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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 19-year-old primigravida is scheduled for induction at 38 weeks due to intrauterine growth restriction. Following a brief labor, a baby girl is born vaginally. The infant has a low birth weight and is diagnosed with microcephaly, moderate hepatosplenomegaly, and a petechial rash upon examination. She experiences a seizure shortly after being admitted to the neonatal intensive care unit. The mother had an uneventful pregnancy, has no medical history, takes no medications, and has received all of her vaccinations. What infection is the baby likely to have been exposed to in utero?
Your Answer: Herpes Simplex
Correct Answer: Cytomegalovirus
Explanation:Hepatomegaly is a possible but uncommon finding in infants with haemolytic anaemia, but microcephaly and seizures would not be expected. Congenital rubella syndrome can occur if the mother contracts rubella during the first trimester of pregnancy, and may present with low birth weight, microcephaly, seizures, and a purpuric rash. However, the classic triad of symptoms includes sensorineural deafness, eye abnormalities, and congenital heart disease, which are not present in this case. Additionally, if the mother has been fully vaccinated against rubella, CMV is a more likely diagnosis. Congenital varicella syndrome can occur if the mother is not immune to varicella-zoster and is infected during the first or second trimester, and may present with microcephaly and seizures, as well as hypertrophic scars, limb defects, and ocular defects. However, there is no history of the mother developing chickenpox during pregnancy, making this diagnosis unlikely.
Congenital Infections: Rubella, Toxoplasmosis, and Cytomegalovirus
Congenital infections are infections that are present at birth and can cause various health problems for the newborn. The three major congenital infections that are commonly encountered in medical examinations are rubella, toxoplasmosis, and cytomegalovirus. Cytomegalovirus is the most common congenital infection in the UK, and maternal infection is usually asymptomatic.
Each of these infections has characteristic features that can help with diagnosis. Rubella can cause congenital cataracts, sensorineural deafness, and congenital heart disease, among other things. Toxoplasmosis can cause growth retardation, cerebral palsy, and visual impairment, among other things. Cytomegalovirus can cause microcephaly, cerebral calcification, and chorioretinitis, among other things.
It is important to be aware of these congenital infections and their potential effects on newborns. Early diagnosis and treatment can help prevent or minimize health problems for the newborn.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 2
Correct
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A 9-year-old girl is brought to the pediatrician with her parents. She has a history of bedwetting and has been using an enuresis alarm which has been helping her. However, she expresses her fear of going to a sleepover because she doesn't want her friends to know about her bedwetting. Her mother is hesitant to let her go without the alarm. Upon examination, the girl appears healthy and a urine dipstick test is normal.
What is the most appropriate course of action in this situation?Your Answer: Offer a short course of desmopressin
Explanation:Desmopressin is a suitable option for managing enuresis in the short term. Starting a short course of desmopressin may be beneficial if the priority is to improve bed wetting. However, commencing long-term use of desmopressin is not recommended in this case, as the patient has been responding well to an enuresis alarm and requires a short-term solution. Encouraging the parents to pack the enuresis alarm may not be helpful, as it could cause the patient further distress and worsen their nocturnal enuresis. Similarly, recommending a short-term rewards system is not the best option, as reward systems are designed for longer-term use and may not address the immediate concern.
Nocturnal enuresis, or bedwetting, is when a child involuntarily urinates during the night. Most children achieve continence by the age of 3 or 4, so enuresis is defined as the involuntary discharge of urine in a child aged 5 or older without any underlying medical conditions. Enuresis can be primary, meaning the child has never achieved continence, or secondary, meaning the child has been dry for at least 6 months before.
When managing bedwetting, it’s important to look for any underlying causes or triggers, such as constipation, diabetes mellitus, or recent onset UTIs. General advice includes monitoring fluid intake and encouraging regular toileting patterns, such as emptying the bladder before sleep. Reward systems, like star charts, can also be helpful, but should be given for agreed behavior rather than dry nights.
