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  • Question 1 - A 23-year-old woman visits her doctor with concerns about the effectiveness of the...

    Incorrect

    • A 23-year-old woman visits her doctor with concerns about the effectiveness of the combined oral contraceptive pill. She has done some research but is still unsure about the risk of unintended pregnancy if she were to start taking this form of birth control. Can you explain the failure rate of the combined oral contraceptive pill when used correctly, given its Pearl Index of 0.2?

      Your Answer: 0.2% of women using this form of contraception become pregnant

      Correct Answer: For every thousand women using this form of contraception for one year, two would become pregnant

      Explanation:

      The Pearl Index is frequently utilized to measure the effectiveness of a contraception method. It indicates the number of pregnancies that would occur if one hundred women used the contraceptive method for one year. Therefore, if the Pearl Index is 0.2 and the medication is used perfectly, we can expect to see 0.2 pregnancies for every hundred women using the pill for one year – or 2 for every thousand.

      Understanding Contraception: A Basic Overview

      Contraception has come a long way in the past 50 years, with the development of effective methods being one of the most significant advancements in medicine. There are various types of contraception available, including barrier methods, daily methods, and long-acting methods of reversible contraception (LARCs).

      Barrier methods, such as condoms, physically block sperm from reaching the egg. While they can help protect against sexually transmitted infections (STIs), their success rate is relatively low, particularly when used by young people.

      Daily methods include the combined oral contraceptive pill, which inhibits ovulation, and the progesterone-only pill, which thickens cervical mucous. However, the combined pill increases the risk of venous thromboembolism and breast and cervical cancer.

      LARCs include implantable contraceptives and injectable contraceptives, which both inhibit ovulation and thicken cervical mucous. The implantable contraceptive lasts for three years, while the injectable contraceptive lasts for 12 weeks. The intrauterine system (IUS) and intrauterine device (IUD) are also LARCs, with the IUS preventing endometrial proliferation and thickening cervical mucous, and the IUD decreasing sperm motility and survival.

      It is important to note that each method of contraception has its own set of benefits and risks, and it is essential to consult with a healthcare provider to determine the best option for individual needs and circumstances.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 2 - A 26-year-old female presents with a one day history of dysuria and urinary...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old female presents with a one day history of dysuria and urinary frequency. She was diagnosed with a simple urinary tract infection and prescribed a three day course of ciprofloxacin. She returns two weeks later with new onset vaginal discharge. A whiff test is negative and no clue cells are observed on microscopy.
      What is the most probable cause of her symptoms?

      Your Answer: The patients vaginal discharge is probably not caused by infection

      Correct Answer: The patients vaginal discharge is most likely caused by a fungal infection

      Explanation:

      Thrush, also known as candidal infection, is a prevalent condition that is often triggered or worsened by recent use of antibiotics. Therefore, it is the most probable reason for the symptoms in this case. It should be noted that urinary tract infections do not typically cause vaginal discharge.

      Vaginal candidiasis, also known as thrush, is a common condition that many women can diagnose and treat themselves. Candida albicans is responsible for about 80% of cases, while other candida species cause the remaining 20%. Although most women have no predisposing factors, certain factors such as diabetes mellitus, antibiotics, steroids, pregnancy, and HIV can increase the likelihood of developing vaginal candidiasis. Symptoms include non-offensive discharge resembling cottage cheese, vulvitis, itching, vulval erythema, fissuring, and satellite lesions. A high vaginal swab is not routinely indicated if the clinical features are consistent with candidiasis. Treatment options include local or oral therapy, with oral fluconazole 150 mg as a single dose being the first-line treatment according to NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries. If there are vulval symptoms, a topical imidazole may be added to an oral or intravaginal antifungal. Pregnant women should only use local treatments. Recurrent vaginal candidiasis is defined as four or more episodes per year by BASHH. Compliance with previous treatment should be checked, and a high vaginal swab for microscopy and culture should be performed to confirm the diagnosis. A blood glucose test may be necessary to exclude diabetes, and differential diagnoses such as lichen sclerosus should be ruled out. An induction-maintenance regime involving oral fluconazole may be considered. Induction involves taking oral fluconazole every three days for three doses, while maintenance involves taking oral fluconazole weekly for six months.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 3 - A young woman in her early twenties visits your GP clinic. She plans...

