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  • Question 1 - A 60-year-old man has been asked to visit his GP because of abnormal...

    Correct

    • A 60-year-old man has been asked to visit his GP because of abnormal renal function tests for the past two months. His GFR reading has been consistently 35 ml/min. What stage of CKD is this patient exhibiting?

      Your Answer: This patient does not meet the criteria for CKD

      Explanation:

      Understanding Chronic Kidney Disease Stages

      Chronic Kidney Disease (CKD) is a condition that affects the kidneys and their ability to filter waste from the blood. To diagnose CKD, a patient must have a GFR (glomerular filtration rate) of less than 60 ml/min for at least three months. This is the primary criteria for CKD diagnosis.

      There are five stages of CKD, each with different GFR values and symptoms. Stage 1 CKD presents with a GFR greater than 90 ml/min and some signs of kidney damage. Stage 3a CKD presents with a GFR of 45-59 ml/min, while stage 3b CKD patients have a GFR of 30-44 ml/min. However, both stage 3a and 3b require the GFR to be present for at least three months.

      There is no stage 4a CKD. Instead, stage 4 CKD patients have a GFR of 15-29 ml/min. It is important to understand the different stages of CKD to properly diagnose and treat patients with this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal
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  • Question 2 - A 4-year-old child is brought to their General Practitioner (GP) with failure to...

    Correct

    • A 4-year-old child is brought to their General Practitioner (GP) with failure to thrive. His parents complain that he drinks a lot of water and urinates frequently and is not growing very well. The GP does blood and urine tests and diagnoses Fanconi syndrome.
      Which of the following features would you most likely see in Fanconi syndrome?

      Your Answer: Hypokalaemia

      Explanation:

      Understanding Fanconi Syndrome: Symptoms and Causes

      Fanconi syndrome is a condition that affects the function of the proximal convoluted tubule (PCT) in the kidneys, leading to a general impairment of reabsorption of amino acids, potassium, bicarbonate, phosphate, and glucose. This can be caused by various factors, including inherited disorders, acquired tubule damage, or idiopathic reasons. Common symptoms of Fanconi syndrome include polyuria, hypophosphatemia, acidosis, and hypokalemia. It is important to note that patients with Fanconi syndrome may experience oliguria due to the lack of reabsorption of solutes, leading to water loss. Contrary to popular belief, patients with Fanconi syndrome may experience acidosis rather than alkalosis due to the lack of reabsorption of bicarbonate in the PCT. Additionally, hypophosphatemia, rather than hyperphosphatemia, is seen in patients with Fanconi syndrome, as the impaired reabsorption of phosphate through the proximal tubules is a common feature. Finally, patients with Fanconi syndrome tend to present with hypokalemia rather than hyperkalemia due to the impaired reabsorption and increased secretion of potassium caused by the disturbance of the PCT.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal
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  • Question 3 - A 32-year-old computer programmer presented with blood in the urine. It was painless...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old computer programmer presented with blood in the urine. It was painless and not associated with any obstructive feature. On examination, his blood pressure was found to be 166/90 mmHg, although his earlier medical check-up 1 year ago was normal. His only past history was nephrotic syndrome 6 years ago, which was diagnosed histologically as minimal change disease and treated successfully. Urine examination revealed blood only with a trace of protein. He is not currently taking any drugs.
      What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Renal arteriovenous (AV) fistula

      Explanation:

      Possible Causes of Hypertension and Haematuria in a Patient with a History of Nephrotic Syndrome

      Renal arteriovenous (AV) fistula is a possible cause of hypertension and haematuria in a patient with a history of nephrotic syndrome. This condition may develop after renal biopsy or trauma, which are risk factors for the formation of renal AVMs. Acquired causes account for 70-80% of renal AVMs, and up to 15% of patients who undergo renal biopsy may develop renal fistulae. However, most patients remain asymptomatic. Hypertension in renal AVM is caused by relative renal hypoperfusion distal to the malformation, which activates the renin-angiotensin system. Pre-existing kidney disease is a risk factor for the development of AVM after biopsy. Renal AVMs may produce bruits in the flanks and vermiform blood clots in the urine. Sudden pain in a patient with renal AVM may be due to intrarenal haemorrhage or blood clot obstruction of the ureters. Renal vein thrombosis is unlikely in a patient in remission from nephrotic syndrome. Renal stones are not a likely cause of painless haematuria in this patient. Bladder carcinoma is not a likely cause of hypertension in a young patient without relevant environmental risk factors. Therefore, an AV fistula formation after biopsy is the most likely diagnosis.

