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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 52-year-old retired teacher presents to her new family physician with complaints of a painful ankle after going for a jog in the park. She reports no trauma to the area but has a history of joint dislocation. The patient also has a heart valve problem and is being treated by a cardiologist. During the examination, the physician notes hyperextensible skin and redness, swelling, and warmth in the ankle joint. What condition is associated with this patient's presentation?
Your Answer: Epidural hemorrhage
Correct Answer: Subarachnoid hemorrhage
Explanation:1. The presence of joint hypermobility and hyperextensible skin, along with a history of repeated joint dislocations and heart valve disease treatment, suggest a diagnosis of Ehlers-Danlos syndrome. This genetic disorder is caused by a defect in collagen synthesis and can lead to various complications, including the development of berry aneurysms in the cerebral circulation, which can rupture and cause subarachnoid hemorrhage.
2. Lacunar infarcts occur when small penetrating arteries in the brain become obstructed, affecting deeper brain structures such as the internal capsule, brain nuclei, and pons. These infarcts share the same pathophysiology as ischemic strokes and are often caused by risk factors such as diabetes, hypertension, hypercholesterolemia, and smoking.
3. Cerebral venous sinus thrombosis is characterized by the formation of blood clots in the venous sinuses of the brain, leading to congestion and symptoms such as headaches and seizures. This condition is more likely to occur in individuals with a high tendency to form blood clots, such as during pregnancy or in the presence of clotting factor abnormalities or inflammatory conditions.
4. Subdural hemorrhage occurs when there is bleeding in the space between the dura and arachnoid mater, often caused by sudden shearing forces that tear bridging veins. This bleeding can cause brain compression and is more likely to occur in individuals with brain atrophy, such as alcoholics and the elderly.
5. No input provided.Ehler-Danlos syndrome is a genetic disorder that affects the connective tissue, specifically type III collagen. This causes the tissue to be more elastic than usual, resulting in increased skin elasticity and joint hypermobility. Common symptoms include fragile skin, easy bruising, and recurrent joint dislocation. Additionally, individuals with Ehler-Danlos syndrome may be at risk for serious complications such as aortic regurgitation, mitral valve prolapse, aortic dissection, subarachnoid hemorrhage, and angioid retinal streaks.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 2
Correct
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A runner presents to the emergency department with intense leg discomfort. He had neglected to warm up and participated in a 200m sprint race. As he neared the finish line, he felt pain in the back of his thigh. The pain has intensified and is now focused on the outer part of the knee. The runner is incapable of bending his knee. Which structure has sustained damage?
Your Answer: Biceps femoris tendon
Explanation:Sports that involve sudden bending of the knee, such as sprinting, often result in injuries to the biceps femoris, particularly if the athlete has not properly warmed up. The most frequent type of injury is avulsion, which occurs at the point where the long head connects to the ischial tuberosity. Compared to the other hamstrings, the biceps femoris is more prone to injury.
The Biceps Femoris Muscle
The biceps femoris is a muscle located in the posterior upper thigh and is part of the hamstring group of muscles. It consists of two heads: the long head and the short head. The long head originates from the ischial tuberosity and inserts into the fibular head. Its actions include knee flexion, lateral rotation of the tibia, and extension of the hip. It is innervated by the tibial division of the sciatic nerve and supplied by the profunda femoris artery, inferior gluteal artery, and the superior muscular branches of the popliteal artery.
On the other hand, the short head originates from the lateral lip of the linea aspera and the lateral supracondylar ridge of the femur. It also inserts into the fibular head and is responsible for knee flexion and lateral rotation of the tibia. It is innervated by the common peroneal division of the sciatic nerve and supplied by the same arteries as the long head.
Understanding the anatomy and function of the biceps femoris muscle is important in the diagnosis and treatment of injuries and conditions affecting the posterior thigh.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old patient is admitted for surgery after fracturing their tibia in a car accident. 24 hours after the operation, the patient reports experiencing severe pain and tingling sensations. Upon examination, the anterior leg appears red, swollen, and feels cooler than the rest of the limb. Dorsiflexion of the foot is impaired, and there is a loss of sensation over the first and second toes. The intracompartmental pressure of the anterior compartment measures 40mmHg. A weak pulse is palpated just lateral to the extensor hallucis longus tendon. Which artery's pulse is felt at this anatomical site?
Your Answer: Medial plantar artery
Correct Answer: Dorsalis pedis artery
Explanation:The foot has two arches: the longitudinal arch and the transverse arch. The longitudinal arch is higher on the medial side and is supported by the posterior pillar of the calcaneum and the anterior pillar composed of the navicular bone, three cuneiforms, and the medial three metatarsal bones. The transverse arch is located on the anterior part of the tarsus and the posterior part of the metatarsus. The foot has several intertarsal joints, including the sub talar joint, talocalcaneonavicular joint, calcaneocuboid joint, transverse tarsal joint, cuneonavicular joint, intercuneiform joints, and cuneocuboid joint. The foot also has various ligaments, including those of the ankle joint and foot. The foot is innervated by the lateral plantar nerve and medial plantar nerve, and it receives blood supply from the plantar arteries and dorsalis pedis artery. The foot has several muscles, including the abductor hallucis, flexor digitorum brevis, abductor digit minimi, flexor hallucis brevis, adductor hallucis, and extensor digitorum brevis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 33-year-old man presents to the emergency department with lateral knee pain. He reports that the pain began two hours ago while playing hockey, and he was struck on the anteromedial aspect of his extended knee by a hockey stick. An x-ray of the knee reveals an avulsion fracture of the fibular head. Which muscle is the probable culprit for this patient's avulsion fracture?
Your Answer: Fibularis brevis
Correct Answer: Biceps femoris
Explanation:The fibular head serves as the insertion point for both the long and short head of the biceps femoris muscle. However, sudden contractions of the biceps femoris can lead to an avulsion fracture of the fibular head, where the fracture fragment may be attached to the lateral collateral ligament or biceps femoris tendon.
The fibularis brevis muscle originates from the distal two-thirds of the fibular bone. If the ankle joint suddenly inverts, it can pull on the fibularis tendon and cause an avulsion of the tuberosity at the base of the fifth metatarsal.