The first-line treatment for bedwetting is an enuresis alarm, which has a high success rate. These alarms have sensor pads that detect wetness and wake the child up to use the toilet. If short-term control is needed, such as for sleepovers, or if the alarm is ineffective or not acceptable to the family, desmopressin may be prescribed. Overall, managing bedwetting involves identifying any underlying causes and implementing strategies to promote continence.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 1-month-old infant begins to turn blue and becomes tachypnoeic 10 minutes after feeding. They are administered 100% oxygen for 20 minutes and an arterial blood gas is performed.
pH 7.40 7.36 - 7.42
PaO2 11.5 kPa 10.0 - 12.5
PaCO2 5.8 kPa 5.1 - 5.6
On auscultation, the infant has no murmur but a loud single S2. On palpation, there is a prominent ventricular pulse.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Coarctation of the aorta
Correct Answer: Transposition of the great arteries
Explanation:The oxygen level is below 15 kPa, indicating a cyanotic heart defect. The most likely defect to present soon after birth is transposition of the great arteries, which is consistent with the examination findings. Pulmonary valve stenosis may also cause cyanosis if the lesion is large enough and is associated with Noonan syndrome. It produces a mid-systolic crescendo-decrescendo murmur. Tetralogy of Fallot is the most common cyanotic heart defect but typically presents between 1 and 6 months of age. It is characterized by a loud ejection systolic murmur that is most prominent at the left upper sternal edge and radiates to the axillae.
Understanding Transposition of the Great Arteries
Transposition of the great arteries (TGA) is a type of congenital heart disease that results in a lack of oxygenated blood flow to the body. This condition occurs when the aorticopulmonary septum fails to spiral during septation, causing the aorta to leave the right ventricle and the pulmonary trunk to leave the left ventricle. Children born to diabetic mothers are at a higher risk of developing TGA.
The clinical features of TGA include cyanosis, tachypnea, a loud single S2 heart sound, and a prominent right ventricular impulse. Chest x-rays may show an egg-on-side appearance.
To manage TGA, it is important to maintain the ductus arteriosus with prostaglandins. Surgical correction is the definitive treatment for this condition. Understanding the basic anatomical changes and clinical features of TGA can help with early diagnosis and appropriate management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 4
Correct
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What are the possible causes of cyanosis in a newborn?
Your Answer: Transposition of the great arteries
Explanation:Common Heart Conditions and Their Characteristics
Ventricular septal defect (VSD) is a heart condition where there is a hole in the wall that separates the two lower chambers of the heart. This results in a left to right shunt, which means that oxygen-rich blood from the left side of the heart flows into the right side of the heart and mixes with oxygen-poor blood. This can lead to symptoms such as shortness of breath, fatigue, and poor growth in infants.
Coarctation is another heart condition where there is a narrowing of the aortic arch, which is the main blood vessel that carries blood from the heart to the rest of the body. This narrowing can cause high blood pressure in the arms and head, while the lower body receives less blood flow. Symptoms may include headaches, dizziness, and leg cramps.
Hyperbilirubinaemia, on the other hand, is not associated with cyanosis, which is a bluish discoloration of the skin and mucous membranes due to low oxygen levels in the blood. Hyperbilirubinaemia is a condition where there is an excess of bilirubin in the blood, which can cause yellowing of the skin and eyes.
Lastly, Eisenmenger syndrome is a rare but serious complication that can develop much later in life following a left to right shunt, such as in VSD. This occurs when the shunt reverses and becomes a right to left shunt, leading to low oxygen levels in the blood and cyanosis. Symptoms may include shortness of breath, fatigue, and heart palpitations.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A newborn is delivered via elective Caesarean section at 37 weeks due to pregnancy-induced hypertension. At two hours of age, the male infant is exhibiting mild intercostal recession and grunting. Oxygen saturations are 95-96% on room air. What is the probable reason for the respiratory distress?