      Possible Causes of Hypertension and Haematuria in a Patient with a History of Nephrotic Syndrome

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      • Renal
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  • Question 4 - A 69-year-old man, with CCF is admitted with SOB and a productive cough....

    Correct

    • A 69-year-old man, with CCF is admitted with SOB and a productive cough. Clinical findings, and a chest X-ray suggest a diagnosis of both pulmonary oedema and pneumonia. He is put on high flow oxygen and treated with furosemide, GTN spray and morphine, and started on antibiotics.
      His breathlessness improves, and a repeat chest X-ray shows decreased pulmonary oedema. An ABG shows the following:
      pH: 7.01 (normal 7.35–7.45)
      p(CO2): 8 kPa (normal 4.5–6.0 kPa)
      p(O2): 11 kPa (normal 10–14 kPa)
      HCO3–: 18 mmol (normal 24–30 mmol/l)
      base excess: 1.2 mmol/l (normal −2 to +2.0 mmol/l)
      sodium: 142 mmol/l (normal 135–145 mmol/l)
      potassium: 5.9 mmol/l (normal 3.5–5.0 mmol/l)
      glucose: 7.5 mmol/l (normal 5–5.5 mmol/l)
      lactate: 3.1 mmol/l (normal 2.2–5 mmol/l).
      Based on the patient, which of the following does he have that is an indication for acute dialysis?

      Your Answer: Metabolic acidosis

      Explanation:

      Indications for Acute Dialysis: Assessing the Patient’s Condition

      When considering whether a patient requires acute dialysis, several factors must be taken into account. Severe metabolic acidosis with a pH below 7.2 is a clear indication for dialysis. Similarly, severe refractory hyperkalaemia with levels above 7 mmol/l may require dialysis, although standard measures to correct potassium levels should be attempted first. However, if the patient’s potassium levels are only mildly elevated, dialysis may not be necessary.

      A raised lactate level is not an indication for acute dialysis. Refractory pulmonary oedema, which has not responded to initial treatment with diuretics, may require dialysis. However, if the patient’s pulmonary oedema has responded to treatment, dialysis may not be necessary.

      In summary, the decision to initiate acute dialysis depends on a careful assessment of the patient’s condition, taking into account factors such as metabolic acidosis, hyperkalaemia, lactate levels, and pulmonary oedema.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal
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  • Question 5 - A 35-year-old woman presents with an incidental finding of a blood pressure of...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman presents with an incidental finding of a blood pressure of 180/130 mmHg on three separate occasions. Her cardiovascular examination is unremarkable, but further investigation reveals a significantly smaller left kidney with a 'string of beads' appearance in the left renal artery. What is the most appropriate management option for this patient?

      Your Answer: Kidney transplantation

      Correct Answer: Balloon angioplasty

      Explanation:

      Management of Renal Artery Stenosis: Fibromuscular Dysplasia

      Fibromuscular dysplasia is a rare cause of renal artery stenosis, typically affecting young women and presenting with hypertension. The characteristic ‘string of beads’ appearance on CT imaging helps in diagnosis. While atherosclerotic disease is the most common cause of renal artery stenosis, a combination of antihypertensive therapy and renal artery balloon angioplasty is curative for fibromuscular dysplasia. Kidney transplantation is not usually required, but it is important to recognize the condition in donors to prevent complications in recipients. Nephrectomy is not typically necessary, and surgical reconstruction is rarely recommended. Statins are not used in the management of fibromuscular dysplasia, but may be used in atherosclerotic renal artery stenosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal
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  • Question 6 - A 52-year-old man with an acute kidney injury has developed fluid overload and...

