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  • Question 1 - Which one of the following structures lies deepest in the popliteal fossa? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following structures lies deepest in the popliteal fossa?

      Your Answer: Popliteal lymph nodes

      Correct Answer: Popliteal artery

      Explanation:

      Starting from the surface and moving towards the depths, the common peroneal nerve emerges from the popliteal fossa adjacent to the inner edge of the biceps tendon. Subsequently, the tibial nerve runs alongside the popliteal vessels, first posteriorly and then medially. The popliteal vein is situated above the popliteal artery, which is the most internal structure in the fossa.

      Anatomy of the Popliteal Fossa

      The popliteal fossa is a diamond-shaped space located at the back of the knee joint. It is bound by various muscles and ligaments, including the biceps femoris, semimembranosus, semitendinosus, and gastrocnemius. The floor of the popliteal fossa is formed by the popliteal surface of the femur, posterior ligament of the knee joint, and popliteus muscle, while the roof is made up of superficial and deep fascia.

      The popliteal fossa contains several important structures, including the popliteal artery and vein, small saphenous vein, common peroneal nerve, tibial nerve, posterior cutaneous nerve of the thigh, genicular branch of the obturator nerve, and lymph nodes. These structures are crucial for the proper functioning of the lower leg and foot.

      Understanding the anatomy of the popliteal fossa is important for healthcare professionals, as it can help in the diagnosis and treatment of various conditions affecting the knee joint and surrounding structures.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      10.4
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 72-year-old man presents with biliary colic and an abdominal aortic aneurysm measuring...

    Correct

    • A 72-year-old man presents with biliary colic and an abdominal aortic aneurysm measuring 4.8 cm is discovered. Which of the following statements regarding this condition is false?

      Your Answer: The wall will be composed of dense fibrous tissue only

      Explanation:

      These aneurysms are genuine and consist of all three layers of the arterial wall.

      Understanding Abdominal Aortic Aneurysms

      Abdominal aortic aneurysms occur when the elastic proteins in the extracellular matrix fail, causing the arterial wall to dilate. This is typically caused by degenerative disease and can be identified by a diameter of 3 cm or greater. The development of aneurysms is complex and involves the loss of the intima and elastic fibers from the media, which is associated with increased proteolytic activity and lymphocytic infiltration.

      Smoking and hypertension are major risk factors for the development of aneurysms, while rare causes include syphilis and connective tissue diseases such as Ehlers Danlos type 1 and Marfan’s syndrome. It is important to understand the underlying causes and risk factors for abdominal aortic aneurysms in order to prevent and treat this potentially life-threatening condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      26
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 26-year-old man presents to the emergency department after experiencing a syncopal episode....

    Correct

    • A 26-year-old man presents to the emergency department after experiencing a syncopal episode. He is currently stable and reports no warning signs prior to the episode. He has had a few similar episodes in the past but did not seek medical attention. Upon further investigation, it is discovered that his father and uncle both died suddenly from heart attacks at ages 45 and 42, respectively. An ECG reveals coved ST segment elevation in V1 and V2 leads, followed by a negative T wave. What is the definitive treatment for this patient's condition?

      Your Answer: Implantable cardioverter-defibrillator

      Explanation:

      The most effective management for Brugada syndrome is the implantation of a cardioverter-defibrillator, as per the NICE guidelines. This is the recommended treatment for patients with the condition, as evidenced by this man’s ECG findings, syncopal episodes, and family history of sudden cardiac deaths.

      While class I antiarrhythmic drugs like flecainide and procainamide may be used in clinical settings to diagnose Brugada syndrome, they should be avoided in patients with the condition as they can transiently induce the ECG features of the syndrome.

      Quinidine, another class I antiarrhythmic drug, has shown some benefits in preventing and treating tachyarrhythmias in small studies of patients with Brugada syndrome. However, it is not a definitive treatment and has not been shown to reduce the rate of sudden cardiac deaths in those with the condition.

      Amiodarone is typically used in life-threatening situations to stop ventricular tachyarrhythmias. However, due to its unfavorable side effect profile, it is not recommended for long-term use, especially in younger patients who may require it for decades.

      Understanding Brugada Syndrome

      Brugada syndrome is a type of inherited cardiovascular disease that can lead to sudden cardiac death. It is passed down in an autosomal dominant manner and is more prevalent in Asians, with an estimated occurrence of 1 in 5,000-10,000 individuals. The condition has a variety of genetic variants, but around 20-40% of cases are caused by a mutation in the SCN5A gene, which encodes the myocardial sodium ion channel protein.

      One of the key diagnostic features of Brugada syndrome is the presence of convex ST segment elevation greater than 2mm in more than one of the V1-V3 leads, followed by a negative T wave and partial right bundle branch block. These ECG changes may become more apparent after the administration of flecainide or ajmaline, which are the preferred diagnostic tests for suspected cases of Brugada syndrome.

      The management of Brugada syndrome typically involves the implantation of a cardioverter-defibrillator to prevent sudden cardiac death. It is important for individuals with Brugada syndrome to receive regular medical monitoring and genetic counseling to manage their condition effectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      18.8
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - You are a doctor working in the intensive care unit. A 35-year-old man...

    Incorrect

    • You are a doctor working in the intensive care unit. A 35-year-old man has been admitted to the ward due to suddenly vomiting large volumes of fresh blood. His blood pressure is 90/60 mmHg and his heart rate is 150bpm. He needs urgent intravenous fluids. Several attempts at intravenous cannulation have been made but to no avail. The on-call anaesthetist suggests performing a great saphenous vein cutdown.

      Where should the anaesthetist make the incision?

      Your Answer: Anterior to the lateral malleolus

      Correct Answer: Anterior to the medial malleolus

      Explanation:

      The long saphenous vein is often used for venous cutdown and passes in front of the medial malleolus. Venous cutdown involves surgically exposing a vein for cannulation.

      On the other hand, the short saphenous vein is situated in front of the lateral malleolus and runs up the back of the thigh to drain into the popliteal vein at the popliteal fossa.

      The long saphenous vein originates from the point where the first dorsal digital vein, which drains the big toe, joins the dorsal venous arch of the foot. It then passes in front of the medial malleolus, ascends the medial aspect of the thigh, and drains into the femoral vein by passing through the saphenous opening.

      The femoral vein becomes the external iliac vein at the inferior margin of the inguinal ligament. It receives blood from the great saphenous and popliteal veins, and a deep vein thrombosis that blocks this vein can be life-threatening.

      During a vascular examination of the lower limb, the dorsalis pedis artery is often palpated. It runs alongside the extensor digitorum longus.

      Lastly, the posterior tibial vein is located at the back of the medial malleolus, together with other structures, within the tarsal tunnel.