The flexor hallucis longus muscle originates from the distal two-thirds of the posterior surface of the fibular bone. This muscle not only allows for flexion of the big toe but also contributes to plantarflexion and inversion of the foot.
The soleus muscle originates from the proximal one-third of the posterior surface of the fibular bone. It is a large muscle covered in thick fascia, which aids in its secondary function of pumping venous blood back into the heart through the skeletal muscle pump.
The Biceps Femoris Muscle
The biceps femoris is a muscle located in the posterior upper thigh and is part of the hamstring group of muscles. It consists of two heads: the long head and the short head. The long head originates from the ischial tuberosity and inserts into the fibular head. Its actions include knee flexion, lateral rotation of the tibia, and extension of the hip. It is innervated by the tibial division of the sciatic nerve and supplied by the profunda femoris artery, inferior gluteal artery, and the superior muscular branches of the popliteal artery.
On the other hand, the short head originates from the lateral lip of the linea aspera and the lateral supracondylar ridge of the femur. It also inserts into the fibular head and is responsible for knee flexion and lateral rotation of the tibia. It is innervated by the common peroneal division of the sciatic nerve and supplied by the same arteries as the long head.
Understanding the anatomy and function of the biceps femoris muscle is important in the diagnosis and treatment of injuries and conditions affecting the posterior thigh.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 5
Correct
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A 50-year-old man presents to the emergency department with a 24-hour history of left knee pain and swelling. He has difficulty bearing weight on the left leg and reports no recent trauma, fevers, or chills. The patient has also been experiencing constipation, excessive urination, and fatigue for several months. He has a history of passing a kidney stone with hydration. He does not take prescription medications or use tobacco, alcohol, or illicit drugs.
During examination, the patient's temperature is 37.2 ºC (98.9ºF) and blood pressure is 130/76 mmHg. The right knee is tender, erythematous, and swollen. Arthrocentesis reveals a white blood cell count of 30,000/mm3, with a predominance of neutrophils and numerous rhomboid-shaped crystals.
What substance is most likely the composition of the crystals?Your Answer: Calcium pyrophosphate
Explanation:The patient is experiencing acute inflammatory arthritis, which is likely caused by pseudogout. This condition occurs when calcium pyrophosphate dihydrate crystals are deposited in the synovial fluid, and it is often associated with chronic hypercalcemia resulting from primary hyperparathyroidism. Pseudogout typically affects the knee joint, and the presence of rhomboid-shaped calcium pyrophosphate crystals in the synovial fluid is diagnostic. Calcium hydroxyapatite crystals are typically found in tendons, while calcium oxalate is the most common component of renal calculi. Xanthomas refer to the deposition of cholesterol and other lipids in soft tissues, while gout is characterized by the deposition of monosodium urate in joints and soft tissues.
Understanding Pseudogout
Pseudogout, also known as acute calcium pyrophosphate crystal deposition disease, is a type of microcrystal synovitis that occurs when calcium pyrophosphate dihydrate crystals are deposited in the synovium. This condition is commonly associated with increasing age, but younger patients who develop pseudogout usually have an underlying risk factor such as haemochromatosis, hyperparathyroidism, low magnesium or phosphate levels, acromegaly, or Wilson’s disease.
The knee, wrist, and shoulders are the most commonly affected joints in pseudogout. Diagnosis is made through joint aspiration, which reveals weakly-positively birefringent rhomboid-shaped crystals, and x-rays, which show chondrocalcinosis. In the knee, linear calcifications of the meniscus and articular cartilage can be seen.
Management of pseudogout involves joint fluid aspiration to rule out septic arthritis, followed by treatment with NSAIDs or intra-articular, intra-muscular, or oral steroids, similar to the treatment for gout. Understanding the risk factors and symptoms of pseudogout can help with early diagnosis and effective management of this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old man is recuperating from a fall that resulted in a fracture of his left fibular neck. He has observed that his left foot drags on the ground when he attempts to walk. Which nerve is the most probable to have been affected?
Your Answer: Pudendal nerve
Correct Answer: Common peroneal nerve
Explanation:The patient is likely to have suffered damage to their common peroneal nerve, resulting in foot drop, following a fibular neck fracture. This is a common occurrence in such cases.
It is important to note that damage to the lateral cutaneous nerve of the thigh, obturator nerve, or pudendal nerve is unlikely to cause foot drop. These nerves are associated with different symptoms and conditions.
Lower limb anatomy is an important topic that often appears in examinations. One aspect of this topic is the nerves that control motor and sensory functions in the lower limb. The femoral nerve controls knee extension and thigh flexion, and provides sensation to the anterior and medial aspect of the thigh and lower leg. It is commonly injured in cases of hip and pelvic fractures, as well as stab or gunshot wounds. The obturator nerve controls thigh adduction and provides sensation to the medial thigh. It can be injured in cases of anterior hip dislocation. The lateral cutaneous nerve of the thigh provides sensory function to the lateral and posterior surfaces of the thigh, and can be compressed near the ASIS, resulting in a condition called meralgia paraesthetica. The tibial nerve controls foot plantarflexion and inversion, and provides sensation to the sole of the foot. It is not commonly injured as it is deep and well protected, but can be affected by popliteral lacerations or posterior knee dislocation. The common peroneal nerve controls foot dorsiflexion and eversion, and can be injured at the neck of the fibula, resulting in foot drop. The superior gluteal nerve controls hip abduction and can be injured in cases of misplaced intramuscular injection, hip surgery, pelvic fracture, or posterior hip dislocation. Injury to this nerve can result in a positive Trendelenburg sign. The inferior gluteal nerve controls hip extension and lateral rotation, and is generally injured in association with the sciatic nerve. Injury to this nerve can result in difficulty rising from a seated position, as well as difficulty jumping or climbing stairs.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 6-year-old girl is brought to the clinic by her mother who is worried about her daughter's hearing loss. The girl has a history of frequent bone fractures. During the examination, the doctor observes that the external ear canal and tympanic membrane appear normal and there is no discharge or swelling. However, the girl's sclera has a bluish tint. What type of collagen is most likely affected in this case?