    Incorrect

    • A young woman in her early twenties visits your GP clinic. She plans to start trying for a baby in a year's time but wants to avoid pregnancy until then as she has important exams to take. She hopes to conceive soon after completing her exams. Which contraceptive method is known to cause a longer delay in the return to fertility?

      Your Answer: Intrauterine system

      Correct Answer: Depo-Provera

      Explanation:

      Condoms act as a barrier contraceptive and do not have any impact on ovulation, therefore they do not cause any delay in fertility. The intrauterine system (IUS) functions by thickening cervical mucous and may prevent ovulation in some women, but most women still ovulate. Once the IUS is removed, most women regain their fertility immediately.

      The combined oral contraceptive pill may postpone the return to a normal menstrual cycle in some women, but the majority of them can conceive within a month of discontinuing it. The progesterone-only pill is less likely to delay the return to a normal cycle as it does not contain oestrogen.

      Depo-Provera can last up to 12 weeks, and it may take several months for the body to return to a normal menstrual cycle, which can delay fertility. As a result, it is not the most suitable method for a woman who wants to resume ovulatory cycles immediately.

      Injectable Contraceptives: Depo Provera

      Injectable contraceptives are a popular form of birth control in the UK, with Depo Provera being the main option available. This contraceptive contains 150 mg of medroxyprogesterone acetate and is administered via intramuscular injection every 12 weeks. It can be given up to 14 weeks after the last dose without the need for extra precautions. The primary method of action is by inhibiting ovulation, while secondary effects include cervical mucous thickening and endometrial thinning.

      However, there are some disadvantages to using Depo Provera. Once the injection is given, it cannot be reversed, and there may be a delayed return to fertility of up to 12 months. Adverse effects may include irregular bleeding and weight gain, and there is a potential increased risk of osteoporosis. It should only be used in adolescents if no other method of contraception is suitable.

      It is important to note that there are contraindications to using Depo Provera, such as current breast cancer (UKMEC 4) or past breast cancer (UKMEC 3). While Noristerat is another injectable contraceptive licensed in the UK, it is rarely used in clinical practice and is given every 8 weeks. Overall, injectable contraceptives can be an effective form of birth control, but it is important to weigh the potential risks and benefits before deciding on this method.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 4 - A 42-year-old woman returns to her GP after attempting lifestyle modifications and pelvic...

    Correct

    • A 42-year-old woman returns to her GP after attempting lifestyle modifications and pelvic floor exercises for four months without success in managing her urinary stress incontinence. She expresses a desire for additional treatment options but prefers to avoid surgery. What is the next appropriate step in managing this patient?

      Your Answer: Prescription of duloxetine

      Explanation:

      If pelvic floor muscle exercises are ineffective and surgical intervention is not desired, duloxetine may be used to manage stress incontinence, as per NICE guidance from 2019. It should be noted that bladder retraining is not recommended for this type of incontinence, and oxybutynin is only indicated for urge incontinence if bladder retraining has failed. Referral for urodynamics testing is also not recommended, with urogynaecology being the preferred option for secondary care. Additionally, NICE does not recommend continuing pelvic floor exercises for an additional 3 months.

      Understanding Urinary Incontinence: Causes, Classification, and Management

      Urinary incontinence (UI) is a common condition that affects around 4-5% of the population, with elderly females being more susceptible. Several risk factors contribute to UI, including advancing age, previous pregnancy and childbirth, high body mass index, hysterectomy, and family history. UI can be classified into different types, such as overactive bladder (OAB)/urge incontinence, stress incontinence, mixed incontinence, overflow incontinence, and functional incontinence.

