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  • Question 1 - A 52-year-old woman contacts her doctor reporting occasional, light menstrual cycles. She is...

    Correct

    • A 52-year-old woman contacts her doctor reporting occasional, light menstrual cycles. She is also experiencing vaginal dryness, mood swings, irritability, and night sweats, and suspects that she is going through perimenopause. However, she has read online articles that have made her concerned about the possibility of endometrial cancer. Which of the following treatments could potentially raise her risk of this condition?

      Your Answer: Oestrogen-only HRT

      Explanation:

      The menopause is a natural process that occurs when a woman’s menstrual periods stop due to decreased production of oestradiol and progesterone. While menopause can cause symptoms such as hot flashes, mood changes, and reduced libido, treatment with hormone replacement therapy (HRT) is not necessary and should be based on individual circumstances and patient choice. However, if HRT is used, it is important to note that oestrogen-only therapy can increase the risk of endometrial cancer and should only be given to women without a uterus. This is because oestrogen promotes endometrial growth, which can lead to oncogenesis. Adding progesterone to HRT can prevent this risk. Testosterone may also be used to address libido issues, but it should be prescribed under specialist guidance and can cause virilising side-effects. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) such as venlafaxine can be an alternative to HRT and are effective at managing symptoms without increasing the risk of endometrial cancer. However, SSRIs can cause side-effects such as gastrointestinal disturbances, reduced libido, and potentially life-threatening serotonin syndrome.

      Adverse Effects of Hormone Replacement Therapy

      Hormone replacement therapy (HRT) is a treatment that involves the use of a small dose of oestrogen, often combined with a progesterone in women with a uterus, to alleviate menopausal symptoms. While it can be effective in reducing symptoms such as hot flashes and vaginal dryness, HRT can also have adverse effects and potential complications.

      Some common side-effects of HRT include nausea, breast tenderness, fluid retention, and weight gain. However, there are also more serious potential complications associated with HRT. For example, the use of HRT has been linked to an increased risk of breast cancer, particularly when a progesterone is added. The Women’s Health Initiative study found a relative risk of 1.26 at 5 years of developing breast cancer with HRT use. The risk of breast cancer is also related to the duration of use, and it begins to decline when HRT is stopped.

      Another potential complication of HRT is an increased risk of endometrial cancer. Oestrogen by itself should not be given as HRT to women with a womb, as this can increase the risk of endometrial cancer. The addition of a progesterone can reduce this risk, but it is not eliminated completely. The British National Formulary states that the additional risk is eliminated if a progesterone is given continuously.

      HRT has also been associated with an increased risk of venous thromboembolism (VTE), particularly when a progesterone is added. However, transdermal HRT does not appear to increase the risk of VTE. Women who are at high risk for VTE should be referred to haematology before starting any treatment, even transdermal, according to the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE).

      Finally, HRT has been linked to an increased risk of stroke and ischaemic heart disease if taken more than 10 years after menopause. It is important for women considering HRT to discuss the potential risks and benefits with their healthcare provider and make an informed decision based on their individual circumstances.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 2 - A young woman visits you to discuss contraception. She gave birth to a...

    Correct

    • A young woman visits you to discuss contraception. She gave birth to a healthy baby girl through vaginal delivery nine months ago and is recovering well. To feed the baby, she uses a combination of breast milk and formula due to painful nipples. She was previously on the combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP) and wishes to resume it if possible. When asked about her menstrual cycle, she reveals that she had a period three weeks ago and has had unprotected sexual intercourse a few times since. What guidance should you provide her?

      Your Answer: The combined pill is not contraindicated, but she needs a pregnancy test first

      Explanation:

      If a woman requests it, the combined oral contraceptive pill can be prescribed 6 weeks after giving birth, even if she is breastfeeding. However, it is important to note that she can still become pregnant as early as day 21 postpartum. Therefore, if she has had unprotected sex during this time, a pregnancy test should be conducted before prescribing the pill.