    Correct

    • A 52-year-old man with an acute kidney injury has developed fluid overload and treatment has been initiated. An ABCDE assessment is performed, and the findings are below:
      Airway Patent, speaking but confused in conversation
      Breathing Respiratory rate (RR) 24/min, SaO2 96% on 4 litres of O2/min, bibasal crackles heard on auscultation in the lower zones (up to mid-zones on admission)
      Circulation Heart rate (HR) 112 bpm, blood pressure (BP) 107/68 mmHg, heart sounds disturbed by a friction rub, ECG shows sinus tachycardia
      Disability Pupils equal and reactive to light, normal upper and lower limb neurology, Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) 14 (E4 V4 M6)
      Exposure Temperature 36.8°C
      On initial bloods, the C-reactive protein (CRP) is within normal limits.
      The results of initial arterial blood gas and serum urea and electrolytes are shown below:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      pH 7.28 7.35–7.45
      pO2 10.7 kPa > 11 kPa
      pCO2 5.7 kPa 4.5–6.0 kPa
      Bicarbonate 20 mmol/l 22–26 mmol/l
      Lactate 1.8 mmol/l < 2 mmol/l
      Urea 53 mmol/l 2.5–7.8 mmol/l
      Creatinine 729 µmol/l 50–120 µmol/l
      Which one of the following is an indication for urgent dialysis in this patient?

      Your Answer: Urea of 53 mmol/l

      Explanation:

      A raised urea level of 53 mmol/l, along with an audible friction rub on heart auscultation and reduced Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS), suggests uraemic pericarditis and uraemic encephalopathy respectively. Urgent dialysis is necessary if symptoms or complications occur due to uraemia. Hyperkalaemia with a K+ level >6.5, refractory to medical therapies, or associated with ECG changes, requires urgent dialysis. Life-threatening hyperkalaemia should be treated with medical therapies such as calcium gluconate, insulin-dextrose, and salbutamol. Metabolic acidaemia with a pH <7.1, refractory to medical therapies, is an indication for dialysis. Creatinine levels do not indicate when dialysis is required. Bibasal crackles may represent pulmonary oedema due to fluid overload, but if they respond to medical treatment, urgent dialysis is not necessary. However, if they are refractory to medical therapy, dialysis may be warranted.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal
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  • Question 7 - A 7-year-old girl presents with haematuria, hearing loss, and poor eyesight caused by...

    Correct

    • A 7-year-old girl presents with haematuria, hearing loss, and poor eyesight caused by lens dislocation. After conducting additional tests, the diagnosis of Alport syndrome is made. What type of collagen is typically affected by a molecular defect in this disease?

      Your Answer: Type IV

      Explanation:

      Types and Effects of Collagen Defects on Human Health

      Collagen is an essential protein that provides structural support to various tissues in the human body. Defects in different types of collagen can lead to various health conditions. Type IV collagen is crucial for the integrity of the basement membrane, and mutations in its genes can cause Alport syndrome, resulting in haematuria, hearing loss, and visual disturbances. Type III collagen defects cause Ehlers–Danlos syndrome, characterized by joint hypermobility, severe bruising, and blood vessel defects. Type I collagen defects lead to osteogenesis imperfecta, characterized by brittle bones, abnormal teeth, and weak tendons. Kniest dysplasia is caused by defects in type II collagen, leading to short stature, poor joint mobility, and eventual blindness. Kindler syndrome is characterized by the absence of epidermal anchoring fibrils due to defects in type VII collagen, resulting in skin fragility. Understanding the effects of collagen defects on human health is crucial for diagnosis and treatment of these conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal
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  • Question 8 - A 76-year-old woman is admitted to the hospital feeling generally unwell. She has...

    Correct

    • A 76-year-old woman is admitted to the hospital feeling generally unwell. She has also developed a fever and diffuse erythematous rash over the last few days. Urinalysis is positive for blood and protein, and blood tests show raised eosinophils and creatinine. Her General Practitioner started her on a new medication two weeks ago, but she cannot remember the name or what it was for.
      Which of the following drugs would be safe to continue at present, given the suspected diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Prednisolone

      Explanation:

      Drug-Induced Acute Tubulointerstitial Nephritis: Common Culprits and Management Options

      Acute tubulointerstitial nephritis is a condition characterized by fever, rash, and abnormalities on urinalysis. It can be caused by various drugs, including non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs), beta-lactam antibiotics, allopurinol, and proton pump inhibitors (PPIs). In this case, the patient’s raised eosinophil count suggests drug-induced acute tubulointerstitial nephritis.