      The Anatomy of Saphenous Veins

      The human body has two saphenous veins: the long saphenous vein and the short saphenous vein. The long saphenous vein is often used for bypass surgery or removed as a treatment for varicose veins. It originates at the first digit where the dorsal vein merges with the dorsal venous arch of the foot and runs up the medial side of the leg. At the knee, it runs over the posterior border of the medial epicondyle of the femur bone before passing laterally to lie on the anterior surface of the thigh. It then enters an opening in the fascia lata called the saphenous opening and joins with the femoral vein in the region of the femoral triangle at the saphenofemoral junction. The long saphenous vein has several tributaries, including the medial marginal, superficial epigastric, superficial iliac circumflex, and superficial external pudendal veins.

      On the other hand, the short saphenous vein originates at the fifth digit where the dorsal vein merges with the dorsal venous arch of the foot, which attaches to the great saphenous vein. It passes around the lateral aspect of the foot and runs along the posterior aspect of the leg with the sural nerve. It then passes between the heads of the gastrocnemius muscle and drains into the popliteal vein, approximately at or above the level of the knee joint.

      Understanding the anatomy of saphenous veins is crucial for medical professionals who perform surgeries or treatments involving these veins.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      19.3
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - After a myocardial infarction (MI), a 65-year-old patient is initiated on a regimen...

    Incorrect

    • After a myocardial infarction (MI), a 65-year-old patient is initiated on a regimen of medications for secondary prevention. The regimen includes aspirin, clopidogrel, perindopril, bisoprolol, and simvastatin. However, the patient experiences poor tolerance to clopidogrel, leading to a prescription of ticagrelor instead.

      Your Answer: Inhibits the production of vitamin K related clotting factors

      Correct Answer: Inhibits ADP binding to platelet receptors

      Explanation:

      Ticagrelor and clopidogrel have a similar mechanism of action in that they both inhibit ADP binding to platelet receptors, thereby preventing platelet aggregation. However, ticagrelor specifically targets the glycoprotein GPIIb/IIIa complex, while clopidogrel inhibits the P2Y12 receptor.

      Aspirin, on the other hand, irreversibly binds to cyclooxygenase (COX), an enzyme that plays a key role in the production of thromboxane A2, a potent vasoconstrictor and platelet aggregator.

      Direct oral anticoagulants (DOACs) like rivaroxaban work by directly inhibiting clotting factor Xa, which is necessary for the formation of thrombin and subsequent clotting. Unlike warfarin, DOACs require less monitoring.

      Warfarin, on the other hand, inhibits the production of vitamin K-dependent clotting factors, including factors II, VII, IX, and X. It also inhibits some pro-thrombotic molecules, which initially increases the risk of thrombosis.

      Dabigatran, another form of DOAC, is a thrombin inhibitor and currently the only one with a reversal agent available.

      ADP receptor inhibitors, such as clopidogrel, prasugrel, ticagrelor, and ticlopidine, work by inhibiting the P2Y12 receptor, which leads to sustained platelet aggregation and stabilization of the platelet plaque. Clinical trials have shown that prasugrel and ticagrelor are more effective than clopidogrel in reducing short- and long-term ischemic events in high-risk patients with acute coronary syndrome or undergoing percutaneous coronary intervention. However, ticagrelor may cause dyspnea due to impaired clearance of adenosine, and there are drug interactions and contraindications to consider for each medication. NICE guidelines recommend dual antiplatelet treatment with aspirin and ticagrelor for 12 months as a secondary prevention strategy for ACS.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      33.4
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 65-year-old man presents to the vascular clinic with bilateral buttock claudication that...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man presents to the vascular clinic with bilateral buttock claudication that spreads down the thigh and erectile dysfunction. The vascular surgeon is unable to palpate his left femoral pulse and the right is weakly palpable. The patient is diagnosed with Leriche syndrome, which is caused by atherosclerotic occlusion of blood flow at the abdominal aortic bifurcation. He has been consented for aorto-iliac bypass surgery and is currently awaiting the procedure.

      What is the vertebral level of the affected artery that requires bypassing?

      Your Answer: L2

      Correct Answer: L4

      Explanation:

      The aorta is a major blood vessel that carries oxygenated blood from the heart to the rest of the body. At different levels along the aorta, there are branches that supply blood to specific organs and regions. These branches include the coeliac trunk at the level of T12, which supplies blood to the stomach, liver, and spleen. The left renal artery, at the level of L1, supplies blood to the left kidney. The testicular or ovarian arteries, at the level of L2, supply blood to the reproductive organs. The inferior mesenteric artery, at the level of L3, supplies blood to the lower part of the large intestine. Finally, at the level of L4, the abdominal aorta bifurcates, or splits into two branches, which supply blood to the legs and pelvis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      9.5
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 70-year-old man visits his primary care physician complaining of paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnoea...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old man visits his primary care physician complaining of paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnoea and increasing orthopnoea. The physician suspects heart failure and orders a chest X-ray. What signs on the chest X-ray would indicate heart failure?

      Your Answer: Surgical emphysema

      Correct Answer: Upper zone vessel enlargement

      Explanation:

      Diagnosis of Chronic Heart Failure

      Chronic heart failure is a serious condition that requires prompt diagnosis and management. In 2018, the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) updated its guidelines on the diagnosis and management of chronic heart failure. According to the new guidelines, all patients should undergo an N-terminal pro-B-type natriuretic peptide (NT‑proBNP) blood test as the first-line investigation, regardless of whether they have previously had a myocardial infarction or not.

      Interpreting the NT-proBNP test is crucial in determining the severity of the condition. If the levels are high, specialist assessment, including transthoracic echocardiography, should be arranged within two weeks. If the levels are raised, specialist assessment, including echocardiogram, should be arranged within six weeks.

      BNP is a hormone produced mainly by the left ventricular myocardium in response to strain. Very high levels of BNP are associated with a poor prognosis. The table above shows the different levels of BNP and NTproBNP and their corresponding interpretations.

      It is important to note that certain factors can alter the BNP level. For instance, left ventricular hypertrophy, ischaemia, tachycardia, and right ventricular overload can increase BNP levels, while diuretics, ACE inhibitors, beta-blockers, angiotensin 2 receptor blockers, and aldosterone antagonists can decrease BNP levels. Therefore, it is crucial to consider these factors when interpreting the NT-proBNP test.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      10
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 50-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of gynaecomastia. He is currently...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of gynaecomastia. He is currently undergoing treatment for heart failure and gastro-oesophageal reflux. Which medication that he is taking is the most probable cause of his gynaecomastia?