      Initial investigation of UI involves completing bladder diaries for at least three days, vaginal examination, urine dipstick and culture, and urodynamic studies. Management of UI depends on the predominant type of incontinence. For urge incontinence, bladder retraining and bladder stabilizing drugs such as antimuscarinics are recommended. For stress incontinence, pelvic floor muscle training and surgical procedures such as retropubic mid-urethral tape procedures may be offered. Duloxetine, a combined noradrenaline and serotonin reuptake inhibitor, may also be used as an alternative to surgery.

      In summary, understanding the causes, classification, and management of UI is crucial in providing appropriate care for patients. Early diagnosis and intervention can significantly improve the quality of life for those affected by this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 5 - A 27-year-old woman visits her doctor after missing her Micronor pill (progesterone-only) this...

    Correct

    • A 27-year-old woman visits her doctor after missing her Micronor pill (progesterone-only) this morning and is uncertain about what to do. She typically takes the pill at approximately 08:30, and it is currently 10:00. What guidance should be provided?

      Your Answer: Take missed pill now and no further action needed

      Explanation:

      progesterone Only Pill: What to Do When You Miss a Pill

      The progesterone only pill (POP) has simpler rules for missed pills compared to the combined oral contraceptive pill. It is important to note that the rules for the two types of pills should not be confused. The traditional POPs (Micronor, Noriday, Norgeston, Femulen) and Cerazette (desogestrel) have the following guidelines for missed pills:

      – If the pill is less than 3 hours late, no action is required, and you can continue taking the pill as normal.
      – If the pill is more than 3 hours late (i.e., more than 27 hours since the last pill was taken), action is needed.
      – If the pill is less than 12 hours late, no action is required, and you can continue taking the pill as normal.
      – If the pill is more than 12 hours late (i.e., more than 36 hours since the last pill was taken), action is needed.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 6 - A 25-year-old woman comes to your GP office on Monday morning, concerned that...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old woman comes to your GP office on Monday morning, concerned that she removed her week 2 contraceptive patch on Friday evening and was unable to get a replacement over the weekend. She has not engaged in sexual activity in the past two weeks.

      What is the best course of action to take?

      Your Answer: No emergency contraception required, but apply new patch and advise barrier contraception for the next 7 days

      Explanation:

      If there has been a delay in changing the patch for over 48 hours but no sexual activity has occurred within the past 10 days, emergency contraception is not necessary. However, the individual must use barrier contraception for the next 7 days and replace the patch immediately. If there is no sexual activity planned for the next 7 days, no further action is required, but it is important to advise the individual to use barrier contraception during this time. It is crucial to replace the patch as soon as possible to ensure effective contraceptive coverage.

      The Evra patch is the only contraceptive patch that is approved for use in the UK. The patch cycle lasts for four weeks, during which the patch is worn every day for the first three weeks and changed weekly. During the fourth week, the patch is not worn, and a withdrawal bleed occurs.

      If a woman delays changing the patch at the end of week one or two, she should change it immediately. If the delay is less than 48 hours, no further precautions are necessary. However, if the delay is more than 48 hours, she should change the patch immediately and use a barrier method of contraception for the next seven days. If she has had unprotected sex during this extended patch-free interval or in the last five days, emergency contraception should be considered.

      If the patch removal is delayed at the end of week three, the woman should remove the patch as soon as possible and apply a new patch on the usual cycle start day for the next cycle, even if withdrawal bleeding is occurring. No additional contraception is needed.

      If patch application is delayed at the end of a patch-free week, additional barrier contraception should be used for seven days following any delay at the start of a new patch cycle. For more information, please refer to the NICE Clinical Knowledge Summary on combined hormonal methods of contraception.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 7 - A 22-year-old woman comes in for her dating scan after discovering she was...