Your Answer: Type 2
Correct Answer: Type 1
Explanation:Osteogenesis imperfecta is caused by a defect in type 1 collagen, which is found in the skin, tendons, vasculature, and bones. This abnormality results in fragile bones, leading to multiple fractures, as seen in a child with deafness, blue sclera, and fractures. Type 2 collagen is present in cartilage and is not typically affected in osteogenesis imperfecta. Type 3 collagen is the primary component of reticular fibers, which are also not typically affected in this condition. Type 4 collagen makes up basement membranes, which are also not typically affected in osteogenesis imperfecta.
Understanding Osteogenesis Imperfecta
Osteogenesis imperfecta, also known as brittle bone disease, is a group of disorders that affect collagen metabolism, leading to bone fragility and fractures. The most common type of osteogenesis imperfecta is type 1, which is inherited in an autosomal dominant manner and is caused by decreased synthesis of pro-alpha 1 or pro-alpha 2 collagen polypeptides.
This condition typically presents in childhood, with individuals experiencing fractures following minor trauma. Other common features include blue sclera, deafness secondary to otosclerosis, and dental imperfections. Despite these symptoms, adjusted calcium, phosphate, parathyroid hormone, and ALP results are usually normal in individuals with osteogenesis imperfecta.
Overall, understanding the symptoms and underlying causes of osteogenesis imperfecta is crucial for proper diagnosis and management of this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 8
Incorrect
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Which of the muscles below does not cause lateral rotation of the hip?
Your Answer: Quadratus femoris
Correct Answer: Pectineus
Explanation:P-GO-GO-Q is a mnemonic for remembering the lateral hip rotators in order from top to bottom: Piriformis, Gemellus superior, Obturator internus, Gemellus inferior, Obturator externus, and Quadratus femoris.
Anatomy of the Hip Joint
The hip joint is formed by the articulation of the head of the femur with the acetabulum of the pelvis. Both of these structures are covered by articular hyaline cartilage. The acetabulum is formed at the junction of the ilium, pubis, and ischium, and is separated by the triradiate cartilage, which is a Y-shaped growth plate. The femoral head is held in place by the acetabular labrum. The normal angle between the femoral head and shaft is 130 degrees.
There are several ligaments that support the hip joint. The transverse ligament connects the anterior and posterior ends of the articular cartilage, while the head of femur ligament (ligamentum teres) connects the acetabular notch to the fovea. In children, this ligament contains the arterial supply to the head of the femur. There are also extracapsular ligaments, including the iliofemoral ligament, which runs from the anterior iliac spine to the trochanteric line, the pubofemoral ligament, which connects the acetabulum to the lesser trochanter, and the ischiofemoral ligament, which provides posterior support from the ischium to the greater trochanter.
The blood supply to the hip joint comes from the medial circumflex femoral and lateral circumflex femoral arteries, which are branches of the profunda femoris. The inferior gluteal artery also contributes to the blood supply. These arteries form an anastomosis and travel up the femoral neck to supply the head of the femur.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old man is set to undergo a surgical procedure to drain an abscess situated on the medial side of his lower leg. The anaesthetist plans to administer a saphenous nerve block by injecting a local anaesthetic through the adductor canal's roof. What is the muscular structure that the needle for the local anaesthetic must pass through?
Your Answer: Vastus lateralis
Correct Answer: Sartorius
Explanation:The Adductor Canal: Anatomy and Contents
The adductor canal, also known as Hunter’s or the subsartorial canal, is a structure located in the middle third of the thigh, immediately distal to the apex of the femoral triangle. It is bordered laterally by the vastus medialis muscle and posteriorly by the adductor longus and adductor magnus muscles. The roof of the canal is formed by the sartorius muscle. The canal terminates at the adductor hiatus.
The adductor canal contains three important structures: the saphenous nerve, the superficial femoral artery, and the superficial femoral vein. The saphenous nerve is a sensory nerve that supplies the skin of the medial leg and foot. The superficial femoral artery is a major artery that supplies blood to the lower limb. The superficial femoral vein is a large vein that drains blood from the lower limb.
In order to expose the contents of the adductor canal, the sartorius muscle must be removed. Understanding the anatomy and contents of the adductor canal is important for medical professionals who perform procedures in this area, such as nerve blocks or vascular surgeries.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 10
Incorrect
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You are in a clinic with your consultant examining a 55-year-old man who complains of shoulder pain. During the assessment, the consultant instructs the patient to place the back of his hand against the lumbar region of his back. Which muscle of the rotator cuff is responsible for this movement?
Your Answer: Infraspinatus
Correct Answer: Subscapularis
Explanation:The subscapularis muscle is responsible for internal rotation, while the other muscles in the cuff are responsible for external rotation. During Gerber’s Test, the consultant will ask you to place the dorsum of your hand behind your back, which requires internal rotation of the humerus. This movement is facilitated by the subscapularis muscle.
Understanding the Rotator Cuff Muscles
The rotator cuff muscles are a group of four muscles that are responsible for the movement and stability of the shoulder joint. These muscles are known as the SItS muscles, which stands for Supraspinatus, Infraspinatus, teres minor, and Subscapularis. Each of these muscles has a specific function in the movement of the shoulder joint.
The Supraspinatus muscle is responsible for abducting the arm before the deltoid muscle. It is the most commonly injured muscle in the rotator cuff. The Infraspinatus muscle rotates the arm laterally, while the teres minor muscle adducts and rotates the arm laterally. Lastly, the Subscapularis muscle adducts and rotates the arm medially.
Understanding the functions of each of these muscles is important in diagnosing and treating rotator cuff injuries. By identifying which muscle is injured, healthcare professionals can develop a treatment plan that targets the specific muscle and promotes healing. Overall, the rotator cuff muscles play a crucial role in the movement and stability of the shoulder joint.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old male suffers a fracture in his left tibia during a sports activity. During which stage of the healing process is the fracture callus expected to be visible on radiographs?
Your Answer: 7 days
Correct Answer: 3 weeks
Explanation:The formation of fracture callus involves the production of fibroblasts and chondroblasts, which then synthesize fibrocartilage. This process can usually be observed on X-rays after a certain period of time.
Fracture Healing: Factors and Process
When a bone is fractured, bleeding vessels in the bone and periosteum cause clot and haematoma formation. Over a week, the clot organizes and improves in structure and collagen. Osteoblasts in the periosteum produce new bone, while mesenchymal cells produce cartilage in the soft tissue around the fracture. The connective tissue and hyaline cartilage form a callus, which is bridged by endochondral ossification as new bone approaches. Trabecular bone forms, which is then resorbed by osteoclasts and replaced with compact bone.
