducing drug. On the other hand, P450 inhibitors decrease the activity of the enzymes and their effects are often seen rapidly.

      Some common inducers of the P450 system include antiepileptics like phenytoin and carbamazepine, barbiturates such as phenobarbitone, rifampicin, St John’s Wort, chronic alcohol intake, griseofulvin, and smoking. Smoking affects CYP1A2, which is the reason why smokers require more aminophylline.

      In contrast, some common inhibitors of the P450 system include antibiotics like ciprofloxacin and erythromycin, isoniazid, cimetidine, omeprazole, amiodarone, allopurinol, imidazoles such as ketoconazole and fluconazole, SSRIs like fluoxetine and sertraline, ritonavir, sodium valproate, acute alcohol intake, and quinupristin.

      It is important to be aware of the potential for drug interactions when taking medications that affect the P450 enzyme system. Patients should always inform their healthcare provider of all medications and supplements they are taking to avoid any adverse effects.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing
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  • Question 24 - An 81-year-old woman is brought to the clinic by her daughter. She lives...

    Incorrect

    • An 81-year-old woman is brought to the clinic by her daughter. She lives independently, but her daughter has noticed that she has become increasingly forgetful over the last six months. There are no neurological abnormalities on examination.
      Which of the following additional features would be most suggestive of a diagnosis of mild cognitive impairment (MCI)?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Difficulty in finding words

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Symptoms of Mild Cognitive Impairment

      Mild cognitive impairment (MCI) is a condition characterized by a decline in cognitive function that is greater than expected for an individual’s age and education level, but doesn’t significantly interfere with daily activities or affect multiple cognitive domains. Here are some common symptoms associated with MCI and how they differ from those of dementia:

      Difficulty in Finding Words: MCI may cause word-finding difficulty without other cognitive deficits, which can be frustrating but doesn’t significantly impact daily life.

      Incontinence: While incontinence can be a sign of autonomic dysfunction in dementia, it is not typically associated with MCI.

      Apathy: Withdrawal or apathy is a common symptom of dementia, but is not typically present in patients with MCI.

      Delusions: Delusions are a sign of psychosis, which can be present in some forms of dementia but are not typically associated with MCI.

      Insomnia: Insomnia can be a symptom of dementia-related sleep disturbances, but is not typically associated with MCI.

      Understanding these symptoms can help healthcare professionals diagnose and manage MCI, as well as differentiate it from more severe forms of cognitive decline.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 25 - A 3-year-old girl has had a cold and a raised temperature for 4...

    Incorrect

    • A 3-year-old girl has had a cold and a raised temperature for 4 days but now has a red rash on both sides of her face and a diffuse macular rash elsewhere.
      Select from the list the single most likely diagnosis.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Erythema infectiosum

      Explanation:

      Erythema Infectiosum: Symptoms, Causes, and Risks During Pregnancy

      Erythema infectiosum, commonly known as ‘slapped cheek’ disease or fifth disease, is caused by parvovirus B19. It is called fifth disease because it is the fifth of the classic exanthems. The infection may be asymptomatic or present with nonspecific coryzal symptoms. It is most common between ages 3-15 years.

      The prodromal symptoms of erythema infectiosum are mild and may include headache, rhinitis, low-grade fever, and malaise. In some cases, nausea, diarrhea, abdominal pain, or arthropathy may develop. After 3-7 days, the classic ‘slapped cheek’ rash appears as erythema on the cheeks, sparing the nose, perioral, and periorbital regions. This rash disappears after 2-4 days. About 1-4 days after the facial rash appears, an erythematous macular rash develops on the extremities, mainly on the extensor surfaces. This rash gradually fades but may take up to 3 weeks and can recur.

      Any arthropathy associated with erythema infectiosum is symmetrical and affects the hands, wrists, knees, and ankles. It usually resolves within a few days but in some cases persists for 2 months or longer. It may appear like rheumatoid arthritis.

      Identification of parvovirus B19 infection in a pregnant woman is crucial, as parvovirus infection in the first half of pregnancy may cause fetal hydrops. The outcome of fetal hydrops can be improved by intrauterine transfusion. Therefore, pregnant women should take extra precautions to avoid exposure to erythema infectiosum.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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  • Question 26 - You are evaluating a 67-year-old patient during his chronic kidney disease follow-up. He...

    Incorrect

    • You are evaluating a 67-year-old patient during his chronic kidney disease follow-up. He has been undergoing haemodialysis for the past 6 years. What is the leading cause of mortality for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ischaemic heart disease

      Explanation:

      Causes of Chronic Kidney Disease

      Chronic kidney disease is a condition that affects the kidneys and can lead to kidney failure if left untreated. There are several common causes of chronic kidney disease, including diabetic nephropathy, chronic glomerulonephritis, chronic pyelonephritis, hypertension, and adult polycystic kidney disease. Diabetic nephropathy is a complication of diabetes that affects the kidneys, while chronic glomerulonephritis is a condition that causes inflammation in the kidneys. Chronic pyelonephritis is a type of kidney infection that can lead to scarring and damage to the kidneys. Hypertension, or high blood pressure, can also cause damage to the kidneys over time. Finally, adult polycystic kidney disease is an inherited condition that causes cysts to form in the kidneys, leading to kidney damage and eventually kidney failure. It is important to identify the underlying cause of chronic kidney disease in order to properly manage and treat the condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
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  • Question 27 - What are the reasons for dilated pupils? ...