      Your Answer: Carvedilol

      Correct Answer: Spironolactone

      Explanation:

      Medications Associated with Gynaecomastia

      Gynaecomastia, the enlargement of male breast tissue, can be caused by various medications. Spironolactone, ciclosporin, cimetidine, and omeprazole are some of the drugs that have been associated with this condition. Ramipril has also been linked to gynaecomastia, but it is a rare occurrence.

      Aside from these medications, other drugs that can cause gynaecomastia include digoxin, LHRH analogues, cimetidine, and finasteride. It is important to note that not all individuals who take these medications will develop gynaecomastia, and the risk may vary depending on the dosage and duration of treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      8.3
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 28-year-old pregnant female arrives at the Emergency Department complaining of pleuritic chest...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old pregnant female arrives at the Emergency Department complaining of pleuritic chest pain and dyspnea that came on suddenly. She recently returned from a trip to New Zealand. Based on the choices, what is the most probable finding on her ECG, if any?

      Your Answer: T wave inversion in the anterior leads

      Explanation:

      Patients with pulmonary embolism may exhibit sinus tachycardia as the most common ECG sign, as well as signs of right heart strain rather than left.

      Pulmonary embolism can be difficult to diagnose as it can present with a variety of cardiorespiratory symptoms and signs depending on its location and size. The PIOPED study in 2007 found that tachypnea, crackles, tachycardia, and fever were common clinical signs in patients diagnosed with pulmonary embolism. The Well’s criteria for diagnosing a PE use tachycardia rather than tachypnea. All patients with symptoms or signs suggestive of a PE should have a history taken, examination performed, and a chest x-ray to exclude other pathology.

      To rule out a PE, the pulmonary embolism rule-out criteria (PERC) can be used. All criteria must be absent to have a negative PERC result, which reduces the probability of PE to less than 2%. If the suspicion of PE is greater than this, a 2-level PE Wells score should be performed. A score of more than 4 points indicates a likely PE, and an immediate computed tomography pulmonary angiogram (CTPA) should be arranged. If the CTPA is negative, patients do not need further investigations or treatment for PE.

      CTPA is now the recommended initial lung-imaging modality for non-massive PE. V/Q scanning may be used initially if appropriate facilities exist, the chest x-ray is normal, and there is no significant symptomatic concurrent cardiopulmonary disease. D-dimer levels should be considered for patients over 50 years old. A chest x-ray is recommended for all patients to exclude other pathology, but it is typically normal in PE. The sensitivity of V/Q scanning is around 75%, while the specificity is 97%. Peripheral emboli affecting subsegmental arteries may be missed on CTPA.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      44.4
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 55-year-old man with several cardiac risk factors arrives at the hospital with...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man with several cardiac risk factors arrives at the hospital with sudden onset chest pain in the center. The pain extends to his left arm and is accompanied by sweating and nausea.

      The patient's ECG reveals widespread T-wave inversion, which is a new finding compared to his previous ECGs. The level of troponin I in his serum is measured and confirmed to be elevated. The patient is initiated on treatment for acute coronary syndrome and transferred to a cardiac center.

      What is the target of this measured cardiac biomarker?

      Your Answer: Myoglobin

      Correct Answer: Actin

      Explanation:

      Troponin I is a cardiac biomarker that binds to actin, which holds the troponin-tropomyosin complex in place and regulates muscle contraction. It is the standard biomarker used in conjunction with ECGs and clinical findings to diagnose non-ST elevation myocardial infarction (NSTEMI). Troponin I is highly sensitive and specific for myocardial damage compared to other cardiac biomarkers. Troponin C, another subunit of troponin, plays a role in Ca2+-dependent regulation of muscle contraction and can also be used in the diagnosis of myocardial infarction, but it is less specific as it is found in both cardiac and skeletal muscle. Copeptin, an amino acid peptide, is released earlier than troponin during acute myocardial infarction but is not widely used in clinical practice and has no interaction with troponin. Myoglobin, an iron- and oxygen-binding protein found in both cardiac and skeletal muscle, has poor specificity for cardiac injury and is not involved in the troponin-tropomyosin complex.

      Understanding Troponin: The Proteins Involved in Muscle Contraction

      Troponin is a group of three proteins that play a crucial role in the contraction of skeletal and cardiac muscles. These proteins work together to regulate the interaction between actin and myosin, which is essential for muscle contraction. The three subunits of troponin are troponin C, troponin T, and troponin I.

      Troponin C is responsible for binding to calcium ions, which triggers the contraction of muscle fibers. Troponin T binds to tropomyosin, forming a complex that helps regulate the interaction between actin and myosin. Finally, troponin I binds to actin, holding the troponin-tropomyosin complex in place and preventing muscle contraction when it is not needed.

      Understanding the role of troponin is essential for understanding how muscles work and how they can be affected by various diseases and conditions. By regulating the interaction between actin and myosin, troponin plays a critical role in muscle contraction and is a key target for drugs used to treat conditions such as heart failure and skeletal muscle disorders.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      53.8
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 32-year-old male engineer presents to the emergency department after falling at work...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old male engineer presents to the emergency department after falling at work while climbing a flight of stairs. He reports experiencing shortness of breath during exertion for the past week, but denies chest pain, vomiting, or coughing up blood. The symptoms are not affected by changes in position or respiration.

      The patient has no significant medical history except for a recent bout of self-resolving diarrhea. He is not taking any regular medications and has no known drug allergies. There is no relevant family history. He was recently informed that asbestos has been found in his apartment complex, where he has lived for eight years.

      During the examination, the patient appears comfortable at rest. His heart rate is 87 beats per minute, blood pressure is 124/94 mmHg, oxygen saturation is 99% on room air, respiratory rate is 16 breaths per minute, and temperature is 39.1ºC.

      A systolic and diastolic murmur is audible throughout the praecordium, with radiations to the axilla. There is tenderness over both nipples where he recently had them pierced, but no pain over the ribs.

      The patient has visible needle marks over his antecubital fossa and reports being in recovery from intravenous drug use for the past four years. He admits to recreational marijuana smoking and consuming 24 units of alcohol per week.

      An ECG taken on admission shows regular sinus rhythm. An echocardiogram reveals vegetations over the aortic and mitral valve, and blood cultures are positive for Staphylococcus aureus.

      Based on the likely diagnosis, which feature in the patient's history is a potential risk factor?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: New piercing

      Explanation:

      Infective endocarditis is the likely diagnosis, which can be suspected if there is a fever and a murmur. The presence of vegetations on echo and positive blood cultures that meet Duke criteria can confirm the diagnosis. Of the given options, the only known risk factor for infective endocarditis is getting a new piercing. Alcohol binging can increase the risk of alcoholic liver disease and dilated cardiomyopathy, while asbestos exposure can lead to asbestosis and mesothelioma. Marijuana smoking may be associated with psychosis and paranoia.

