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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 54-year-old woman with a long-standing history of poorly controlled type 2 diabetes mellitus presents to clinic complaining of swelling in her ankles, face and fingers. She states she can no longer wear her wedding ring because her fingers are too swollen. On examination, her blood pressure is 150/90 mmHg; she has pitting oedema in her ankles and notably swollen fingers and face. Her blood results show:
Investigation Results Normal value
Creatinine 353.6 μmol/l 50–120 μmol/l
Potassium (K+) 4.1 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
Phosphate 1.9 mmol/l 0.70–1.40 mmol/l
Parathyroid hormone (PTH) Elevated
Urinalysis 3+ glucose, 3+ protein
Which of the following is the most likely mechanism of this woman's increased PTH?Your Answer: Increased 1, 25-dihydroxycholecalciferol
Correct Answer: Decreased glomerular filtration rate (GFR)
Explanation:Understanding the Causes of Secondary Hyperparathyroidism
Secondary hyperparathyroidism is a condition that occurs when the parathyroid glands produce too much parathyroid hormone (PTH) in response to low calcium levels in the blood. This can be caused by a variety of factors, including chronic renal failure, vitamin D excess, and the use of certain medications like diuretics.
In cases of chronic renal failure, decreased glomerular filtration rate (GFR) can lead to raised creatinine levels and proteinuria. This can cause diabetic nephropathy, which can result in hyperphosphataemia and secondary hyperparathyroidism. Over time, this can also lead to osteoporosis as a long-term complication of hyperparathyroidism.
Vitamin D excess is another cause of secondary hyperparathyroidism, but it is associated with low phosphate levels rather than hyperphosphataemia. In cases of parathyroid adenoma, a less likely cause in this patient, there is an overproduction of PTH by a benign tumor in the parathyroid gland.
Finally, the use of diuretics can increase phosphate excretion, leading to hypophosphataemia. This can also contribute to the development of secondary hyperparathyroidism.
Understanding the various causes of secondary hyperparathyroidism is important for proper diagnosis and treatment. By addressing the underlying condition, it may be possible to reduce the production of PTH and prevent further complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal
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Question 2
Correct
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A 54-year-old woman presents with back and flank pain affecting both sides. She has been diagnosed some years ago with antiphospholipid antibody syndrome and has suffered from a previous deep vein thrombosis. On assessment, temperature is 36.7oC, heart rate is 76 bpm, blood pressure 128/80 mmHg and she is still passing urine.
Investigations:
Investigation Result Normal value
Sodium (Na+) 141 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
Potassium (K+) 6.3 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
Urea 17.3 mmol/l 2.5–6.5 mmol/l
Creatinine 325 μmol/l 50–120 µmol/l
Urine proteinuria +++
Which of the following diagnoses fits best with this clinical scenario?Your Answer: Bilateral renal vein thrombosis
Explanation:Possible Causes of Bilateral Flank Pain, Renal Failure, and Proteinuria
Bilateral flank pain, renal failure, and marked proteinuria can be caused by various conditions. One possible diagnosis is bilateral renal vein thrombosis, especially if the patient has a history of antiphospholipid antibody syndrome and previous deep vein thrombosis. Other causes of renal vein thrombosis include extrinsic compression of the renal vein by a tumour or a retroperitoneal mass, invasion of the renal vein or inferior vena cava by a tumour, or nephrotic syndrome that increases coagulability. Abdominal ultrasound and angiography can help diagnose renal vein thrombosis, and anticoagulation is the main treatment.