Several factors can affect fracture healing, including age, malnutrition, bone disorders like osteoporosis, systemic disorders like diabetes, and drugs like steroids and non-steroidal anti-inflammatory agents. The type of bone, degree of trauma, vascular injury, degree of immobilization, intra-articular fractures, separation of bone ends, and infection can also impact healing.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A physician is evaluating a 25-year-old male who came to the ER with wrist drop and weakened extension of his left elbow. The physician determines that the radial nerve, which innervates the tricep brachii, has been affected.
What is the insertion point of this muscle?Your Answer: Coracoid process
Correct Answer: Olecranon process of the ulna
Explanation:The tricep muscle, which gets its name from the Latin word for three-headed muscles, is responsible for extending the elbow. It is made up of three heads: the long head, which originates from the infraglenoid tubercle of the scapular; the lateral head, which comes from the dorsal surface of the humerus; and the medial head, which originates from the posterior surface of the humerus. These three heads come together to form a single tendon that inserts onto the olecranon process of the ulna.
Anatomy of the Triceps Muscle
The triceps muscle is a large muscle located on the back of the upper arm. It is composed of three heads: the long head, lateral head, and medial head. The long head originates from the infraglenoid tubercle of the scapula, while the lateral head originates from the dorsal surface of the humerus, lateral and proximal to the groove of the radial nerve. The medial head originates from the posterior surface of the humerus on the inferomedial side of the radial groove and both of the intermuscular septae.
All three heads of the triceps muscle insert into the olecranon process of the ulna, with some fibers inserting into the deep fascia of the forearm and the posterior capsule of the elbow. The triceps muscle is innervated by the radial nerve and supplied with blood by the profunda brachii artery.
The primary action of the triceps muscle is elbow extension. The long head can also adduct the humerus and extend it from a flexed position. The radial nerve and profunda brachii vessels lie between the lateral and medial heads of the triceps muscle. Understanding the anatomy of the triceps muscle is important for proper diagnosis and treatment of injuries or conditions affecting this muscle.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 13
Incorrect
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The etiology of osteopetrosis is most effectively described by a malfunction in which of the following?
Your Answer: PTH receptors
Correct Answer: Osteoclast function
Explanation:Understanding Osteopetrosis: A Rare Disorder of Bone Resorption
Osteopetrosis, also known as marble bone disease, is a rare disorder that affects the normal function of osteoclasts, leading to a failure of bone resorption. This results in the formation of dense, thick bones that are more prone to fractures. Individuals with osteopetrosis often experience bone pains and neuropathies. Despite the abnormal bone growth, levels of calcium, phosphate, and ALP remain normal.
Treatment options for osteopetrosis include stem cell transplant and interferon-gamma therapy. However, these treatments are not always effective and may have significant side effects. As such, early diagnosis and management of osteopetrosis is crucial in preventing complications and improving quality of life for affected individuals.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 29-year-old male attends a dermatology clinic after being referred by his GP for severe eczema. Despite treatment with both emollients and topical corticosteroids, the patient's eczema remains very severe and is causing him much psychological distress. As a result, the doctor decides to prescribe azathioprine.
What are the necessary checks that must be done before starting the treatment?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Thiopurine methyltransferase activity
Explanation:Before starting treatment with azathioprine, it is important to check for thiopurine methyltransferase deficiency (TPMT) to avoid the risk of myelosuppression in patients with reduced enzyme activity. Azathioprine is commonly used as an immunosuppressant for conditions like IBD and severe refractory eczema. However, an ECG and lipid profile are not necessary before starting treatment with azathioprine. On the other hand, thyroid function tests are required before initiating treatment with amiodarone, while renal function and electrolytes should be checked before starting treatment with drugs like ACE inhibitors.
Azathioprine is a medication that is converted into mercaptopurine, which is an active compound that inhibits the production of purine. To determine if someone is at risk for azathioprine toxicity, a test for thiopurine methyltransferase (TPMT) may be necessary. Adverse effects of this medication include bone marrow depression, nausea and vomiting, pancreatitis, and an increased risk of non-melanoma skin cancer. If infection or bleeding occurs, a full blood count should be considered. It is important to note that there may be a significant interaction between azathioprine and allopurinol, so lower doses of azathioprine should be used. However, azathioprine is generally considered safe to use during pregnancy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 15
Incorrect
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Which of the following bones is associated with the distal articular surface of the cuboid?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 5th metatarsal
Explanation:The cuboid bone is situated on the outer side of the foot, positioned between the heel bone at the back and the fourth and fifth toe bones towards the front.
The foot has two arches: the longitudinal arch and the transverse arch. The longitudinal arch is higher on the medial side and is supported by the posterior pillar of the calcaneum and the anterior pillar composed of the navicular bone, three cuneiforms, and the medial three metatarsal bones. The transverse arch is located on the anterior part of the tarsus and the posterior part of the metatarsus. The foot has several intertarsal joints, including the sub talar joint, talocalcaneonavicular joint, calcaneocuboid joint, transverse tarsal joint, cuneonavicular joint, intercuneiform joints, and cuneocuboid joint. The foot also has various ligaments, including those of the ankle joint and foot. The foot is innervated by the lateral plantar nerve and medial plantar nerve, and it receives blood supply from the plantar arteries and dorsalis pedis artery. The foot has several muscles, including the abductor hallucis, flexor digitorum brevis, abductor digit minimi, flexor hallucis brevis, adductor hallucis, and extensor digitorum brevis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 33-year-old man presents to the emergency department with complaints of pain in his left hand following a fall that occurred 4 days ago. The pain is located on the dorsum of his hand, near the base of his index finger. He reports that he tripped and fell while running and used his left hand to break his fall.
Upon examination, there is significant tenderness upon palpation of the base of the first metacarpal on the dorsum of his hand. There is also noticeable swelling in the affected area.