      Aetiology of Infective Endocarditis

      Infective endocarditis is a condition that affects patients with previously normal valves, rheumatic valve disease, prosthetic valves, congenital heart defects, intravenous drug users, and those who have recently undergone piercings. The strongest risk factor for developing infective endocarditis is a previous episode of the condition. The mitral valve is the most commonly affected valve.

      The most common cause of infective endocarditis is Staphylococcus aureus, particularly in acute presentations and intravenous drug users. Historically, Streptococcus viridans was the most common cause, but this is no longer the case except in developing countries. Coagulase-negative Staphylococci such as Staphylococcus epidermidis are commonly found in indwelling lines and are the most common cause of endocarditis in patients following prosthetic valve surgery. Streptococcus bovis is associated with colorectal cancer, with the subtype Streptococcus gallolyticus being most linked to the condition.

      Culture negative causes of infective endocarditis include prior antibiotic therapy, Coxiella burnetii, Bartonella, Brucella, and HACEK organisms (Haemophilus, Actinobacillus, Cardiobacterium, Eikenella, Kingella). It is important to note that systemic lupus erythematosus and malignancy, specifically marantic endocarditis, can also cause non-infective endocarditis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
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  • Question 12 - A 68-year-old man comes to your clinic with a painful, swollen, and red...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old man comes to your clinic with a painful, swollen, and red cheek. During the examination, you notice an erythematous swelling above the mandible's angle on the left side. The swelling is warm and tender to the touch. The patient had a stroke eight weeks ago and has had difficulty swallowing since then. He is currently being fed through a percutaneous enteral gastrostomy tube, which has been in place for six weeks. You suspect that he has a parotid gland infection. What is the artery that passes through the parotid gland and usually bifurcates within it?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: External carotid artery

      Explanation:

      The external carotid artery runs through the parotid gland and divides into the superficial temporal artery and the maxillary artery. It gives rise to several branches, including the facial artery, superior thyroid artery, and lingual artery, which supply various structures in the face, thyroid gland, and tongue.

      The internal carotid artery is one of the two main branches of the common carotid artery and supplies a significant portion of the brain and surrounding structures. Patients who have had strokes may experience dysphagia, which increases the risk of aspiration and may require feeding through a nasogastric tube or percutaneous enteral gastrostomy (PEG). Long-term PEG feeding may increase the risk of infective parotitis.

      Anatomy of the External Carotid Artery

      The external carotid artery begins on the side of the pharynx and runs in front of the internal carotid artery, behind the posterior belly of digastric and stylohyoid muscles. It is covered by sternocleidomastoid muscle and passed by hypoglossal nerves, lingual and facial veins. The artery then enters the parotid gland and divides into its terminal branches within the gland.

      To locate the external carotid artery, an imaginary line can be drawn from the bifurcation of the common carotid artery behind the angle of the jaw to a point in front of the tragus of the ear.

      The external carotid artery has six branches, with three in front, two behind, and one deep. The three branches in front are the superior thyroid, lingual, and facial arteries. The two branches behind are the occipital and posterior auricular arteries. The deep branch is the ascending pharyngeal artery. The external carotid artery terminates by dividing into the superficial temporal and maxillary arteries within the parotid gland.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
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  • Question 13 - A 39-year-old woman is being evaluated for progressive dyspnea and is found to...

    Incorrect

    • A 39-year-old woman is being evaluated for progressive dyspnea and is found to have primary pulmonary hypertension. She is prescribed bosentan. What is the mode of action of bosentan?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Endothelin receptor antagonist

      Explanation:

      Bosentan is an antagonist of the endothelin-1 receptor.

      Pulmonary arterial hypertension (PAH) is a condition where the resting mean pulmonary artery pressure is equal to or greater than 25 mmHg. The pathogenesis of PAH is thought to involve endothelin. It is more common in females and typically presents between the ages of 30-50 years. PAH is diagnosed in the absence of chronic lung diseases such as COPD, although certain factors increase the risk. Around 10% of cases are inherited in an autosomal dominant fashion.

      The classical presentation of PAH is progressive exertional dyspnoea, but other possible features include exertional syncope, exertional chest pain, peripheral oedema, and cyanosis. Physical examination may reveal a right ventricular heave, loud P2, raised JVP with prominent ‘a’ waves, and tricuspid regurgitation.

      Management of PAH should first involve treating any underlying conditions. Acute vasodilator testing is central to deciding on the appropriate management strategy. If there is a positive response to acute vasodilator testing, oral calcium channel blockers may be used. If there is a negative response, prostacyclin analogues, endothelin receptor antagonists, or phosphodiesterase inhibitors may be used. Patients with progressive symptoms should be considered for a heart-lung transplant.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
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  • Question 14 - A 32-year-old arrives at the emergency department with a stab wound to the...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old arrives at the emergency department with a stab wound to the femoral artery. He has a history of intravenous drug use.

      Due to poor vein quality, peripheral cannulation under ultrasound guidance is not feasible. Intraosseous access has been established, but additional access is required to administer large volume transfusions.

      To obtain access to a vessel that runs anterior to the medial malleolus, the consultant has decided to perform a venous cutdown.

      Which vessel will be accessed through this procedure?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Long saphenous vein

      Explanation:

      The correct answer is the long saphenous vein, which passes in front of the medial malleolus and is commonly used for venous cutdown procedures. This vein is the largest vessel in the superficial venous system and is formed from the dorsal venous arch of the foot. During a venous cutdown, the skin is opened up to expose the vessel, allowing for cannulation under direct vision.

      The anterior tibial vein, fibular vein, and posterior tibial vein are all incorrect answers. The anterior tibial vein is part of the deep venous system and arises from the dorsal venous arch, while the fibular vein forms from the plantar veins of the foot and drains into the posterior tibial vein. The posterior tibial vein also arises from the plantar veins of the foot but ascends posterior to the medial malleolus.

      The Anatomy of Saphenous Veins

      The human body has two saphenous veins: the long saphenous vein and the short saphenous vein. The long saphenous vein is often used for bypass surgery or removed as a treatment for varicose veins. It originates at the first digit where the dorsal vein merges with the dorsal venous arch of the foot and runs up the medial side of the leg. At the knee, it runs over the posterior border of the medial epicondyle of the femur bone before passing laterally to lie on the anterior surface of the thigh. It then enters an opening in the fascia lata called the saphenous opening and joins with the femoral vein in the region of the femoral triangle at the saphenofemoral junction. The long saphenous vein has several tributaries, including the medial marginal, superficial epigastric, superficial iliac circumflex, and superficial external pudendal veins.