      After giving birth, women need to use contraception after 21 days. The progesterone-only pill (POP) can be started at any time postpartum, according to the FSRH. Additional contraception should be used for the first two days after day 21. A small amount of progesterone enters breast milk, but it is not harmful to the infant. On the other hand, the combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP) is absolutely contraindicated (UKMEC 4) if breastfeeding is less than six weeks post-partum. If breastfeeding is between six weeks and six months postpartum, it is a UKMEC 2. The COCP may reduce breast milk production in lactating mothers. It should not be used in the first 21 days due to the increased venous thromboembolism risk post-partum. After day 21, additional contraception should be used for the first seven days. The intrauterine device or intrauterine system can be inserted within 48 hours of childbirth or after four weeks.

      The lactational amenorrhoea method (LAM) is 98% effective if the woman is fully breastfeeding (no supplementary feeds), amenorrhoeic, and less than six months post-partum. It is important to note that an inter-pregnancy interval of less than 12 months between childbirth and conceiving again is associated with an increased risk of preterm birth, low birth weight, and small for gestational age babies.

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      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 3 - A 16-year-old woman is admitted surgically with acute-onset lower abdominal pain. On examination,...

    Correct

    • A 16-year-old woman is admitted surgically with acute-onset lower abdominal pain. On examination, she has a tender left iliac fossa.
      Which of the following is the most appropriate next test?

      Your Answer: Pregnancy test (ß-hCG)

      Explanation:

      Investigations for Abdominal Pain in Women of Childbearing Age

      When a woman of childbearing age presents with abdominal pain, it is important to consider the possibility of gynaecological problems, including ectopic pregnancy. The first step in investigation should be to ask about the patient’s last menstrual period and sexual history, and to perform a pregnancy test measuring β-human chorionic gonadotrophin (β-hCG) levels in urine or serum.

      Proctoscopy is unlikely to be beneficial in the absence of specific gastrointestinal symptoms. Ultrasonography may be useful at a later stage to assess the location and severity of an ectopic pregnancy, but transvaginal ultrasound is preferable to transcutaneous abdominal ultrasound.

      Specialist gynaecological opinion should only be sought once there is a high index of suspicion for a particular diagnosis. Laparoscopy is not indicated at this point, as less invasive tests are likely to yield the diagnosis. Exploratory laparoscopy may be considered if other investigations are inconclusive.

      Investigating Abdominal Pain in Women of Childbearing Age

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 4 - Sarah is a 28-year-old woman who underwent cervical cancer screening 12 months ago...

    Incorrect

    • Sarah is a 28-year-old woman who underwent cervical cancer screening 12 months ago and the result showed positive for high-risk human papillomavirus (hrHPV) with a negative cytology report.

      She has now undergone a repeat smear and the result is once again positive for hrHPV with a negative cytology report.

      What would be the most suitable course of action to take next?

      Your Answer: Refer for colposcopy

      Correct Answer: Repeat sample in 12 months

      Explanation:

      According to NICE guidelines for cervical cancer screening, if the first repeat smear at 12 months is still positive for high-risk human papillomavirus (hrHPV), the next step is to repeat the smear 12 months later (i.e. at 24 months). If the patient remains hrHPV positive but cytology negative at 12 months, they should have another HPV test in a further 12 months. If the patient becomes hrHPV negative at 24 months, they can return to routine recall. However, if they remain hrHPV positive, cytology negative or inadequate at 24 months, they should be referred to colposcopy.

      The cervical cancer screening program has evolved to include HPV testing, which allows for further risk stratification. A negative hrHPV result means a return to normal recall, while a positive result requires cytological examination. Abnormal cytology results lead to colposcopy, while normal cytology results require a repeat test at 12 months. Inadequate samples require a repeat within 3 months, and two consecutive inadequate samples lead to colposcopy. Treatment for CIN typically involves LLETZ or cryotherapy. Individuals who have been treated for CIN should be invited for a test of cure repeat cervical sample 6 months after treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 5 - A 19-year-old female contacts her GP clinic with concerns about forgetting to take...