      Prednisolone, a steroid commonly used to manage this condition, is safe to continue. However, NSAIDs like diclofenac should be stopped as they can inhibit prostaglandins that maintain the glomerular filtration rate. Allopurinol may also need to be withdrawn to determine if it is contributing to the symptoms. Beta-lactam antibiotics like amoxicillin are another common cause and may need to be stopped. PPIs like omeprazole are a relatively rare but known trigger and should be withdrawn promptly. It is important to remember that steroids should not be suddenly stopped in most patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal
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  • Question 9 - A 28-year-old man presents with sudden onset severe pain in his right loin....

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old man presents with sudden onset severe pain in his right loin. The pain began 3 hours ago just below the right side of his rib cage and has gradually moved down to his right groin, radiating into his right testis. He denies any visible haematuria. He is unable to tolerate physical examination and is writhing around on his bed.
      What is the most appropriate initial management?

      Your Answer: Morphine po

      Correct Answer: Diclofenac im

      Explanation:

      The recommended pain relief for renal or ureteric colic is an im injection of diclofenac (75 mg), according to current NICE guidelines. If pain is severe, morphine can be used, but pethidine should be avoided due to its increased risk of vomiting. While paracetamol is appropriate for mild pain according to the WHO pain ladder, diclofenac has more evidence for relieving renal colic pains. Morphine is the top step on the WHO pain ladder, but its administration has several complications, including nausea and vomiting, constipation, confusion, and addiction. Diazepam could be the next step on the WHO pain ladder as a weak opioid, but morphine would be the next option if diclofenac failed to control pain.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal
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  • Question 10 - An 80-year-old woman with a history of cervical carcinoma has been brought to...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old woman with a history of cervical carcinoma has been brought to the Emergency Department in a confused and dehydrated state. Her blood tests reveal significant abnormalities, including a potassium level of 7.2 mmol/l (NR 3.5–4.9), creatinine level of 450 μmol/l (NR 60–110), and urea level of 31.2 mmol/l (NR 2.5–7.5). Upon retesting, her serum potassium remains elevated. What is the most appropriate initial management for this patient?

      Your Answer: Give 250 mg furosemide IV to reduce the potassium concentration

      Correct Answer: Arrange continuous ECG monitoring and consider giving 10 ml of 10% calcium gluconate intravenous (IV)

      Explanation:

      Managing Hyperkalaemia in a Patient with Renal Dysfunction

      Hyperkalaemia is a medical emergency that requires prompt management. Once confirmed via a repeat blood sample, continuous ECG monitoring is necessary. For cardioprotection, 10 ml of 10% calcium gluconate IV should be considered. Insulin can also be administered to drive potassium ions from the extracellular to the intracellular compartment. A third blood sample is not necessary and may delay treatment. An urgent ultrasound scan should be arranged to determine the underlying cause of renal dysfunction. Furosemide should be reserved until fluid balance assessment results are known. Renal replacement therapy may be considered as a final option, but prognosis should be assessed first. Nebulised salbutamol may also have positive effects in reducing serum potassium, but IV administration carries a significant risk of arrhythmia. Correction of severe acidosis may exacerbate fluid retention in patients with kidney disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal
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  • Question 11 - A 54-year-old woman with a long-standing history of poorly controlled type 2 diabetes...

    Correct

    • A 54-year-old woman with a long-standing history of poorly controlled type 2 diabetes mellitus presents to clinic complaining of swelling in her ankles, face and fingers. She states she can no longer wear her wedding ring because her fingers are too swollen. On examination, her blood pressure is 150/90 mmHg; she has pitting oedema in her ankles and notably swollen fingers and face. Her blood results show:
      Investigation Results Normal value
      Creatinine 353.6 μmol/l 50–120 μmol/l
      Potassium (K+) 4.1 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
      Phosphate 1.9 mmol/l 0.70–1.40 mmol/l
      Parathyroid hormone (PTH) Elevated
      Urinalysis 3+ glucose, 3+ protein
      Which of the following is the most likely mechanism of this woman's increased PTH?