Bilateral ureteric obstruction can cause anuria, while bilateral pyelonephritis can cause sepsis and leukocytes and nitrites in the urine. Medullary sponge kidney, a congenital disorder that causes cystic dilation of the collecting ducts in one or both kidneys, may present with haematuria or nephrocalcinosis but does not affect renal function. Bilateral renal artery stenosis can cause uncontrollable hypertension and reduced renal function but not pain. Therefore, a thorough evaluation is necessary to determine the underlying cause of the patient’s symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 43-year-old man is suspected of having a renal calculus. He has some investigations carried out by the general practitioner to monitor the effects of his medication. The following results are obtained:
Plasma
Na+ 138 mmol/l (135–145 mmol/l)
K+ 3.1 mmol/l (3.5–5 mmol/l)
24-hour urine sample:
Ca2+ 40 mg/day (100–300 mg/day)
Given the results above, which one of the following is the patient most likely taking?Your Answer: Furosemide
Correct Answer: Bendroflumethiazide
Explanation:Overview of Different Types of Diuretics and Their Effects on Electrolytes and Renal Calculi Formation
Diuretics are medications that increase urine output and are commonly used to treat conditions such as hypertension and edema. However, different types of diuretics have varying effects on electrolyte balance and renal calculi formation.
Thiazide diuretics, such as bendroflumethiazide, work in the distal tubule of the nephron and result in sodium and potassium loss in urine, with calcium resorption. This makes them useful in controlling chronic renal calculi formation. However, they can also cause hypokalemia and hypercalcemia.
Loop diuretics, such as furosemide, work in the thick ascending limb of the loop of Henle and result in sodium, potassium, and calcium loss in urine. This can increase the risk of renal calculi formation.
Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors, such as acetazolamide, work in the proximal convoluted tubule and produce alkaline urine rich in bicarbonate. Continued use can lead to metabolic acidosis and an increased risk of renal calculi formation.
Aldosterone antagonists, such as spironolactone, work in the distal part of the distal tubule and collecting tubules and inhibit aldosterone-mediated sodium absorption and potassium excretion. This can result in hyperkalemia.
Mannitol, a osmotic diuretic, may cause hyponatremia but does not usually affect plasma potassium or urinary calcium excretion.
Overall, understanding the different types of diuretics and their effects on electrolyte balance and renal calculi formation is important in selecting the appropriate medication for a patient’s specific needs.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old man presents to the general practitioner (GP) with hypertension which fails to fall into the normal range after three successive measurements at the practice nurse. These were 155/92 mmHg, 158/96 mmHg and 154/94 mmHg. He has a past history of some urinary tract infections as a child. The GP arranges some routine blood tests.
Investigations:
Investigation Result Normal value
Haemoglobin 139 g/l 135–175 g/l
White cell count (WCC) 5.4 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
Platelets 201 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
Sodium (Na+) 139 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
Potassium (K+) 4.9 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
Creatinine 187 μmol/l 50–120 μmol/l
USS Left kidney 8.4 cm and appears scarred.
Right kidney 10.3 cm
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: IgA nephropathy
Correct Answer: Chronic reflux nephropathy
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis for a 25-Year-Old Man with Renal Issues
Upon reviewing the history and test results of a 25-year-old man with renal issues, several potential diagnoses can be considered. Chronic reflux nephropathy appears to be the most likely diagnosis, given the patient’s history of urinary tract infections as a child, ultrasound scan results, and elevated creatinine levels. Further testing, such as renal tract computed tomography and a voiding cystourethrogram, can confirm this diagnosis.
Essential hypertension, while a risk factor for reno-vascular disease, would not explain the patient’s creatinine rise or asymmetrical kidneys. Renal artery stenosis, while potentially causing a unilaterally reduced kidney size, is rare in young patients and does not fit with the patient’s history of urinary tract infections. White coat hypertension, which is a transient rise in blood pressure in a medical setting, would not explain the patient’s creatinine rise or reduced kidney size and scarring.
IgA nephropathy, which typically presents with haematuria following an upper respiratory or other infection, does not fit with the patient’s history of urinary tract infections or lack of haematuria. Therefore, chronic reflux nephropathy remains the most likely diagnosis for this patient.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal
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Question 5
Correct
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A 27-year-old woman presents to you with bilateral palpable flank masses and headaches. Her blood pressure is 170/100 mmHg and creatinine is 176.8 μmol/l. She has no past medical history of this, but her family history is significant for renal disease requiring transplant in her mother, brother and maternal grandmother.