    Correct

    • A 19-year-old female contacts her GP clinic with concerns about forgetting to take her combined oral contraceptive pill yesterday. She is currently in the second week of the packet and had unprotected sex the previous night. The patient is calling early in the morning, her usual pill-taking time, but has not taken today's pill yet due to uncertainty about what to do. What guidance should be provided to this patient regarding the missed pill?

      Your Answer: Take two pills today, no further precautions needed

      Explanation:

      If one COCP pill is missed, the individual should take the missed pill as soon as possible, but no further action is necessary. They should also take the next pill at the usual time, even if that means taking two pills in one day. Emergency contraception is not required in this situation, as only one pill was missed. However, if two or more pills are missed in week 3 of a packet, it is recommended to omit the pill-free interval and use barrier contraception for 7 days.

      Missed Pills in Combined Oral Contraceptive Pill

      When taking a combined oral contraceptive (COC) pill containing 30-35 micrograms of ethinylestradiol, it is important to know what to do if a pill is missed. The Faculty of Sexual and Reproductive Healthcare (FSRH) has updated their recommendations in recent years. If one pill is missed at any time in the cycle, the woman should take the last pill even if it means taking two pills in one day and then continue taking pills daily, one each day. No additional contraceptive protection is needed in this case.

      However, if two or more pills are missed, the woman should take the last pill even if it means taking two pills in one day, leave any earlier missed pills, and then continue taking pills daily, one each day. In this case, the woman should use condoms or abstain from sex until she has taken pills for 7 days in a row. If pills are missed in week 1 (Days 1-7), emergency contraception should be considered if she had unprotected sex in the pill-free interval or in week 1. If pills are missed in week 2 (Days 8-14), after seven consecutive days of taking the COC there is no need for emergency contraception.

      If pills are missed in week 3 (Days 15-21), the woman should finish the pills in her current pack and start a new pack the next day, thus omitting the pill-free interval. Theoretically, women would be protected if they took the COC in a pattern of 7 days on, 7 days off. It is important to follow these guidelines to ensure the effectiveness of the COC in preventing pregnancy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 6 - Which of these patients have an absolute contraindication for the COCP? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of these patients have an absolute contraindication for the COCP?

      Your Answer: 38-year-old smoker, smoking 10 cigarettes/day

      Correct Answer: 25-year-old breastfeeding at 4 weeks postpartum

      Explanation:

      1: If you are over 35 years old and smoke at least 15 cigarettes a day, smoking is not recommended.
      2: A BMI over 35 kg/m² should be evaluated by a medical professional, but it is not considered an absolute contraindication.
      3: A history of ectopic pregnancies does not affect the use of COCP.
      4: It is not recommended to use COCP within 6 weeks after giving birth.
      5: There is no evidence linking the use of COCP to carpal tunnel syndrome.

      The decision to prescribe the combined oral contraceptive pill is now based on the UK Medical Eligibility Criteria (UKMEC), which categorizes potential contraindications and cautions on a four-point scale. UKMEC 1 indicates no restrictions for use, while UKMEC 2 suggests that the benefits outweigh the risks. UKMEC 3 indicates that the disadvantages may outweigh the advantages, and UKMEC 4 represents an unacceptable health risk. Examples of UKMEC 3 conditions include controlled hypertension, a family history of thromboembolic disease in first-degree relatives under 45 years old, and current gallbladder disease. Examples of UKMEC 4 conditions include a history of thromboembolic disease or thrombogenic mutation, breast cancer, and uncontrolled hypertension. Diabetes mellitus diagnosed over 20 years ago is classified as UKMEC 3 or 4 depending on severity. In 2016, Breastfeeding between 6 weeks and 6 months postpartum was changed from UKMEC 3 to UKMEC 2.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 7 - A 35-year-old woman without prior pregnancies is referred to a fertility clinic after...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old woman without prior pregnancies is referred to a fertility clinic after attempting to conceive for 12 months. Upon initial examination, it is determined that she is ovulating and her partner's semen analysis is normal. However, due to a history of menorrhagia, a transvaginal ultrasound is conducted which reveals a significant uterine fibroid causing distortion in the uterine cavity.