      Your Answer: Decreased glomerular filtration rate (GFR)

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Causes of Secondary Hyperparathyroidism

      Secondary hyperparathyroidism is a condition that occurs when the parathyroid glands produce too much parathyroid hormone (PTH) in response to low calcium levels in the blood. This can be caused by a variety of factors, including chronic renal failure, vitamin D excess, and the use of certain medications like diuretics.

      In cases of chronic renal failure, decreased glomerular filtration rate (GFR) can lead to raised creatinine levels and proteinuria. This can cause diabetic nephropathy, which can result in hyperphosphataemia and secondary hyperparathyroidism. Over time, this can also lead to osteoporosis as a long-term complication of hyperparathyroidism.

      Vitamin D excess is another cause of secondary hyperparathyroidism, but it is associated with low phosphate levels rather than hyperphosphataemia. In cases of parathyroid adenoma, a less likely cause in this patient, there is an overproduction of PTH by a benign tumor in the parathyroid gland.

      Finally, the use of diuretics can increase phosphate excretion, leading to hypophosphataemia. This can also contribute to the development of secondary hyperparathyroidism.

      Understanding the various causes of secondary hyperparathyroidism is important for proper diagnosis and treatment. By addressing the underlying condition, it may be possible to reduce the production of PTH and prevent further complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal
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  • Question 12 - A 59-year-old man has been undergoing regular haemodialysis for the past 6 years....

    Correct

    • A 59-year-old man has been undergoing regular haemodialysis for the past 6 years. He previously had an AV fistula in his left arm, but it became infected 4 years ago and was no longer functional. Currently, he is receiving dialysis through an AV fistula in his right forearm. He presents with pain in his right hand and wrist. Upon examination, there is redness and a necrotic ulcer on his right middle finger. His right hand strength is normal. He is not experiencing any constitutional symptoms and is not taking any medications. He had undergone uncomplicated dialysis the day before. What is the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Distal hypoperfusion ischaemic syndrome (DHIS)

      Explanation:

      Possible Complications of AV Fistula in Dialysis Patients

      AV fistula is a common vascular access for patients undergoing dialysis. However, it can lead to various complications, including distal hypoperfusion ischaemic syndrome (DHIS). DHIS, also known as steal syndrome, occurs when blood flow is shunted through the fistula, causing distal ischaemia, which can result in ulcers and necrosis. Surgical revision or banding of the fistula may be necessary in severe cases. Older patients with atherosclerotic arteries are more prone to DHIS. Other possible complications include unrelated local pathology, infected AV fistula, infective endocarditis, and thrombosis with distal embolisation. It is important to identify and manage these complications promptly to prevent further harm to the patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal
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  • Question 13 - A 12-year-old male patient is referred to the renal physicians after several episodes...

    Incorrect

    • A 12-year-old male patient is referred to the renal physicians after several episodes of frank haematuria. He does not recall any abdominal or loin pain. He had an upper respiratory tract infection a few days ago. Urine dipstick shows blood, and blood tests are normal.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis

      Correct Answer: IgA nephropathy

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Glomerulonephritis and Other Possible Causes of Haematuria in a Young Patient

      Haematuria in a young patient can be caused by various conditions, including glomerulonephritis, post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis, minimal change disease, sexually transmitted infections, and bladder cancer. IgA nephropathy, also known as Berger’s Disease, is the most common glomerulonephritis in the developed world and commonly affects young men. It presents with macroscopic haematuria a few days after a viral upper respiratory tract infection. A renal biopsy will show IgA deposits in the mesangium, and treatment is with steroids or cyclophosphamide if renal function is deteriorating.

      Post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis, on the other hand, presents in young children usually one to two weeks post-streptococcal infection with smoky urine and general malaise. Proteinuria is also expected in a glomerulonephritis. Minimal change disease is the most common cause of nephrotic syndrome in children and is associated with an upper respiratory tract infection. However, nephrotic syndrome involves proteinuria, which this patient does not have.