What type of fracture is the patient most likely to have sustained?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Scaphoid fracture
Explanation:The most likely cause of the patient’s pain in the anatomical snuffbox is a scaphoid fracture, which is often the result of falling onto an outstretched hand (FOOSH). Scaphoid fractures are the most common type of carpal fracture. In contrast, a boxer’s fracture involves the 5th metacarpal bone and is typically caused by punching something with a closed fist, while a Colles’ fracture affects the distal radius and causes a dorsal displacement of the fragments. A Galeazzi fracture involves the radial bone and dislocation of the distal radioulnar joint, and is typically caused by a fall on the hand with rotational force.
A scaphoid fracture is a type of wrist fracture that usually occurs when a person falls onto an outstretched hand or during contact sports. It is important to identify scaphoid fractures as they can lead to avascular necrosis due to the unusual blood supply of the scaphoid bone. Patients with scaphoid fractures typically experience pain along the radial aspect of the wrist and loss of grip or pinch strength. Clinical examination involves checking for tenderness over the anatomical snuffbox, wrist joint effusion, pain on telescoping of the thumb, tenderness of the scaphoid tubercle, and pain on ulnar deviation of the wrist. Plain film radiographs and scaphoid views are used to diagnose scaphoid fractures, but MRI is considered the definitive investigation. Initial management involves immobilization with a splint or backslab and referral to orthopaedics. Orthopaedic management depends on the type of fracture, with undisplaced fractures typically treated with a cast and displaced fractures requiring surgical fixation. Complications of scaphoid fractures include non-union and avascular necrosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old obese female with twice-yearly flares of ulcerative colitis has presented to the gastroenterology department with flare. She was previously being managed well with steroids. After doing the thiopurine methyltransferase (TPMT) test she is started on a medication. A complete blood count done after a month of starting treatment shows:
Hb 112 g/L Male: (135-180)
Female: (115 - 160)
Platelets 68 * 109/L (150 - 400)
WBC 25 * 109/L (4.0 - 11.0)
What is the active compound that the drug being used in the treatment of this patient's condition is metabolized to?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Mercaptopurine
Explanation:Azathioprine is utilized for treating Crohn’s disease in this patient, and it is likely that the drug is metabolized into mercaptopurine, an active compound that acts as a purine analogue and inhibits purine synthesis.
In the purine catabolism pathway, inosine is produced when AMP is deaminated by adenylate (AMP) deaminase to form IMP. Inosine is then formed by hydrolysis of IMP with nucleotidase.
Hypoxanthine is also produced in the purine catabolism pathway through the phosphorylation of inosine. Xanthine is formed when hypoxanthine is oxidized by xanthine oxidase.
The answer purine is incorrect because azathioprine does not convert into purines, but rather it inhibits their synthesis.
Azathioprine is a medication that is converted into mercaptopurine, which is an active compound that inhibits the production of purine. To determine if someone is at risk for azathioprine toxicity, a test for thiopurine methyltransferase (TPMT) may be necessary. Adverse effects of this medication include bone marrow depression, nausea and vomiting, pancreatitis, and an increased risk of non-melanoma skin cancer. If infection or bleeding occurs, a full blood count should be considered. It is important to note that there may be a significant interaction between azathioprine and allopurinol, so lower doses of azathioprine should be used. However, azathioprine is generally considered safe to use during pregnancy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old woman complains of throbbing hip pain that has been gradually developing for 2 months. She had a fall during gardening a year ago that resulted in a fracture of the neck of her right femur.
During examination, she displays a decent range of motion at the hip, but she is experiencing a considerable amount of pain.
Based on the probable reason for her persistent pain, which blood vessel is most likely affected?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Medial femoral circumflex artery
Explanation:The primary supplier of blood to the femoral head is the medial femoral circumflex artery. If this artery is compromised, it can lead to avascular necrosis, a condition where the bone’s blood supply is disrupted, causing ischemic and necrotic changes. This can slow down recovery and increase the risk of arthritis and bone collapse. In children, the artery of ligamentum teres is the main blood supply to the femoral head and is commonly compromised due to dislocations. The internal iliac artery supplies much of the pelvis but is unlikely to be damaged in a neck of femur fracture, while the lateral femoral circumflex artery supplies the muscles of the anterior thigh.
Anatomy of the Femur: Structure and Blood Supply
The femur is the longest and strongest bone in the human body, extending from the hip joint to the knee joint. It consists of a rounded head that articulates with the acetabulum and two large condyles at its inferior aspect that articulate with the tibia. The superior aspect of the femur comprises a head and neck that pass inferolaterally to the body and the two trochanters. The neck meets the body of the femur at an angle of 125o and is demarcated from it by a wide rough intertrochanteric crest. The greater trochanter has discernible surfaces that form the site of attachment of the gluteal muscles, while the linea aspera forms part of the origin of the attachments of the thigh adductors.
The femur has a rich blood supply, with numerous vascular foramina existing throughout its length. The blood supply to the femoral head is clinically important and is provided by the medial circumflex femoral and lateral circumflex femoral arteries, which are branches of the profunda femoris. The inferior gluteal artery also contributes to the blood supply. These arteries form an anastomosis and travel up the femoral neck to supply the head. It is important to note that the neck is covered by synovial membrane up to the intertrochanteric line, and the posterior aspect of the neck is demarcated from the shaft by the intertrochanteric crest. Understanding the anatomy of the femur, including its structure and blood supply, is crucial for medical professionals in diagnosing and treating injuries and conditions related to this bone.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 19
Incorrect
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Which one of the following does not pass through the greater sciatic foramen?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Obturator nerve
Explanation:The obturator foramen is the exit point for the obturator nerve.
The Greater Sciatic Foramen and its Contents
The greater sciatic foramen is a space in the pelvis that is bounded by various ligaments and bones. It serves as a passageway for several important structures, including nerves and blood vessels. The piriformis muscle is a landmark for identifying these structures as they pass through the sciatic notch. Above the piriformis muscle, the superior gluteal vessels can be found, while below it are the inferior gluteal vessels, the sciatic nerve (which passes through it in only 10% of cases), and the posterior cutaneous nerve of the thigh.
The boundaries of the greater sciatic foramen include the greater sciatic notch of the ilium, the sacrotuberous ligament, the sacrospinous ligament, and the ischial spine. The anterior sacroiliac ligament forms the superior boundary. Structures passing through the greater sciatic foramen include the pudendal nerve, the internal pudendal artery, and the nerve to the obturator internus.