On which chromosome would genetic analysis most likely find an abnormality?Your Answer: Chromosome 16
Explanation:This information provides a summary of genetic disorders associated with specific chromosomes and genes. For example, adult polycystic kidney disease is an autosomal dominant condition linked to mutations in the polycystin 1 (PKD1) gene on chromosome 16. This disease is characterized by the formation of multiple cysts in the kidneys, which can lead to renal failure and other symptoms such as hypertension, urinary tract infections, and liver and pancreatic cysts. Other important chromosome/disease pairs include BRCA2 on chromosome 13, which is associated with breast/ovarian/prostate cancers and Fanconi anemia, and the VHL gene on chromosome 3, which is linked to von Hippel-Lindau syndrome, a condition characterized by benign and malignant tumor formation on various organs of the body. Additionally, mutations in the FXN gene on chromosome 9 can result in Friedreich’s ataxia, a degenerative condition involving the nervous system and the heart, while a deletion of 22q11 on chromosome 22 can cause di George syndrome, a condition present at birth associated with cognitive impairment, facial abnormalities, and cardiac defects.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 60-year-old man has been asked to visit his GP because of abnormal renal function tests for the past two months. His GFR reading has been consistently 35 ml/min. What stage of CKD is this patient exhibiting?
Your Answer: Stage 3b
Correct Answer: This patient does not meet the criteria for CKD
Explanation:Understanding Chronic Kidney Disease Stages
Chronic Kidney Disease (CKD) is a condition that affects the kidneys and their ability to filter waste from the blood. To diagnose CKD, a patient must have a GFR (glomerular filtration rate) of less than 60 ml/min for at least three months. This is the primary criteria for CKD diagnosis.
There are five stages of CKD, each with different GFR values and symptoms. Stage 1 CKD presents with a GFR greater than 90 ml/min and some signs of kidney damage. Stage 3a CKD presents with a GFR of 45-59 ml/min, while stage 3b CKD patients have a GFR of 30-44 ml/min. However, both stage 3a and 3b require the GFR to be present for at least three months.
There is no stage 4a CKD. Instead, stage 4 CKD patients have a GFR of 15-29 ml/min. It is important to understand the different stages of CKD to properly diagnose and treat patients with this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal
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Question 7
Correct
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A 55-year-old man with chronic kidney disease has recently received a renal transplant. After three months he starts to feel unwell with flu-like symptoms, fever, and pain over the transplant area.
What is the most likely type of reaction that has occurred in the patient?Your Answer: Acute graft failure
Explanation:Understanding Different Types of Graft Failure After Transplantation
Acute graft failure is a type of graft failure that occurs within six months after transplantation. If a patient presents with symptoms such as fever, flu-like symptoms, and pain over the transplant after three months, it may indicate acute graft failure. This type of failure is usually caused by mismatched human leukocyte antigen and may be reversible with steroids and immunosuppressants.
Wound infection is not a likely cause of symptoms after three months since any wounds from the transplant would have healed by then. Chronic graft failure, on the other hand, occurs after six months to a year following the transplant and is caused by a combination of B- and T-cell-mediated immunity, infection, and previous occurrences of acute graft rejections.
Hyperacute rejection is a rare type of graft failure that occurs within minutes to hours after transplantation. It happens because of pre-existing antibodies towards the donor before transplantation. In cases of hyperacute rejection, removal of the organ and re-transplantation is necessary.
It is important to understand the different types of graft failure after transplantation to properly diagnose and treat patients who may be experiencing symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old retired bus driver presents to the Emergency Department with end-stage renal disease due to diabetic nephropathy. What is the most probable histological finding on kidney biopsy for this patient?