      What would be the most suitable course of action to take next?

      Your Answer: Refer for myomectomy

      Explanation:

      The most effective treatment for large fibroids that are causing fertility problems is myomectomy, especially if the patient wishes to conceive in the future. Fibroids may not cause any symptoms, but they can lead to menorrhagia, bloating, dysuria, and sub-fertility. Medical therapies like anti-progestogens and gonadotrophin-releasing hormone agonists may temporarily reduce fibroid size, but they can also interfere with fertility. Surgical treatment, specifically myomectomy, is necessary in cases where fibroids are distorting the uterine cavity and affecting fertility. Myomectomy has been shown to improve fertility outcomes. The combined oral contraceptive pill may help reduce bleeding associated with fibroids, but it does not affect fibroid size and is not suitable for patients with sub-fertility due to fibroids. Endometrial ablation destroys the endometrial lining and reduces menstrual bleeding but is not appropriate for patients who desire fertility. Uterine artery embolisation is only recommended for patients who do not want to conceive as it can lead to obstetric risks such as placental abnormalities.

      Understanding Uterine Fibroids

      Uterine fibroids are non-cancerous growths that develop in the uterus. They are more common in black women and are thought to occur in around 20% of white women in their later reproductive years. Fibroids are usually asymptomatic, but they can cause menorrhagia, which can lead to iron-deficiency anaemia. Other symptoms include lower abdominal pain, bloating, and urinary symptoms. Fibroids may also cause subfertility.

      Diagnosis is usually made through transvaginal ultrasound. Asymptomatic fibroids do not require treatment, but periodic monitoring is recommended. Menorrhagia secondary to fibroids can be managed with various treatments, including the levonorgestrel intrauterine system, NSAIDs, tranexamic acid, and hormonal therapies.

      Medical treatment to shrink or remove fibroids may include GnRH agonists or ulipristal acetate, although the latter is not currently recommended due to concerns about liver toxicity. Surgical options include myomectomy, hysteroscopic endometrial ablation, hysterectomy, and uterine artery embolization.

      Fibroids generally regress after menopause, but complications such as subfertility and iron-deficiency anaemia can occur. Red degeneration, which is haemorrhage into the tumour, is a common complication during pregnancy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 8 - A 70-year-old smoker presents to the Gynaecology clinic following a general practitioner’s referral....

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old smoker presents to the Gynaecology clinic following a general practitioner’s referral. Her presenting complaint is long-standing vulval irritation and itching. She has a past medical history of lichen sclerosus. On examination, there is an obvious growth in the vulval area. A biopsy is taken and sent for pathological analysis.
      What is the most common cause of vulval carcinoma?

      Your Answer: Bartholin’s gland carcinoma

      Correct Answer: Squamous cell carcinoma

      Explanation:

      Types of Vulval Cancer: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Treatment

      Vulval cancer is a rare type of cancer that affects the external female genitalia. There are different types of vulval cancer, each with its own set of symptoms, risk factors, and treatment options. Here are some of the most common types of vulval cancer:

      Squamous cell carcinoma: This is the most common type of vulval cancer, accounting for about 85% of cases. It usually affects women over 60 who smoke or have a weakened immune system. Symptoms include vulval irritation or itching, and as the disease progresses, pain and discharge. Squamous cell carcinoma can be cured if caught early, and treatment usually involves surgical excision.

      Basal cell carcinoma: This type of vulval cancer is rare and usually occurs in sun-exposed areas of the skin. It is often treated with surgery.

      Sarcoma: Sarcoma is a rare type of vulval cancer that can occur at any age, including childhood. Treatment usually involves surgery and radiation therapy.