      On the other hand, the short saphenous vein originates at the fifth digit where the dorsal vein merges with the dorsal venous arch of the foot, which attaches to the great saphenous vein. It passes around the lateral aspect of the foot and runs along the posterior aspect of the leg with the sural nerve. It then passes between the heads of the gastrocnemius muscle and drains into the popliteal vein, approximately at or above the level of the knee joint.

      Understanding the anatomy of saphenous veins is crucial for medical professionals who perform surgeries or treatments involving these veins.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
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  • Question 15 - A mother brings her 8-year-old son to the GP with a history of...

    Incorrect

    • A mother brings her 8-year-old son to the GP with a history of intermittent fevers, severe joint pain and feeling fatigued. Other than a recent absence from school for a sore throat, he has been well with no other past medical history of note.

      On examination, there is a pansystolic murmur heard over the left 5th intercostal space.

      Which organism is the most probable cause for the aforementioned symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Streptococcus pyogenes

      Explanation:

      An immunological reaction is responsible for the development of rheumatic fever.

      Rheumatic fever is a condition that occurs as a result of an immune response to a recent Streptococcus pyogenes infection, typically occurring 2-4 weeks after the initial infection. The pathogenesis of rheumatic fever involves the activation of the innate immune system, leading to antigen presentation to T cells. B and T cells then produce IgG and IgM antibodies, and CD4+ T cells are activated. This immune response is thought to be cross-reactive, mediated by molecular mimicry, where antibodies against M protein cross-react with myosin and the smooth muscle of arteries. This response leads to the clinical features of rheumatic fever, including Aschoff bodies, which are granulomatous nodules found in rheumatic heart fever.

      To diagnose rheumatic fever, evidence of recent streptococcal infection must be present, along with 2 major criteria or 1 major criterion and 2 minor criteria. Major criteria include erythema marginatum, Sydenham’s chorea, polyarthritis, carditis and valvulitis, and subcutaneous nodules. Minor criteria include raised ESR or CRP, pyrexia, arthralgia, and prolonged PR interval.

      Management of rheumatic fever involves antibiotics, typically oral penicillin V, as well as anti-inflammatories such as NSAIDs as first-line treatment. Any complications that develop, such as heart failure, should also be treated. It is important to diagnose and treat rheumatic fever promptly to prevent long-term complications such as rheumatic heart disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
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  • Question 16 - A 26-year-old male smoker presents to the vascular clinic with complaints of pain...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old male smoker presents to the vascular clinic with complaints of pain and claudication in both legs. Upon examination, the patient exhibits poor pedal pulses, loss of leg hair, and a necrotic ulcer at the base of his 5th toe. An angiogram reveals corkscrew vessels in the vasa vasorum, which are responsible for supplying blood to the larger blood vessels in the legs.

      Where in the wall of the blood vessel are these corkscrew vessels typically located?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Tunica adventitia

      Explanation:

      Vasa vasorum are vessels found in the outermost layer of the blood vessel wall known as the tunica adventitia. They are the hallmark of Buerger’s disease, which presents with corkscrew vessels and can lead to amputation. The other answers do not contain the vasa vasorum.

      Artery Histology: Layers of Blood Vessel Walls

      The wall of a blood vessel is composed of three layers: the tunica intima, tunica media, and tunica adventitia. The innermost layer, the tunica intima, is made up of endothelial cells that are separated by gap junctions. The middle layer, the tunica media, contains smooth muscle cells and is separated from the intima by the internal elastic lamina and from the adventitia by the external elastic lamina. The outermost layer, the tunica adventitia, contains the vasa vasorum, fibroblast, and collagen. This layer is responsible for providing support and protection to the blood vessel. The vasa vasorum are small blood vessels that supply oxygen and nutrients to the larger blood vessels. The fibroblast and collagen provide structural support to the vessel wall. Understanding the histology of arteries is important in diagnosing and treating various cardiovascular diseases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
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  • Question 17 - Which of the following structures is in danger of direct harm after a...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following structures is in danger of direct harm after a femoral condyle fracture dislocation in an older adult?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Popliteal artery

      Explanation:

      The fracture segment can be pulled backwards by the contraction of the gastrocnemius heads, which may result in damage or compression of the popliteal artery that runs adjacent to the bone.

      Anatomy of the Popliteal Fossa

      The popliteal fossa is a diamond-shaped space located at the back of the knee joint. It is bound by various muscles and ligaments, including the biceps femoris, semimembranosus, semitendinosus, and gastrocnemius. The floor of the popliteal fossa is formed by the popliteal surface of the femur, posterior ligament of the knee joint, and popliteus muscle, while the roof is made up of superficial and deep fascia.

      The popliteal fossa contains several important structures, including the popliteal artery and vein, small saphenous vein, common peroneal nerve, tibial nerve, posterior cutaneous nerve of the thigh, genicular branch of the obturator nerve, and lymph nodes. These structures are crucial for the proper functioning of the lower leg and foot.

      Understanding the anatomy of the popliteal fossa is important for healthcare professionals, as it can help in the diagnosis and treatment of various conditions affecting the knee joint and surrounding structures.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
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  • Question 18 - A 67-year-old man with a history of atrial fibrillation presents with an embolus...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old man with a history of atrial fibrillation presents with an embolus in his lower leg. The medical team decides to perform an embolectomy using a trans popliteal approach. Upon incising the deep fascia, what will be the first structure encountered by the surgeons as they explore the central region of the popliteal fossa?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Tibial nerve

      Explanation:

      The inferior aspect of the popliteal fossa houses the tibial nerve, which is positioned above the vessels. Initially, the nerve is located laterally to the vessels in the upper part of the fossa, but it eventually moves to a medial position by passing over them. The popliteal artery is the most deeply situated structure in the popliteal fossa.

      Anatomy of the Popliteal Fossa

      The popliteal fossa is a diamond-shaped space located at the back of the knee joint. It is bound by various muscles and ligaments, including the biceps femoris, semimembranosus, semitendinosus, and gastrocnemius. The floor of the popliteal fossa is formed by the popliteal surface of the femur, posterior ligament of the knee joint, and popliteus muscle, while the roof is made up of superficial and deep fascia.

      The popliteal fossa contains several important structures, including the popliteal artery and vein, small saphenous vein, common peroneal nerve, tibial nerve, posterior cutaneous nerve of the thigh, genicular branch of the obturator nerve, and lymph nodes. These structures are crucial for the proper functioning of the lower leg and foot.

      Understanding the anatomy of the popliteal fossa is important for healthcare professionals, as it can help in the diagnosis and treatment of various conditions affecting the knee joint and surrounding structures.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
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  • Question 19 - A 78-year-old man with an ST-elevation myocardial infarction receives bivalirudin, aspirin, and clopidogrel...