      It is also important to exclude sexually transmitted infections, as many are asymptomatic, but signs of infection and inflammation would likely show up on urine dipstick. Bladder cancer is unlikely in such a young patient devoid of other symptoms. Therefore, a thorough evaluation and proper diagnosis are necessary to determine the underlying cause of haematuria in a young patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal
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  • Question 14 - A 49-year-old man, with known polycystic kidney disease (PKD), presents with acute-onset fever,...

    Incorrect

    • A 49-year-old man, with known polycystic kidney disease (PKD), presents with acute-onset fever, left mid-back pain and occasional chills. He has no dysuria or haematuria. The left renal angle is tender. The white cell count is 27.8 × 109/l, with 92% of neutrophils (54–62%). What is the most appropriate diagnostic tool to confirm the suspected diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Ultrasonography of the kidneys

      Correct Answer: Blood culture

      Explanation:

      Diagnosing and Treating Infection in Kidney Cysts: Medical Tests and Procedures

      Infection in kidney cysts is a common complication in patients with polycystic kidney disease (PKD). However, diagnosing and treating this condition can be challenging. Here are some medical tests and procedures that are commonly used to diagnose and treat infection in kidney cysts.

      Blood Culture
      Blood cultures are more reliable than urine cultures in detecting infection in kidney cysts. Gram-negative bacteria are the most common cause of infection in these cases. Antibiotics such as fluoroquinolones, co-trimoxazole, or chloramphenicol are often used to treat the infection. Treatment may last for 4-6 weeks, and surgical drainage may be necessary in some cases.

      Computed Tomography (CT) Scan of the Abdomen
      CT scans can detect internal echoes in one or more cysts, but they cannot differentiate between infection and hemorrhage. Therefore, CT scans alone cannot confirm an infection.

      Urine Culture
      Urine cultures may be unreliable in detecting infection in kidney cysts because cysts often have no communication with the collecting system.

      Ultrasonography of the Kidneys
      Ultrasonography can detect internal echoes within a cyst, but it cannot differentiate between infection and hemorrhage.

      Scintiscan of the Kidneys
      Scintiscans are not used to diagnose infected cysts.

      In conclusion, diagnosing and treating infection in kidney cysts can be challenging. Blood cultures are the most reliable test for detecting infection, and antibiotics such as fluoroquinolones, co-trimoxazole, or chloramphenicol are often used to treat the infection. CT scans and ultrasonography can detect internal echoes in cysts, but they cannot differentiate between infection and hemorrhage.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal
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  • Question 15 - A 67-year-old retired bus driver presents to the Emergency Department with end-stage renal...

    Correct

    • A 67-year-old retired bus driver presents to the Emergency Department with end-stage renal disease due to diabetic nephropathy. What is the most probable histological finding on kidney biopsy for this patient?

      Your Answer: Kimmelstiel–Wilson nodules

      Explanation:

      Renal Biopsy Findings in Diabetic Nephropathy and Other Renal Diseases

      Diabetic nephropathy is a progressive kidney disease that damages the glomerular filtration barrier, leading to proteinuria. Renal biopsy is a diagnostic test that can reveal various findings associated with different renal diseases.

      Kimmelstiel–Wilson nodules are a hallmark of diabetic nephropathy, which are nodules of hyaline material that accumulate in the glomerulus. In contrast, immune complex deposition is commonly found in crescentic glomerulonephritis, anti-GBM disease, lupus, and IgA/post-infectious GN.

      Rouleaux formation, the abnormal stacking of red blood cells, is not associated with diabetic nephropathy but can cause diabetic retinopathy. Clear cells, a classification of renal cell carcinoma, are not a finding associated with diabetic nephropathy either.

      Finally, mesangial amyloid deposits are not associated with diabetic nephropathy but may be found in the mesangium, glomerular capillary walls, interstitium, or renal vessels in amyloidosis. Renal biopsy is a valuable tool in diagnosing and managing various renal diseases, including diabetic nephropathy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal
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  • Question 16 - A 72-year-old man comes to the Emergency Department with haematuria and haemoptysis. His...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old man comes to the Emergency Department with haematuria and haemoptysis. His vital signs are heart rate 88 bpm, blood pressure 170/110 mmHg, respiratory rate 22 breaths per minute, and temperature 37.8 °C. Urinalysis shows protein and red cell casts. Serum testing reveals antibodies to the glomerular basement membrane. A renal biopsy is conducted.
      What is the probable finding in the renal biopsy?