In contrast, the lesser sciatic foramen is a smaller space that contains the tendon of the obturator internus, the pudendal nerve, the internal pudendal artery and vein, and the nerve to the obturator internus. Understanding the contents and boundaries of these foramina is important for clinicians who may need to access or avoid these structures during surgical procedures or other interventions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 6-year-old boy is brought to the emergency department by his parents. He has swelling and tenderness in the middle part of his left forearm and is refusing to move it. The family seems uncooperative and difficult to engage with. Upon questioning, the mother claims the injury occurred from falling off the couch, while the father claims it happened while playing outside. Given the suspicious circumstances, you suspect a non-accidental injury.
What X-ray findings are commonly associated with this type of injury?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Greenstick fracture of the radius and ulna
Explanation:Greenstick fractures are a type of bone injury that is frequently seen in children. While spiral fractures of the humerus are often linked to non-accidental injury (NAI), it is important to consider NAI as a possible cause for greenstick fractures as well.
Greenstick fractures typically occur in infants and children and can result from various causes, such as falling on an outstretched hand or experiencing a direct perpendicular impact.
In a greenstick fracture, one side of the bone’s cortex is disrupted, while the opposite cortex remains intact. This type of fracture is more common in younger individuals whose bones are not yet fully mineralized and are more likely to bend than break.
Adolescents and adults may experience Monteggia and Galeazzi fractures, which are common forearm injuries. These fractures involve a displaced fracture in one forearm bone and a dislocation of the other.
Paediatric Orthopaedics: Common Conditions and Treatments
Developmental dysplasia of the hip is a condition that is usually diagnosed in infancy through screening tests. It may be bilateral, and when it is unilateral, there may be leg length inequality. As the disease progresses, the child may limp and experience early onset arthritis. This condition is more common in extended breech babies. Treatment options include splints and harnesses or traction, and in later years, osteotomy and hip realignment procedures may be needed. In cases of arthritis, a joint replacement may be necessary, but it is best to defer this if possible as it will likely require revision. Initially, there may be no obvious changes on plain films, and ultrasound gives the best resolution until three months of age. On plain films, Shenton’s line should form a smooth arc.
Perthes Disease is characterized by hip pain, which may be referred to the knee, and usually occurs between the ages of 5 and 12. Bilateral disease occurs in 20% of cases. Treatment involves removing pressure from the joint to allow for normal development and physiotherapy. If diagnosed and treated promptly, the condition is usually self-limiting. X-rays will show a flattened femoral head, and in untreated cases, the femoral head will eventually fragment.
Slipped upper femoral epiphysis is typically seen in obese male adolescents. Pain is often referred to the knee, and limitation to internal rotation is usually seen. Knee pain is usually present two months prior to hip slipping, and bilateral disease occurs in 20% of cases. Treatment involves bed rest and non-weight bearing to avoid avascular necrosis. If severe slippage or risk of it occurring is present, percutaneous pinning of the hip may be required. X-rays will show the femoral head displaced and falling inferolaterally, resembling a melting ice cream cone. The Southwick angle gives an indication of disease severity.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 21
Incorrect
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Which muscle is responsible for causing flexion of the distal interphalangeal joint of the middle finger?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Flexor digitorum profundus
Explanation:The flexor digitorum superficialis and flexor digitorum profundus muscles are accountable for inducing flexion. The tendons of the superficialis muscle attach to the bases of the middle phalanges, while the tendons of the profundus muscle attach to the bases of the distal phalanges. Both tendons are responsible for flexing the wrist, MCP, and PIP joints, but only the tendons of the profundus muscle are responsible for flexing the DIP joints.
Anatomy of the Hand: Fascia, Compartments, and Tendons
The hand is composed of bones, muscles, and tendons that work together to perform various functions. The bones of the hand include eight carpal bones, five metacarpals, and 14 phalanges. The intrinsic muscles of the hand include the interossei, which are supplied by the ulnar nerve, and the lumbricals, which flex the metacarpophalangeal joints and extend the interphalangeal joint. The thenar eminence contains the abductor pollicis brevis, opponens pollicis, and flexor pollicis brevis, while the hypothenar eminence contains the opponens digiti minimi, flexor digiti minimi brevis, and abductor digiti minimi.
The fascia of the palm is thin over the thenar and hypothenar eminences but relatively thick elsewhere. The palmar aponeurosis covers the soft tissues and overlies the flexor tendons. The palmar fascia is continuous with the antebrachial fascia and the fascia of the dorsum of the hand. The hand is divided into compartments by fibrous septa, with the thenar compartment lying lateral to the lateral septum, the hypothenar compartment lying medial to the medial septum, and the central compartment containing the flexor tendons and their sheaths, the lumbricals, the superficial palmar arterial arch, and the digital vessels and nerves. The deepest muscular plane is the adductor compartment, which contains adductor pollicis.
The tendons of the flexor digitorum superficialis (FDS) and flexor digitorum profundus (FDP) enter the common flexor sheath deep to the flexor retinaculum. The tendons enter the central compartment of the hand and fan out to their respective digital synovial sheaths. The fibrous digital sheaths contain the flexor tendons and their synovial sheaths, extending from the heads of the metacarpals to the base of the distal phalanges.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 75-year-old man comes to the hospital following a fall where he landed on his outstretched left hand. He reports experiencing pain in his left arm. Upon conducting an x-ray, it is revealed that he has a surgical neck fracture of the left humerus. Which nerve is commonly affected by this type of injury?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Axillary nerve
Explanation:The axillary nerve is frequently injured in cases of surgical neck fractures of the humerus, as it passes through this area. Symptoms of axillary nerve injury include loss of sensation in the regimental badge area and difficulty with arm abduction due to the affected deltoid and teres minor muscles.
Damage to the median nerve is uncommon in cases of proximal or mid-shaft humeral fractures, as it is protected by surrounding muscle. However, it may be affected in distal humeral fractures as it passes through the cubital fossa.
The musculocutaneous nerve is well-protected by muscle and is rarely injured in cases of proximal humeral fractures.
The radial nerve is most commonly injured in midshaft humeral fractures, as it runs along the radial groove of the humerus.