    Incorrect

    • A 78-year-old man with an ST-elevation myocardial infarction receives bivalirudin, aspirin, and clopidogrel before undergoing percutaneous coronary intervention. What is the mode of action of bivalirudin?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Reversible direct thrombin inhibitor

      Explanation:

      Bivalirudin inhibits thrombin directly in a reversible manner.

      Warfarin prevents the conversion of vitamin K to its active hydroquinone form by acting as an antagonist.

      Heparins activate antithrombin II and also form inactive complexes with other clotting factors.

      Aspirin inhibits COX.

      Clopidogrel functions as a/an.

      Bivalirudin: An Anticoagulant for Acute Coronary Syndrome

      Bivalirudin is a medication that acts as a direct thrombin inhibitor, meaning it prevents the formation of blood clots. It is commonly used as an anticoagulant in the treatment of acute coronary syndrome, a condition where blood flow to the heart is blocked or reduced. Bivalirudin is a reversible inhibitor, meaning its effects can be reversed if necessary.

      Acute coronary syndrome is a serious condition that can lead to heart attack or other complications if left untreated. Bivalirudin is an effective treatment option for preventing blood clots and reducing the risk of further complications. Its reversible nature also makes it a safer option for patients who may need to undergo surgery or other procedures while on anticoagulant therapy. Overall, bivalirudin is an important medication in the management of acute coronary syndrome and plays a crucial role in improving patient outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
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  • Question 20 - A 65-year-old man presents for a coronary angiogram due to worsening symptoms of...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man presents for a coronary angiogram due to worsening symptoms of unstable angina. The cardiologist observes multiple significant coronary stenoses, which are likely related to the patient's numerous risk factors, including hypertension, heavy smoking, hypercholesterolemia, and type 2 diabetes mellitus. What is the ultimate step in the development of this pathology?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Smooth muscle proliferation and migration

      Explanation:

      Understanding Atherosclerosis and its Complications

      Atherosclerosis is a complex process that occurs over several years. It begins with endothelial dysfunction triggered by factors such as smoking, hypertension, and hyperglycemia. This leads to changes in the endothelium, including inflammation, oxidation, proliferation, and reduced nitric oxide bioavailability. As a result, low-density lipoprotein (LDL) particles infiltrate the subendothelial space, and monocytes migrate from the blood and differentiate into macrophages. These macrophages then phagocytose oxidized LDL, slowly turning into large ‘foam cells’. Smooth muscle proliferation and migration from the tunica media into the intima result in the formation of a fibrous capsule covering the fatty plaque.

      Once a plaque has formed, it can cause several complications. For example, it can form a physical blockage in the lumen of the coronary artery, leading to reduced blood flow and oxygen to the myocardium, resulting in angina. Alternatively, the plaque may rupture, potentially causing a complete occlusion of the coronary artery and resulting in a myocardial infarction. It is essential to understand the process of atherosclerosis and its complications to prevent and manage cardiovascular diseases effectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
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  • Question 21 - A 50-year-old man is brought to the hospital after a head-on collision. Upon...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man is brought to the hospital after a head-on collision. Upon initial resuscitation, a chest X-ray reveals a widened mediastinum. An urgent CT aortogram confirms a traumatic aortic rupture.

      Where is the most probable location for a traumatic aortic rupture to occur?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Proximal descending aorta distal to origin of left subclavian artery (aortic isthmus)

      Explanation:

      Although the aorta can be ruptured by trauma at any location, the aortic isthmus (the section of the proximal descending aorta located below the left subclavian artery) is the most frequent site of rupture resulting from deceleration injuries.

      Thoracic Aorta Rupture: Causes, Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Treatment

      Thoracic aorta rupture is a life-threatening condition that occurs due to decelerating force, such as a road traffic accident or a fall from a great height. Most people die at the scene, while survivors may have an incomplete laceration at the ligamentum arteriosum of the aorta. The clinical features of thoracic aorta rupture include a contained hematoma and persistent hypotension, which can be detected mainly by history and changes in chest X-rays. The X-ray changes include a widened mediastinum, trachea/esophagus to the right, depression of the left main stem bronchus, widened paratracheal stripe/paraspinal interfaces, obliteration of the space between the aorta and pulmonary artery, and rib fracture/left hemothorax.

      The diagnosis of thoracic aorta rupture is usually made through angiography, with CT aortogram being the preferred method. Treatment involves repair or replacement of the ruptured aorta, with endovascular repair being the ideal option. In summary, thoracic aorta rupture is a serious condition that requires prompt diagnosis and treatment to prevent fatal outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
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  • Question 22 - Which one of the following statements relating to the pharmacology of warfarin is...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following statements relating to the pharmacology of warfarin is false?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Warfarin has a large volume of distribution

      Explanation:

      To impair fibrin formation, warfarin impacts the carboxylation of glutamic acid residues in clotting factors 2, 7, 9, and 10. Factor 2 has the lengthiest half-life of around 60 hours, so it may take up to three days for warfarin to take full effect. Warfarin is protein-bound, resulting in a small distribution volume.

      Understanding Warfarin: Mechanism of Action, Indications, Monitoring, Factors, and Side-Effects

      Warfarin is an oral anticoagulant that has been widely used for many years to manage venous thromboembolism and reduce stroke risk in patients with atrial fibrillation. However, it has been largely replaced by direct oral anticoagulants (DOACs) due to their ease of use and lack of need for monitoring. Warfarin works by inhibiting epoxide reductase, which prevents the reduction of vitamin K to its active hydroquinone form. This, in turn, affects the carboxylation of clotting factor II, VII, IX, and X, as well as protein C.

      Warfarin is indicated for patients with mechanical heart valves, with the target INR depending on the valve type and location. Mitral valves generally require a higher INR than aortic valves. It is also used as a second-line treatment after DOACs for venous thromboembolism and atrial fibrillation, with target INRs of 2.5 and 3.5 for recurrent cases. Patients taking warfarin are monitored using the INR, which may take several days to achieve a stable level. Loading regimes and computer software are often used to adjust the dose.

      Factors that may potentiate warfarin include liver disease, P450 enzyme inhibitors, cranberry juice, drugs that displace warfarin from plasma albumin, and NSAIDs that inhibit platelet function. Warfarin may cause side-effects such as haemorrhage, teratogenic effects, skin necrosis, temporary procoagulant state, thrombosis, and purple toes.

      In summary, understanding the mechanism of action, indications, monitoring, factors, and side-effects of warfarin is crucial for its safe and effective use in patients. While it has been largely replaced by DOACs, warfarin remains an important treatment option for certain patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
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  • Question 23 - A 29-year-old man is brought to the emergency surgical theatre with multiple stab...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old man is brought to the emergency surgical theatre with multiple stab wounds to his abdomen and is hypotensive despite resuscitative measures. During a laparotomy, a profusely bleeding vessel is found at a certain level of the lumbar vertebrae. The vessel is identified as the testicular artery and is ligated to stop the bleeding. At which vertebral level was the artery identified?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: L2

      Explanation:

      The testicular arteries originate from the abdominal aorta at the level of the second lumbar vertebrae (L2).