Your Answer: Mesangial amyloid deposits
Correct Answer: Kimmelstiel–Wilson nodules
Explanation:Renal Biopsy Findings in Diabetic Nephropathy and Other Renal Diseases
Diabetic nephropathy is a progressive kidney disease that damages the glomerular filtration barrier, leading to proteinuria. Renal biopsy is a diagnostic test that can reveal various findings associated with different renal diseases.
Kimmelstiel–Wilson nodules are a hallmark of diabetic nephropathy, which are nodules of hyaline material that accumulate in the glomerulus. In contrast, immune complex deposition is commonly found in crescentic glomerulonephritis, anti-GBM disease, lupus, and IgA/post-infectious GN.
Rouleaux formation, the abnormal stacking of red blood cells, is not associated with diabetic nephropathy but can cause diabetic retinopathy. Clear cells, a classification of renal cell carcinoma, are not a finding associated with diabetic nephropathy either.
Finally, mesangial amyloid deposits are not associated with diabetic nephropathy but may be found in the mesangium, glomerular capillary walls, interstitium, or renal vessels in amyloidosis. Renal biopsy is a valuable tool in diagnosing and managing various renal diseases, including diabetic nephropathy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old computer programmer presented with blood in the urine. It was painless and not associated with any obstructive feature. On examination, his blood pressure was found to be 166/90 mmHg, although his earlier medical check-up 1 year ago was normal. His only past history was nephrotic syndrome 6 years ago, which was diagnosed histologically as minimal change disease and treated successfully. Urine examination revealed blood only with a trace of protein. He is not currently taking any drugs.
What is the probable diagnosis?Your Answer: None of the above
Correct Answer: Renal arteriovenous (AV) fistula
Explanation:Possible Causes of Hypertension and Haematuria in a Patient with a History of Nephrotic Syndrome
Renal arteriovenous (AV) fistula is a possible cause of hypertension and haematuria in a patient with a history of nephrotic syndrome. This condition may develop after renal biopsy or trauma, which are risk factors for the formation of renal AVMs. Acquired causes account for 70-80% of renal AVMs, and up to 15% of patients who undergo renal biopsy may develop renal fistulae. However, most patients remain asymptomatic. Hypertension in renal AVM is caused by relative renal hypoperfusion distal to the malformation, which activates the renin-angiotensin system. Pre-existing kidney disease is a risk factor for the development of AVM after biopsy. Renal AVMs may produce bruits in the flanks and vermiform blood clots in the urine. Sudden pain in a patient with renal AVM may be due to intrarenal haemorrhage or blood clot obstruction of the ureters. Renal vein thrombosis is unlikely in a patient in remission from nephrotic syndrome. Renal stones are not a likely cause of painless haematuria in this patient. Bladder carcinoma is not a likely cause of hypertension in a young patient without relevant environmental risk factors. Therefore, an AV fistula formation after biopsy is the most likely diagnosis.
Possible Causes of Hypertension and Haematuria in a Patient with a History of Nephrotic Syndrome
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal
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Question 10
Correct
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A 40-year-old piano teacher presented to the Emergency Department with an acute kidney injury (AKI) and was referred to the renal team for urgent haemodialysis. Which of the following is not a reason for immediate dialysis?
Your Answer: Alkalosis
Explanation:Indications for Urgent Dialysis in Renal Failure Patients
Dialysis is a life-saving treatment for patients with renal failure. Urgent dialysis is required in certain situations to prevent serious complications. Acidosis, not alkalosis, is an urgent indication for dialysis. Pulmonary edema caused by furosemide-resistant fluid overload is another indication for urgent dialysis. Severe hyperkalemia, with potassium levels greater than 6.5 mmol/l or less if electrocardiographic changes are apparent, is also an indication for dialysis. Severe uraemia, with symptoms such as vomiting, encephalopathy, and urea levels greater than 60 mmol/l, requires urgent dialysis. Uraemic pericarditis is another indication for urgent dialysis. It is important to recognize these indications and initiate dialysis promptly to prevent further complications and improve patient outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal
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