      Your Answer: Splitting of the basement membrane

      Correct Answer: Linear immunofluorescence

      Explanation:

      Different Renal Pathologies and their Histological Features

      Nephritic syndrome is a condition characterized by proteinuria, haematuria, and hypertension. Anti-glomerular basement membrane antibodies suggest hypersensitivity angiitis (Goodpasture’s syndrome) as the underlying cause. In hypersensitivity angiitis, crescents are seen on light microscopy of a renal biopsy specimen. Immunofluorescence shows linear IgG deposits along the basement membrane.

      Diffuse membranous glomerulonephritis is characterized by ‘wire looping’ of capillaries. Hereditary nephritis (Alport syndrome) shows splitting of the basement membrane and is associated with deafness. Acute post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis, typically seen in children, shows a ‘lumpy bumpy’ appearance of the glomeruli. Immunoglobulin A (IgA) nephropathy is characterized by immune complex deposition in the basement membrane.

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      • Renal
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  • Question 17 - A 45-year-old writer presents to his routine follow up at the Nephrology Clinic...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old writer presents to his routine follow up at the Nephrology Clinic complaining of numbness and tingling sensation of his right fingers. This worsens when he types for more than an hour and slightly improves when he stops typing. He suffers from diabetes mellitus and end-stage kidney disease and has been on regular haemodialysis via brachiocephalic fistula on his right antecubital fossa. On examination, his right radial artery is palpable and he has reduced sensation in all his right fingers, predominantly affecting the fingertips. The numbness does not worsen with tapping over the wrist nor with forced flexion of his wrists. His capillary refill time over his right fingers is prolonged to three seconds.
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Fistula steal syndrome

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for Numbness in a Patient with Arteriovenous Fistula

      Fistula Steal Syndrome, Carpal Tunnel Syndrome, and Diabetic Neuropathy are Possible Causes of Numbness in a Patient with Arteriovenous Fistula

      Arteriovenous fistula is a common procedure for patients undergoing hemodialysis. However, up to 20% of patients may develop complications such as fistula steal syndrome, which occurs when the segment of artery distal to the fistula is narrowed, leading to reduced arterial blood flow to the limb extremities. This can cause numbness and worsening of symptoms on usage of the hands.

      Other possible causes of numbness in this patient include carpal tunnel syndrome, which is a common complication among patients on long-term renal replacement therapy due to protein deposition in the carpal tunnel, and diabetic neuropathy, which is a common complication of chronic diabetes mellitus. However, the loss of sensation in peripheral neuropathy in diabetic patients is symmetrical in nature, commonly following a glove and stocking pattern.

      Radial nerve palsy and ulnar styloid fracture are less likely causes of numbness in this patient, as they typically present with muscle weakness and a history of trauma, respectively. A thorough differential diagnosis is necessary to determine the underlying cause of numbness in patients with arteriovenous fistula.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal
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  • Question 18 - A 16-year-old adolescent presents to the clinic with gross haematuria. He is currently...

    Correct

    • A 16-year-old adolescent presents to the clinic with gross haematuria. He is currently suffering from a sinus infection. Apparently he had a previous episode of haematuria some 2 years earlier which was put down by the general practitioner to a urinary tract infection. Examination of notes from a previous Casualty attendance after a football game revealed microscopic haematuria on urine testing. On examination, his blood pressure is 130/70 mmHg. Physical examination is unremarkable.
      Investigations:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Haemoglobin 133 g/l 135–175 g/l
      White cell count (WCC) 8.2 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
      Platelets 240 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
      Sodium (Na+) 141 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
      Potassium (K+) 4.8 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
      Creatinine 110 μmol/l 50–120 µmol/l
      Urine Blood ++, protein +
      C3 Normal
      Serum IgA Slight increase
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: IgA nephropathy

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for Haematuria: A Case Study

      Haematuria, or blood in the urine, can be a concerning symptom for patients. In this case study, a patient presents with haematuria and a recent history of respiratory tract infection. The following differential diagnoses are considered:

      1. IgA nephropathy: This is the most common primary glomerulonephritis in adults and is often associated with a recent respiratory tract infection. Despite haematuria, renal function is usually preserved.