      Bartholin’s gland carcinoma: This is a rare cause of vulval cancer that affects the Bartholin glands, which are two small mucous-producing glands on either side of the vaginal opening. Risk factors include HPV infection and Paget’s disease of the vulva. It is often diagnosed late, as it is often confused with Bartholin gland cyst, which is a benign condition.

      Malignant melanoma: This is a rare type of vulval cancer that accounts for about 5% of cases. Symptoms include itching, bleeding, and an irregular border. Treatment usually involves surgery and chemotherapy.

      If you experience any symptoms of vulval cancer, such as itching, pain, or bleeding, it is important to see a doctor as soon as possible. Early diagnosis and treatment can improve your chances of a full recovery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 9 - A 14-year-old girl is brought to the clinic by her mother. She reports...

    Correct

    • A 14-year-old girl is brought to the clinic by her mother. She reports that her daughter has not yet had her first period, although her two sisters both experienced menarche at the age of 12. She also reports a history of red-green colour blindness and an inability to smell. On physical examination, there is little axillary and pubic hair, and the patient is noted to be Tanner stage II.
      Which one of the following is most likely to be found in this patient?

      Your Answer: ↓ GnRH, ↓ LH, ↓ FSH, ↓ oestrogen

      Explanation:

      Understanding Hormonal Patterns in Hypogonadism: A Guide to Diagnosis

      Hypogonadism is a condition that affects the production of hormones necessary for sexual development. One form of hypogonadism is Kallmann syndrome, which is characterized by delayed or absent puberty and an inability to smell. This condition is caused by a defect in the release or action of gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH), leading to gonadal failure. As a result, we expect to see reduced levels of GnRH, luteinising hormone (LH), follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH), and oestrogen in affected individuals.

      Secondary hypogonadism, on the other hand, is caused by a problem in the pituitary gland. This can result in increased levels of GnRH, but decreased levels of LH, FSH, and oestrogen.

      Primary hypogonadism, such as in Klinefelter’s and Turner syndrome, is characterized by problems with the gonads. In these cases, we expect to see increased levels of GnRH, LH, and FSH, but decreased levels of oestrogen.

      Ectopic or unregulated oestrogen production can also cause hormonal imbalances, leading to decreased levels of GnRH, LH, and FSH, but increased levels of oestrogen.

      It is important to understand these hormonal patterns in order to diagnose and treat hypogonadism effectively. By identifying the underlying cause of the condition, healthcare professionals can provide appropriate interventions to improve sexual development and overall health.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 10 - A 20-year-old female patient visits your clinic after having unprotected sex 3 days...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old female patient visits your clinic after having unprotected sex 3 days ago. She is concerned about the possibility of getting pregnant as she is not using any form of contraception. The patient has a medical history of severe asthma and major depression, and is currently taking sertraline 25mg once daily, salbutamol inhaler 200 micrograms as needed, beclomethasone 400 micrograms twice daily, and formoterol 12 micrograms twice daily. She is currently on day 26 of a 35-day menstrual cycle. What is the most appropriate course of action to prevent pregnancy in this patient?

      Your Answer: Levonorgestrel

      Correct Answer: Intra-uterine device

      Explanation:

      Emergency contraception is available in the UK through two methods: emergency hormonal contraception and intrauterine device (IUD). Emergency hormonal contraception includes two types of pills: levonorgestrel and ulipristal. Levonorgestrel works by stopping ovulation and inhibiting implantation, while ulipristal primarily inhibits ovulation. Levonorgestrel should be taken as soon as possible after unprotected sexual intercourse, within 72 hours, and is 84% effective when used within this time frame. The dose should be doubled for those with a BMI over 26 or weight over 70kg. Ulipristal should be taken within 120 hours of intercourse and may reduce the effectiveness of hormonal contraception. The most effective method of emergency contraception is the copper IUD, which can be inserted within 5 days of unprotected intercourse or up to 5 days after the likely ovulation date. It may inhibit fertilization or implantation and is 99% effective regardless of where it is used in the cycle. Prophylactic antibiotics may be given if the patient is at high risk of sexually transmitted infection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Gynaecology (6/10) 60%
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