Similarly to the median nerve, the ulnar nerve arises from the brachial plexus and runs along the medial surface of the upper arm. It is most commonly injured in cases of distal humeral fractures.
The humerus is a long bone that runs from the shoulder blade to the elbow joint. It is mostly covered by muscle but can be felt throughout its length. The head of the humerus is a smooth, rounded surface that connects to the body of the bone through the anatomical neck. The surgical neck, located below the head and tubercles, is the most common site of fracture. The greater and lesser tubercles are prominences on the upper end of the bone, with the supraspinatus and infraspinatus tendons inserted into the greater tubercle. The intertubercular groove runs between the two tubercles and holds the biceps tendon. The posterior surface of the body has a spiral groove for the radial nerve and brachial vessels. The lower end of the humerus is wide and flattened, with the trochlea, coronoid fossa, and olecranon fossa located on the distal edge. The medial epicondyle is prominent and has a sulcus for the ulnar nerve and collateral vessels.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 23
Incorrect
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During a thyroidectomy, at what age do surgeons typically ligate the inferior thyroid artery?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Thyrocervical trunk
Explanation:The thyrocervical trunk gives rise to the inferior thyroid artery, which is a derivative of the subclavian artery.
Anatomy of the Thyroid Gland
The thyroid gland is a butterfly-shaped gland located in the neck, consisting of two lobes connected by an isthmus. It is surrounded by a sheath from the pretracheal layer of deep fascia and is situated between the base of the tongue and the fourth and fifth tracheal rings. The apex of the thyroid gland is located at the lamina of the thyroid cartilage, while the base is situated at the fourth and fifth tracheal rings. In some individuals, a pyramidal lobe may extend from the isthmus and attach to the foramen caecum at the base of the tongue.
The thyroid gland is surrounded by various structures, including the sternothyroid, superior belly of omohyoid, sternohyoid, and anterior aspect of sternocleidomastoid muscles. It is also related to the carotid sheath, larynx, trachea, pharynx, oesophagus, cricothyroid muscle, and parathyroid glands. The superior and inferior thyroid arteries supply the thyroid gland with blood, while the superior and middle thyroid veins drain into the internal jugular vein, and the inferior thyroid vein drains into the brachiocephalic veins.
In summary, the thyroid gland is a vital gland located in the neck, responsible for producing hormones that regulate metabolism. Its anatomy is complex, and it is surrounded by various structures that are essential for its function. Understanding the anatomy of the thyroid gland is crucial for the diagnosis and treatment of thyroid disorders.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old woman presents with symptoms of carpal tunnel syndrome and requires surgical exploration of the carpal tunnel. What structure will be closest to the hamate bone within the carpal tunnel during the procedure?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The tendons of flexor digitorum profundus
Explanation:The nine flexor tendons found in the carpal tunnel include the flexor digitorum profundus, flexor digitorum superficialis, and flexor pollicis longus. Among these tendons, the flexor digitorum profundus is situated deepest in the tunnel and is therefore closest to the hamate bone.
Carpal Bones: The Wrist’s Building Blocks
The wrist is composed of eight carpal bones, which are arranged in two rows of four. These bones are convex from side to side posteriorly and concave anteriorly. The trapezium is located at the base of the first metacarpal bone, which is the base of the thumb. The scaphoid, lunate, and triquetrum bones do not have any tendons attached to them, but they are stabilized by ligaments.
In summary, the carpal bones are the building blocks of the wrist, and they play a crucial role in the wrist’s movement and stability. The trapezium bone is located at the base of the thumb, while the scaphoid, lunate, and triquetrum bones are stabilized by ligaments. Understanding the anatomy of the wrist is essential for diagnosing and treating wrist injuries and conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 25
Incorrect
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Which ligament contains the artery supplying the head of femur in infants?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ligamentum teres
Explanation:Anatomy of the Hip Joint
The hip joint is formed by the articulation of the head of the femur with the acetabulum of the pelvis. Both of these structures are covered by articular hyaline cartilage. The acetabulum is formed at the junction of the ilium, pubis, and ischium, and is separated by the triradiate cartilage, which is a Y-shaped growth plate. The femoral head is held in place by the acetabular labrum. The normal angle between the femoral head and shaft is 130 degrees.
There are several ligaments that support the hip joint. The transverse ligament connects the anterior and posterior ends of the articular cartilage, while the head of femur ligament (ligamentum teres) connects the acetabular notch to the fovea. In children, this ligament contains the arterial supply to the head of the femur. There are also extracapsular ligaments, including the iliofemoral ligament, which runs from the anterior iliac spine to the trochanteric line, the pubofemoral ligament, which connects the acetabulum to the lesser trochanter, and the ischiofemoral ligament, which provides posterior support from the ischium to the greater trochanter.
The blood supply to the hip joint comes from the medial circumflex femoral and lateral circumflex femoral arteries, which are branches of the profunda femoris. The inferior gluteal artery also contributes to the blood supply. These arteries form an anastomosis and travel up the femoral neck to supply the head of the femur.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old woman visits the hand clinic for a check-up on her pre-existing osteoarthritis. During the consultation, the surgeon suggests the removal of a bone located at the base of her thumb to relieve some of her symptoms.
What bone would the surgeon consider removing?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Trapezium
Explanation:The bone located at the base of the thumb is called the trapezium. In certain cases, it may be removed to relieve symptoms of osteoarthritis in the thumb. To remember the carpal bones in order from lateral to medial, you can use the mnemonic ‘Sam Left The Party To Take Curtis Home’, which stands for scaphoid, lunate, triquetrum, pisiform, trapezium, trapezoid, capitate, and hamate.
Carpal Bones: The Wrist’s Building Blocks
The wrist is composed of eight carpal bones, which are arranged in two rows of four. These bones are convex from side to side posteriorly and concave anteriorly. The trapezium is located at the base of the first metacarpal bone, which is the base of the thumb. The scaphoid, lunate, and triquetrum bones do not have any tendons attached to them, but they are stabilized by ligaments.