      2. Post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis: This diagnosis typically presents 2-4 weeks after a respiratory or skin infection. As the patient is still experiencing respiratory symptoms, this diagnosis is less likely.

      3. Lupus nephritis: This is a serious diagnosis that presents with haematuria, oedema, joint pain, and high blood pressure. As the patient does not exhibit these additional symptoms, this diagnosis is unlikely.

      4. Henoch-Schönlein purpura: This diagnosis is characterized by a rash, which the patient does not exhibit, making it less likely.

      5. Alport syndrome: This is a genetic condition that presents with kidney disease, hearing loss, and eye abnormalities.

      In conclusion, the patient’s recent respiratory tract infection and preserved renal function suggest IgA nephropathy as the most likely diagnosis. However, further testing and evaluation may be necessary to confirm the diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal
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  • Question 19 - A 63-year-old man presented with fever, body ache and pedal oedema for three...

    Incorrect

    • A 63-year-old man presented with fever, body ache and pedal oedema for three months. He was taking oral diclofenac frequently for the aches. He had no other drug history and had not travelled recently.
      On examination, there was sternal tenderness. His blood report revealed:
      Investigation Result Normal range
      Haemoglobin 76 g/l 135–175 g/l
      White cell count (WCC) 9 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
      Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) 134 mm/hr 0–10mm in the 1st hour
      Platelets 280 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
      Urea 13 mmol/l 2.5–6.0 mmol/l
      Calcium 2.8 mmol/l 2.2–2.6 mmol/l
      What is the most likely cause of renal failure in this case?

      Your Answer: Use of non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs)

      Correct Answer: Light chain deposition

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Causes of Renal Failure in Multiple Myeloma

      Multiple myeloma is a rare but possible diagnosis in young adults, with a higher incidence in black populations and men. Renal failure is a common complication of this disease, with various possible causes. While NSAID use, hypercalcaemia, hyperuricaemia, and infiltration of the kidney by myeloma cells are all potential factors, the most common cause of renal failure in multiple myeloma is light chain deposition. This can lead to tubular toxicity and subsequent renal damage. Therefore, understanding the underlying causes of renal failure in multiple myeloma is crucial for effective management and treatment of this disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal
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  • Question 20 - A 68-year-old woman was admitted to hospital seven days ago with moderate symptoms...

    Correct

    • A 68-year-old woman was admitted to hospital seven days ago with moderate symptoms of community-acquired pneumonia and was treated with amoxicillin. She has developed a fever, maculopapular skin rash and haematuria over the last two days. You suspect that her new symptoms may be due to acute tubulointerstitial nephritis caused by a reaction to the amoxicillin she was given.
      Which of the following investigations would provide a definitive diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Kidney biopsy

      Explanation:

      Investigations for Tubulointerstitial Nephritis

      Tubulointerstitial nephritis is a condition that affects the kidneys and can lead to renal failure if left untreated. There are several investigations that can be done to help diagnose this condition.

      Kidney Biopsy: This is the most definitive investigation for tubulointerstitial nephritis. It involves taking a small sample of kidney tissue for examination under a microscope. This is usually only done if other tests have been inconclusive or if the diagnosis is unclear.

      Full Blood Count: This test can help identify the presence of eosinophilia, which is often seen in cases of tubulointerstitial nephritis. However, the absence of eosinophilia does not rule out the condition.

      Kidney Ultrasound: This test can help rule out other conditions such as chronic renal failure, hydronephrosis, or renal calculi. In cases of tubulointerstitial nephritis, the kidneys may appear enlarged and echogenic due to inflammation.

      Serum Urea and Electrolytes: This test measures the levels of urea and creatinine in the blood, which can be elevated in cases of tubulointerstitial nephritis.

      Urinalysis: This test can detect the presence of low-grade proteinuria, white blood cell casts, and sterile pyuria, which are all indicative of tubulointerstitial nephritis. However, it is not a definitive diagnostic tool.

      In conclusion, a combination of these investigations can help diagnose tubulointerstitial nephritis and guide appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Renal (13/20) 65%
Passmed