    Correct

    • A 22-year-old woman comes in for her dating scan after discovering she was pregnant 6 weeks ago through a urine pregnancy test. However, her ultrasound reveals that the pregnancy is ectopic and located in her left fallopian tube. The size of the pregnancy is 20mm, unruptured, and has no cardiac activity. The patient is not experiencing any symptoms such as bleeding, cramping, vomiting, or systemic symptoms, and her vitals are normal. Her blood test results show that her β-hCG levels have decreased from 940 IU/L at her booking appointment to 740 IU/L today. She has no significant medical history. What is the most appropriate management plan for this patient?

      Your Answer: Give safety netting advice and ask to return in 48 hours for serum β-hCG levels

      Explanation:

      Expectant management of an ectopic pregnancy is only suitable for an embryo that is unruptured, <35mm in size, has no heartbeat, is asymptomatic, and has a β-hCG level of <1,000 IU/L and declining. In this case, the woman has a small ectopic pregnancy without cardiac activity and a declining β-hCG level. Therefore, expectant management is appropriate, and the woman should be given safety netting advice and asked to return for a follow-up blood test in 48 hours. Admitting her for 12-hourly β-hCG monitoring is unnecessary, and performing a salpingectomy or salpingostomy is not indicated. Prescribing medical management is also inappropriate in this case. Ectopic pregnancy is a serious condition that requires prompt investigation and management. Women who are stable are typically investigated and managed in an early pregnancy assessment unit, while those who are unstable should be referred to the emergency department. The investigation of choice for ectopic pregnancy is a transvaginal ultrasound, which will confirm the presence of a positive pregnancy test. There are three ways to manage ectopic pregnancies: expectant management, medical management, and surgical management. The choice of management will depend on various criteria, such as the size of the ectopic pregnancy, whether it is ruptured or not, and the patient’s symptoms and hCG levels. Expectant management involves closely monitoring the patient over 48 hours, while medical management involves giving the patient methotrexate and requires follow-up. Surgical management can involve salpingectomy or salpingostomy, depending on the patient’s risk factors for infertility. Salpingectomy is the first-line treatment for women without other risk factors for infertility, while salpingostomy should be considered for women with contralateral tube damage. However, around 1 in 5 women who undergo a salpingostomy require further treatment, such as methotrexate and/or a salpingectomy. It is important to carefully consider the patient’s individual circumstances and make a decision that will provide the best possible outcome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 8 - A 68-year-old woman comes to the GP complaining of urinary incontinence. Upon further...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old woman comes to the GP complaining of urinary incontinence. Upon further inquiry, she reports that the incontinence is most severe after coughing or sneezing. She has given birth to four children, all through vaginal delivery, with the most recent being 35 years ago. These symptoms have been getting worse over the past eight weeks.
      What tests should be requested based on this woman's presentation?

      Your Answer: Urinary flow rate assessment

      Correct Answer: Urinalysis

      Explanation:

      When dealing with patients who have urinary incontinence, it is important to rule out the possibility of a urinary tract infection or diabetes mellitus. This is particularly relevant for a 64-year-old woman who is experiencing this issue. While stress incontinence may be the cause, a urinalysis should be conducted to ensure that there are no underlying medical conditions that could be contributing to or exacerbating her symptoms. In cases where voiding dysfunction or overflow incontinence is suspected, a post-void residual volume test may be necessary. However, this is more commonly seen in elderly men who may have prostate issues. Cystoscopy is not typically used as a first-line investigation for women with urinary incontinence, but may be considered if bladder lesions are suspected. Urinary flow rate assessment is more commonly used in elderly men or those with neurological symptoms.

      Understanding Urinary Incontinence: Causes, Classification, and Management

      Urinary incontinence (UI) is a common condition that affects around 4-5% of the population, with elderly females being more susceptible. Several risk factors contribute to UI, including advancing age, previous pregnancy and childbirth, high body mass index, hysterectomy, and family history. UI can be classified into different types, such as overactive bladder (OAB)/urge incontinence, stress incontinence, mixed incontinence, overflow incontinence, and functional incontinence.