In summary, the carpal bones are the building blocks of the wrist, and they play a crucial role in the wrist’s movement and stability. The trapezium bone is located at the base of the thumb, while the scaphoid, lunate, and triquetrum bones are stabilized by ligaments. Understanding the anatomy of the wrist is essential for diagnosing and treating wrist injuries and conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old male arrives at the emergency department with a deep cut on his left forearm following a knife assault. Upon examination, a deep laceration is observed on his anterior forearm, exposing muscle and subcutaneous tissue. He is unable to flex his left metacarpophalangeal and proximal interphalangeal joints, but his distal interphalangeal joint flexion remains intact. Which structure is the most likely to have been affected?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Flexor digitorum superficialis
Explanation:The forearm flexor muscles include the flexor carpi radialis, palmaris longus, flexor carpi ulnaris, flexor digitorum superficialis, and flexor digitorum profundus. These muscles originate from the common flexor origin and surrounding fascia, and are innervated by the median and ulnar nerves. Their actions include flexion and abduction of the carpus, wrist flexion, adduction of the carpus, and flexion of the metacarpophalangeal and interphalangeal joints.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 28
Incorrect
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Samantha, a 23-year-old female, arrives at the emergency department after falling on her outstretched hand during a volleyball game. She reports experiencing pain in her left shoulder.
After assessing her neurovascular status, the attending physician orders an x-ray which reveals a surgical neck fracture of the left humerus.
Which muscles are expected to have decreased movement based on the nerve most likely affected by this fracture?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Teres minor and deltoid
Explanation:The axillary nerve is responsible for supplying the teres minor and deltoid muscles. It is composed of nerve fibers from C5 and C6 of the brachial plexus and originates in the axilla. The nerve exits the axilla through the quadrangular space, located at the lower border of the subscapularis muscle. It then travels medially to the surgical neck of the humerus, making it vulnerable to injury in cases of surgical neck fractures. Other muscles innervated by the axillary nerve include the teres major and trapezius, which are supplied by the lower subscapular and accessory nerves, respectively.
Upper limb anatomy is a common topic in examinations, and it is important to know certain facts about the nerves and muscles involved. The musculocutaneous nerve is responsible for elbow flexion and supination, and typically only injured as part of a brachial plexus injury. The axillary nerve controls shoulder abduction and can be damaged in cases of humeral neck fracture or dislocation, resulting in a flattened deltoid. The radial nerve is responsible for extension in the forearm, wrist, fingers, and thumb, and can be damaged in cases of humeral midshaft fracture, resulting in wrist drop. The median nerve controls the LOAF muscles and can be damaged in cases of carpal tunnel syndrome or elbow injury. The ulnar nerve controls wrist flexion and can be damaged in cases of medial epicondyle fracture, resulting in a claw hand. The long thoracic nerve controls the serratus anterior and can be damaged during sports or as a complication of mastectomy, resulting in a winged scapula. The brachial plexus can also be damaged, resulting in Erb-Duchenne palsy or Klumpke injury, which can cause the arm to hang by the side and be internally rotated or associated with Horner’s syndrome, respectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 29
Incorrect
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Which one of the following structures does not pass behind the piriformis muscle in the greater sciatic foramen?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Obturator nerve
Explanation:The greater sciatic foramen does not serve as a pathway for the obturator nerve.
The Greater Sciatic Foramen and its Contents
The greater sciatic foramen is a space in the pelvis that is bounded by various ligaments and bones. It serves as a passageway for several important structures, including nerves and blood vessels. The piriformis muscle is a landmark for identifying these structures as they pass through the sciatic notch. Above the piriformis muscle, the superior gluteal vessels can be found, while below it are the inferior gluteal vessels, the sciatic nerve (which passes through it in only 10% of cases), and the posterior cutaneous nerve of the thigh.
The boundaries of the greater sciatic foramen include the greater sciatic notch of the ilium, the sacrotuberous ligament, the sacrospinous ligament, and the ischial spine. The anterior sacroiliac ligament forms the superior boundary. Structures passing through the greater sciatic foramen include the pudendal nerve, the internal pudendal artery, and the nerve to the obturator internus.
In contrast, the lesser sciatic foramen is a smaller space that contains the tendon of the obturator internus, the pudendal nerve, the internal pudendal artery and vein, and the nerve to the obturator internus. Understanding the contents and boundaries of these foramina is important for clinicians who may need to access or avoid these structures during surgical procedures or other interventions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old man presents with worsening back pain and stiffness and is referred to the rheumatology team. Following investigations, he is diagnosed with ankylosing spondylitis. Despite initial treatments with naproxen and etoricoxib, his symptoms persist. After discussion at a multidisciplinary team meeting, a trial of golimumab is recommended. What is the mechanism of action of this medication?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Tumour necrosis factor alpha antagonist
Explanation:Golimumab is classified as a TNF alpha antagonist, which inhibits the action of tumour necrosis factor. It is prescribed for the treatment of ankylosing spondylitis and is administered subcutaneously every four weeks. Rituximab is an example of a CD20 antagonist, used for the management of rheumatoid arthritis and certain types of blood cancer. CD38 antagonists, such as daratumumab, are being studied in clinical trials and are currently used for the treatment of multiple myeloma. Anakinra is an interleukin-1 inhibitor used for rheumatoid arthritis, while secukinumab is an interleukin-17A inhibitor licensed for the treatment of ankylosing spondylitis under specialist use.
Understanding Tumour Necrosis Factor and its Inhibitors
Tumour necrosis factor (TNF) is a cytokine that plays a crucial role in the immune system. It is mainly secreted by macrophages and has various effects on the immune system, such as activating macrophages and neutrophils, acting as a costimulator for T cell activation, and mediating the body’s response to Gram-negative septicaemia. TNF also has anti-tumour effects and binds to both the p55 and p75 receptor, inducing apoptosis and activating NFkB.
TNF has endothelial effects, including increased expression of selectins and production of platelet activating factor, IL-1, and prostaglandins. It also promotes the proliferation of fibroblasts and their production of protease and collagenase. TNF inhibitors are used to treat inflammatory conditions such as rheumatoid arthritis and Crohn’s disease. Examples of TNF inhibitors include infliximab, etanercept, adalimumab, and golimumab.
Infliximab is also used to treat active Crohn’s disease unresponsive to steroids. However, TNF blockers can have adverse effects such as reactivation of latent tuberculosis and demyelination. Understanding TNF and its inhibitors is crucial in the treatment of various inflammatory conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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