      The aorta is a major blood vessel that carries oxygenated blood from the heart to the rest of the body. At different levels along the aorta, there are branches that supply blood to specific organs and regions. These branches include the coeliac trunk at the level of T12, which supplies blood to the stomach, liver, and spleen. The left renal artery, at the level of L1, supplies blood to the left kidney. The testicular or ovarian arteries, at the level of L2, supply blood to the reproductive organs. The inferior mesenteric artery, at the level of L3, supplies blood to the lower part of the large intestine. Finally, at the level of L4, the abdominal aorta bifurcates, or splits into two branches, which supply blood to the legs and pelvis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
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  • Question 24 - A 42-year-old woman has undergone some routine blood tests and her cholesterol levels...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old woman has undergone some routine blood tests and her cholesterol levels are elevated. You plan to prescribe atorvastatin, but she mentions that some of her acquaintances had to discontinue the medication due to intolerable side effects.

      What is a prevalent adverse reaction associated with atorvastatin?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Myalgia

      Explanation:

      While angio-oedema and rhabdomyolysis are rare side effects of statin therapy, myalgia is a commonly experienced one.

      Statins are drugs that inhibit the action of HMG-CoA reductase, which is the enzyme responsible for cholesterol synthesis in the liver. However, they can cause adverse effects such as myopathy, liver impairment, and an increased risk of intracerebral hemorrhage in patients with a history of stroke. Statins should not be taken during pregnancy or in combination with macrolides. NICE recommends statins for patients with established cardiovascular disease, a 10-year cardiovascular risk of 10% or higher, type 2 diabetes mellitus, or type 1 diabetes mellitus with certain criteria. It is recommended to take statins at night, especially simvastatin, which has a shorter half-life than other statins. NICE recommends atorvastatin 20mg for primary prevention and atorvastatin 80 mg for secondary prevention.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
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  • Question 25 - A 65-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with central chest pain and...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with central chest pain and is diagnosed with a new left bundle branch block on ECG. If a histological analysis of her heart is conducted within the first 24 hours following the MI, what are the probable findings?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Coagulative necrosis

      Explanation:

      In the first 24 hours following a myocardial infarction (MI), histological findings typically show early coagulative necrosis, neutrophils, wavy fibres, and hypercontraction of myofibrils. This is a critical time period as there is a high risk of ventricular arrhythmia, heart failure, and cardiogenic shock. The necrosis occurs due to the lack of blood flow to the myocardium, and within the next few days, macrophages will begin to clear away dead tissue and granulation tissue will form to aid in the healing process. It is important to recognize the early signs of MI in order to provide prompt treatment and prevent further damage to the heart.

      Myocardial infarction (MI) can lead to various complications, which can occur immediately, early, or late after the event. Cardiac arrest is the most common cause of death following MI, usually due to ventricular fibrillation. Cardiogenic shock may occur if a large part of the ventricular myocardium is damaged, and it is difficult to treat. Chronic heart failure may result from ventricular myocardium dysfunction, which can be managed with loop diuretics, ACE-inhibitors, and beta-blockers. Tachyarrhythmias, such as ventricular fibrillation and ventricular tachycardia, are common complications. Bradyarrhythmias, such as atrioventricular block, are more common following inferior MI. Pericarditis is common in the first 48 hours after a transmural MI, while Dressler’s syndrome may occur 2-6 weeks later. Left ventricular aneurysm and free wall rupture, ventricular septal defect, and acute mitral regurgitation are other complications that may require urgent medical attention.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
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  • Question 26 - A 57-year-old patient is being evaluated on the ward 3 days after experiencing...

    Incorrect

    • A 57-year-old patient is being evaluated on the ward 3 days after experiencing a transmural myocardial infarction (MI). The patient reports experiencing sharp, severe retrosternal chest pain that worsens with inspiration.

      During the assessment, the patient's vital signs are heart rate 82 beats/min, BP 132/90 mmHg, temperature 37.8ºC, and oxygen saturation 97% on room air. Upon auscultation, a pericardial friction rub is audible.

      What is the histological change in the myocardial tissue that is consistent with this presentation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Coagulative necrosis with neutrophil infiltration

      Explanation:

      Myocardial infarction (MI) can lead to various complications, which can occur immediately, early, or late after the event. Cardiac arrest is the most common cause of death following MI, usually due to ventricular fibrillation. Cardiogenic shock may occur if a large part of the ventricular myocardium is damaged, and it is difficult to treat. Chronic heart failure may result from ventricular myocardium dysfunction, which can be managed with loop diuretics, ACE-inhibitors, and beta-blockers. Tachyarrhythmias, such as ventricular fibrillation and ventricular tachycardia, are common complications. Bradyarrhythmias, such as atrioventricular block, are more common following inferior MI. Pericarditis is common in the first 48 hours after a transmural MI, while Dressler’s syndrome may occur 2-6 weeks later. Left ventricular aneurysm and free wall rupture, ventricular septal defect, and acute mitral regurgitation are other complications that may require urgent medical attention.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
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  • Question 27 - Mrs. Smith is a 75-year-old woman who presents to the emergency department with...

    Incorrect

    • Mrs. Smith is a 75-year-old woman who presents to the emergency department with progressive shortness of breath over the past 5 days. Last night she woke up suddenly because she couldn't catch her breath and developed a dry cough. Her breathing improved when she sat upright on the edge of her bed. She denies any chest pain, leg pain or fainting spells.

      Her past medical history includes a myocardial infarction 5 years ago for which she underwent a coronary artery bypass graft, hypertension and type 2 diabetes. She has been smoking for 30 years and doesn't drink any alcohol.

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Left-sided heart failure

      Explanation:

      The likely diagnosis for a patient experiencing paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnoea is left-sided heart failure. This symptom, which involves sudden waking at night due to shortness of breath, is a common feature of heart failure, particularly on the left side. Aortic dissection, myocardial infarction, and pulmonary embolism are unlikely diagnoses as they present with different symptoms. Right-sided heart failure is also an unlikely diagnosis as it presents with different features such as raised JVP, ankle oedema, and hepatomegaly.

      Features of Chronic Heart Failure

      Chronic heart failure is a condition that affects the heart’s ability to pump blood effectively. It is characterized by several features that can help in its diagnosis. Dyspnoea, or shortness of breath, is a common symptom of chronic heart failure. Patients may also experience coughing, which can be worse at night and accompanied by pink or frothy sputum. Orthopnoea, or difficulty breathing while lying down, and paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnoea, or sudden shortness of breath at night, are also common symptoms.