      Initial investigation of UI involves completing bladder diaries for at least three days, vaginal examination, urine dipstick and culture, and urodynamic studies. Management of UI depends on the predominant type of incontinence. For urge incontinence, bladder retraining and bladder stabilizing drugs such as antimuscarinics are recommended. For stress incontinence, pelvic floor muscle training and surgical procedures such as retropubic mid-urethral tape procedures may be offered. Duloxetine, a combined noradrenaline and serotonin reuptake inhibitor, may also be used as an alternative to surgery.

      In summary, understanding the causes, classification, and management of UI is crucial in providing appropriate care for patients. Early diagnosis and intervention can significantly improve the quality of life for those affected by this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 9 - You are the surgical FY1 discussing with a patient in her 50s about...

    Incorrect

    • You are the surgical FY1 discussing with a patient in her 50s about her upcoming vaginal hysterectomy with antero-posterior repair. What is a potential long-term complication of this procedure?

      Your Answer: Rectal mucosal prolapse

      Correct Answer: Vaginal vault prolapse

      Explanation:

      Long-Term Complications of Vaginal Hysterectomy

      Vaginal hysterectomy with antero-posterior repair is a common surgical procedure for women. However, it may lead to long-term complications such as enterocoele and vaginal vault prolapse. These conditions occur when the pelvic organs shift and push against the vaginal wall, causing discomfort and pain. While urinary retention may occur immediately after the surgery, it is not typically a chronic complication.

      It is important for women who undergo vaginal hysterectomy to be aware of these potential complications and to discuss them with their healthcare provider. Regular check-ups and pelvic exams can help detect any issues early on and prevent further complications. Additionally, women can take steps to reduce their risk of developing these conditions by maintaining a healthy weight, avoiding heavy lifting, and practicing pelvic floor exercises. By being proactive and informed, women can minimize the impact of long-term complications and enjoy a better quality of life after surgery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 10 - A 29-year-old woman presents with two episodes of post-coital bleeding. She reports that...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old woman presents with two episodes of post-coital bleeding. She reports that she noticed some red spotting immediately after intercourse, which settled shortly afterwards. She is on the combined oral contraceptive pill, with a regular partner, and does not use barrier contraception.
      Examination reveals a malodorous, green, frothy discharge and an erythematosus cervix with small areas of exudation. High vaginal and endocervical swabs were performed.
      Given the most likely diagnosis, which of the following is the most appropriate management?

      Your Answer: Ceftriaxone 500 mg intramuscularly, followed by 1 g of azithromycin

      Correct Answer: Metronidazole 400–500 mg twice daily for 5–7 days

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Sexually Transmitted Infections

      Sexually transmitted infections (STIs) can cause a range of symptoms in women, including post-coital bleeding, vaginal discharge, cervicitis, and more. Here are some common treatment options for STIs:

      – Metronidazole: This medication is used to treat Trichomonas vaginalis infections. Patients typically take 400-500 mg twice daily for 5-7 days. It’s important to treat the partner simultaneously and abstain from sex for at least one week.
      – Referral for colposcopy: If symptoms persist after treatment, patients may be referred for colposcopy to rule out cervical carcinoma.
      – Azithromycin or doxycycline: These medications are used to treat uncomplicated genital Chlamydia infections. Most women with a chlamydial infection remain asymptomatic.
      – Ceftriaxone and azithromycin: This combination is the treatment of choice for gonorrhoea infections. Symptoms may include increased vaginal discharge, lower abdominal pain, dyspareunia, and dysuria.
      – No treatment is required: This is not an option for symptomatic patients with T vaginalis, as it is a sexually transmitted infection that requires treatment.

      It’s important to seek medical attention if you suspect you have an STI, as early treatment can prevent complications and transmission to others.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Gynaecology (4/10) 40%
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