    Incorrect

    • What are the reasons for dilated pupils?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Organophosphate poisoning

      Explanation:

      Causes of Dilated and Small Pupils

      Dilated pupils can be caused by various factors such as Holmes-Adie (myotonic) pupil, third nerve palsy, and drugs and poisons like atropine, CO, and ethylene glycol. On the other hand, small pupils can be caused by Horner’s syndrome, old age, pontine hemorrhage, Argyll Robertson pupil, and drugs and poisons like opiates and organophosphates.

      Holmes-Adie (myotonic) pupil and third nerve palsy are conditions that affect the nerves controlling the pupil’s size, leading to dilation. Meanwhile, drugs and poisons like atropine, CO, and ethylene glycol can also cause dilation by interfering with the nerve signals.

      Small pupils, on the other hand, can be caused by Horner’s syndrome, a condition that affects the nerves controlling the pupil’s size and position. Old age can also cause the pupils to become smaller due to changes in the muscles controlling the iris. Pontine hemorrhage and Argyll Robertson pupil are also conditions that can cause small pupils. Lastly, drugs and poisons like opiates and organophosphates can also cause constriction of the pupils.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Eyes And Vision
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  • Question 28 - A 60-year-old diabetic man is evaluated and found to be experiencing moderate depression....

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old diabetic man is evaluated and found to be experiencing moderate depression. He is dealing with severe osteoarthritis and is waiting for a hip replacement. Despite declining CBT, he agrees with your suggestion that antidepressant medication may be beneficial. What is your top pick for an antidepressant for this individual?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Fluoxetine

      Explanation:

      Treatment Considerations for Depression in Patients with Chronic Physical Health Problems

      Individuals with chronic physical health problems are at a higher risk of developing depression, with a two to three times greater likelihood than those in good health. This is particularly true for patients with complications of diabetes, such as retinopathy, chronic or end-stage renal disease, and painful peripheral neuropathy, as well as those with limited mobility and independence due to osteoarthritis and severe pain.

      While cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT) is a recommended high-intensity intervention for depression, some patients may decline this treatment option. In such cases, selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) are the first choice of antidepressant medication, with citalopram and sertraline being preferred options due to their lower propensity for drug interactions.

      It is important to note that venlafaxine is more dangerous in overdose than other newer agents that are equally effective, and dosulepin should not be prescribed at all. Tricyclics are also associated with side effects such as blurred vision, urinary retention, constipation, and postural hypotension, which could potentially exacerbate existing health problems.

      In addition to optimizing treatments for chronic diseases, healthcare providers should also consider any other medications the patient may be taking, such as aspirin or non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) for arthritis, which may require gastroprotection. Overall, a comprehensive and individualized approach to treatment is necessary for managing depression in patients with chronic physical health problems.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
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  • Question 29 - A randomized controlled trial compared the effectiveness of generic counselling with normal GP...

    Incorrect

    • A randomized controlled trial compared the effectiveness of generic counselling with normal GP care for patients with diverse psychological problems (excluding phobias and psychoses). A total of 172 patients aged 18 years and over were randomized. Counsellors were either British Association of Counselling (BAC) accredited or trained to diploma level. The Hospital Anxiety and Depression Scale and the COOP/WONCA functional health assessment charts were used to assess the results of both interventions. The study took place in 9 GP practices in South Wales.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Measures were taken to reduce the risk of observer bias in the results

      Explanation:

      Reducing Observer Bias in a Study on Counselling in Primary Care

      The study on counselling in primary care is susceptible to various sources of bias, including the use of different counsellors with varying qualifications and methods, lack of definition for normal GP care, and recruitment of patients with diverse psychological disorders. However, the study employed two objective outcome measures to minimize observer bias. The sample size calculation and generalizability of the results are not specified, but the study found no significant difference in outcome between the two groups. Overall, this pragmatic study aimed to conduct a randomized controlled trial and economic evaluation of counselling in primary care.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Population Health
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  • Question 30 - A 68-year-old man presents with his wife, reporting that she frequently gets out...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old man presents with his wife, reporting that she frequently gets out of bed at night and walks around the bedroom. She describes a sensation of restless legs and a creeping feeling that is unbearable. These symptoms usually occur in the evening and can only be relieved by movement. What is the recommended treatment for this probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ropinirole

      Explanation:

      The management of restless leg syndrome involves the use of dopamine agonists like ropinirole.

      Restless Legs Syndrome: Symptoms, Causes, and Management

      Restless legs syndrome (RLS) is a common condition that affects between 2-10% of the general population. It is characterized by spontaneous, continuous movements in the lower limbs, often accompanied by paraesthesia. Both males and females are equally affected, and a family history may be present. Symptoms typically occur at night but may progress to occur during the day, and are worse at rest. Movements during sleep may also be noted by a partner, known as periodic limb movements of sleep (PLMS).

      There are several causes and associations with RLS, including a positive family history in 50% of patients with idiopathic RLS, iron deficiency anaemia, uraemia, diabetes mellitus, and pregnancy. Diagnosis is primarily clinical, although blood tests such as ferritin may be appropriate to exclude iron deficiency anaemia.

      Management of RLS includes simple measures such as walking, stretching, and massaging affected limbs, as well as treating any underlying iron deficiency. Dopamine agonists such as Pramipexole and ropinirole are first-line treatments, while benzodiazepines and gabapentin may also be used. With proper management, individuals with RLS can experience relief from their symptoms and improve their quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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