Your Answer: Pulmonary hypoplasia
Correct Answer: Transient tachypnoea of the newborn
Explanation:Understanding Transient Tachypnoea of the Newborn
Transient tachypnoea of the newborn (TTN) is a common respiratory condition that affects newborns. It is caused by the delayed resorption of fluid in the lungs, which can lead to breathing difficulties. TTN is more common in babies born via caesarean section, as the fluid in their lungs may not be squeezed out during the birth process. A chest x-ray may show hyperinflation of the lungs and fluid in the horizontal fissure.
The management of TTN involves observation and supportive care. In some cases, supplementary oxygen may be required to maintain oxygen saturation levels. However, TTN usually resolves within 1-2 days. It is important for healthcare professionals to monitor newborns with TTN closely and provide appropriate care to ensure a full recovery. By understanding TTN and its management, healthcare professionals can provide the best possible care for newborns with this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 5-year-old girl is brought to the GP by her mother for an asthma review. She was diagnosed with asthma eight months ago. Since then, she has been using a low-dose clenil (beclomethasone 100 μg BD) inhaler and salbutamol inhaler as needed, both inhaled via a spacer. She has been experiencing a nocturnal cough and has been using her salbutamol inhaler 3–4 times per day due to the cold weather, with good results. On examination, there are no signs of respiratory distress, her oxygen saturation is 98%, and her chest is clear.
What would be the next step in managing this patient?Your Answer: Refer to paediatrician
Correct Answer: Add montelukast
Explanation:Treatment Approach for Suspected Asthma in Children Under Five Years Old
When a child under five years old is suspected to have asthma, the diagnosis can be challenging as they cannot perform objective lung function tests. Therefore, a low threshold for referral is recommended if treatment fails to control symptoms.
The first step in treatment is a trial of a moderate-dose inhaled corticosteroid (ICS) for eight weeks. If symptoms persist, adding a leukotriene receptor antagonist (LTRA) is recommended. However, if the asthma is still poorly controlled, referral to a paediatrician is advised.
It is not appropriate to change the short-acting beta agonist (SABA) inhaler, but increasing the dose of the ICS should only be done under specialist advice. If the child needs to use a SABA inhaler regularly, the ICS should be stopped for four weeks, and if symptoms recur, the inhaler should be restarted at a low dose.
In summary, a stepwise approach is recommended for treating suspected asthma in children under five years old, with a low threshold for referral to a specialist if treatment fails to control symptoms.
Treatment Approach for Suspected Asthma in Children Under Five Years Old
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 9-month-old boy is brought to the emergency department by his father. His father reports that over the past 4 hours, his son has had episodes of shaking and is less responsive than usual.
On examination, the boy is drowsy and does not respond to voice. You note he has some bruising around his torso. You suspect that the baby may have been shaken.
Which triad of symptoms is consistent with this diagnosis?Your Answer: Retinal haemorrhages + extradural haematoma + rib fractures
Correct Answer: Retinal haemorrhages + subdural haematoma + encephalopathy
Explanation:Understanding Shaken Baby Syndrome
Shaken baby syndrome is a condition that involves a combination of retinal haemorrhages, subdural haematoma, and encephalopathy. It occurs when a child between the ages of 0-5 years old is intentionally shaken. However, there is controversy among physicians regarding the mechanism of injury, making it difficult for courts to convict suspects of causing shaken baby syndrome to a child. This condition has made headlines due to the ongoing debate among medical professionals.
Shaken baby syndrome is a serious condition that can cause long-term damage to a child’s health. It is important to understand the signs and symptoms of this condition to ensure that children are protected from harm. While the controversy surrounding the diagnosis of shaken baby syndrome continues, it is crucial to prioritize the safety and well-being of children. By raising awareness and educating the public about this condition, we can work towards preventing it from occurring in the future.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 6-week-old girl is brought to the hospital and placed under the care of the paediatric surgeons due to her parents' concern about her symptoms. She has been experiencing projectile vomiting, weight loss, and constant hunger. The doctors have made a preliminary diagnosis of pyloric stenosis. What is the probable biochemical abnormality associated with this condition?