      Another feature of chronic heart failure is the presence of a wheeze, known as a cardiac wheeze. Patients may also experience weight loss, known as cardiac cachexia, which occurs in up to 15% of patients. However, this may be hidden by weight gained due to oedema. On examination, bibasal crackles may be heard, and signs of right-sided heart failure, such as a raised JVP, ankle oedema, and hepatomegaly, may be present.

      In summary, chronic heart failure is a condition that can be identified by several features, including dyspnoea, coughing, orthopnoea, paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnoea, wheezing, weight loss, bibasal crackles, and signs of right-sided heart failure. Early recognition and management of these symptoms can help improve outcomes for patients with chronic heart failure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
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  • Question 28 - A 75-year-old man presents to the emergency department with acute chest pain that...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old man presents to the emergency department with acute chest pain that is radiating to his left shoulder. He has a medical history of a previous transient ischaemic attack three years ago and is currently taking aspirin 75mg OD.

      Upon initial assessment, an ECG reveals ST-segment elevation in V1-V3. The patient undergoes percutaneous coronary intervention with a drug-eluting stent and is stable post-procedure. His treatment plan includes ramipril, ticagrelor, simvastatin, and atenolol.

      What is the mechanism of action of the newly prescribed antiplatelet medication?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Inhibit the binding of ADP to platelets

      Explanation:

      Ticagrelor and clopidogrel have a similar mechanism of action in inhibiting ADP binding to platelet receptors, which prevents platelet aggregation. In patients with STEMI who undergo percutaneous coronary intervention with a drug-eluting stent, dual antiplatelet therapy, beta-blockers, ACE inhibitors, and anti-hyperlipidemic drugs are commonly used for secondary management.

      Glycoprotein IIb/IIIa complex is a fibrinogen receptor found on platelets that, when activated, leads to platelet aggregation. Glycoprotein IIb/IIIa inhibitors, such as abciximab, bind to this receptor and prevent ligands like fibrinogen from accessing their binding site. Glycoprotein IIb/IIIa antagonists, like eptifibatide, compete with ligands for the receptor’s binding site, blocking the formation of thrombi.

      Dipyridamole inhibits platelet cAMP-phosphodiesterase, leading to increased intra-platelet cAMP and decreased arachidonic acid release, resulting in reduced thromboxane A2 formation. It also inhibits adenosine reuptake by vascular endothelial cells and erythrocytes, leading to increased adenosine concentration, activation of adenyl cyclase, and increased cAMP production.

      ADP receptor inhibitors, such as clopidogrel, prasugrel, ticagrelor, and ticlopidine, work by inhibiting the P2Y12 receptor, which leads to sustained platelet aggregation and stabilization of the platelet plaque. Clinical trials have shown that prasugrel and ticagrelor are more effective than clopidogrel in reducing short- and long-term ischemic events in high-risk patients with acute coronary syndrome or undergoing percutaneous coronary intervention. However, ticagrelor may cause dyspnea due to impaired clearance of adenosine, and there are drug interactions and contraindications to consider for each medication. NICE guidelines recommend dual antiplatelet treatment with aspirin and ticagrelor for 12 months as a secondary prevention strategy for ACS.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
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  • Question 29 - A 67-year-old male arrives at the emergency department with an abrupt onset of...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old male arrives at the emergency department with an abrupt onset of intense chest pain that he describes as tearing through his body. He is promptly diagnosed with a Stanford Type A aortic dissection and immediately undergoes surgical repair. What embryonic structure is responsible for the region where the dissection occurred?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Truncus arteriosus

      Explanation:

      The truncus arteriosus is responsible for giving rise to both the ascending aorta and the pulmonary trunk during embryonic development.

      When a Stanford Type A aortic dissection occurs, it typically affects the ascending aorta, which originates from the truncus arteriosus.

      During fetal development, the ductus arteriosus allows blood to bypass the pulmonary circuit by shunting it from the pulmonary arteries back into the aortic arch. In adults, the remnant of this structure is known as the ligamentum arteriosum, which serves as an anchor for the aortic arch.

      The bulbus cordis plays a role in the formation of the ventricles, while the common cardinal vein ultimately becomes the superior vena cava.

      During cardiovascular embryology, the heart undergoes significant development and differentiation. At around 14 days gestation, the heart consists of primitive structures such as the truncus arteriosus, bulbus cordis, primitive atria, and primitive ventricle. These structures give rise to various parts of the heart, including the ascending aorta and pulmonary trunk, right ventricle, left and right atria, and majority of the left ventricle. The division of the truncus arteriosus is triggered by neural crest cell migration from the pharyngeal arches, and any issues with this migration can lead to congenital heart defects such as transposition of the great arteries or tetralogy of Fallot. Other structures derived from the primitive heart include the coronary sinus, superior vena cava, fossa ovalis, and various ligaments such as the ligamentum arteriosum and ligamentum venosum. The allantois gives rise to the urachus, while the umbilical artery becomes the medial umbilical ligaments and the umbilical vein becomes the ligamentum teres hepatis inside the falciform ligament. Overall, cardiovascular embryology is a complex process that involves the differentiation and development of various structures that ultimately form the mature heart.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
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  • Question 30 - You perform venepuncture on the basilic vein in the cubital fossa.

    At which point...

    Incorrect

    • You perform venepuncture on the basilic vein in the cubital fossa.

      At which point does this vein pass deep under muscle?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Midway up the humerus

      Explanation:

      When the basilic vein is located halfway up the humerus, it travels beneath muscle. At the cubital fossa, the basilic vein connects with the median cubital vein, which in turn interacts with the cephalic vein. Contrary to popular belief, the basilic vein does not pass through the medial epicondyle. Meanwhile, the cephalic vein can be found in the deltopectoral groove.

      The Basilic Vein: A Major Pathway of Venous Drainage for the Arm and Hand

      The basilic vein is one of the two main pathways of venous drainage for the arm and hand, alongside the cephalic vein. It begins on the medial side of the dorsal venous network of the hand and travels up the forearm and arm. Most of its course is superficial, but it passes deep under the muscles midway up the humerus. Near the region anterior to the cubital fossa, the basilic vein joins the cephalic vein.

      At the lower border of the teres major muscle, the anterior and posterior circumflex humeral veins feed into the basilic vein. It is often joined by the medial brachial vein before draining into the axillary vein. The basilic vein is continuous with the palmar venous arch distally and the axillary vein proximally. Understanding the path and function of the basilic vein is important for medical professionals in diagnosing and treating conditions related to venous drainage in the arm and hand.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Cardiovascular System (2/10) 20%
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