Your Answer: Hyperkalaemic hyperchloraemic alkalosis
Correct Answer: Hypokalaemic hypochloraemic alkalosis
Explanation:Pyloric Stenosis: Characteristics and Biochemical Abnormalities
Pyloric stenosis is a condition commonly observed in male infants at around 5 weeks old, with an incidence rate of approximately 4 per 1000. It is often seen in first-born babies. The condition is characterized by the narrowing of the pylorus, the opening between the stomach and the small intestine, which causes difficulty in food passage.
One of the typical biochemical abnormalities observed in patients with pyloric stenosis is hypokalaemic hypochloraemic alkalosis, which is caused by the loss of hydrogen and chloride ions in the vomit. This results in an acidic urine. The imbalance of electrolytes in the body can lead to dehydration, weakness, and other complications. Early diagnosis and treatment are crucial to prevent further health problems.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 9
Correct
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You are evaluating the growth of a 6-week-old infant. Her length is at the 35th percentile, weight at the 42nd percentile, and head circumference at the 4th percentile. What is the probable reason for her microcephaly?
Your Answer: Foetal alcohol syndrome
Explanation:Microcephaly is often linked to foetal alcohol syndrome, which also presents with other physical characteristics such as a smooth philtrum, hypoplastic upper lip, and epicanthic folds. Conditions like Thalassaemia, Turner’s syndrome, and cerebral palsy do not typically impact head size, while Achondroplasia is associated with macrocephaly and frontal bossing, not microcephaly. Recognizing the distinct physical features of congenital conditions is crucial for both exams and accurate diagnosis.
Understanding Fetal Alcohol Syndrome
Fetal alcohol syndrome is a condition that occurs when a pregnant woman consumes alcohol, which can lead to various physical and mental abnormalities in the developing fetus. At birth, the baby may exhibit symptoms of alcohol withdrawal, such as irritability, hypotonia, and tremors.
The features of fetal alcohol syndrome include a short palpebral fissure, a thin vermillion border or hypoplastic upper lip, a smooth or absent philtrum, learning difficulties, microcephaly, growth retardation, epicanthic folds, and cardiac malformations. These physical characteristics can vary in severity and may affect the child’s overall health and development.
It is important for pregnant women to avoid alcohol consumption to prevent fetal alcohol syndrome and other potential complications. Early diagnosis and intervention can also help improve outcomes for children with fetal alcohol syndrome. By understanding the risks and consequences of alcohol use during pregnancy, we can work towards promoting healthier pregnancies and better outcomes for children.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 10
Correct
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As a junior doctor in the emergency department, you are asked by a senior doctor to examine a child with a persistent cough. However, they caution you against examining the child's throat as it may lead to airway obstruction. What could be the possible diagnosis for this case?
Your Answer: Croup
Explanation:It is not recommended to conduct a throat examination on a patient with croup as it may lead to airway obstruction. This risk is higher in cases of acute epiglottitis, which is a less common condition. However, for the other conditions, throat examination is not contraindicated.
Understanding Croup: A Respiratory Infection in Infants and Toddlers
Croup is a type of upper respiratory tract infection that commonly affects infants and toddlers. It is characterized by a barking cough, fever, and coryzal symptoms, and is caused by a combination of laryngeal oedema and secretions. Parainfluenza viruses are the most common cause of croup. The condition typically peaks between 6 months and 3 years of age, and is more prevalent during the autumn season.
The severity of croup can be graded based on the presence of symptoms such as stridor, cough, and respiratory distress. Mild cases may only have occasional barking cough and no audible stridor at rest, while severe cases may have frequent barking cough, prominent inspiratory stridor at rest, and marked sternal wall retractions. Children with moderate or severe croup, those under 6 months of age, or those with known upper airway abnormalities should be admitted to the hospital.
Diagnosis of croup is usually made based on clinical presentation, but a chest x-ray may show subglottic narrowing, commonly referred to as the steeple sign. Treatment for croup typically involves a single dose of oral dexamethasone or prednisolone, regardless of severity. In emergency situations, high-flow oxygen and nebulized adrenaline may be necessary.
Understanding croup is important for parents and healthcare providers alike, as prompt recognition and treatment can help prevent complications and improve outcomes for affected children.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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